All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Civil Registration System (CRS) portal in India has been facing technical glitches, causing delays in the issuance of birth and death certificates.
Statement-II:
Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act of 2023, all births and deaths in India from October 1, 2023, must be digitally registered through the CRS portal.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Kaur answered
Explanation:

Statement-I:
- The Civil Registration System (CRS) portal in India is indeed facing technical glitches, which have been causing delays in the issuance of birth and death certificates.
- Due to these technical issues, many individuals have been experiencing difficulties in obtaining essential documents in a timely manner.

Statement-II:
- Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act of 2023, all births and deaths in India from October 1, 2023, must be digitally registered through the CRS portal.
- This legislative amendment mandates the digital registration of all births and deaths in the country, aiming to streamline the process and enhance efficiency in maintaining vital records.

Conclusion:
- In conclusion, Statement-I is correct in highlighting the current technical challenges faced by the CRS portal, leading to delays in issuing birth and death certificates.
- Statement-II is also accurate as it explains the upcoming requirement for digital registration of births and deaths in India under the amended law.

Consider the following pairs:
1. India’s Public Healthcare Expenditure (2021-22) : 3.5% of GDP
2. World Health Organization's recommended doctor-patient ratio : 1 doctor per 1,000 people
3. Per capita hospital beds in India : 2 beds per 1,000 people
4. Annual revenue from international patients in India : $9 billion
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Joshi answered
Analysis of the given pairs:
1. India’s Public Healthcare Expenditure (2021-22) : 3.5% of GDP
- This pair is correctly matched as India's public healthcare expenditure for the year 2021-22 is indeed 3.5% of its GDP.
2. World Health Organization's recommended doctor-patient ratio : 1 doctor per 1,000 people
- This pair is correctly matched as per the recommendation by the World Health Organization for the ideal doctor-patient ratio.
3. Per capita hospital beds in India : 2 beds per 1,000 people
- This pair is not correctly matched as the actual per capita hospital beds in India are lower than this figure. The current estimate stands at around 0.7 beds per 1,000 people.
4. Annual revenue from international patients in India : $9 billion
- This pair is also not correctly matched. The annual revenue from international patients in India is estimated to be around $3 billion, which is significantly lower than the mentioned figure.
Therefore, out of the four given pairs, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. India - 3rd largest trading partner of UAE in 2023-24
2. CEPA - Came into force on May 1, 2022
3. GTRI - Global Trade Regulation Initiative
4. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme - Launched in February 2023
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. India - 3rd largest trading partner of UAE in 2023-24: Correct. India is the 3rd largest trading partner of the UAE, with bilateral trade amounting to USD 83.65 billion in 2023-24.
2. CEPA - Came into force on May 1, 2022: Correct. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement between India and the UAE came into force on May 1, 2022.
3. GTRI - Global Trade Regulation Initiative: Incorrect. The correct name is Global Trade Research Initiative.
4. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme - Launched in February 2023: Correct. The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme was launched in February 2023 to revamp railway stations throughout India.
So, only pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 - Regulates external trade and payments
2. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973 - Promotes the orderly development of the foreign exchange market in India
3. Non-repatriation basis - Funds cannot be transferred back to the investor's home country
4. Lake Gatun - Key to Panama Canal's operation
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Pillai answered
Explanation:
1. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 - Regulates external trade and payments
- The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 is a law that was enacted to regulate foreign exchange in India. It governs all foreign exchange transactions, including imports and exports, remittances, and foreign investments.
2. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973 - Promotes the orderly development of the foreign exchange market in India
- The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973 was a predecessor to FEMA and aimed to regulate foreign exchange in India. It focused on promoting the orderly development of the foreign exchange market in the country.
3. Non-repatriation basis - Funds cannot be transferred back to the investor's home country
- Non-repatriation basis refers to an investment scenario where funds cannot be transferred back to the investor's home country. This means that the investor cannot repatriate the funds invested in a particular country.
4. Lake Gatun - Key to Panama Canal's operation
- Lake Gatun is a large artificial lake that forms a crucial part of the Panama Canal's operation. It serves as a key component in the canal's functioning, allowing ships to pass through the canal by providing a route through the continental divide.
Therefore, only three pairs given above are correctly matched as per the explanations provided.

What is the primary goal of ISRO's Chandrayaan-4 mission?
  • a)
    To establish a permanent human settlement on the Moon
  • b)
    To conduct experiments on Mars
  • c)
    To bring back samples from the Moon
  • d)
    To study the atmosphere of Venus
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
The main objective of ISRO's Chandrayaan-4 mission is to bring back samples from the Moon, aiming to achieve a gentle landing on the Moon, collect rock samples from the moon's surface, and safely transport them back to Earth. This mission, if successful, would position India among the select group of countries that have achieved this significant feat, including the United States, Russia, and China.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus: Found in the Fergana Depression, Kyrgyzstan
2. Ramsar Sites: India has over 100 designated Ramsar sites
3. National Wetland Conservation Programme: Launched in 2015
4. Srikanth Bolla: Associated with visual impairment and industrial achievements
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
1. Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus: Found in the Fergana Depression, Kyrgyzstan - Correct.
- The newly discovered dinosaur species Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus was indeed found in the northern region of the Fergana Depression in Kyrgyzstan.
2. Ramsar Sites: India has over 100 designated Ramsar sites - Incorrect.
- As of the latest information provided, India has 85 Ramsar sites, not over 100.
3. National Wetland Conservation Programme: Launched in 2015 - Incorrect.
- The National Wetland Conservation Programme was launched in 1986, not 2015. The 2015 initiative was the National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Wetlands.
4. Srikanth Bolla: Associated with visual impairment and industrial achievements - Correct.
- Srikanth Bolla is known for overcoming visual impairment and achieving success as an industrialist, highlighting issues faced by Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Thus, out of the four pairs, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding lithium mining and its environmental impact:
1. Extracting one ton of lithium requires approximately 500,000 liters of water.
2. The Atacama salt flat in Chile is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 cm annually due to the extraction of lithium brine.
3. Lithium mining from hard rock sources has a negligible carbon footprint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
Analysis of Statements on Lithium Mining
Lithium mining has garnered attention due to its environmental implications. Let's break down the three statements to understand their validity.
Statement 1: Water Usage
- Extracting one ton of lithium requires approximately 500,000 liters of water.
- This statement is correct. Lithium extraction, particularly from brine sources, is water-intensive. The process often leads to significant depletion of local water resources, which can affect surrounding ecosystems and communities.
Statement 2: Land Subsidence
- The Atacama salt flat in Chile is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 cm annually due to the extraction of lithium brine.
- This statement is also correct. The over-extraction of lithium brine has led to land subsidence in this region, affecting both the environment and local agriculture. The salt flat is a critical habitat and its degradation poses ecological risks.
Statement 3: Carbon Footprint of Hard Rock Mining
- Lithium mining from hard rock sources has a negligible carbon footprint.
- This statement is incorrect. While hard rock mining might have a lower water footprint compared to brine extraction, it is not devoid of environmental impact. The processes involved in hard rock mining, such as blasting and transporting materials, contribute to significant carbon emissions.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, the correct answer is b) 1 and 2 Only. Statements 1 and 2 accurately reflect the environmental challenges associated with lithium mining, while statement 3 misrepresents the carbon footprint of hard rock lithium extraction.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Economic Vulnerability: Factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency.
2. Environmental Vulnerability: Includes access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality.
3. Social Vulnerability: Considers exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss.
4. Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI): Recently launched by the UN General Assembly.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Economic Vulnerability: Correctly matched. It includes factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency.
2. Environmental Vulnerability: Incorrectly matched. Environmental Vulnerability considers exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss, not access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality.
3. Social Vulnerability: Incorrectly matched. Social Vulnerability looks at access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality, not exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss.
4. Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI): Correctly matched. The MVI was indeed recently launched by the UN General Assembly.
Only the first and fourth pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
1. The Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and cannot be disclosed in any form of media.
2. It defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.
3. The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Statement 1 is correct: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and forbids the disclosure of the victim's identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The POCSO Act defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years, not 16 years.
3. Statement 3 is correct: The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime. Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate faces punishment.
Given the analysis, the correct answer is Option B

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India to enhance the safety and security of women in India.
Statement-II: The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund managed by the Ministry of Finance.
Statement-III: The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals to be funded under the Nirbhaya Fund.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
  • b)
    Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I.
  • c)
    Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
  • d)
    Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Menon answered
Overview of Nirbhaya Fund
The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India in response to the growing concerns regarding the safety and security of women. It aims to support initiatives aimed at improving women's safety.
Analysis of Statements
- Statement-I: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund was indeed established with the primary goal of enhancing women's safety in India.
- Statement-II: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund, meaning that the allocated amount does not expire at the end of the financial year. It is managed by the Ministry of Finance.
- Statement-III: *Correct*
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals for funding under the Nirbhaya Fund, ensuring that projects align with the fund's objectives.
Correct Answer Explanation
Since all three statements are correct, the best choice among the provided options is:
- Option A: Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both explain Statement-I.
This is accurate because both statements provide essential details about the functioning of the Nirbhaya Fund, thus supporting the overarching goal stated in Statement-I.
Conclusion
In summary, the Nirbhaya Fund serves as a critical initiative in promoting women's safety, managed effectively by relevant ministries to ensure its objectives are met comprehensively.

What is the primary objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission initiated by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying?
  • a)
    To increase meat production in indigenous bovine breeds
  • b)
    To promote the import of exotic cattle breeds
  • c)
    To enhance productivity of bovines and increase sustainable milk production using advanced technologies
  • d)
    To focus on the conservation of wild buffalo population
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashutosh Gupta answered
The primary objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission initiated by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying is to enhance productivity of bovines and increase sustainable milk production using advanced technologies.
Explanation:
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission focuses on the conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds to improve their productivity and milk production. The mission aims to promote the use of advanced reproductive technologies like artificial insemination, embryo transfer, and genomic selection to enhance the genetic potential of indigenous cattle breeds.
- Conservation of Indigenous Breeds: The mission aims to conserve and propagate indigenous cattle breeds to prevent their decline and promote their genetic diversity.
- Enhancing Productivity: By implementing advanced breeding techniques and promoting good husbandry practices, the mission seeks to improve the productivity of indigenous bovines.
- Promoting Sustainable Milk Production: Through the use of technology and improved management practices, the mission aims to increase milk production from indigenous cattle breeds in a sustainable manner.
- Capacity Building: The mission also focuses on capacity building of farmers, herders, and other stakeholders to adopt best practices in cattle rearing and management.
In conclusion, the Rashtriya Gokul Mission plays a crucial role in promoting the conservation and development of indigenous cattle breeds, enhancing their productivity, and increasing sustainable milk production through the adoption of advanced technologies and practices.

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed due to the Earth's heat and are similar to cumulonimbus clouds but are created by fire from extensive wildfires or volcanic activities.
Statement II: Cumulonimbus clouds are characterized by their ability to produce hail, thunder, and lightning, and can reach vertical heights from 3 kilometers to occasionally over 15 kilometers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
  • b)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
  • c)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Chavan answered
Analysis of Statement I
- Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are indeed formed due to intense heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
- These clouds are a specific type of cumulonimbus cloud that can occur as a result of extreme heat and can reach significant heights.
- The statement accurately describes their formation due to fire and heat, making it a correct assertion.
Analysis of Statement II
- Cumulonimbus clouds are known for their vertical development and are associated with severe weather phenomena, including hail, thunder, and lightning.
- They can reach heights from 3 kilometers to over 15 kilometers, reflecting their immense vertical growth.
- This statement provides accurate information about the characteristics and behavior of cumulonimbus clouds.
Relationship Between the Statements
- While both statements are correct, Statement II does not directly explain Statement I.
- Statement I focuses on the specific conditions under which pyrocumulonimbus clouds form, while Statement II addresses the general characteristics of cumulonimbus clouds, which can include pyrocumulonimbus as a subset.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct choice is option (b): "Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I."
- This distinction highlights the unique formation process of pyrocumulonimbus clouds while recognizing the broader category of cumulonimbus clouds.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano:
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
2. The volcano is located in the Arusha Region of Kenya.
3. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai has a high silica content, typically above 45%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
- This statement is correct. Ol Doinyo Lengai is unique for its active eruptions of carbonatite magma, which is highly fluid and contains high concentrations of calcium and sodium but low in silica.
2. The volcano is located in the Arusha Region of Kenya.
- This statement is incorrect. Ol Doinyo Lengai is located in the Arusha Region of Tanzania, not Kenya.
3. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai has a high silica content, typically above 45%.
- This statement is incorrect. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai is noted for its low silica content, typically less than 25%, which is much lower than the 45-70% silica content found in most other terrestrial magmas.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Lateral Entry in Civil Services:
1. Lateral entry allows the recruitment of specialists from the private sector into government organizations.
2. The selection process for lateral entry is conducted by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
3. Lateral entry was recommended by the NITI Aayog and the Group of Secretaries on Governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Ahuja answered
Explanation:

1. Lateral Entry in Civil Services:
- Lateral entry allows the recruitment of specialists from the private sector into government organizations. This move aims to bring in fresh talent and expertise to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the bureaucracy.

2. Selection Process:
- The selection process for lateral entry is indeed conducted by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT). The DoPT plays a crucial role in identifying suitable candidates and facilitating their entry into the civil services.

3. Recommendations:
- Lateral entry was recommended by both the NITI Aayog and the Group of Secretaries on Governance. These bodies recognized the need for specialized skills and knowledge in various sectors and proposed lateral entry as a means to address this gap.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 3 Only. This indicates that statement 1, regarding the recruitment of specialists from the private sector, and statement 3, regarding the recommendations of NITI Aayog and the Group of Secretaries on Governance, are both correct.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect
2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani
3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini
4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Chavan answered
Correctly Matched Pairs:
1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect
- Satguru Ram Singh is indeed the founder of the Namdhari sect, a Sikh religious group that follows his teachings.
2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani
- Kook refers to the quiet recitation of Gurbani, which is a common practice among Sikhs to meditate on the divine words.
3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini
- Eri silk is indeed obtained from the Philosamia ricini, a type of silkworm that produces this unique and luxurious silk.

Incorrectly Matched Pair:
4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods
- The Oeko-Tex certification is not specifically related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods. Rather, it is a certification that ensures textiles and fabrics are tested for harmful substances and are safe for human use.
Therefore, out of the four pairs given, only three are correctly matched, while one is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.
Statement-II:
Brahmani River is created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to the industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explains Statement-I
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I is accurate. Glioblastoma is indeed a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which are a type of star-shaped glial cell in the brain and spinal cord that provides support and nutrition to the nerve cells.

However, Statement-II is incorrect. The Brahmani River is not created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to the industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha. Instead, the Brahmani River is created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to Rourkela, but it is not the Brahmani River itself that is created at this point.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Supergranular cells on the solar surface have diameters of about 30,000 km and are associated with magnetic field concentrations on the Sun's surface.
Statement-II:
Solar activity follows an approximately 11-year periodic cycle, influencing space weather and Earth's climate variations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Simran Menon answered
Explanation:

Statement-I:
- Supergranular cells on the solar surface have diameters of about 30,000 km.
- These cells are associated with magnetic field concentrations on the Sun's surface.
- This statement is correct as supergranular cells are indeed large-scale convective cells on the solar surface.

Statement-II:
- Solar activity follows an approximately 11-year periodic cycle.
- This activity influences space weather and Earth's climate variations.
- This statement is incorrect as solar activity does follow an 11-year cycle known as the solar cycle, but it does not directly explain the presence of supergranular cells on the solar surface.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' where Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Extremophiles are tiny living things that survive in really harsh places where most other living things can't live.
Statement-II:
Captagon is a synthetic drug that was originally developed as a pharmaceutical treatment for attention deficit disorders, narcolepsy, and sometimes depression.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered

Statement-I correctly defines extremophiles as tiny living organisms that thrive in extremely harsh environments where most other life forms cannot survive. This aligns with the information provided in the source material about extremophiles.

However, Statement-II inaccurately describes Captagon as a synthetic drug developed for medical purposes like treating attention deficit disorders, narcolepsy, and depression. This statement is misleading as Captagon was not intended for such therapeutic uses but rather as an illicit drug known for its stimulant effects. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect in its description of Captagon.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Atacama salt flat in Chile is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 centimeters annually due to lithium brine extraction.
Statement-II:
Salar de Atacama has the highest lithium concentration among all brine sources globally.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Roy answered
Explanation:

Statement Analysis:

Statement-I: The Atacama salt flat in Chile is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 centimeters annually due to lithium brine extraction.
- This statement indicates that the Atacama salt flat in Chile is experiencing subsidence due to lithium brine extraction activities.

Statement-II: Salar de Atacama has the highest lithium concentration among all brine sources globally.
- This statement highlights that Salar de Atacama, a salt flat in Chile, has the highest lithium concentration compared to other brine sources worldwide.

Correct Interpretation:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I.
- The sinking of the Atacama salt flat in Chile due to lithium brine extraction is a result of human activities impacting the natural environment.
- The high lithium concentration in Salar de Atacama makes it a significant source of lithium extraction, leading to the subsidence of the salt flat.

Conclusion:
- While both statements are accurate, they address different aspects of the impact of lithium extraction on the Atacama salt flat in Chile. Statement-I focuses on the sinking phenomenon, while Statement-II highlights the lithium concentration in the region.

What is the primary objective of the BHISHM cubes presented by the Prime Minister of India to the President of Ukraine?
  • a)
    Providing educational services in rural areas
  • b)
    Offering emergency medical care efficiently
  • c)
    Enhancing communication networks in disaster-stricken regions
  • d)
    Supporting agricultural initiatives in developing nations
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The main goal of the BHISHM cubes is to provide compact, mobile medical units designed specifically for emergency care. These cubes are intended to deliver medical services promptly and effectively in emergency situations, making them a crucial asset for efficient healthcare delivery during crises.

What is the primary objective of the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) established by the Central Government in 1966?
  • a)
    To enforce statutory regulations for government employees
  • b)
    To promote conflict and discord between the government and its employees
  • c)
    To facilitate peaceful resolution of disputes between the government and its employees
  • d)
    To act as an independent judicial body for employee grievances
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Objective of the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM)
The Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) was established by the Central Government in 1966 with the primary aim of fostering cooperation and understanding between the government and its employees.
Key Purpose
- The JCM serves as a platform for dialogue and consultation, enabling both parties to discuss issues of mutual interest.
- It aims to promote harmonious relations and facilitate a peaceful resolution of disputes, thus ensuring that grievances are addressed constructively.
Why Option C is Correct
- The correct answer is option 'C' because the JCM is specifically designed to facilitate discussions that lead to amicable solutions rather than escalating conflicts.
- Through regular meetings and discussions, the JCM helps in identifying and resolving issues before they turn into significant disputes.
Additional Functions
- The JCM also plays a role in formulating policies that affect government employees, ensuring that their voices are heard in decision-making processes.
- It encompasses various levels, allowing for representation from different employee groups, which enhances inclusivity and transparency.
Conclusion
In summary, the Joint Consultative Machinery embodies the spirit of collaboration between the government and its employees, making it crucial for maintaining a peaceful and productive work environment. Its establishment reflects a commitment to understanding and addressing the concerns of government employees effectively.

What is one of the major advancements in TB treatment recommended by the World Health Organization to combat drug-resistant TB effectively?
  • a)
    PPaL/M Regimen
  • b)
    CPaL/M Regimen
  • c)
    APaL/M Regimen
  • d)
    BPaL/M Regimen
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ishita Sarkar answered
Introduction to Drug-Resistant TB
Drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB) poses a significant global health challenge, particularly in areas with high rates of TB infection. The World Health Organization (WHO) has developed new treatment regimens to address this critical issue.
BPaL/M Regimen Overview
The BPaL/M regimen is one of the major advancements recommended by the WHO for treating drug-resistant TB. It includes the following key components:
- B: Bedaquiline – A novel drug that targets the energy production in TB bacteria.
- P: Pretomanid – An investigational drug that works by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall.
- aL: Linezolid – An antibiotic effective against resistant strains of TB.
- M: Moxifloxacin – A fluoroquinolone antibiotic that enhances the effectiveness of the regimen.
Key Advantages of BPaL/M Regimen
- Shorter Treatment Duration: This regimen can shorten the treatment period for drug-resistant TB, making it more manageable for patients.
- Improved Efficacy: Clinical trials have shown that the BPaL/M regimen has a high success rate in curing drug-resistant TB, significantly improving patient outcomes.
- Simplified Administration: The regimen requires fewer daily doses compared to traditional treatments, enhancing adherence and reducing the burden on patients.
Conclusion
The BPaL/M regimen represents a significant step forward in the fight against drug-resistant TB, providing a more effective and patient-friendly treatment option. The WHO's endorsement of this regimen highlights its potential to save lives and combat the growing threat of drug-resistant TB globally.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The SIG 716 rifle is designed for precision shooting at distances of up to 600 meters.
Statement-II:
The gas piston system in the SIG 716 rifle improves its reliability and minimizes maintenance requirements.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Iyer answered
Analysis of Statements
To understand the correctness of the statements regarding the SIG 716 rifle, let’s evaluate each statement:
Statement-I: Precision Shooting
- The SIG 716 is indeed designed for precision shooting.
- It is effective at distances of up to 600 meters.
- This capability makes it suitable for military and law enforcement operations as well as competitive shooting.
Statement-II: Gas Piston System
- The SIG 716 features a gas piston operating system.
- This system enhances reliability by reducing fouling in the action.
- It also minimizes maintenance requirements compared to direct impingement systems.
Relationship Between Statements
- Statement-II explains the operational advantages of the SIG 716.
- The gas piston system contributes to the rifle's overall performance and reliability, which supports its ability to achieve precision at longer distances.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct, and Statement-II directly explains the benefits of the technology that allows Statement-I to hold true.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
This analysis highlights the technical aspects of the SIG 716 rifle and clarifies how its design elements contribute to its capabilities in precision shooting.

What is the main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap (OIS)?
  • a)
    To exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment for a known daily reference rate
  • b)
    To speculate on future interest rate movements
  • c)
    To facilitate currency exchange transactions
  • d)
    To manage credit risk
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap (OIS) is to exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment for a known daily reference rate for a set duration of time. OIS is primarily utilized to handle the risk associated with interest rates, specifically those tied to changes in the daily lending rate. By engaging in an OIS, financial institutions can effectively manage their exposure to interest rate fluctuations without needing to refinance existing loans or alter their terms.

Consider the following statements:
1. India is positioning itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict.
2. The conflict in Ukraine has necessitated a reevaluation of India's engagement with European security.
3. India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is not influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Sengupta answered
Explanation:
India's Role in the Ukrainian Conflict
India has indeed positioned itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict. Recently, India expressed its willingness to play a role in resolving the crisis through peaceful means. This move showcases India's commitment to promoting peace and stability in the region.

Reevaluation of India's Engagement with European Security
The conflict in Ukraine has prompted India to reevaluate its engagement with European security. Given the escalating tensions in the region, India has recognized the importance of enhancing its cooperation with European countries to address common security challenges. This reevaluation reflects India's proactive approach towards global security issues.

India's Balance in Relations with Russia and the West
Contrary to the third statement, India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is indeed influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia. India has maintained longstanding defense and energy partnerships with Russia, which continue to shape its foreign policy decisions. However, India also values its strategic partnerships with Western countries and strives to maintain a delicate balance between the two sides.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately reflect India's stance on the Ukrainian conflict and its reevaluation of engagement with European security. Statement 3, on the other hand, is incorrect as India's relations with Russia and the West are influenced by historical ties with Russia.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Syncytins - Genes crucial for placental development
2. MERVL-gag - Transition crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells
3. Integrase - Enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription
4. ERVs - Remnants of ancient bacterial infections
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Syncytins - Genes crucial for placental development: Correct. Syncytins are indeed genes thought to have descended from Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs) and are crucial for placental development.
2. MERVL-gag - Transition crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells: Correct. MERVL-gag is derived from an ERV, and this transition is crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells capable of forming different cell types.
3. Integrase - Enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription: Incorrect. Integrase is an enzyme that facilitates the integration of viral DNA into the host genome. The enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription is reverse transcriptase.
4. ERVs - Remnants of ancient bacterial infections: Incorrect. ERVs (Endogenous Retroviruses) are remnants of ancient viral infections, not bacterial infections, that have integrated into the genome of the host species.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding Tantalum:
1. Tantalum is primarily used in the electronics industry due to its ability to store more electricity in smaller sizes with minimal leakage.
2. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria.
3. Tantalum is highly reactive with bodily fluids, making it unsuitable for medical implants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shanaya Bajaj answered
1. Tantalum in the Electronics Industry
- Statement 1 is correct. Tantalum is widely used in the electronics industry for manufacturing capacitors. This is because Tantalum has a high capacitance per volume, allowing for the storage of more electricity in smaller sizes. Additionally, Tantalum capacitors have low leakage currents, making them ideal for use in electronic devices.

2. Primary Producers of Tantalum
- Statement 2 is correct. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria. These countries have rich reserves of Tantalum ore, making them key players in the global Tantalum market.

3. Reactivity of Tantalum with Bodily Fluids
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Tantalum is actually biocompatible and non-reactive with bodily fluids, making it suitable for use in medical implants such as bone screws, plates, and joint replacements. Its inertness and ability to integrate well with human tissue make it a valuable material for medical applications.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 Only.

Consider the following pairs related to Candida auris (C. auris) and Neutron Stars:
1. Candida auris was first discovered in: Japan
2. Common symptoms of Candida auris include: Persistent fever and chills
3. Neutron stars can only exist alone: Incorrect
4. Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields: Correct
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Correctly Matched: Candida auris was first discovered in Japan.- Candida auris was indeed first discovered in Japan in 2009.
2. Correctly Matched: Common symptoms of Candida auris include persistent fever and chills.- The symptoms of C. auris are similar to common illnesses, with persistent fever and chills even after antibiotic treatment being common signs.
3. Incorrectly Matched: Neutron stars can only exist alone.- Neutron stars can exist both alone and in binary systems (with a partner).
4. Correctly Matched: Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields.- Magnetars are a type of neutron star with extremely powerful magnetic fields, far exceeding Earth's magnetic field strength.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
2. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve - Jharkhand
3. Palamau Tiger Reserve - Madhya Pradesh
4. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Basu answered
Understanding the Correctly Matched Pairs
In this analysis, we will evaluate the pairs provided to determine which are accurately matched between the tiger reserves and their respective states.
1. Guru Ghasidas - Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
- Correct Pair: The Guru Ghasidas National Park is indeed located in Chhattisgarh, and it is near the Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.
2. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve - Jharkhand
- Incorrect Pair: The Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Jharkhand.
3. Palamau Tiger Reserve - Madhya Pradesh
- Incorrect Pair: The Palamau Tiger Reserve is located in Jharkhand, not Madhya Pradesh.
4. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
- Correct Pair: The Achanakmar Tiger Reserve is correctly matched with Chhattisgarh.
Summary of Correct Matches
- From the analysis, we can see that:
- Correctly Matched:
- Guru Ghasidas - Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
- Achanakmar Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
- Incorrectly Matched:
- Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve - Jharkhand
- Palamau Tiger Reserve - Madhya Pradesh
Final Count of Correct Pairs
- Only two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option B.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent and autonomous constitutional authority, established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II:
The ECI is empowered to oversee, direct, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Pooja Yadav answered
Understanding the Statements
The two statements provided pertain to the Election Commission of India (ECI), a vital constitutional body responsible for conducting free and fair elections in the country.
Statement-I: ECI's Constitutionality
- The ECI is indeed a permanent and autonomous constitutional authority.
- It is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
- This establishes its credibility and significance within the framework of Indian democracy.
Statement-II: ECI's Powers
- The ECI is empowered to oversee, direct, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls.
- It conducts all elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
- This highlights the ECI’s role in ensuring that elections are conducted in a free, fair, and impartial manner.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are correct: Statement-I accurately describes the ECI's constitutional status, while Statement-II outlines its powers and responsibilities.
- Explanation Relation: Statement-II elaborates on the functions of the ECI as mentioned in Statement-I, thus it explains the importance of the ECI being a constitutional authority.
Conclusion
Given this analysis, the correct option is (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. This understanding is essential for comprehending the role of the ECI in the electoral process in India, especially for UPSC aspirants.

Consider the following statements regarding the regulation of Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani drugs in India:
1. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is responsible for approving licenses for specific categories of Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani drugs.
2. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 establishes the Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani Drugs Technical Advisory Board (ASUDTAB) to set standards for these drugs.
3. Schedule T of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 outlines the Good Manufacturing Practices for Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani medicines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Roy answered
Explanation:

Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
- The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is responsible for approving licenses for specific categories of Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani drugs in India.

Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
- The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 establishes the Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani Drugs Technical Advisory Board (ASUDTAB) to set standards for these drugs.
- Schedule T of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 outlines the Good Manufacturing Practices for Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani medicines.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect as the CDSCO does not approve licenses for Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani drugs.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Anubhav Portal Launch - March 2015
2. Managing Body - Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Award Cash Prize - ₹10,000
4. Participants - Retiring Central Government Employees
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only three pairs
  • c)
    Only two pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Anubhav Portal Launch - March 2015: Correct. The Anubhav portal was indeed initiated in March 2015 to capture the administrative history of India through the documented narratives of retiring officials.
2. Managing Body - Ministry of Home Affairs: Incorrect. The Anubhav Awards Scheme is managed by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, under the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. Award Cash Prize - ₹10,000: Correct. The recipients of the Anubhav Award receive a medal, a certificate, and a cash prize of ₹10,000.
4. Participants - Retiring Central Government Employees: Correct. The eligible participants for the Anubhav Awards include retiring Central Government employees and pensioners who may submit their write-ups from 8 months before retirement up to 1 year after retirement.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

Consider the following statements regarding Chile's Atacama salt flat and lithium mining:
1. The subsidence in the Atacama salt flat is occurring because the rate of lithium brine extraction exceeds the recharge rate of the aquifers.
2. The affected area of subsidence in the Atacama salt flat spans approximately 8 km from north to south and 5 km from east to west.
3. Salar de Atacama has the highest lithium concentration among all brine sources globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Kumar answered
Overview of Lithium Mining in Atacama Salt Flat
The Atacama salt flat, located in Chile, is one of the most significant sources of lithium brine globally. The extraction of lithium, essential for batteries and various technologies, has raised environmental concerns, particularly regarding subsidence and aquifer depletion.

Statement 1: Subsidence and Aquifer Recharge
- The rate of lithium brine extraction indeed exceeds the natural recharge rate of the aquifers in the Atacama region.
- This imbalance leads to subsidence, which is the gradual sinking of the land surface, affecting the ecological balance and surrounding communities.

Statement 2: Affected Area of Subsidence
- Studies indicate that the area experiencing subsidence spans approximately 8 km from north to south and 5 km from east to west.
- This specific measurement highlights the significant impact of mining activities on the landscape.

Statement 3: Lithium Concentration in Salar de Atacama
- Salar de Atacama does have the highest lithium concentration among all brine sources worldwide.
- This makes it a prime target for lithium extraction, further straining local water resources and ecosystems.

Conclusion
Given the correctness of all three statements, the answer to the question is:
- **Correct Option: D) 1, 2 and 3.**
The implications of lithium mining on the environment, particularly in the Atacama salt flat, underscore the need for sustainable practices to balance economic benefits with ecological preservation.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Orangutan Diplomacy - Malaysia's initiative to gift orangutans to countries importing palm oil.
2. Quantum Nonlocality - A principle where particles influence each other's state instantaneously regardless of distance.
3. Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs - Medications that combine multiple active ingredients in one dosage form.
4. Panda Diplomacy - China's practice of lending pandas to other countries as a form of soft power.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
1. Orangutan Diplomacy - Incorrect. Malaysia's Orangutan Diplomacy focuses on using orangutan conservation as a means of soft power, not gifting orangutans to other countries. The strategy involves engaging other nations in conservation efforts.
2. Quantum Nonlocality - Correct. Quantum Nonlocality indeed refers to the principle where particles can instantaneously influence each other's state regardless of the distance separating them.
3. Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs - Correct. FDC drugs are indeed medications that combine multiple active ingredients in a single dosage form.
4. Panda Diplomacy - Correct. China's Panda Diplomacy involves lending pandas to other countries as a form of soft power to foster international relations.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are Quantum Nonlocality, Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs, and Panda Diplomacy.

What is the main factor influencing slope stability in mass wasting events?
  • a)
    The amount of vegetation on the slope
  • b)
    The angle of the slope and the shear strength of the materials
  • c)
    The color of the rocks on the slope
  • d)
    The presence of wildlife in the area
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aarav Saini answered
The Main Factor Influencing Slope Stability
Mass wasting events, which involve the downward movement of soil and rock under the influence of gravity, are primarily influenced by several factors. Among these, the angle of the slope and the shear strength of the materials are the most critical.
Angle of the Slope
- The steeper the slope, the greater the gravitational force acting on the materials.
- A slope exceeding the angle of repose (the maximum angle at which materials can remain stable) will likely result in mass wasting.
Shear Strength of Materials
- Shear strength refers to the ability of a material to resist sliding along internal planes.
- Factors affecting shear strength include cohesion (the internal attraction between particles), friction, and moisture content.
- When shear strength decreases (e.g., due to saturation with water), the likelihood of mass wasting increases significantly.
Interactions Between Angle and Shear Strength
- A steep slope with weak materials is particularly susceptible to failure.
- Conversely, a gentler slope with strong materials can remain stable despite a larger mass of material.
Conclusion
In summary, the interplay between the angle of the slope and the shear strength of the materials is crucial in determining slope stability. Understanding these factors is essential for predicting and mitigating the risks associated with mass wasting events, making option 'B' the correct choice.

Consider the following statements about the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM):
1. The Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) was established in 1966 with an aim to foster harmonious relations and cooperation between the Central Government and its employees.
2. The JCM includes all regular civil employees of the Central Government, including employees in industrial establishments and police personnel.
3. The National Council, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, acts as the apex body within the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Jain answered
Overview of Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM)
The Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) is a system designed to promote dialogue and cooperation between the Central Government and its employees, ensuring harmonious relations and improving administration.
Statement 1: Establishment and Purpose
- The JCM was indeed established in 1966.
- Its primary aim is to foster harmonious relations and cooperation between the Central Government and its employees.
- This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Composition of JCM
- The JCM encompasses all regular civil employees of the Central Government.
- However, it does not include police personnel, as they operate under different regulations.
- Thus, while it includes employees in industrial establishments, this statement is partially incorrect due to the inclusion of police personnel.
Statement 3: Structure and Apex Body
- The National Council is the apex body within the JCM framework.
- It is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, which is accurate.
- This statement is correct.
Conclusion
Considering the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is partially incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only).

What has contributed to the increased susceptibility of the Wayanad district in Kerala to landslides?
  • a)
    Changes in crop patterns
  • b)
    Heavy rainfall and geological factors
  • c)
    Construction of resorts and tourist activities
  • d)
    Climate change effects
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The susceptibility of the Wayanad district in Kerala to landslides is primarily attributed to a combination of heavy rainfall in the region and its geological characteristics. The area's heavy rainfall combined with the slope of the Western Ghats has made 31.54% of the district highly susceptible to landslides, according to the Geological Survey of India. These factors contribute significantly to the heightened risk of landslides in the region.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is the third largest tiger reserve in India.
2. The core area of a Tiger Reserve is managed as an inviolate area, while the buffer area may have a lesser degree of protection.
3. No changes in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made without the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Chavan answered
Overview of the Statements
The three statements regarding the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve and tiger reserves in general need to be evaluated carefully to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
- This reserve is indeed noted for its significant size and importance in tiger conservation.
- It is recognized as one of the largest tiger reserves in India, making this statement correct.
Statement 2: Management of Core and Buffer Areas
- In tiger reserves, the core area is designated as an inviolate zone, meaning it is protected from any human activity that could disturb wildlife.
- The buffer area, while still protected, allows for some human activities and development.
- This differentiation in management practices is a standard protocol in tiger conservation, making this statement also correct.
Statement 3: Changes in Boundaries
- The protocol for changing the boundaries of a tiger reserve is strictly regulated.
- Any modifications require the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wildlife, ensuring that conservation priorities are maintained.
- This statement is accurate as well.
Conclusion
Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is option 'D', which states that all statements (1, 2, and 3) are true. This reflects the structured approach to wildlife conservation in India, emphasizing the importance of protected areas and regulatory frameworks.

What is the primary goal of the Gaganyaan project initiated by ISRO in 2007?
  • a)
    To establish a permanent human settlement on Mars
  • b)
    To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
  • c)
    To explore deep space beyond our solar system
  • d)
    To study the atmosphere of Saturn
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Desai answered
The primary goal of the Gaganyaan project initiated by ISRO in 2007 is:
- To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
The Gaganyaan project aims to showcase India's ability to send humans into space and bring them back safely. It involves developing the necessary technologies, infrastructure, and expertise to launch crewed missions into low Earth orbit. This project is crucial for India as it will pave the way for future manned space missions and establish the country as a key player in the global space exploration arena.
- Key Objectives of the Gaganyaan Project:
1. Developing a crew module: ISRO is working on designing and building a crew module that can carry astronauts into space and bring them back to Earth safely.
2. Human spaceflight training: The Gaganyaan project includes training Indian astronauts for space missions, including simulations, physical fitness training, and other necessary preparations.
3. Launch vehicle development: ISRO is developing a new launch vehicle, the GSLV Mk III, capable of carrying crewed missions into space.
4. International collaboration: The Gaganyaan project involves collaboration with international space agencies and organizations to leverage expertise and resources for successful human spaceflight missions.
Overall, the Gaganyaan project is a significant step towards India's ambition to become a major player in human space exploration. It demonstrates the country's technological prowess and commitment to pushing the boundaries of space exploration.

What is the primary objective of the Bhavishya software introduced by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare for central government Ministries/Departments?
  • a)
    To automate the recruitment process for government employees
  • b)
    To track pension payments for retired employees
  • c)
    To manage leave applications for government officials
  • d)
    To monitor the attendance of government employees
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Mehra answered
Overview of Bhavishya Software
The Bhavishya software is an initiative by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare aimed at enhancing the management of pension-related processes for retired government employees.
Primary Objective
The main goal of Bhavishya is to:
  • Track Pension Payments: The software efficiently monitors and manages pension payments for retired employees, ensuring timely disbursement and accurate records.

Key Features
The Bhavishya software incorporates several essential features:
  • Automation: It automates various processes related to pension management, reducing manual errors and improving efficiency.
  • Transparency: The software provides transparency in the pension disbursement process, allowing pensioners to track the status of their payments.
  • Data Management: It maintains comprehensive records of pensioners, facilitating easy access to information and streamlined communication.

Impact on Pensioners
The implementation of Bhavishya has significant implications for pensioners:
  • Ease of Access: Pensioners can easily check their payment status online, enhancing their experience and satisfaction.
  • Reduced Delays: By automating processes, the software minimizes delays in pension payments, ensuring that retired employees receive their dues on time.

Conclusion
In summary, the Bhavishya software plays a crucial role in improving the management of pension payments for retired government employees, making it an essential tool for the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh is set to become the third largest tiger reserve in India.
Statement-II:
Neutron stars are the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rithika Menon answered
Explanation:

Statement-I:
- The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh is not set to become the third largest tiger reserve in India. This statement is incorrect.
- As of now, the third largest tiger reserve in India is the Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, which is spread across the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect.

Statement-II:
- Neutron stars are indeed the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion.
- A neutron star is a dense, compact star primarily composed of neutrons. It is formed when a massive star exhausts its nuclear fuel and undergoes a supernova explosion, leaving behind a core of neutrons.
- Therefore, Statement-II is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

What is the significance of Japan being situated on the Ring of Fire in relation to seismic activity?
  • a)
    Japan experiences the highest number of earthquakes globally.
  • b)
    The Ring of Fire is a region with minimal seismic activity.
  • c)
    Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire.
  • d)
    Seismic activity in Japan is nonexistent because of its geographical location.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Desai answered
Location on the Ring of Fire
Japan is situated on the Ring of Fire, which is a horseshoe-shaped belt that surrounds the Pacific Ocean and is known for its high levels of seismic activity. This area is home to about 75% of the world's active and dormant volcanoes, as well as 90% of the world's earthquakes.

Frequency of Earthquakes
Due to its location on the Ring of Fire, Japan experiences frequent earthquakes. The tectonic plates beneath Japan are constantly moving and interacting, leading to a high level of seismic activity in the region. These movements can result in earthquakes of varying magnitudes, ranging from minor tremors to devastating quakes.

Impact on Japan
The frequent earthquakes in Japan have significant impacts on the country, including the potential for widespread destruction, loss of life, and economic repercussions. Japan has implemented strict building codes and disaster preparedness measures to mitigate the effects of earthquakes, but the risk remains due to the country's location on the Ring of Fire.

Conclusion
In conclusion, Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire. The high levels of seismic activity in the region make it imperative for Japan to be vigilant and prepared for potential earthquakes and their aftermath.

Consider the following statements regarding the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project:
1. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is located on the reservoir of Omkareshwar dam on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh.
2. The project is managed by the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy.
3. It is estimated to produce 196.5 million units of electricity annually and reduce carbon emissions by 2.3 lakh tons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is indeed located on the reservoir of the Omkareshwar dam, which is on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh. This location and detail are accurate as per the information provided.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Although the project was carried out under the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy, it is managed by SJVN Green Energy Limited (SGEL), a subsidiary of SJVN, which is a partnership between the Government of India and the Government of Himachal Pradesh. This means the direct management is not under the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy but under SGEL.
- Statement 3 is correct. The project is indeed estimated to produce 196.5 million units of electricity in its first year and reduce carbon emissions by 2.3 lakh tons, supporting the Indian government's environmental goals.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano: Only known volcano actively erupting carbonatite magma
2. Western Ghats: Longest mountain range in India
3. Anamudi: Highest peak in the Western Ghats
4. Godavari River: Originates in the Western Ghats
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano: Only known volcano actively erupting carbonatite magma - Correct. Ol Doinyo Lengai is indeed the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
2. Western Ghats: Longest mountain range in India - Incorrect. While the Western Ghats are significant, the longest mountain range in India is the Himalayas.
3. Anamudi: Highest peak in the Western Ghats - Correct. Anamudi is indeed the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
4. Godavari River: Originates in the Western Ghats - Correct. The Godavari River originates in the Western Ghats, specifically in the Nashik District of Maharashtra.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand
2. Malappuram: Karnataka
3. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer
4. Wayanad: Kerala
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Correctly Matched Pairs
1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand
Rudraprayag is a district in the state of Uttarakhand, India. It is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.
2. Wayanad: Kerala
Wayanad is a district in the state of Kerala, India. It is known for its scenic beauty, wildlife sanctuaries, and spice plantations.

Incorrectly Matched Pairs
3. Malappuram: Karnataka
Malappuram is a district in the state of Kerala, not Karnataka. It is known for its cultural diversity and historical significance.
4. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer
Udham Singh was a freedom fighter from India who assassinated Michael O'Dwyer, not Brigadier Reginald Dyer. He sought revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre where Dyer was responsible for the deaths of hundreds of innocent civilians.
Therefore, only two pairs given above are correctly matched - Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand and Wayanad: Kerala.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Shaheen-II Missile and Slow Loris:
1. Shaheen-II Missile: Two-stage, liquid-fueled missile
2. Shaheen-II Missile: Range of 1,500-2,000 km
3. Slow Loris: Found only in South and Southeast Asia
4. Slow Loris: Produces venom from a gland in its mouth
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Ghosh answered
Overview of Shaheen-II Missile and Slow Loris
When evaluating the pairs regarding the Shaheen-II missile and Slow Loris, it's essential to verify each statement for accuracy. Here's the breakdown:

1. Shaheen-II Missile: Two-stage, liquid-fueled missile
- This statement is **correct**. The Shaheen-II is indeed a two-stage missile that uses liquid fuel.

2. Shaheen-II Missile: Range of 1,500-2,000 km
- This statement is also **correct**. The Shaheen-II missile has a reported range of approximately 1,500 to 2,000 kilometers, allowing it to strike targets at significant distances.

3. Slow Loris: Found only in South and Southeast Asia
- This statement is **partially correct**. While Slow Loris species are primarily found in South and Southeast Asia, they are not confined to just these regions; they also inhabit parts of Northeast India and certain other adjacent areas.

4. Slow Loris: Produces venom from a gland in its mouth
- This statement is **correct**. Slow Loris does produce venom, which is secreted from glands in its elbows and can be mixed with saliva, making it toxic when ingested through bites.

Conclusion: Number of Correct Pairs
- Based on the evaluations:
- Shaheen-II Missile: 1st (correct), 2nd (correct)
- Slow Loris: 3rd (partially correct), 4th (correct)
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched, making the correct answer **'B: Only two pairs'** in the context of the statement's accuracy.

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