All questions of May 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Arab League? 
  • a)
    Promoting political cooperation among Arab countries 
  • b)
    Coordinating military defenses among Arab countries 
  • c)
    Facilitating cultural exchanges between Arab countries 
  • d)
    Enhancing economic integration within the Arab region
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

About the Arab League:
  • It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa. Formed in Cairo on March 22, 1945, it aims to promote Arab interests and coordinate political, cultural, economic, and social programs among its members. The League also seeks to settle disputes among member states and provide mutual military support. Its headquarters is in Cairo, Egypt, and its official language is Arabic. The League has 22 members, with founding members including Egypt, Syria, and Iraq. Four nations have observer status: Brazil, Eritrea, India, and Venezuela.

Which of the following statements about oxytocin is true? 
  • a)
    It is produced by the adrenal glands. 
  • b)
    It is primarily involved in regulating blood pressure. 
  • c)
    It is released during childbirth and breastfeeding. 
  • d)
    It is a hormone that stimulates hunger.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Srishti Nair answered
Importance of Oxytocin
Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. One of the key functions of oxytocin is its involvement in childbirth and breastfeeding.
Release during Childbirth and Breastfeeding
During childbirth, oxytocin is released in large amounts to stimulate contractions of the uterus, which helps in the delivery of the baby. This hormone also plays a vital role in initiating and maintaining breastfeeding by promoting the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Impact on Social Bonding
Apart from its role in childbirth and breastfeeding, oxytocin is also known as the "love hormone" or "bonding hormone" because it is associated with social bonding, trust, and empathy. Oxytocin is released in response to positive social interactions, such as hugging or cuddling, and helps strengthen relationships between individuals.
Conclusion
In conclusion, oxytocin is primarily released during childbirth and breastfeeding, playing a crucial role in these processes. Additionally, it also contributes to social bonding and emotional well-being.

Consider the following statements regarding Nor’westers:
  1. Nor’westers are most commonly observed during the pre-monsoon months, particularly from March to May.
  2. These thunderstorms predominantly affect the coastal regions of India, especially the western coast.
  3. Nor’westers play a crucial role in the agriculture of eastern India by providing much-needed rain for crops such as jute and rice.
  4. The primary cause of Nor’westers is the interaction between hot and humid air from the Bay of Bengal and cold, dry air from the northwest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    1 and 3 only 
  • c)
    1, 3 and 4 only 
  • d)
    2, 3, and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1:
- Nor’westers are indeed most commonly observed during the pre-monsoon months, particularly from March to May. These thunderstorms are characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall.

Statement 2:
- This statement is incorrect. Nor’westers predominantly affect the eastern regions of India, particularly West Bengal, Bihar, and Jharkhand. These thunderstorms are not limited to the coastal regions and can impact inland areas as well.

Statement 3:
- Nor’westers do play a crucial role in the agriculture of eastern India by providing much-needed rain for crops such as jute and rice. The rainfall from these thunderstorms helps in irrigation and crop growth during the pre-monsoon season.

Statement 4:
- The primary cause of Nor’westers is indeed the interaction between hot and humid air from the Bay of Bengal and cold, dry air from the northwest. This contrast in air masses leads to the formation of thunderstorms with strong winds and precipitation.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only.

The “Father of the White Revolution in India” significantly contributed to which of the following projects? 
  • a)
    Green Revolution 
  • b)
    Operation Flood 
  • c)
    Blue Revolution 
  • d)
    Golden Revolution
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Operation Flood:
Operation Flood was the world's largest agricultural development program that aimed to transform India from a milk-deficient nation into the largest milk producer in the world. The program was initiated by Verghese Kurien, who is often referred to as the "Father of the White Revolution in India" due to his significant contributions to the dairy industry in the country.

Contribution:
Verghese Kurien played a crucial role in the success of Operation Flood by spearheading the establishment of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and the creation of the Amul brand. Through his efforts, Kurien helped organize dairy farmers into cooperatives, improve milk production and distribution systems, and empower rural communities. His innovative approach revolutionized the dairy sector in India and led to a significant increase in milk production and dairy farmer incomes.

Impact:
Operation Flood not only transformed India into the world's largest milk producer but also had a lasting impact on the country's dairy industry. It helped alleviate poverty in rural areas, empowered farmers, and improved food security. The success of Operation Flood served as a model for agricultural development programs in other developing countries.
In conclusion, Verghese Kurien's pioneering efforts in the dairy sector, particularly through Operation Flood, have left a lasting legacy and continue to benefit millions of dairy farmers and consumers in India.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Earth’s magnetic north pole is the point on the Earth’s surface where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically downwards.
  2. The magnetic north pole is located at the same position as the geographic North Pole.
  3. The magnetic south pole is the point on the Earth’s surface where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically upwards.
  4. The current magnetic north pole is moving towards Russia at a rate of approximately 10 kilometers per year.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement Analysis:
- The Earth’s magnetic north pole is the point on the Earth’s surface where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically downwards: This statement is incorrect. The Earth's magnetic north pole is actually where the geomagnetic field lines emerge from the Earth and are directed vertically upwards.
- The magnetic north pole is located at the same position as the geographic North Pole: This statement is correct. The magnetic north pole is currently located near the geographic North Pole.
- The magnetic south pole is the point on the Earth’s surface where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically upwards: This statement is incorrect. The magnetic south pole is where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically downwards.
- The current magnetic north pole is moving towards Russia at a rate of approximately 10 kilometers per year: This statement is correct. The magnetic north pole is indeed moving towards Russia at a rate of about 10 kilometers per year.
Therefore, only two of the statements are correct, which makes option B the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Arab League was founded in 1945 with the primary goal of fostering economic cooperation among its member states.
  2. The headquarters of the Arab League is located in Cairo, Egypt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Iyer answered
Correct Answer: b) 2 only
The correct statement is the second one, which states that the headquarters of the Arab League is located in Cairo, Egypt. Here is a detailed explanation:

Arab League:
- The Arab League was indeed founded in 1945, but its primary goal was not just fostering economic cooperation. The organization was established to promote political, economic, cultural, and social cooperation among its member states.
- The Arab League consists of 22 member states from the Arab world, spanning across Northern Africa and the Middle East.
- The headquarters of the Arab League is located in Cairo, Egypt. This headquarters serves as the central hub for the organization's activities and meetings.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. The Arab League plays a significant role in addressing regional challenges and promoting unity among Arab countries.

Which of the following is the primary objective of the Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI)? 
  • a)
    To monitor the use of drugs in India 
  • b)
    To ensure the safety of medical devices in India 
  • c)
    To track the distribution of vaccines in India 
  • d)
    To promote the development of new medical technologies in India
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Joshi answered
Introduction to Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI)
The Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) is an essential initiative aimed at ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medical devices used within the country. This program is crucial for protecting public health and enhancing the regulatory framework concerning medical devices.
Primary Objective
- The primary objective of MvPI is to ensure the safety of medical devices in India.
Key Focus Areas
- Monitoring Adverse Events: MvPI is responsible for tracking and analyzing adverse events and incidents related to medical devices, allowing for timely interventions and regulatory actions.
- Data Collection: The program collects data on the performance and safety of medical devices, facilitating a better understanding of their impact on patient health.
- Regulatory Compliance: By monitoring medical devices, MvPI ensures compliance with safety standards and regulations, thereby maintaining the integrity of healthcare services.
Importance of MvPI
- Patient Safety: The MvPI directly contributes to patient safety by identifying and addressing potential risks associated with medical devices.
- Informed Decision-Making: The data gathered through the program supports healthcare professionals and regulatory authorities in making informed decisions regarding the use of medical devices.
- Continuous Improvement: MvPI fosters an environment of continuous improvement in the design, manufacture, and use of medical devices, leading to enhanced healthcare outcomes.
Conclusion
In summary, the Materiovigilance Programme of India primarily aims to ensure the safety of medical devices, making it a critical component of healthcare regulation and patient safety in the country.

The power to decide an election petition is vested in the 
  • a)
    Supreme Court of India 
  • b)
    Election Tribunals 
  • c)
    Election Commission of India 
  • d)
    High Courts
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
  • Article 329(b) of the Constitution, found in Part XV alongside articles 324-329, governs electoral matters.
  • Article 324 grants the Election Commission powers to oversee elections, while Article 329 addresses the judiciary’s role in electoral affairs.
  • Article 329(a) prohibits the judiciary from challenging laws regarding electoral district boundaries or seat allocation.
  • Article 329(b), as amended by the Constitution (19th Amendment) Act, 1966, mandates that elections can only be questioned through an election petition presented according to laws made by the appropriate Legislature.
  • The Representation of the People Act, 1951, further establishes the authority of high courts to hear and decide on election petitions, with Supreme Court review possible.
  • In past rulings, the Supreme Court clarified that “election” in Article 329(b) encompasses the entire electoral process, from notification to result declaration, and barred judicial interference at intermediary stages.

Assertion (A): Constructed wetlands are more cost-effective than traditional wastewater treatment methods.
Reason (R): Constructed wetlands require significant land space, posing challenges in urban settings.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
  • b)
    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
  • c)
    A is true but R is false
  • d)
    A is false but R is true
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Cost-Effectiveness of Constructed Wetlands:
- Constructed wetlands are indeed generally more cost-effective than traditional wastewater treatment methods.
- They are natural systems that use vegetation, soils, and natural processes to treat wastewater, which can be more sustainable and affordable compared to conventional treatment plants.

Land Space Requirement:
- While constructed wetlands are cost-effective, they do require significant land space to be effective.
- This land requirement can pose challenges in urban settings where space is limited and valuable.
- As a result, the need for land space can sometimes limit the feasibility of implementing constructed wetlands in densely populated areas.

Correct Answer Justification:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true in this case.
- Constructed wetlands being more cost-effective is supported by various studies and examples.
- The challenge of land space requirement in urban settings is a valid concern when considering the implementation of constructed wetlands.
- However, the reason is not necessarily the sole explanation for the assertion, as cost-effectiveness also plays a significant role in the comparison between constructed wetlands and traditional treatment methods.

With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
  1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
  2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
  4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Ahuja answered
Overview of the Tea Board in India
The Tea Board of India plays a crucial role in the regulation and promotion of tea cultivation and trade in the country. Let's evaluate the statements provided:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- Correct: The Tea Board was established under the Tea Act of 1953, making it a statutory body responsible for the development and regulation of tea in India.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- Incorrect: The Tea Board operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. This highlights its role in trade and commerce rather than solely agriculture.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- Incorrect: The Head Office of the Tea Board is located in Kolkata, which is a historical center for tea production in India. Bengaluru is not the correct location.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
- Incorrect: The Tea Board has several overseas offices, but they are primarily located in key tea markets such as London and other international locations. Dubai and Moscow are not recognized as official overseas offices of the Tea Board.
Conclusion
- Only the first statement regarding the Tea Board being a statutory body is correct. Therefore, out of the four statements, only one is accurate.
Thus, the answer to how many of the statements are correct is option 'a) Only one'.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Inheritance Tax is a tax levied on the inheritance received by beneficiaries after the death of the owner of the assets.
  2. Inheritance Tax only applies to monetary inheritance and does not include non-monetary assets like property or investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Das answered
Understanding Inheritance Tax
Inheritance Tax is a critical topic to understand, especially concerning the transfer of wealth after an individual's death. Let's analyze the two statements provided:
Statement 1: Inheritance Tax is a tax levied on the inheritance received by beneficiaries after the death of the owner of the assets.
- This statement is correct.
- Inheritance Tax is indeed imposed on the value of the assets passed on to beneficiaries from the deceased person.
- The tax is calculated based on the total value of the estate, which includes all types of assets.
Statement 2: Inheritance Tax only applies to monetary inheritance and does not include non-monetary assets like property or investments.
- This statement is incorrect.
- Inheritance Tax encompasses all forms of inheritance, not just monetary assets.
- Non-monetary assets such as real estate, investments, and personal belongings are also included in the taxable estate.
- Therefore, the tax applies broadly to all assets transferred to the heirs.
Conclusion
The correct answer is option 'A' because:
- Statement 1 is true.
- Statement 2 is false as it incorrectly limits the scope of the assets subject to Inheritance Tax.
Understanding these nuances is essential for effective estate planning and financial management.

Consider the following statements about International Telecommunication Union :
  1. It is the United Nations specialized agency.
  2. It is the oldest of the UN’s 15 specialized agencies.
  3. It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two (
  • c)
    All three (
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Baishali Patel answered
International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that focuses on information and communication technologies. Let's analyze the given statements:

Statement 1: It is the United Nations specialized agency.
- This statement is correct. ITU is indeed a specialized agency of the United Nations, working towards the development and coordination of international telecommunications.

Statement 2: It is the oldest of the UN's 15 specialized agencies.
- This statement is correct. ITU is the oldest specialized agency of the United Nations, having been established in 1865.

Statement 3: It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.
- This statement is correct. One of the key functions of ITU is to allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits to ensure effective and interference-free use of the radio frequency spectrum.
Therefore, all three statements about the International Telecommunication Union are correct. ITU plays a crucial role in promoting international cooperation in the field of telecommunications and information and communication technologies.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
  2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
  3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhaskar Mehta answered
Analysis of the Statements
To understand the correctness of the statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI), let's evaluate each one:
Statement 1: Weightage of food in CPI vs. WPI
- The weightage of food in the CPI is indeed higher than in the WPI.
- CPI reflects the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services, which includes a significant proportion of food items.
- WPI, on the other hand, focuses on the prices of wholesale goods and has a lower weight for food items.
- Conclusion: This statement is correct.
Statement 2: WPI and prices of services
- WPI primarily measures the price changes of goods at the wholesale level and does not include services.
- CPI, however, includes both goods and services, reflecting the overall cost of living for consumers.
- Conclusion: This statement is also correct.
Statement 3: RBI's adopted measure for inflation
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) traditionally relied on WPI for inflation measurement.
- However, in recent years, the RBI has shifted its focus to CPI as the key measure for assessing inflation and formulating monetary policy.
- Conclusion: This statement is incorrect.
Final Assessment
- Out of the three statements, two are correct (Statements 1 and 2), while one is incorrect (Statement 3).
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Only two statements are correct.

Which of the following statements about the ‘Hague Convention’ of UNESCO is true? 
  • a)
    The Hague Convention aims to regulate maritime navigation and prevent conflicts over territorial waters. 
  • b)
    The Hague Convention addresses issues related to international trade and tariffs on agricultural products. 
  • c)
    The Hague Convention primarily focuses on the protection of cultural heritage during armed conflicts. 
  • d)
    The Hague Convention is concerned with the establishment of diplomatic relations between nations.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: UNESCO is commemorating the 70th anniversary of the Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in Armed Conflict
  • The Convention is the first legal framework solely dedicated to safeguarding movable and immovable heritage. It shields cultural property during both peace and conflict. With 135 member states, including India, the Convention and its 1954 and 1999 Protocols aim to protect cultural treasures, with the latter introducing the concept of Enhanced Protection for Cultural Properties.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Explosives Act of 1884 was enacted during the British colonial era.
  2. The new Explosives Bill 2024 proposes stricter penalties for regulatory breaches.
  3. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) put forward the draft bill.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrita Saha answered
Explanation:

The Explosives Act of 1884 was enacted during the British colonial era:
This statement is correct. The Explosives Act of 1884 was indeed enacted during the British colonial era to regulate the manufacture, possession, use, sale, transportation, import, and export of explosives in India.

The new Explosives Bill 2024 proposes stricter penalties for regulatory breaches:
This statement is correct. The new Explosives Bill 2024 does propose stricter penalties for regulatory breaches related to explosives. This is aimed at enhancing safety measures and ensuring compliance with regulations.

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) put forward the draft bill:
This statement is correct. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is responsible for proposing the draft bill related to explosives regulation.
Therefore, all three statements given above are correct. The Explosives Act of 1884 was enacted during the British colonial era, the new Explosives Bill 2024 proposes stricter penalties for regulatory breaches, and the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) put forward the draft bill.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
  1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
  2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
  3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding NEER and REER in the Indian Economy
To evaluate the correctness of the statements regarding Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER), let’s break them down:
Statement 1: Increase in NEER indicates appreciation of rupee
- This statement is correct.
- NEER reflects the value of a currency against a basket of other currencies. An increase in NEER signifies that the rupee has appreciated relative to other currencies.
Statement 2: Increase in REER indicates improvement in trade competitiveness
- This statement is incorrect.
- REER accounts for inflation differences between countries. An increase in REER suggests that a country's goods are becoming more expensive relative to those of other countries, thus reducing trade competitiveness.
Statement 3: Increasing domestic inflation relative to other countries causes divergence between NEER and REER
- This statement is correct.
- If domestic inflation rises faster than inflation in trading partner countries, NEER may remain stable or even appreciate, while REER will decline. This divergence reflects a loss of competitiveness due to relatively higher domestic prices.
Conclusion
- Two statements (1 and 3) are correct while one (2) is not. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', indicating that only two statements are correct.
Understanding these nuances is crucial for analyzing currency dynamics and their impact on trade and the economy.

Article 21 in the Constitution of India is related to: 
  • a)
    Right to Equality 
  • b)
    Right to Freedom of Religion 
  • c)
    Protection of Life and Personal Liberty 
  • d)
    Right against Exploitation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every citizen. It is considered one of the most fundamental rights provided by the Constitution and is known as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution. Here is an explanation of this crucial article:
Life
- Article 21 ensures the right to life, which includes the right to live with human dignity.
- It protects individuals from arbitrary actions of the state that may endanger their life.
Personal Liberty
- Article 21 also safeguards personal liberty, ensuring that no person is deprived of their liberty except according to procedures established by law.
- It protects individuals from unlawful detention or imprisonment.
Significance
- The protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is considered essential for the existence of a democratic society.
- It acts as a safeguard against any form of arbitrary action by the state or its authorities.
- The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively, expanding its scope to include various rights such as the right to clean environment, right to privacy, right to health, etc.
Conclusion
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is a cornerstone of the fundamental rights provided to every citizen. It ensures the protection of life and personal liberty, safeguarding individuals from arbitrary actions and ensuring that their dignity and freedom are respected.

With reference to Soil nailing, consider the following statements:
  1. Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations.
  2. Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability.
  3. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to enhance its strength.
  4. Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Correct Statements about Soil Nailing:
Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations.
- Soil nailing is indeed a commonly used method to increase the stability of slopes and excavations by reinforcing the soil.
Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability.
- This statement is incorrect. Soil nails are usually installed at an angle, typically ranging from 10 to 30 degrees from the horizontal, to provide better stability.
The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to enhance its strength.
- This statement is correct. Soil nailing involves inserting steel bars, tubes, or other reinforcing elements into the soil to improve its strength and prevent slope failure.
Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content.
- This statement is incorrect. Soil nailing can be used in various soil types, including soft soils, hard soils, and soils with different moisture contents. It is chosen based on the specific requirements of the project and the soil conditions.
Therefore, only the second and third statements are correct regarding soil nailing.

Consider the following statements regarding Urban heat island.
  1. An urban heat island is experienced when certain areas within a city experience higher heat load than surrounding areas on the same day.
  2. It is a local and temporary phenomenon.
  3. Construction of high-rise buildings rather than two storey building helps in reducing the Urban heat island.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Verma answered
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1:
An urban heat island is experienced when certain areas within a city experience higher heat load than surrounding areas on the same day.
- Correctness: This statement is correct. Urban heat islands occur due to the increased absorption and retention of heat in urban areas compared to their rural surroundings.
Statement 2:
It is a local and temporary phenomenon.
- Correctness: This statement is incorrect. Urban heat islands are not temporary; they are long-term phenomena caused by human activities like urbanization and industrialization.
Statement 3:
Construction of high-rise buildings rather than two storey building helps in reducing the Urban heat island.
- Correctness: This statement is correct. High-rise buildings create more shade, reducing the amount of sunlight reaching the ground and lowering temperatures compared to low-rise buildings.
Conclusion:
Out of the three statements provided, only statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as urban heat islands are persistent rather than temporary phenomena. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: Only two.

Which of the following statements about ‘Direct Air Capture and Storage’ (DACS) is true? 
  • a)
    DACS is a technology solely used for capturing carbon dioxide emissions from industrial sources. 
  • b)
    DACS involves the extraction of carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere and its subsequent storage or utilization. 
  • c)
    DACS is primarily focused on trapping methane emissions from landfills and agricultural activities. 
  • d)
    DACS is a process that solely relies on natural processes to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • Context: The world’s largest Direct Air Capture and Storage (DAC+S) plant, Mammoth, has commenced operations in Iceland.
    • This Swiss company Climeworks’ second commercial DAC+S facility surpasses its predecessor, Orca, in size.
  • Direct Air Capture and Storage (DAC+S) is a technology designed to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) directly from the atmosphere at any location. It is a form of Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) technology, distinct from carbon capture methods typically carried out at the point of emissions. The captured CO2 can then be permanently stored in deep geological formations or utilized for various applications. DAC+S plants aim to contribute to efforts to reduce CO2 levels in the atmosphere, addressing climate change concerns. ‘

What best characterizes the concept of “entrenched inflation”? 
  • a)
    A temporary increase in prices due to seasonal fluctuations in demand. 
  • b)
    Persistent and sustained rise in the general price level of goods and services over a prolonged period. 
  • c)
    An abrupt and short-lived spike in inflation caused by external shocks to the economy. 
  • d)
    Fluctuations in prices resulting from changes in consumer preferences and tastes.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Nair answered
Understanding Entrenched Inflation
Entrenched inflation refers to a situation where inflation becomes a persistent and sustained issue within an economy. This concept is crucial for understanding long-term economic conditions and their impact on consumers, businesses, and policymakers.
Key Characteristics of Entrenched Inflation:
- Persistent Price Increases:
Entrenched inflation is characterized by a continuous rise in the general price level of goods and services over an extended period. Unlike temporary inflation spikes, entrenched inflation indicates a systemic issue within the economy.
- Expectations of Future Inflation:
When inflation is entrenched, businesses and consumers begin to expect ongoing price increases. This expectation can lead to a self-fulfilling cycle where businesses raise prices preemptively, and workers demand higher wages to keep up with the rising cost of living.
- Impact on Economic Stability:
Sustained inflation can erode purchasing power, reducing consumer spending and potentially leading to economic stagnation. It complicates monetary policy as central banks may struggle to control inflation without stifling economic growth.
- Difficulties in Economic Management:
Policymakers face challenges in addressing entrenched inflation, as simply raising interest rates may not be sufficient. A holistic approach may be needed to tackle the underlying causes, which could include supply chain issues, labor market dynamics, and fiscal policies.
In summary, entrenched inflation is not a fleeting phenomenon but a long-lasting challenge that requires careful management and strategic interventions to stabilize the economy.

What is the primary objective of Project ISHAN initiated by the Indian government? 
  • a)
    To provide clean drinking water to rural communities. 
  • b)
    To make air traffic operations more efficient to handle more capacity. 
  • c)
    To promote renewable energy sources. 
  • d)
    To improve agricultural productivity through advanced technology.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Singh answered
Overview of Project ISHAN
Project ISHAN, initiated by the Indian government, primarily focuses on enhancing the efficiency of air traffic operations. This initiative is crucial for managing the increasing air traffic in India, ensuring safety and reliability while optimizing the overall capacity of the nation's airspace.
Objectives of Project ISHAN
- Enhancing Air Traffic Management
The project aims to implement advanced air traffic management systems that will streamline operations, reducing delays and improving the flow of air traffic.
- Capacity Handling
With the rise in air travel demand, Project ISHAN seeks to increase the capacity of airports and airspace without compromising safety standards.
- Utilizing Technology
Incorporating the latest technologies such as automated systems and real-time data analytics, Project ISHAN will facilitate better decision-making for air traffic controllers.
- Safety and Security
The project also emphasizes improving safety protocols and security measures in air traffic operations, ensuring a secure environment for passengers and air carriers.
Importance of Project ISHAN
- Support Economic Growth
With the aviation sector being a significant contributor to economic development, enhancing air traffic operations will support trade and tourism.
- Global Standards
By improving operational efficiency, India aims to align its air traffic management systems with international standards, fostering global connectivity.
In summary, Project ISHAN is a strategic initiative aimed at making air traffic operations in India more efficient, thereby handling increased capacity and ensuring safety in a growing aviation sector.

Consider the following statements about Salmonella :
  1. It is a virus.
  2. Its infection is typically transmitted through airborne droplets.
  3. It can cause food poisoning.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Joshi answered
Correct Answer: a) Only one



Explanation:

Salmonella:
Salmonella is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning in humans. It is not a virus, as mentioned in the statement.

Transmission:
Salmonella infection is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through airborne droplets.

Food Poisoning:
Salmonella is known to cause food poisoning in individuals who consume contaminated food or water.
Therefore, only one statement is correct, which is that Salmonella can cause food poisoning. The other two statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Mullaperiyar Dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers.
  2. The Periyar National Park is located around the dam’s reservoir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Srishti Nair answered
Explanation:

Mullaperiyar Dam:
- The statement "Mullaperiyar Dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers" is correct.
- The Mullaperiyar Dam is indeed built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers in the state of Kerala, India.
- It is a masonry gravity dam located in Thekkady, Idukki district, and is used to divert water eastwards to the Vaigai River in Tamil Nadu.

Periyar National Park:
- The statement "The Periyar National Park is located around the dam’s reservoir" is also correct.
- Periyar National Park is a protected area near Thekkady in the districts of Idukki, Kottayam, and Pathanamthitta in Kerala.
- It surrounds the reservoir of the Mullaperiyar Dam and is known for its wildlife, including elephants, tigers, and birds.

Conclusion:
- Both statements are correct, as the Mullaperiyar Dam is indeed located at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers, and the Periyar National Park surrounds the dam's reservoir.

Consider the following:
  1. NSE NOW
  2. ONICRA
  3. BSE Bolt
  4. SMERA
  5. NCDEX
How many of the above Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are operating in India?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.
  • What are ETPs?
    • Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically.
    • In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)
  • There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited.

The Reserve Bank of India is using which of the following inflation indices as anchor for ‘Inflation Targeting’? 
  • a)
    CPI 
  • b)
    WPI 
  • c)
    IIP 
  • d)
    CPI(Combined)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The inflation target in India is indeed fixed in terms of the all-India Consumer Price Index (CPI)-Combined. This index reflects the price changes for a basket of goods and services consumed by households.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Chabahar port is located in Iraq.
  2. Chabahar port is solely operated by India.
  3. Chabahar port is primarily used for military purposes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • Context: The US has warned of potential sanctions following India’s signing of a 10-year contract with Iran to operate the Chabahar port.
  • Chabahar port is located in Iran, not Iraq (S1 is incorrect). While India has invested significantly in the development of the Chabahar port, it is not solely operated by India (S2 is incorrect). The strategic importance of Chabahar lies in its role as a gateway for trade to Afghanistan and Central Asia, providing an alternative route that bypasses Pakistan. Chabahar port is primarily a commercial port, and its main purpose is trade, not military activities (S3 is incorrect).

Consider the following statements:
  1. The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a single book translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
  2. The prize money for the International Booker Prize is split equally between the author and the translator.
  3. The International Booker Prize was established to recognize an author’s body of work rather than a single book.
  4. The International Booker Prize and the Booker Prize for Fiction are the same award, just under different names.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Statement 1 is true. The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a single book that has been translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
  • Statement 2 is true. The prize money for the International Booker Prize is indeed split equally between the author and the translator, recognizing the contribution of both in bringing the work to an English-speaking audience.
  • Statement 3 is false. The International Booker Prize used to be awarded for an author’s body of work when it was first established, but since 2016, it has been awarded for a single book.
  • Statement 4 is false. The International Booker Prize and the Booker Prize for Fiction are distinct awards. The Booker Prize for Fiction is awarded to an original novel written in English, whereas the International Booker Prize is awarded for a translated work.

‘Amplifying the Global Value of Earth Observation’ report is published by the 
  • a)
    World Trade Organization 
  • b)
    United Nations Environment Programme 
  • c)
    World Economic Forum 
  • d)
    Indian Space Research Organisation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Sen answered



United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
The report 'Amplifying the Global Value of Earth Observation' is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It focuses on the importance of Earth observation in addressing global environmental challenges.

Key Points:
- Earth Observation: The report emphasizes the significance of Earth observation data in monitoring and managing various environmental issues such as climate change, deforestation, and natural disasters.
- Global Value: It highlights how Earth observation can provide valuable insights and information to policymakers, scientists, and other stakeholders in making informed decisions for sustainable development.
- Collaboration: The report calls for increased collaboration among countries, organizations, and industries to enhance the global value of Earth observation data and ensure its effective use for addressing environmental challenges.
- Policy Recommendations: It provides policy recommendations for leveraging Earth observation data to promote sustainable development, protect biodiversity, and mitigate the impacts of climate change.
- Importance of Data Sharing: The report underscores the importance of data sharing and open access to Earth observation data to maximize its global value and impact.
In conclusion, the report by UNEP underscores the critical role of Earth observation in addressing global environmental challenges and emphasizes the need for collaboration and data sharing to amplify its value worldwide.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) provides for law relating to expenditure incurred by ‘leaders of a political party’.
  2. The RP Act provides that a recognised political party can appoint a maximum of 40 star campaigners while a registered unrecognized political party can appoint up to 20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) does provide for laws relating to expenditure incurred by 'leaders of a political party'. This statement is correct as the RP Act lays down rules and regulations regarding the expenditure that can be incurred by leaders of political parties during elections.

Statement 2: The RP Act indeed specifies that a recognised political party can appoint a maximum of 40 star campaigners, while a registered unrecognized political party can appoint up to 20 star campaigners. This statement is also correct as per the provisions of the RP Act.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an important legislation that governs various aspects of elections in India, including the conduct of political parties and their leaders during election campaigns.

Which of the following statements about biohacking is true? 
  • a)
    Biohacking exclusively involves genetic modification of organisms. 
  • b)
    Biohacking is primarily focused on enhancing human performance through technological means. 
  • c)
    Biohacking refers to illegal activities involving biological materials. 
  • d)
    Biohacking is a term used only in the context of medical research.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Context: Biohacking is gaining traction in India, with enthusiasts experimenting with various techniques like cryotherapy and IV therapy.
  • What is Biohacking?
    • Biohacking involves using scientific knowledge and experimentation to optimize one’s body and mind. It encompasses various practices aimed at improving physical and mental performance, longevity, and overall well-being.
  • Examples of biohacking include:
    • Dietary Modifications: Following specific diets like ketogenic diet or intermittent fasting to enhance energy levels and metabolic health.
    • Supplementation: Taking supplements such as vitamins, minerals, or nootropics to improve cognitive function, mood, or physical performance.
    • Physical Training: Engaging in tailored exercise routines, including high-intensity interval training (HIIT) or strength training, to build strength, endurance, and resilience.
    • Sleep Optimization: Employing techniques like sleep tracking, creating ideal sleep environments, or using sleep aids to enhance sleep quality and duration.
    • Mindfulness Practices: Practicing meditation, deep breathing exercises, or mindfulness techniques to reduce stress, improve focus, and promote mental well-being.
    • Biometric Monitoring: Using wearable devices or apps to track metrics such as heart rate variability, sleep patterns, and activity levels to gain insights into overall health and performance.
    • Biofeedback Devices: Utilizing devices like neurofeedback or heart rate variability monitors to train the body’s physiological responses and improve stress management and emotional regulation.

Which of the following is a consequence of hyperinflation? 
  • a)
    Increased purchasing power of money. 
  • b)
    Stable economic conditions. 
  • c)
    Erosion of savings and wealth. 
  • d)
    Decrease in nominal wages.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Hyperinflation is an extreme form of inflation characterized by rapid and out-of-control increases in prices. One consequence of hyperinflation is the erosion of savings and wealth as the real value of money rapidly declines. Option C accurately describes this consequence, as individuals’ savings and assets lose value in hyperinflationary environments. Options A, B, and D are not consequences associated with hyperinflation; instead, they may be observed under conditions of low or stable inflation.

With reference to regulation and administration of Geographical Indication (GI) in India, consider the following statements:
  1. In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods Act of 1999.
  2. The GI tag is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry under the Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
  • Context: NABARD has initiated a study to evaluate the impact of Geographical Indication (GI) products.
    • This study aims to assess the benefits received by artisans and producers due to GI tags.
  • In India, GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This tag is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry under the Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Consider the following statements about GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT):
  1. Under the GST laws, the GSTAT is a specialized appellate authority for resolving disputes.
  2. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.
  • Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in implementation of GST across the country.
  • Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Thrombosis is the process of blood clot formation within a blood vessel.
  2. Thrombosis only occurs in arteries.
  3. Thrombosis is always caused by physical injury to the blood vessel.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
  • Only statement 1 is correct.
  • Context: AstraZeneca has acknowledged that its COVID-19 vaccine, known as Covishield in India, can lead to a rare side effect called Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
    • Despite this rare side effect, experts assert that the benefits of vaccination, particularly in saving lives during the pandemic, outweigh the risks.
    • The risk period for TTS is shortly after vaccination.
  • Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) within a blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood through the circulatory system. It can occur in both arteries and veins. While physical injury can contribute to thrombosis, it can also arise from other factors such as prolonged immobility, certain medical conditions, or genetic predispositions.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Measles is caused by bacteria.
  2. Measles primarily affects the digestive system.
  3. Measles can be prevented by vaccination.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles virus.
  • Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system.
  • Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent measles. The measles vaccine, typically administered as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine, provides immunity against the virus.

With reference to Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)’, consider the following statements.
  1. CAATSA was enacted in response to Russia’s interference in the 2016 U.S. elections.
  2. The primary goal of CAATSA is to enhance the U.S. military presence in Eastern Europe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to potential sanctions under CAATSA.
  • S1: CAATSA was enacted in response to various actions by Russia, including its interference in the 2016 U.S. elections, its involvement in the conflict in Ukraine, and its support for the Assad regime in Syria.
  • S2: It, enacted in 2017, is a US law targeting countries engaged with Russia, North Korea, and Iran through economic sanctions. It imposes penalties on nations conducting significant transactions with Russian intelligence and military entities. In 2018, the US House of Representatives passed an amendment exempting India from CAATSA sanctions for purchasing the S-400 missile defence system from Russia.

The ‘Global Climate Risk Index’, which evaluates the impact of extreme weather events on countries and quantifies their vulnerability to climate change, is published by which organization? 
  • a)
    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) 
  • b)
    World Bank 
  • c)
    Germanwatch 
  • d)
    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The economic toll of climate change is staggering, with recent UN studies revealing that global GDP could have been 37% higher without warming since 1960.
  • The Global Climate Risk Index is published annually by Germanwatch, a non-governmental organization based in Germany. This index analyzes and ranks countries based on the impact of weather-related events such as storms, floods, and heatwaves, considering factors like fatalities and economic losses. The objective is to highlight the need for political and policy measures to address climate vulnerabilities and adapt to the adverse effects of climate change.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Palestine consists of two separate geographical regions, the West Bank and the Gaza Strip.
  2. The Oslo Accords were agreements between Israel and Palestine that aimed to achieve a peace treaty.
  3. Palestine is a full member state of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • Context: Ireland, Norway, and Spain plan to formally recognize the state of Palestine, highlighting a shift in international opinion. Recently, 143 countries, including India, called for UN recognition of Palestine. The International Criminal Court has sought arrest warrants for Israeli leaders and Hamas for war crimes.
  • S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, which are geographically separate and have distinct political and administrative contexts.
  • S2: The Oslo Accords, signed in the 1990s, were a series of agreements between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) with the goal of achieving a peace treaty and establishing a framework for future relations.
  • S3: Although Palestine is not a full member state of the United Nations, it has been granted non-member observer state status since 2012, which allows it to participate in General Assembly debates and activities.

Consider the following statements:
  • All viruses contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both.
  • Viruses can replicate independently without a host cell.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Context: Giant viruses, dating back 1.5 billion years, discovered in Yellowstone’s geothermal springs shed light on Earth’s early conditions.
    • A giant virus, also known as a “girus,” is notably large, with some exceeding typical bacteria in size. They are classified within the phylum Nucleocytoviricota.
  • S1: All viruses contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both.
  • S2: Viruses cannot replicate independently; they require a host cell to reproduce.

Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of an Economic Capital Framework in financial institutions? 
  • a)
    To ensure compliance with regulatory capital requirements. 
  • b)
    To enhance the institution's ability to withstand economic shocks by determining the amount of capital needed to cover all risks. 
  • c)
    To maximize shareholder value through aggressive investment strategies. 
  • d)
    To provide a detailed breakdown of the institution's operational expenses.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved a record transfer of ₹2,10,874 crore to the Union government for 2023-24, more than double the ₹87,416 crore transferred last year. The RBI also increased the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) to 6.50% from 6%. This surplus is based on the Economic Capital Framework (ECF) adopted in 2019.
  • What is Economic capital?
    • Economic capital is the amount of capital that a firm (in this case RBI), usually in financial services, needs to ensure that it stays solvent given its risk profile. It includes both realized and unrealized reserves.
    • Economic Capital Framework Objective: The framework aims to balance the RBI’s autonomy with the Government’s development goals.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Red dwarfs are the most common type of star in the Milky Way galaxy.
  2. Red dwarfs have a shorter lifespan compared to larger stars like the Sun.
  3. Red dwarfs are cooler and less luminous than the Sun.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: Astronomers at the University of Liège in Belgium discovered an Earth-sized exoplanet, SPECULOOS-3 b, orbiting an ultra-cool red dwarf, 55 light-years away.
  • S1: Red dwarfs are indeed the most common type of star in the Milky Way galaxy, making up the majority of stars.
  • S2: Red dwarfs have much longer life spans compared to larger stars like the Sun. Their nuclear fusion processes occur at a slower rate, allowing them to burn their fuel more efficiently and last much longer, often tens to hundreds of billions of years.
  • S3: Red dwarfs are cooler and less luminous than the Sun. Their surface temperatures are lower, and they emit less light, which makes them less visible from a distance compared to brighter stars like the Sun.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes.
  3. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. Article 342 (i) empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. STs constitute 8.6% of the Population (census 2011). Draft National Tribal Policy, 2006 records 698 STs in India. Bhil is the largest tribal group (38%) followed by Gonds. Madhya Pradesh has the highest tribal Population in India. Santhal are the oldest Tribes in India.

Consider the following Indian literary works:
  1. Sahṛdayaloka-Locana
  2. Panchatantra
  3. Ramcharitmanas
How many of the above have been included in ‘UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register’ recently?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
  • The Ramcharitmanas, Panchatantra and Sahṛdayāloka-Locana have been included in ‘UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register’. This inclusion is a proud moment for India, a confirmation of the country’s rich literary heritage and cultural legacy. It signifies a step forward in global cultural preservation efforts, highlighting the importance of recognizing and safeguarding the diverse narratives and artistic expressions that shape our shared humanity. By honouring these literary masterpieces, society not only pays homage to the creative genius of their creators but also ensures that their profound wisdom and timeless teachings continue to inspire and enlighten future generations.
  • The ‘Ramcharitmanas’, ‘Panchatantra’, and ‘Sahṛdayaloka-Locana’ are such timeless works that have deeply influenced Indian literature and culture, shaping the nation’s moral fabric and artistic expressions. These literary works have transcended time and place, leaving an indelible mark on readers and artists both within and outside India. It is noteworthy that ‘Sahṛdayaloka-Locana’, ‘Panchatantra’, and ‘Ramcharitmanas’ were authored by Acharya Anandvardhan, Pt. Vishnu Sharma, and Goswami Tulsidas, respectively.

Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    All three pairs
  • d)
    None of the pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • Pair 1: Correct. The Sand Dollar was implemented by the Bahamas.
  • Pair 2: Correct. The eNaira was implemented by Nigeria.
  • Pair 3: Incorrect. The e-CNY was implemented by China, not Japan.
  •  

Consider the following statements about the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs):
  1. NTDs primarily affect populations in developed countries.
  2. There are only a few NTDs recognized by global health organizations.
  3. NTDs have minimal impact on socioeconomic development and public health.
How many of the above statements are NOT correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
  • WHO has released a progress report on Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)
  • NTDs are a group of diverse infections caused by parasites, bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens that primarily affect populations in tropical and subtropical regions. These diseases often receive inadequate attention and resources, leading to limited research, diagnosis, and treatment options. Examples of NTDs include malaria, dengue fever, Chagas disease, leishmaniasis, etc
  • S1: Incorrect. NTDs primarily affect populations in developing countries where access to healthcare and sanitation is limited.
  • S2: Incorrect. There are more than 20 NTDs recognized by global health organizations such as the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
  • S3: Incorrect. NTDs have a significant impact on socioeconomic development and public health, causing disability, stigma, and loss of productivity among affected populations. They often perpetuate cycles of poverty by hindering economic growth and development in affected regions.

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