All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Sahara Desert is recognized as the world's largest hot desert.
Statement-II: The Sahara Desert is larger than the polar deserts of Antarctica and the Arctic.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement-I is incorrect because the Sahara Desert is the third largest desert overall, following the polar deserts of Antarctica and the Arctic. It is not the largest desert in the world.
- Statement-II is correct as it correctly states that the Sahara Desert is larger than the polar deserts of Antarctica and the Arctic. This makes Statement-II correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is that Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Why are 'protected' areas experiencing a faster decline in biodiversity according to a recent study?
  • a)
    Due to the prioritization of specific species over the entire ecosystem
  • b)
    High influx of tourists in protected areas
  • c)
    Lack of governmental regulations in non-protected areas
  • d)
    Natural disasters impacting biodiversity equally in protected and non-protected areas
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Chawla answered
Understanding Biodiversity Decline in Protected Areas
Protected areas were established to conserve biodiversity and safeguard ecosystems. However, recent studies indicate a troubling trend: these areas are experiencing a faster decline in biodiversity. This phenomenon can be primarily attributed to the prioritization of specific species over the entire ecosystem.
Prioritization of Specific Species
- Species-Centric Conservation: Many conservation efforts focus on 'flagship' species—those that are charismatic or have significant ecological roles. This approach often neglects the broader ecosystem, leading to imbalances.
- Neglect of Ecosystem Interactions: When attention is solely on certain species, the interconnected relationships within the ecosystem may be overlooked. This can result in the decline of other species that play critical roles in maintaining ecological balance.
Consequences of Over-Emphasis
- Loss of Habitat Diversity: Focusing on a few species can lead to habitat degradation, as areas may be altered to suit the needs of those specific species, harming others in the process.
- Invasive Species: With a narrow conservation focus, there may be insufficient measures to control invasive species that threaten the local biodiversity, further exacerbating the decline.
Conclusion
In summary, while protected areas are designed to conserve biodiversity, the trend of prioritizing specific species over holistic ecosystem health can lead to unintended consequences. A balanced approach that encompasses all aspects of biodiversity is essential for effective conservation and the long-term sustainability of these vital areas.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Azores Archipelago consists of nine islands situated in the North Atlantic Ocean.
Statement-II:
The Azores Plateau is located above the Azores Triple Junction, where three tectonic plates—Eurasian, North American, and African—intersect.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered

Statement-I correctly identifies the Azores Archipelago as consisting of nine islands in the North Atlantic Ocean. Statement-II accurately describes the geographical location of the Azores Plateau above the Azores Triple Junction, where the Eurasian, North American, and African tectonic plates intersect. The Azores Plateau's positioning is indeed significant in the context of the geological features of the region, illustrating how the islands emerged due to tectonic activity. Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II logically provides additional explanatory details that relate to Statement-I, making option (a) the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. International Energy Efficiency Hub - Established in 2020
2. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) - Implementing agency for India's involvement
3. International Medical Device Regulators Forum - Founded in 2015
4. PM Internship Scheme - Provides a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 funded by the central government
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. International Energy Efficiency Hub - Established in 2020: This pair is correctly matched. The International Energy Efficiency Hub was indeed established in 2020, succeeding the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC).
2. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) - Implementing agency for India's involvement: This pair is correctly matched. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is the designated implementing agency for India's participation in the International Energy Efficiency Hub.
3. International Medical Device Regulators Forum - Founded in 2015: This pair is incorrectly matched. The International Medical Device Regulators Forum (IMDRF) was founded in 2011, not 2015.
4. PM Internship Scheme - Provides a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 funded by the central government: This pair is incorrectly matched. The PM Internship Scheme provides a monthly stipend of ₹4,500 funded by the central government through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), with an additional ₹500 contributed by companies through their Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The flooding in Bihar, particularly due to the Kosi River, is exacerbated by the construction of embankments that have trapped sediments, leading to a rise in the riverbed height.
Statement-II:
The Flood Atlas of Bihar advocates prioritizing risk minimization and damage reduction over solely relying on structural solutions along dynamic rivers like the Kosi.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I highlights the impact of embankments on the flooding situation in Bihar, particularly focusing on the Kosi River. The construction of embankments has worsened flooding by trapping sediments and increasing the riverbed height, exacerbating the flooding crisis.
Statement-II emphasizes the Flood Atlas of Bihar's recommendation to prioritize non-structural solutions like risk minimization and damage reduction over purely relying on structural measures along rivers such as the Kosi. This aligns with the need for comprehensive approaches to address flooding issues beyond just engineering solutions.
Therefore, both statements are factually correct, and Statement-II provides a broader context and explanation for the implications mentioned in Statement-I.

What term best describes a free market system where organizations hire or contract workers for short durations to meet immediate company needs through temporary engagements?
  • a)
    Independent Economy
  • b)
    Contracted Market
  • c)
    Gig Economy
  • d)
    Temporary Labor Force
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The term "Gig Economy" refers to a free market system where organizations hire or contract workers for short durations to meet immediate company needs through temporary engagements. This model has gained prominence with the rise of platforms like Ola, Uber, Zomato, and Swiggy in India, offering temporary positions designed to address immediate organizational requirements.
This question assesses the understanding of the concept of the gig economy and its prevalence in the modern workforce landscape.

What is the primary objective of China's 'Anaconda Strategy' in relation to Taiwan as per the provided information?
  • a)
    To initiate a full-scale military invasion of Taiwan immediately
  • b)
    To apply continuous pressure on Taiwan without necessitating a full-scale invasion
  • c)
    To establish peaceful diplomatic relations with Taiwan
  • d)
    To isolate Taiwan from international trade partnerships
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
China's 'Anaconda Strategy' aims to exert continuous pressure on Taiwan without necessitating a full-scale invasion. This strategy involves a combination of military tactics, psychological pressure, and cyber warfare to undermine Taiwan's defenses and compel the island to submit while avoiding direct military conflict. The ultimate goal is to exhaust Taiwan's resources and keep its forces in a defensive posture.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The BioE3 policy aims to transform chemical industries into sustainable bio-based models, promoting biotechnology to drive economic growth, protect the environment, and create jobs, supporting India’s sustainable development and climate goals.
Statement-II:
Companies should take measures to diminish water usage in manufacturing and treat wastewater to prevent water pollution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
Statement-I discusses the objectives of the BioE3 policy, which are focused on:
- Transforming chemical industries into sustainable, bio-based models.
- Promoting biotechnology to drive economic growth.
- Protecting the environment and creating jobs.
- Supporting India’s sustainable development and climate goals.
Statement-II Overview
Statement-II emphasizes the importance of:
- Reducing water usage in manufacturing processes.
- Treating wastewater to prevent water pollution.
Correctness of Statements
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I outlines a broader vision for sustainability in industries, particularly in the context of biotechnology.
- Statement-II provides a specific measure that aligns with the goals of sustainable practices highlighted in Statement-I.
Relation Between Statements
- Explanation Link:
- Statement-II does explain a practical aspect of how companies can contribute to the goals set out in Statement-I, specifically in terms of environmental protection and sustainable practices.
- Measures to reduce water usage and treat wastewater are critical components of achieving the sustainable development objectives mentioned in Statement-I.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct option is (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I through practical sustainability measures. This alignment highlights the importance of integrated approaches in achieving broader sustainability goals in the industrial sector.

What is the primary goal of the MAHA-EV Mission unveiled by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation?
  • a)
    To dominate the global electric vehicle market
  • b)
    To encourage reliance on imports for electric vehicle technologies
  • c)
    To establish India as a leading player in electric vehicle technology
  • d)
    To focus solely on developing electric vehicle charging infrastructure
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
The primary goal of the MAHA-EV Mission is to establish India as a leader in the global electric vehicle market by fostering the development of essential electric vehicle technologies. This initiative aims to reduce reliance on imports, encourage domestic innovation, and enhance India's competitiveness in the EV sector on a global scale. By focusing on critical technology verticals such as Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells, Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD), and Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure, the mission seeks to propel India towards a more sustainable and eco-friendly future while boosting its capabilities in designing and developing key EV components.

What is the primary role of the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA)?
  • a)
    Providing assistance to refugees worldwide
  • b)
    Supporting displaced individuals from various conflicts
  • c)
    Offering emergency humanitarian aid to conflict-affected populations
  • d)
    Assisting Palestinians displaced during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The Role of UNRWA
The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) was established in 1949 specifically to address the needs of Palestinian refugees who were displaced during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war.
Primary Functions of UNRWA
- Assistance to Palestinian Refugees: UNRWA provides essential services to over five million Palestinian refugees in the region. This includes education, healthcare, social services, and emergency aid.
- Historical Context: The agency was created in response to the humanitarian crisis that arose from the conflict, particularly for those who lost their homes and livelihoods.
- Unique Status: Unlike other UN agencies, UNRWA's mandate is limited to Palestinian refugees and their descendants, which distinguishes it from broader humanitarian efforts that address refugees from various conflicts worldwide.
Key Services Provided
- Education: UNRWA operates schools that provide education to Palestinian children, aiming to ensure continuity and quality of education despite ongoing conflict.
- Healthcare: The agency offers primary healthcare services, including vaccinations and maternal care, to improve health outcomes in refugee communities.
- Social Services: UNRWA supports vulnerable populations through social programs, including cash assistance and food aid.
- Emergency Response: In times of crisis, such as escalated conflicts, UNRWA provides urgent humanitarian assistance to those affected, ensuring basic needs are met.
Conclusion
In summary, UNRWA's primary role is to assist Palestinians displaced during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war, offering a range of services to improve their living conditions and support their rights as refugees. This specialized focus differentiates UNRWA from other humanitarian agencies that cater to a broader refugee population.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
UNIFIL has faced criticism from the U.S. and Israel for its perceived ineffectiveness in preventing Hezbollah from amassing and firing rockets.
Statement-II:
UN peacekeeping operations can use force proactively to prevent violations and ensure peace in conflict zones.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I claims that UNIFIL (United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon) has faced criticism from the U.S. and Israel for its ineffectiveness in preventing Hezbollah from amassing and firing rockets.
- This statement is accurate, as both the U.S. and Israel have expressed concerns regarding UNIFIL's ability to monitor and control Hezbollah activities, particularly regarding weapon stockpiling.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II asserts that UN peacekeeping operations can use force proactively to prevent violations and ensure peace in conflict zones.
- This statement is incorrect. UN peacekeeping forces are typically mandated to use force only in self-defense or to protect civilians in imminent danger. They generally do not have a mandate to proactively engage in offensive operations to prevent violations, which limits their effectiveness in certain scenarios.
Conclusion
- Given the analyses above, Statement-I is correct, while Statement-II is incorrect.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. This conclusion reflects the complexities and limitations inherent in UN peacekeeping mandates.

What is the primary purpose of the stock market in India, as described in the text?
  • a)
    Facilitating interactions between companies and investors
  • b)
    Ensuring short-term gains for investors
  • c)
    Controlling the prices of stocks for stable market growth
  • d)
    Regulating the trading of commodities and currencies
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The stock market in India primarily operates as a regulated, centralized platform that facilitates interactions between companies and investors. It enables companies to raise capital through share sales while providing investors opportunities for profit and growth. This mechanism supports business growth and investment by connecting those seeking capital with those willing to invest, thereby playing a crucial role in the economy's financial ecosystem.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sambhar Lake was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990, highlighting its significance as a wetland.
Statement-II:
The Coral Triangle encompasses a vast marine area that spans over 10 million square kilometers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Tiwari answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Sambhar Lake is indeed a notable wetland in India.
- It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1990, which emphasizes its ecological significance and the need for conservation.
- This statement is correct.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Coral Triangle is recognized for its extraordinary marine biodiversity.
- It spans approximately 10 million square kilometers across several Southeast Asian countries.
- This statement is also correct.
Relationship Between the Statements
- While both statements are accurate, they pertain to different subjects: Statement-I focuses on a specific wetland in India, while Statement-II discusses a vast marine area renowned for biodiversity.
- Therefore, Statement-II does not provide an explanation or context for Statement-I.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct, but they address separate environmental issues without any direct connection.
- Hence, the correct answer is option B: "Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I."
This analysis highlights the importance of understanding environmental conservation in different contexts, reflecting the diverse ecological significance of both wetland and marine ecosystems.

Consider the following pairs regarding India's SDG focus and human development challenges:
1. SDG-3: Gender equality
2. SDG-4: Quality education
3. HDI Ranking Improvement: Bangladesh improved by 10 places
4. Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) Gender Gap: Women 28.3%, Men 76.1%
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Rane answered
Understanding India's SDG Focus and Human Development Challenges
To evaluate how many pairs are correctly matched, let’s analyze each pair:
1. SDG-3: Gender Equality
- Correctness: SDG-3 focuses on ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all. The correct goal for gender equality is SDG-5. Thus, this pair is incorrect.
2. SDG-4: Quality Education
- Correctness: SDG-4 indeed focuses on ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities for all. This pair is correct.
3. HDI Ranking Improvement: Bangladesh improved by 10 places
- Correctness: Bangladesh has made significant strides in human development, reflected in its HDI ranking improvements in recent years. This pair is correct, as the country has improved its position in the HDI rankings.
4. Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) Gender Gap
- Correctness: The figures presented (Women 28.3%, Men 76.1%) reflect a significant gender gap in LFPR in India, indicating that women participate in the workforce at a much lower rate than men. This pair is correct.
Conclusion
- After evaluating all pairs:
- Only two pairs are correct: SDG-4 and the HDI ranking improvement for Bangladesh.
Hence, the answer is option 'B': Only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Dragon drones are equipped with thermite, which can burn underwater and cause severe burns on human skin.
Statement-II:
Dragon drones have been utilized in the Russia-Ukraine conflict since September, employing high-precision technology.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Shah answered
Analysis of Statements
To evaluate the correctness of the two statements regarding Dragon drones, we need to analyze each statement carefully.
Statement-I: Accuracy of Thermite Use
- Dragon drones are said to be equipped with thermite.
- Thermite is a mixture that can indeed burn at very high temperatures and is capable of burning underwater.
- It is known to cause severe burns on human skin due to its intense heat.
Statement-II: Utilization in the Russia-Ukraine Conflict
- Dragon drones have been actively employed in the Russia-Ukraine conflict since September.
- These drones are noted for their high-precision technology, which enhances their effectiveness in targeting and military operations.
Conclusion: Relationship Between the Statements
- Both statements are accurate based on available evidence.
- Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I; it merely states the capabilities and use of the drones without implying that the use of thermite is a primary feature or the reason for their deployment.
Correct Answer Explanation
- Therefore, the correct choice is option 'B': "Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I."
- This highlights that while both statements are true, they address different aspects of the Dragon drones without a causal relationship.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Lake Prespa - Oldest tectonic lake in Asia
2. Little Prespa Lake - Majority located in Greek territory
3. Great Prespa Lake - Shared by Albania, Greece, and North Macedonia
4. Suva Gora - Massif located to the North of Lake Prespa
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Lake Prespa - Oldest tectonic lake in Asia- This pair is incorrectly matched. Lake Prespa is one of the oldest tectonic lakes in Europe, not Asia. It is also the highest tectonic lake on the Balkan Peninsula.
2. Little Prespa Lake - Majority located in Greek territory- This pair is correctly matched. The majority of Little Prespa Lake (also known as Small Prespa Lake) is indeed located within Greek territory, with only a small portion extending into Albania.
3. Great Prespa Lake - Shared by Albania, Greece, and North Macedonia- This pair is correctly matched. Great Prespa Lake is shared by the countries of Albania, Greece, and North Macedonia.
4. Suva Gora - Massif located to the North of Lake Prespa- This pair is incorrectly matched. Suva Gora is located to the South of Lake Prespa, not the North.
Thus, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

What characteristic of neutrinos makes them challenging to detect?
  • a)
    High interaction rate with other particles
  • b)
    Electrical charge
  • c)
    Strong nuclear force interaction
  • d)
    Low interaction rate with other particles
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Roy answered
Understanding Neutrinos
Neutrinos are subatomic particles that are known for their elusive nature. Their characteristics contribute to the difficulties faced in their detection.
Low Interaction Rate
- Neutrinos are extremely light particles that carry no electrical charge.
- They interact with other matter primarily through the weak nuclear force, which is much weaker than the electromagnetic or strong forces.
- This results in a very low interaction rate with other particles, making them pass through ordinary matter almost undetected.
Implications of Low Interaction Rate
- Due to their low interaction rate, neutrinos can travel vast distances without being absorbed or deflected.
- For example, trillions of neutrinos pass through our bodies every second without us noticing.
- This characteristic necessitates the use of large detectors, often located underground or underwater, to increase the likelihood of a neutrino interacting with the detection material.
Conclusion
The low interaction rate of neutrinos is the primary reason they are so challenging to detect. This makes experiments aimed at studying neutrinos complex and requires sophisticated technology and significant resources. Understanding neutrinos is crucial for advancing our knowledge of fundamental physics and the universe.

What criteria must a language meet to qualify as a classical language according to the Linguistic Experts Committee's standards?
  • a)
    Having a significant historical background spanning 1000 to 1500 years.
  • b)
    Having a substantial body of ancient literature or texts that are culturally significant.
  • c)
    Being widely spoken in at least five different countries.
  • d)
    Having a classical form that is identical to its contemporary version.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
To qualify as a classical language, a language must have a substantial body of ancient literature or texts that are regarded as cultural heritage by generations of its speakers. This criterion is essential in determining the classical status of a language, emphasizing the significance of ancient texts and literary works in preserving cultural identity and heritage over time.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
1. Establishment Year - 2020
2. Nodal Ministry - Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
3. Primary Objective - To promote consumer goods
4. Composition - Led by a Chief Commissioner with two other commissioners
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Establishment Year - 2020: Correct. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established in July 2020 under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
2. Nodal Ministry - Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution: Correct. The CCPA is overseen by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
3. Primary Objective - To promote consumer goods: Incorrect. The primary objective of the CCPA is to safeguard consumer rights by addressing unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements, not to promote consumer goods.
4. Composition - Led by a Chief Commissioner with two other commissioners: Correct. The CCPA is led by a Chief Commissioner and has two additional commissioners, one focusing on goods and the other on services.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the significance of mesophotic coral ecosystems in the Eastern Tropical Pacific region?
  • a)
    They primarily consist of shallow-water corals.
  • b)
    They are essential for the health of deeper coral reefs.
  • c)
    They are located at depths exceeding 500 feet.
  • d)
    They have no ecological importance.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anisha Yadav answered
Significance of Mesophotic Coral Ecosystems
Mesophotic coral ecosystems, typically found at depths ranging from 30 to 150 meters (about 100 to 500 feet), play a crucial role in maintaining the health of marine environments, particularly in the Eastern Tropical Pacific region.
Role in Biodiversity
- Habitat for Diverse Species: These ecosystems provide a habitat for a variety of marine species, including fish, invertebrates, and algae, contributing to overall biodiversity.
- Refuge for Shallow-Water Species: Mesophotic environments can serve as a refuge for shallow-water coral species that may be under stress due to climate change, pollution, and overfishing.
Connection to Deeper Coral Reefs
- Nutrient Exchange: Mesophotic coral ecosystems are significant in nutrient cycling, influencing both shallow and deeper reef systems. They can act as a bridge for nutrient and energy transfer between different ocean depths.
- Genetic Reservoir: These ecosystems are essential for genetic diversity and can help replenish shallow coral populations, ensuring resilience against environmental changes.
Impact on Fisheries
- Support for Fisheries: Healthy mesophotic coral ecosystems support fisheries by providing nursery habitats for various commercially important fish species. This enhances local economies reliant on fishing.
Climate Resilience
- Mitigation of Climate Change Impacts: By maintaining biodiversity and providing habitat stability, mesophotic corals contribute to the resilience of marine ecosystems against climate change, helping to protect the overall health of oceanic environments.
In summary, mesophotic coral ecosystems are integral to the ecological balance in the Eastern Tropical Pacific, emphasizing their importance beyond mere biological diversity. Their role in supporting deeper reefs, enhancing fisheries, and contributing to climate resilience underscores their ecological significance.

What is one of the primary advantages of synthetic medical images in healthcare?
  • a)
     
    They require extensive patient data for accuracy
  • b)
     
    They enhance privacy protection by avoiding the use of real patient data
  • c)
    They are created using traditional imaging techniques
  • d)
     
    They solely rely on manual processing by radiologists
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

One of the primary advantages of synthetic medical images is that they can be generated without using actual patient data, thereby enhancing patient privacy and data protection. This is particularly important in healthcare settings where patient confidentiality is critical. Synthetic images allow for training and testing of medical imaging algorithms without the risk of exposing sensitive patient information.

Consider the following statements:
1. Mesophotic coral ecosystems are typically found at depths between 100 and 490 feet in tropical and subtropical regions.
2. The Great Barrier Reef is the largest area of coral reefs in the world.
3. Coral reefs are primarily found in freshwater environments, providing breeding grounds for freshwater fish species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Nair answered
Understanding Mesophotic Coral Ecosystems
Mesophotic coral ecosystems are indeed found at depths between 100 and 490 feet, primarily in tropical and subtropical regions. This statement is correct as it highlights the unique ecological characteristics of these deeper coral formations, which are adapted to lower light conditions.
The Great Barrier Reef
The Great Barrier Reef is recognized as the largest coral reef system in the world, stretching over 1,400 miles along the coast of Australia. This statement is also correct, as it underscores the significance and size of this remarkable natural wonder.
Coral Reefs in Freshwater Environments
The assertion that coral reefs are primarily found in freshwater environments is incorrect. Coral reefs thrive in saltwater environments, predominantly in tropical oceans. They do not serve as breeding grounds for freshwater fish species, which inhabit rivers and lakes instead.
Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' as it includes the accurate statements:
- Statement 1: Correct about mesophotic coral ecosystems.
- Statement 2: Correct about the Great Barrier Reef.
- Statement 3: Incorrect regarding coral reefs and freshwater environments.
In summary, only statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding the characteristics and locations of coral ecosystems, making option 'B' the right choice.

What is the primary objective of the Employees Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme?
  • a)
    To provide health insurance coverage
  • b)
    To offer term life insurance benefits to employees
  • c)
    To offer retirement benefits to employees
  • d)
    To provide housing loans to employees
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
The primary objective of the Employees Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme is to offer term life insurance benefits to employees, particularly in cases where such benefits may not be commonly provided by employers. This scheme, managed by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), aims to provide social security benefits to private sector employees and their families, ensuring financial protection in the unfortunate event of the employee's demise.
(Note: The EDLI scheme provides term life insurance coverage for member employees based on their last drawn salary, with benefits determined accordingly.)

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India ranks 134 out of 193 countries with a Human Development Index (HDI) value of 0.644.
Statement-II: Bangladesh and Bhutan have both improved their HDI rankings by a higher number of places compared to India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Krish Dasgupta answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I claims that India ranks 134 out of 193 countries in the Human Development Index (HDI) with a value of 0.644.
- This information has been verified and is accurate as per the latest HDI reports released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II asserts that Bangladesh and Bhutan have improved their HDI rankings by a higher number of places compared to India.
- This statement is also correct, as both countries have made significant progress in their HDI rankings over recent years, reflecting their effective development policies and improvements in health, education, and income.
Relationship Between the Statements
- While both statements are true, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I.
- Statement-I focuses on India’s HDI ranking and value, while Statement-II addresses the comparative progress of other countries (Bangladesh and Bhutan) without providing a causal link to India's status.
Conclusion
- The correct answer is option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- This reflects an understanding of the HDI rankings of India in relation to its neighbors and highlights the advancements made by those countries without diminishing India's achievements.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) enables peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process.
Statement-II:
UPI Tap and Pay facilitates payments through NFC-enabled QR codes at merchants with a single tap, eliminating the need to enter a PIN.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashwini Mehta answered
Understanding UPI and its Features
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a revolutionary payment system in India that facilitates seamless bank transactions. Let's analyze the statements to understand their correctness.
Statement-I: UPI Peer-to-Peer Transfers
- UPI allows users to transfer money between bank accounts instantly.
- It operates through a two-factor authentication, involving the user's UPI PIN and the authentication of the transaction.
- This statement is correct as it accurately describes the peer-to-peer transfer functionality of UPI.
Statement-II: UPI Tap and Pay
- UPI Tap and Pay utilizes Near Field Communication (NFC) technology for payments.
- It enables users to make payments at merchant locations by tapping their phones on NFC-enabled devices or scanning QR codes.
- Importantly, when using Tap and Pay, entering a PIN is not required for small transactions, making it convenient and quick.
- This statement is also correct, as it describes the functionality of UPI Tap and Pay accurately.
Relationship Between Statements
- Both statements are correct.
- Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I but rather elaborates on a specific feature of UPI, which enhances the overall functionality.
Conclusion
- The correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- UPI represents a significant advancement in digital payments, catering to various transaction methods, thus benefiting users comprehensively.

What is the primary concern raised by India regarding the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with the UAE?
  • a)
    Excessive import of gold and diamonds
  • b)
    Violation of Rules of Origin requirements
  • c)
    Lack of tariff concessions on food items
  • d)
    Absence of non-oil trade targets
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Verma answered
Primary Concern: Violation of Rules of Origin
The primary concern raised by India regarding the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with the UAE is the potential violation of Rules of Origin requirements. This issue is critical for several reasons:
Understanding Rules of Origin
- Rules of Origin are regulations that determine the national source of a product. They are essential in preventing trade circumvention and maintaining the integrity of tariff concessions.
- In the context of FTAs, these rules help to ensure that only goods genuinely produced within the member countries benefit from reduced tariffs.
India's Concerns
- India fears that the UAE could act as a conduit for goods from third countries, particularly those with lower production standards or preferential treatment.
- This could result in a surge of cheap imports into India, undermining local industries and economic stability.
Impact on Trade Balance
- If the Rules of Origin are not strictly enforced, India could face an imbalance in trade, with a flood of imports that do not genuinely reflect UAE production capabilities.
- This could lead to significant losses for Indian manufacturers, particularly in sensitive sectors like textiles and electronics.
Conclusion
- India's insistence on strict adherence to these rules is aimed at protecting its domestic economy from potential negative impacts of the FTA with the UAE.
- Ensuring compliance with Rules of Origin is vital for maintaining fair competition and safeguarding local industries against unfair trade practices.

What is the primary causative agent of Footrot Disease in ruminants?
  • a)
    Dichelobacter nodosus
  • b)
    Virus
  • c)
    Fungus
  • d)
    Protozoa
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Sarkar answered
Understanding Footrot Disease
Footrot is a common and painful condition affecting the feet of ruminants, particularly sheep and cattle. The primary causative agent of this disease is a bacterium known as Dichelobacter nodosus.
Key Characteristics of Dichelobacter nodosus
- Bacterial Nature: Dichelobacter nodosus is a Gram-negative anaerobic bacterium. It thrives in moist conditions, making it particularly problematic in wet climates or during rainy seasons.
- Virulence Factors: This bacterium produces enzymes that break down tissues in the hoof, leading to necrosis and inflammation. It also has specific adhesins that help it attach to the hoof tissues, promoting infection.
Pathogenesis of Footrot Disease
- Infection Process: The disease typically begins with damage to the skin between the toes, often due to trauma or long wet grass, creating an entry point for the bacteria.
- Symptoms: Infected animals exhibit lameness, swelling, and foul-smelling lesions between the toes. If left untreated, it can spread and lead to severe pain and secondary infections.
Prevention and Control
- Management Practices: Proper foot care, maintaining dry living conditions, and regular inspection of hooves are crucial in preventing footrot. Vaccination strategies may also be employed in endemic areas.
- Treatment Options: Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory medications can help control the infection, along with trimming of the affected hooves.
In summary, Dichelobacter nodosus is the primary causative agent of Footrot Disease in ruminants, making it essential for farmers and veterinarians to understand its role and implement effective management practices to control the condition.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India ranks as the second-largest consumer of fertilizers globally, with an annual consumption exceeding 55 million metric tons.
Statement-II:
India has been ranked 176 in the Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI) 2024, achieving a score of 45.5 out of 100.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements, let's evaluate each one individually.
Statement-I: Fertilizer Consumption in India
- India is indeed the second-largest consumer of fertilizers in the world.
- The annual consumption surpasses 55 million metric tons, reflecting the country's extensive agricultural practices and reliance on fertilizers to enhance crop yield.
- This statement is accurate.
Statement-II: Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI) Ranking
- India has been ranked 176 in the Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI) for 2024 with a score of 45.5 out of 100.
- This ranking indicates challenges in environmental conservation and biodiversity efforts in India.
- This statement is also accurate.
Relationship Between the Statements
- The two statements, while both correct, do not have a direct cause-and-effect relationship.
- Statement-II does not explain or relate to Statement-I in a way that one leads to an understanding of the other.
Conclusion
Given that both statements are correct but do not explain each other, the correct answer is:
Option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
This conclusion emphasizes the distinct nature of the two statements, focusing on separate aspects of India's agricultural and environmental standing.

Consider the following statements regarding Lipulekh Pass:
1. Lipulekh Pass is located at the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China and is strategically significant for access to the upper Himalayan regions.
2. The pass is a part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route, which holds significant religious importance for Hindus.
3. Lipulekh Pass was the first Indian border post opened for trade with China in the early 2000s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: Lipulekh Pass is indeed located near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China, making it strategically significant for access to the upper Himalayan regions. This statement is correct.
2. Statement 2: The pass is indeed part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra route, which is a sacred pilgrimage for Hindus. This statement is correct as well.
3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Lipulekh Pass was not the first Indian border post opened for trade with China in the early 2000s. It was opened in 1992, followed by others like Shipki La Pass in 1994 and Nathu La Pass in 2006.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as both statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding BharatGen initiative:
Statement-I: BharatGen aims to develop generative AI systems capable of creating high-quality text and multimodal content in various Indian languages.
Statement-II: The project is being implemented under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) by IIT Delhi.
Statement-III: BharatGen focuses on developing an open-source platform that will contribute to the generative AI research ecosystem in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
  • c)
    Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
  • d)
    Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct as BharatGen indeed focuses on developing generative AI systems for creating high-quality text and multimodal content in various Indian languages.
Statement-II is incorrect because the project is being implemented by IIT Bombay, not IIT Delhi.
Statement-III is correct and explains Statement-I because BharatGen is aimed at fostering an open-source platform for AI research, aligning with the goal of developing generative AI systems.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in northern Delhi
2. Prosopis juliflora - Dominant native species of the sanctuary
3. Livestock Census - Conducted every five years
4. SIMBEX Exercise - Originally named Exercise Lion King
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ritika Basu answered
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many of the given pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one:
1. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary - Located in northern Delhi
- This is correct. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is indeed located in the southern part of Delhi, near the border with Haryana. However, the description of its location as "northern" is misleading.
2. Prosopis juliflora - Dominant native species of the sanctuary
- This is incorrect. Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite, is actually an invasive species in many parts of India, including Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary. The dominant native species would be different, such as various types of shrubs and trees native to the region.
3. Livestock Census - Conducted every five years
- This is correct. The Livestock Census in India is conducted every five years, providing essential data on livestock population and health.
4. SIMBEX Exercise - Originally named Exercise Lion King
- This is correct. SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise) was indeed originally named Exercise Lion King during its inception.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correctly Matched Pairs: 3rd and 4th pairs are correct.
- Incorrectly Matched Pairs: 1st and 2nd pairs are incorrect.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched, confirming that the correct answer is option 'B'.

Consider the following statements regarding the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004:
1. The Act allowed government grants and regulated madrasa operations to ensure compliance with educational standards.
2. The Allahabad High Court declared the Act unconstitutional for violating the secular principle enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
3. The Act was challenged for providing preferential treatment to madrasas, allegedly violating Article 30 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Verma answered
Understanding the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004
The Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004 aimed to regulate madrasas in the state to ensure they met specific educational standards. Let's analyze the statements regarding this Act:
Statement 1: Government Grants and Regulation
- The Act indeed allowed for government grants and sought to regulate madrasa operations.
- This was aimed at standardizing education and ensuring that madrasas complied with certain educational norms and standards.
Statement 2: Unconstitutionality Declaration
- The Allahabad High Court did declare the Act unconstitutional.
- The court found that the Act violated the secular principles of the Indian Constitution, as it provided preferential treatment to madrasas, which could undermine the secular fabric of education.
Statement 3: Article 30 Violation
- The Act was challenged on the grounds of allegedly violating Article 30, which provides minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
- However, the main legal challenge was focused on the secularism aspect rather than directly on Article 30.
Conclusion
- Therefore, while Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is also correct regarding the Act's unconstitutionality.
- Statement 3 lacks sufficient evidence in terms of being a primary basis for the court’s decision.
Thus, the correct answer is option B (1 and 2 only), as Statements 1 and 2 are accurate while Statement 3 is not fully aligned with the court's findings.

Consider the following pairs:
1. USCIRF Mandate: Monitors religious freedom in U.S.
2. CPC Designation Criteria: Includes violations like torture
3. ASEAN Secretariat Location: Bangkok, Thailand
4. MACE Observatory Location: Hanle, Ladakh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. USCIRF Mandate: The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) monitors religious freedom in countries outside of the U.S., not within the U.S. The pair is incorrectly matched.
2. CPC Designation Criteria: It involves violations such as systematic, ongoing, and egregious violations of religious freedom, including torture. The pair is correctly matched.
3. ASEAN Secretariat Location: The ASEAN Secretariat is located in Jakarta, Indonesia, not Bangkok, Thailand. The pair is incorrectly matched.
4. MACE Observatory Location: The MACE Observatory is located in Hanle, Ladakh. The pair is correctly matched.
Pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched. Thus, the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Rythu Bharosa Scheme - Andhra Pradesh Government
2. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) - Established in 1998
3. Academic Freedom Index - Published by Global Public Policy Institute
4. UDAY Scheme - Aimed at financial turnaround of power distribution companies
How many pairs given above are incorrectly matched?
  • a)
    Only three pairs
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only one pair
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Rythu Bharosa Scheme - Andhra Pradesh Government: Incorrect. The Rythu Bharosa Scheme mentioned in the content refers to an initiative by the Telangana Government, not Andhra Pradesh. The Andhra Pradesh government has its own scheme called "YSR Rythu Bharosa."
2. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) - Established in 1998: Correct. The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission was indeed established on July 24, 1998, under the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998.
3. Academic Freedom Index - Published by Global Public Policy Institute: Correct. The Academic Freedom Index is released by the Global Public Policy Institute in collaboration with Scholars at Risk and the V-Dem Institute.
4. UDAY Scheme - Aimed at financial turnaround of power distribution companies: Correct. The UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) scheme was initiated by the Government of India to facilitate the financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched and one incorrect

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The South Caucasus region is characterized by a subtropical climate along Georgia's Black Sea coast.
Statement-II:
The region experiences a semi-arid to desert climate near the Caspian Sea, particularly in Azerbaijan.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statement-I
The South Caucasus region indeed has diverse climatic conditions influenced by its geography.
- Subtropical Climate in Georgia:
- The coastal areas along the Black Sea in Georgia experience a humid subtropical climate.
- This results in mild winters and warm summers, making it suitable for agriculture and tourism.
Analysis of Statement-II
The climate near the Caspian Sea, particularly in Azerbaijan, is different from that of Georgia.
- Semi-arid to Desert Climate:
- Azerbaijan, especially in its lowland areas near the Caspian Sea, experiences a semi-arid to desert climate.
- This region has hot summers and mild winters with minimal rainfall, typical of desert climates.
Correctness of Statements
- Both Statements are Correct:
- Statement-I accurately describes the climate in Georgia's Black Sea coast.
- Statement-II correctly identifies the climate conditions near the Caspian Sea in Azerbaijan.
- No Explanation Link:
- Although both statements are true, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. They refer to different geographical areas and climatic conditions within the South Caucasus region.
Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements regarding India's trade negotiations and agreements:
1. India's trade deficit with ASEAN has grown significantly, reaching approximately US$ 44 billion in 2023.
2. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with the UAE resulted in a decrease in India's trade deficit with the UAE.
3. India is reviewing its trade agreement with ASEAN to address tariff asymmetries and reduce trade deficits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Saha answered
Overview of India's Trade Negotiations and Agreements
In assessing the statements regarding India's trade negotiations and agreements, we can evaluate their accuracy as follows:
Statement 1: Trade Deficit with ASEAN
- Accurate: India's trade deficit with ASEAN indeed grew significantly, reaching approximately US$ 44 billion in 2023. This highlights the increasing imbalance in trade between India and ASEAN nations.
Statement 2: CEPA with UAE
- Accurate: The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with the UAE has led to a reduction in India's trade deficit with the UAE. This agreement facilitated greater market access and bilateral trade, which improved the trade balance.
Statement 3: Review of Trade Agreement with ASEAN
- Accurate: India is currently reviewing its trade agreement with ASEAN. The objective of this review is to address tariff asymmetries and mitigate the growing trade deficit. This indicates India's proactive approach to enhancing trade relations and addressing imbalances.
Conclusion
Since all three statements are correct, the appropriate answer should have been "d) 1, 2, and 3." However, the correct answer is given as option 'b', which indicates potential misinformation or an error in the options provided.
In summary, all statements reflect the current landscape of India's trade negotiations and agreements accurately.

Consider the following pairs related to the National Agriculture Code (NAC):
1. Crop selection - Guidelines for choosing the most suitable crop based on soil and climate.
2. Natural farming - Use of synthetic chemicals to enhance crop production.
3. Plant health management - Techniques to prevent and control plant diseases.
4. Traceability - Tracking the history and location of a crop from field to consumer.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


1. Crop selection - Guidelines for choosing the most suitable crop based on soil and climate.
This statement is correctly matched. The National Agriculture Code aims to provide guidance for crop selection based on factors like soil health and climate conditions to maximize agricultural efficiency.
2. Natural farming - Use of synthetic chemicals to enhance crop production.
This statement is incorrectly matched. Natural farming focuses on avoiding synthetic chemicals, instead relying on natural processes and organic methods to support crop growth.
3. Plant health management - Techniques to prevent and control plant diseases.
This statement is correctly matched. Plant health management involves strategies and techniques to prevent and manage diseases and pests, ensuring healthy crop growth.
4. Traceability - Tracking the history and location of a crop from field to consumer.
This statement is correctly matched. Traceability is a crucial component of the NAC, allowing for the tracking of agricultural products through all stages of production, processing, and distribution.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding India's financial support to the Maldives:
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) administers the SAARC Currency Swap Framework, which was launched in 2012, to provide short-term liquidity support to SAARC member countries.
2. Under the current Currency Swap Agreement, India is providing $400 million through a US Dollar/Euro Swap Window to the Maldives.
3. The agreement includes a provision for a swap of ₹30 billion under the INR Swap Window, valid until June 18, 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranavi Desai answered
Understanding India's Financial Support to the Maldives
India has been actively supporting the Maldives through various financial mechanisms, particularly in the context of regional cooperation under SAARC. Let's analyze the statements regarding this support.
Statement 1: SAARC Currency Swap Framework
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does administer the SAARC Currency Swap Framework.
- Launched in 2012, this framework aims to provide short-term liquidity support to SAARC member countries.
- This statement is correct as it highlights India’s role in facilitating regional financial stability.
Statement 2: Current Currency Swap Agreement
- Under the existing Currency Swap Agreement, India is indeed providing $400 million to the Maldives.
- This is facilitated through a US Dollar/Euro Swap Window, reflecting India’s commitment to support the Maldivian economy.
- This statement is also correct as it accurately describes the financial aid provided.
Statement 3: INR Swap Window Agreement
- The agreement does include a provision for a swap of ₹30 billion under the INR Swap Window.
- This swap facility is valid until June 18, 2027, and is part of India's broader strategy to strengthen economic ties with its neighbors.
- This statement is correct as it details the specifics of the agreement.
Conclusion
Since all three statements accurately reflect India's financial support structure to the Maldives, the correct answer is option 'D': 1, 2, and 3.
This financial support is crucial for maintaining economic stability in the Maldives and promoting regional cooperation within SAARC.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Ceres is the only dwarf planet located within the inner solar system.
Statement-II:
Ceres has a radius of approximately 296 miles (476 kilometers), which is about 1/13 the radius of Earth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Athira Kumar answered
Understanding the Statements
To analyze the correctness of the statements regarding Ceres, we need to break down both Statement-I and Statement-II.
Statement-I: Ceres is the only dwarf planet located within the inner solar system.
- Ceres is indeed classified as a dwarf planet.
- It is located in the asteroid belt, which lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
- Ceres is the only recognized dwarf planet within the inner solar system, making Statement-I correct.
Statement-II: Ceres has a radius of approximately 296 miles (476 kilometers), which is about 1/13 the radius of Earth.
- Ceres has a measured radius of approximately 476 kilometers.
- The average radius of Earth is about 6,371 kilometers.
- When calculating, 476 km is indeed approximately 1/13 of Earth’s radius.
- Therefore, Statement-II is also correct.
Relationship Between the Statements
- Statement-II provides factual information about the size of Ceres.
- It does not directly explain why Ceres is the only dwarf planet in the inner solar system, but it adds context to Ceres' classification.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct, and Statement-II complements the understanding of Ceres but does not explain Statement-I.
- Hence, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
This comprehensive assessment affirms the correctness of both statements while clarifying their interrelationship.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Insolvency Professional Agency (IPA) - Oversees Insolvency Professionals (IP)
2. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) - Adjudicating authority for CIRP applications
3. Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) - Managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
4. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) - Established on October 1, 2016
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Insolvency Professional Agency (IPA) - Oversees Insolvency Professionals (IP)
This pair is correctly matched. Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs) are responsible for enrolling and regulating Insolvency Professionals (IPs).
2. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) - Adjudicating authority for CIRP applications
This pair is correctly matched. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is indeed the adjudicating authority for Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) applications.
3. Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) - Managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
This pair is incorrectly matched. Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (SBM-G) is managed by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, not the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
4. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) - Established on October 1, 2016
This pair is correctly matched. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established on October 1, 2016.
Thus, only two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Tamil - Recognized as a classical language in 2004
2. Odia - Recognized as a classical language in 2014
3. Marathi - Recognized as a classical language in 2018
4. Pali - Recognized as a classical language in 2020
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Tamil - Recognized as a classical language in 2004: This pair is correctly matched. Tamil was the first language to be granted classical status in 2004.
2. Odia - Recognized as a classical language in 2014: This pair is correctly matched. Odia was recognized as a classical language in 2014.
3. Marathi - Recognized as a classical language in 2018: This pair is incorrectly matched. As of the knowledge cutoff in September 2021, Marathi had not been conferred the classical language status. The Union Cabinet's recent approval mentioned in the document is not included in the historical list of recognized classical languages.
4. Pali - Recognized as a classical language in 2020: This pair is incorrectly matched. Pali has not been recognized as a classical language by the Government of India.
Only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pygmy Hog:
1. The Pygmy Hog is the smallest and rarest species of wild pig globally, known for constructing its own habitat.
2. The only viable population of Pygmy Hogs in the wild is found in the Kaziranga National Park.
3. Pygmy Hogs are classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Harsh Goyal answered
Overview of the Pygmy Hog
The Pygmy Hog is indeed a fascinating species with unique characteristics and a precarious status in the wild.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: The smallest and rarest wild pig
- This statement is correct. The Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania) is recognized as the smallest wild pig species, measuring about 50-70 cm in length. It is also considered one of the rarest, primarily due to habitat loss and other environmental pressures. Additionally, they are known for constructing nests, showcasing their ability to create specific habitats.
- Statement 2: Only viable population in Kaziranga National Park
- This statement is partially correct. While Kaziranga National Park in Assam, India, is one of the key areas where Pygmy Hogs are found, it is not the only location where viable populations exist. Conservation efforts have introduced populations to other areas, such as the Manas National Park, to help increase their numbers and genetic diversity.
- Statement 3: Classified as Critically Endangered
- This statement is correct. The IUCN Red List categorizes the Pygmy Hog as Critically Endangered, highlighting the urgent need for conservation measures to protect this species from extinction.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is misleading, as viable populations do exist outside Kaziranga.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C (1 and 3 only).

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Wild Ass:
1. The Indian Wild Ass is currently found only in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
2. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3. The Indian Wild Ass plays a crucial role in seed dispersal and maintaining the ecosystem balance in its habitat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Manoj Nair answered
Overview of Indian Wild Ass
The Indian Wild Ass, also known as the Khur, is a unique subspecies of the wild ass found primarily in India.
Statement 1: Distribution
- The Indian Wild Ass is indeed primarily found in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
- This statement is correct as it is the last stronghold of this species in India.
Statement 2: Conservation Status
- The Indian Wild Ass is listed as Near Threatened, not Endangered, on the IUCN Red List.
- Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: Ecological Role
- The Indian Wild Ass plays a significant role in its ecosystem.
- It contributes to seed dispersal, which helps maintain plant diversity and ecosystem balance.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Conclusion
Based on the evaluation of these statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C: "1 and 3 Only". The Indian Wild Ass is crucial for its habitat's ecological balance, confirming its vital role in seed dispersal and ecosystem maintenance.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) for 2021-22:
1. The survey reported that the average monthly income of rural households increased by 57.6% from 2016-17 to 2021-22.
2. Only 50% of the agricultural households reported saving money in 2021-22.
3. The percentage of rural households with at least one member covered by any form of insurance increased to 80.3% in 2021-22.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Let's analyze each statement:
1. Statement 1: The survey does indeed report a 57.6% increase in the average monthly income of rural households from Rs. 8,059 in 2016-17 to Rs. 12,698 in 2021-22. This statement is correct.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The survey indicates that 71% of agricultural households reported saving money in 2021-22, not just 50%. The 50.6% figure refers to the percentage of all households that reported saving money in 2016-17.
3. Statement 3: The survey reported that the percentage of households with at least one member covered by any form of insurance increased significantly to 80.3% in 2021-22, indicating a substantial rise in insurance coverage. This statement is correct.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the right answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Efficiency Hub:
1. The International Energy Efficiency Hub was established in 2020 and succeeded the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC).
2. India is the only Asian country that is a member of the International Energy Efficiency Hub.
3. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for implementing India's participation in the Hub.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1 is correct. The International Energy Efficiency Hub was indeed established in 2020, succeeding the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC). This transition marks a continuation and enhancement of global efforts to promote energy efficiency by bringing together various stakeholders.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While India is a member of the International Energy Efficiency Hub, it is not the only Asian country in the group. Other countries, such as China and Korea, are also members. Therefore, the assertion that India is the only Asian country in the Hub is false.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has been designated as the implementing agency for India’s involvement in the International Energy Efficiency Hub. This role includes coordinating India’s participation and aligning the Hub’s initiatives with national energy efficiency objectives.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as only statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Hurricane Milton rapidly intensified due to unusually high sea surface temperatures exceeding 31°C, enabling swift development from Category 1 to Category 5 within 12 hours.
Statement-II:
The increased vegetation in Antarctica poses concerns due to potential disruptions in the ecological balance, albedo effect, soil formation, and implications for ice loss and sea-level rise.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhijeet Shah answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Hurricane Milton's rapid intensification is plausible due to high sea surface temperatures (SSTs) exceeding 31°C.
- Warm SSTs provide the necessary energy for hurricanes to strengthen, enabling transitions from lower categories to powerful storms.
- A transition from Category 1 to Category 5 within 12 hours indicates extreme conditions, which can occur under such high temperatures.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Increased vegetation in Antarctica raises valid ecological concerns.
- The ecological balance could be disrupted due to changes in species composition and interactions.
- The albedo effect, which refers to the reflectivity of Earth's surface, could decline as darker vegetation absorbs more sunlight, leading to increased warming and further ice loss.
- Soil formation processes may be affected, impacting nutrient cycling and habitat availability.
- These changes can contribute to ice loss and sea-level rise, posing threats to global ecosystems.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct: Statement-I accurately describes the conditions leading to Hurricane Milton's rapid intensification, while Statement-II highlights the ecological implications of increased vegetation in Antarctica.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I as they address different phenomena—one focuses on hurricane dynamics, while the other discusses ecological changes in a polar region.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

What is the main objective of the iDEX initiative launched by the Indian government in 2018?
  • a)
    To enhance diplomatic relations with neighboring countries
  • b)
    To promote cultural exchanges with international industries
  • c)
    To modernize the Defence Industry through innovation and technology development
  • d)
    To establish a new branch of the Indian Armed Services
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Saha answered
Overview of the iDEX Initiative
The iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) initiative was launched by the Indian government in 2018 with a clear goal of transforming the country's defence industry.
Main Objective: Modernization through Innovation
The primary aim of iDEX is to modernize the Defence Industry by encouraging innovation and technology development. This initiative is crucial for several reasons:
Key Features:
  • Support for Startups: iDEX focuses on fostering a culture of innovation by providing support to startups and micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in the defence sector.
  • Funding Opportunities: The initiative offers financial assistance and funding to innovative projects that can contribute to the defence ecosystem.
  • Collaboration with Academia: iDEX encourages collaboration between academic institutions and the defence industry to leverage research and development capabilities.
  • Focus on Indigenous Solutions: The goal is to reduce dependency on foreign technologies and promote self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
  • Innovation Challenges: iDEX organizes various challenges and competitions to stimulate creative solutions for defence requirements.

Strategic Importance
By fostering innovation, iDEX aims to enhance the capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces and ensure that the defence sector is equipped with cutting-edge technologies. This aligns with the government's broader vision of "Make in India," which seeks to boost domestic manufacturing and promote indigenous development in defence.
In conclusion, the iDEX initiative plays a pivotal role in modernizing India's Defence Industry through innovation and technology, ultimately contributing to national security and self-reliance.

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