All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following pairs:
1. Bald Eagle - National bird of Canada
2. Fisheries Extension Services - Matsya Seva Kendras in India
3. PM-ABHIM - Focuses on strengthening health infrastructure
4. Bald Eagle - Found year-round in Alaska
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only three pairs
  • c)
    Only two pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Bald Eagle - National bird of Canada: Incorrect. The Bald Eagle is the national bird of the United States, not Canada.
2. Fisheries Extension Services - Matsya Seva Kendras in India: Correct. Matsya Seva Kendras are part of India's government initiatives to improve fisheries extension services, providing various services to enhance productivity and sustainability in the fisheries sector.
3. PM-ABHIM - Focuses on strengthening health infrastructure: Correct. The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) aims to enhance public health infrastructure across primary, secondary, and tertiary levels.
4. Bald Eagle - Found year-round in Alaska: Correct. The Bald Eagle is indeed found year-round in Alaska, among other regions in North America.
Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. 

What is the primary reason for renaming the sanctuary from Lali Wildlife Sanctuary to D. Ering Wildlife Sanctuary?
  • a)
    To honor a prominent environmentalist
  • b)
    To commemorate a significant historical event
  • c)
    To reflect a change in ownership
  • d)
    To acknowledge a local community
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Renaming of Lali Wildlife Sanctuary
The change from Lali Wildlife Sanctuary to D. Ering Wildlife Sanctuary is significant for several reasons, primarily aimed at honoring a prominent environmentalist, whose contributions to wildlife conservation have made a lasting impact. Here’s a detailed explanation:
Honoring a Prominent Environmentalist
- The sanctuary was renamed to pay tribute to D. Ering, a well-known figure in the field of environmental conservation.
- D. Ering's work in promoting wildlife protection and sustainable practices has been inspirational, making this renaming a fitting homage.
- The acknowledgment serves to highlight the importance of individual contributions to environmentalism and encourages future generations to engage in conservation efforts.
Impact on Conservation Awareness
- This renaming not only honors D. Ering but also raises awareness about the vital role of wildlife sanctuaries in preserving biodiversity.
- It emphasizes the need for active participation from local communities and stakeholders in conservation initiatives.
Legacy and Inspiration
- By renaming the sanctuary, it reinforces the significance of Ering's legacy in the ongoing fight against environmental degradation.
- It inspires individuals and organizations to take action for wildlife and natural habitat preservation.
In conclusion, the primary reason for renaming Lali Wildlife Sanctuary to D. Ering Wildlife Sanctuary is to honor the contributions of a prominent environmentalist, thereby fostering a greater sense of responsibility and commitment towards wildlife conservation.

What is the primary goal of India's Ministry of Women and Child Development's campaign 'Ab Koi Bahana Nahi' launched on November 25, 2024?
  • a)
    Promoting digital literacy among women in urban areas
  • b)
    Combating gender-based violence in India
  • c)
    Encouraging women's participation in the workforce
  • d)
    Enhancing internet connectivity in rural regions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The Ministry of Women and Child Development's campaign 'Ab Koi Bahana Nahi' aims at combating gender-based violence in India. This initiative is crucial in addressing the challenges faced by women in accessing and utilizing digital technologies, thereby promoting public accountability and action to tackle gender-based violence in the country.

Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol:
1. Yoon Suk Yeol was impeached primarily due to his declaration of martial law, which was deemed unconstitutional.
2. The impeachment process in South Korea is initiated by the National Assembly and requires a review by the Constitutional Court.
3. President Yoon's impeachment was supported unanimously by members of his own political party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavana Nair answered
Understanding the Impeachment of Yoon Suk Yeol
The question pertains to the impeachment of South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol and evaluates the correctness of three statements. Let's analyze each statement in detail.
Statement 1: Declaration of Martial Law
- This statement is incorrect. Yoon Suk Yeol was not impeached for declaring martial law. He faced criticism and political challenges, but the grounds for impeachment were not related to martial law, which is a significant constitutional issue.
Statement 2: Impeachment Process in South Korea
- This statement is correct. In South Korea, the impeachment process is indeed initiated by the National Assembly. After the National Assembly votes to impeach, the Constitutional Court reviews the case. This dual-layer process ensures checks and balances in the political system.
Statement 3: Unanimous Support from His Political Party
- This statement is incorrect. Yoon Suk Yeol's impeachment did not receive unanimous support from members of his own political party. In fact, political divisions and dissent within his party were evident during the impeachment discussions.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Only Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 Only. This highlights the complexity of political dynamics in South Korea and the specific legal frameworks governing impeachment processes.

Consider the following statements regarding road accidents and road safety in India:
1. Over-speeding was responsible for more than 60% of road crash deaths in India in 2023.
2. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of road accident fatalities among Indian states in 2023.
3. Infrastructure deficiencies, such as potholes and lack of underpasses, have no significant impact on road accidents in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lekshmi Yadav answered
Analysis of Statements
To determine which statements regarding road accidents and road safety in India are correct, let's evaluate each one.
Statement 1: Over-speeding was responsible for more than 60% of road crash deaths in India in 2023.
- This statement is accurate. Over-speeding has been a significant factor contributing to road fatalities, often accounting for a substantial portion of road crash deaths in India. Recent reports suggest that it indeed was responsible for over 60% of such fatalities in 2023.
Statement 2: Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of road accident fatalities among Indian states in 2023.
- This statement is also correct. Uttar Pradesh has consistently reported the highest number of road accident fatalities in recent years, continuing this trend into 2023. This trend is attributed to factors such as high population density, traffic congestion, and inadequate road safety measures.
Statement 3: Infrastructure deficiencies, such as potholes and lack of underpasses, have no significant impact on road accidents in India.
- This statement is incorrect. Infrastructure deficiencies like potholes, lack of proper signage, and insufficient pedestrian facilities play a crucial role in increasing road accidents. Poor road conditions are a major contributing factor to many accidents, making this statement false.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct Statements: 1 and 2
- Incorrect Statement: 3
Thus, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Rann Utsav and its cultural and geographical significance:
1. Great Rann of Kutch - Largest salt desert in India
2. Indian Wild Ass - Found only in the Little Rann of Kutch
3. Holocene Sedimentation - Associated with the Thar Desert
4. Indus Valley Civilization - Had settlements in the Rann of Kutch
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
1. Great Rann of Kutch - Largest salt desert in India: This pair is correctly matched. The Great Rann of Kutch is indeed the largest salt desert in India, known for its unique white salt marshes and cultural significance.
2. Indian Wild Ass - Found only in the Little Rann of Kutch: This pair is correctly matched. The Indian Wild Ass, also known as the Khur, is primarily found in the Little Rann of Kutch, which is part of the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary.
3. Holocene Sedimentation - Associated with the Thar Desert: This pair is incorrectly matched. Holocene sedimentation refers to geological processes that occurred after the last Ice Age and is linked to the Rann of Kutch, not specifically to the Thar Desert itself.
4. Indus Valley Civilization - Had settlements in the Rann of Kutch: This pair is correctly matched. The Rann of Kutch was indeed home to neolithic settlements and later became an important center for the Indus Valley Civilization, reflecting its historical significance.

Consider the following pairs regarding Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary and Deep Ocean Mission:
1. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary - Important Bird Area (IBA)
2. Chambal River - Runs through Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Hydrothermal Vents - Found on land near tectonic plate boundaries
4. Deep Ocean Mission - Exploration of deep-sea mineral resources
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
1. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary - Important Bird Area (IBA): Correct. The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA), highlighting its significance in terms of avian diversity and conservation.
2. Chambal River - Runs through Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary: Correct. The Chambal River bisects the sanctuary into two distinct regions, playing a crucial role in its geographical and ecological landscape.
3. Hydrothermal Vents - Found on land near tectonic plate boundaries: Incorrect. Hydrothermal vents are underwater springs located near tectonic plate boundaries, not on land. They form in the ocean where cold seawater interacts with magma.
4. Deep Ocean Mission - Exploration of deep-sea mineral resources: Correct. The Deep Ocean Mission focuses on exploring deep ocean resources, including mineral-rich hydrothermal vents, as part of its objectives.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

What is the main objective of the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme in India?
  • a)
    To provide free education to all school-aged children
  • b)
    To enhance digital literacy among students in government schools
  • c)
    To improve the nutritional status of eligible children in government and government-aided schools
  • d)
    To promote sports and physical fitness activities in educational institutions
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The main objective of the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme is to improve the nutritional status of eligible children in government and government-aided schools. This scheme aims to provide nutritional support to children, encourage regular school attendance, and offer meals to students in Balvatika and classes I to VIII at government and aided schools on all school days. By focusing on nutrition, the scheme aims to enhance the overall well-being and educational outcomes of school-aged children.

Consider the following statements regarding the Laysan Albatross:
1. The Laysan albatross is predominantly found in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, where about 99.7% of the population resides.
2. The Laysan albatross is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List, indicating critical conservation concerns.
3. Laysan albatrosses are known for their strong pair bonds and monogamous mating behavior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gayatri Basak answered
Overview of the Laysan Albatross
The Laysan Albatross is a remarkable seabird primarily found in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands. Its unique behaviors and conservation status make it an important species for study.
Statement 1: Habitat and Population
- The Laysan Albatross is indeed predominantly found in the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands.
- Approximately 99.7% of the global population resides in this region, highlighting its significant habitat.
Statement 2: Conservation Status
- Contrary to the statement, the Laysan Albatross is not classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List but is listed as Near Threatened.
- While it faces threats such as habitat loss and interactions with fishing practices, its population is currently stable, which does not warrant the Endangered classification.
Statement 3: Mating Behavior
- Laysan Albatrosses are well-known for their strong pair bonds.
- They exhibit monogamous mating behavior, often forming lifelong partnerships, which is a notable aspect of their social structure.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect as the species is classified as Near Threatened, not Endangered.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option C (1 and 3 only). The strong pair bonds and monogamous behavior of the Laysan Albatross, along with its population concentration in the Hawaiian Islands, highlight its unique ecological traits.

What is the primary goal of Exercise AGNI WARRIOR?
  • a)
    To showcase military prowess and technology advancements
  • b)
    To enhance mutual understanding of operational drills and procedures
  • c)
    To establish dominance in the South Asian region
  • d)
    To promote cultural exchanges between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Primary Goal of Exercise AGNI WARRIOR
Exercise AGNI WARRIOR is a significant joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces. The primary goal of this exercise is to enhance mutual understanding of operational drills and procedures, which is best captured by option 'B'.
Key Objectives:
- Strengthening Bilateral Ties: The exercise aims to foster strong military relationships between India and Singapore, promoting collaboration and understanding between the two armed forces.
- Operational Familiarity: By engaging in joint exercises, both armies gain familiarity with each other's tactics, techniques, and procedures, essential for effective interoperability during real-world operations.
- Skill Enhancement: The training sessions allow troops to refine their skills in various combat scenarios, improving the overall readiness and effectiveness of the forces involved.
- Learning Best Practices: Participants can share and learn best practices in military operations, logistics, and command structures, which can be beneficial for both nations.
Strategic Importance:
- Regional Stability: Enhanced collaboration through such exercises contributes to regional peace and security, as both nations face similar security challenges in South Asia.
- Counter-Terrorism Focus: Exercises often include counter-terrorism drills, addressing shared threats and enhancing capabilities to respond effectively.
In summary, Exercise AGNI WARRIOR is primarily focused on enhancing mutual understanding of operational drills and procedures, thereby strengthening the capabilities and relationships between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Konda Reddi Tribe Habitat - Banks of the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh
2. Dulcibella camanchaca Discovery Depth - 7,902 meters in the Atacama Trench
3. TISS Year of Renaming - 1964
4. Konda Reddi Language - Telugu with a distinct accent
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Konda Reddi Tribe Habitat - Banks of the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh: Correct. The Konda Reddi tribe indeed inhabits the banks of the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh.
2. Dulcibella camanchaca Discovery Depth - 7,902 meters in the Atacama Trench: Correct. The new species Dulcibella camanchaca was discovered at a depth of 7,902 meters in the Atacama Trench.
3. TISS Year of Renaming - 1964: Incorrect. TISS was renamed in 1944, not 1964. It became a deemed university in 1964, which could be a source of confusion.
4. Konda Reddi Language - Telugu with a distinct accent: Correct. The Konda Reddi tribe speaks Telugu with a distinct accent.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched: pairs 1, 2, and 4.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) was launched in 2009 with the aim of enhancing the efficiency of policing through technology.
Statement-II:
The CCTNS system includes components such as Core Application Software (CAS), a National Database, and integration with other systems like Fingerprint Identification Systems and Vehicle Registration.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anu Choudhary answered
Analysis of Statements
The two statements regarding the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) can be evaluated as follows:
Statement-I: Overview of CCTNS
- Launched in 2009, CCTNS aims to enhance policing efficiency using technology.
- The initiative is part of a broader effort to modernize the police force in India, focusing on better data management and communication.
Statement-II: Components of CCTNS
- CCTNS comprises several key components including:
- Core Application Software (CAS): This serves as the backbone for police operations and data handling.
- National Database: A centralized repository of criminal data and information.
- Integration with Other Systems: Enhances functionality by connecting with:
- Fingerprint Identification Systems.
- Vehicle Registration databases.
Conclusion: Relationship Between the Statements
- Both statements are accurate:
- Statement-I correctly outlines the purpose and launch of CCTNS.
- Statement-II elaborates on the specific components and integrations of the system, thereby providing a more in-depth understanding of how CCTNS achieves its goals.
- Since Statement-II provides additional context and detail that supports the aim stated in Statement-I, the correct option is:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
This relationship emphasizes the comprehensive nature of the CCTNS initiative in improving policing through integrated technology and data management systems.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India's fiscal deficit is projected to rise from 2.8% of GDP in FY22 to 3.2% in FY24.
Statement-II:
Gross Fiscal Deficit (GFD) for states is expected to increase from 2.7% of GDP in FY2022-23 to 2.9% in FY2023-24.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Sharma answered
Analysis of Statement-I
- Statement-I indicates that India's fiscal deficit is projected to rise from 2.8% of GDP in FY22 to 3.2% in FY24.
- This projection reflects the government's increasing borrowing needs, potentially driven by various factors such as economic recovery measures, increased expenditure, or lower revenue collection.
Analysis of Statement-II
- Statement-II states that the Gross Fiscal Deficit (GFD) for states is expected to increase from 2.7% of GDP in FY2022-23 to 2.9% in FY2023-24.
- This suggests that state governments might also be facing fiscal pressures, possibly due to similar reasons impacting overall public finances, such as rising expenditures and challenges in revenue generation.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both statements are correct as they reflect the projected fiscal scenarios for India and its states.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I since the fiscal deficit at the national level and that of the states are influenced by different factors and dynamics.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Understanding these fiscal trends is crucial for analyzing the overall economic health and budgetary policies of the country.

What is the symbolic meaning behind the name of the Indian Navy's latest frigate, INS Tushil?
  • a)
    Strength and Power
  • b)
    Protector Shield
  • c)
    Swift Victory
  • d)
    Ocean Defender
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanaya Ahuja answered
Symbolic Meaning of INS Tushil
The name "Tushil" carries significant meaning, reflecting the values and mission of the Indian Navy.
Protector Shield
- The term "Tushil" is derived from the Sanskrit language, meaning "protector" or "shield."
- This indicates the frigate's role in safeguarding national interests and maritime security.
Strategic Importance
- As a protector shield, INS Tushil symbolizes the Navy's commitment to defending India's coastal and maritime territories.
- The frigate will play a crucial role in deterring threats and ensuring safety in the Indian Ocean region.
Operational Capabilities
- Equipped with advanced weaponry and surveillance systems, INS Tushil enhances the operational readiness of the Navy.
- Its design and capabilities embody the protective role it is meant to fulfill, ensuring it can respond effectively to various threats.
Historical Context
- Naming naval vessels after virtues like protection highlights traditional values and cultural heritage.
- It fosters a sense of pride and honor among the crew and the nation, reinforcing the importance of duty and service.
Conclusion
- The choice of the name "INS Tushil" as a protector shield aligns with the Indian Navy's vision of being a formidable maritime force.
- It emphasizes the frigate's mission to protect and defend, showcasing the Navy's readiness to uphold peace and security at sea.

Consider the following pairs:
1. National Human Rights Commission Chairperson: Retired Chief Justice of India
2. Serval Habitat: Arctic Tundra
3. NHRC Establishment Year: 1993
4. African Wild Cat IUCN Status: Endangered
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshu Khanna answered
The Pairs Analysis
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's evaluate each pair one by one.
1. National Human Rights Commission Chairperson: Retired Chief Justice of India
- This pair is correct. The Chairperson of the NHRC is indeed a retired Chief Justice of India.
2. Serval Habitat: Arctic Tundra
- This pair is incorrect. The serval is primarily found in savannas and grasslands in Africa, not in the Arctic Tundra, which is a cold biome.
3. NHRC Establishment Year: 1993
- This pair is correct. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established in 1993.
4. African Wild Cat IUCN Status: Endangered
- This pair is incorrect. The African Wild Cat is classified as "Least Concern" by the IUCN, not endangered.
Summary of Correct Matches
- Correct pairs: 1 (NHRC Chairperson) and 3 (NHRC Establishment Year).
- Incorrect pairs: 2 (Serval Habitat) and 4 (African Wild Cat IUCN Status).
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only two pairs are correctly matched:
- National Human Rights Commission Chairperson: Correct
- NHRC Establishment Year: Correct
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding Kawasaki Disease:
1. Kawasaki Disease is most common in children over five years of age.
2. The precise cause of Kawasaki Disease is unknown, but it shows a higher incidence during late winter and early spring.
3. Kawasaki Disease was first identified outside Japan in Hawaii in 1976.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki Disease is a serious condition that primarily affects children, particularly those under five years of age. Understanding the statements provided can help clarify why option 'D' is the correct answer.
Statement 1: Kawasaki Disease is most common in children over five years of age.
- This statement is incorrect.
- Kawasaki Disease predominantly affects younger children, especially those under five years old.
Statement 2: The precise cause of Kawasaki Disease is unknown, but it shows a higher incidence during late winter and early spring.
- This statement is correct.
- The exact cause of Kawasaki Disease remains unclear, but epidemiological studies indicate a higher incidence during late winter and early spring months.
Statement 3: Kawasaki Disease was first identified outside Japan in Hawaii in 1976.
- This statement is also correct.
- Although Kawasaki Disease was first described in Japan in 1967, its first reported cases outside Japan occurred in Hawaii in 1976, leading to increased awareness and research.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct Statements: 2 and 3
- Incorrect Statement: 1
Thus, the correct answer is option 'D' (2 and 3 only), as only these statements about Kawasaki Disease are accurate. Understanding these nuances is critical for recognizing the disease's epidemiology and historical context.

What is the key objective of the Vadhavan Port project in Maharashtra?
  • a)
    Enhancing India's railway connectivity
  • b)
    Boosting agricultural exports
  • c)
    Expanding India's container trade capacity
  • d)
    Developing renewable energy infrastructure
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Key Objective of the Vadhavan Port Project
The Vadhavan Port project in Maharashtra is aimed primarily at enhancing India's container trade capacity. This strategic initiative is set to play a significant role in bolstering the country's economic growth and improving trade efficiency.
Reasons Why the Project Focuses on Container Trade Capacity:
- Strategic Location: Vadhavan is situated along the western coast, providing a natural deep-water harbor ideal for handling large container ships, thus facilitating international trade.
- Current Capacity Strain: India's existing ports are facing congestion and limitations in handling the growing volume of containerized cargo. Vadhavan Port aims to alleviate this pressure.
- Economic Growth: By expanding container trade capacity, the project is expected to significantly contribute to GDP growth, creating job opportunities and enhancing regional development.
- Global Trade Link: With increased capacity, Vadhavan Port will enable India to better integrate into global supply chains, thus enhancing its competitiveness in international markets.
- Infrastructure Development: The project will involve the development of modern port infrastructure, including state-of-the-art container terminals and efficient cargo handling systems.
Conclusion:
In summary, the Vadhavan Port project is primarily focused on expanding India's container trade capacity. By addressing the limitations of existing ports and leveraging its strategic location, it aims to enhance trade efficiency, stimulate economic growth, and improve India's position in the global trade landscape.

Consider the following pairs regarding the recent India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) and the Markhor rescue in Kashmir:
1. CECA Negotiations Re-launch Year - 2021
2. Markhor Conservation Status - Vulnerable
3. India's Export Growth to Australia (2023-24) - 14.23%
4. Markhor Habitat Elevation Range - 600 to 3,600 meters
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Gupta answered
Overview of Pairs
The question presents four pairs related to the India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) and the conservation status of the Markhor in Kashmir. Let's analyze each pair to determine their accuracy.
1. CECA Negotiations Re-launch Year - 2021
- This pair is correct. The India-Australia CECA negotiations were indeed relaunched in 2021, aiming to enhance bilateral trade and economic ties.
2. Markhor Conservation Status - Vulnerable
- This pair is correct. The Markhor, a wild goat found in the mountainous regions of northern and western Pakistan, as well as in parts of India, is classified as "Vulnerable" by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature).
3. India's Export Growth to Australia (2023-24) - 14.23%
- This pair is correct. According to recent trade reports, India's exports to Australia are projected to grow by 14.23% in the fiscal year 2023-24, reflecting the strengthening economic ties between the two nations.
4. Markhor Habitat Elevation Range - 600 to 3,600 meters
- This pair is incorrect. While the Markhor does inhabit mountainous regions, its elevation range primarily spans from 1,200 to 3,600 meters, making this pair inaccurate.
Conclusion
- In summary, three out of the four pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': Only three pairs are correct.

Consider the following pairs regarding Sea Otters and their impact on ecosystems:
1. Sea Otters - Consume about 25% of their body weight daily to maintain warmth
2. Green Crabs - Native to the Pacific Ocean
3. Sea Otters - Responsible for protecting seagrass beds by preying on green crabs
4. Green Crabs - Spread to regions like Australia, South America, and South Africa
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Pairs
To determine the correctness of the given pairs regarding Sea Otters and their impact on ecosystems, let's analyze each one:
1. Sea Otters - Consume about 25% of their body weight daily to maintain warmth
- This statement is correct. Sea otters have a high metabolism and must consume a significant amount of food, approximately 25% of their body weight daily, to maintain their body heat in cold waters.
2. Green Crabs - Native to the Pacific Ocean
- This statement is incorrect. Green crabs are originally from the North Atlantic Ocean and have been introduced to other regions, but they are not native to the Pacific Ocean.
3. Sea Otters - Responsible for protecting seagrass beds by preying on green crabs
- This statement is correct. Sea otters help maintain healthy seagrass ecosystems by controlling green crab populations, which can be detrimental to seagrass if left unchecked.
4. Green Crabs - Spread to regions like Australia, South America, and South Africa
- This statement is correct. Green crabs have indeed spread to various locations, including Australia, South America, and South Africa, due to their adaptability and human-assisted transport.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct pairs: 1, 3, and 4
- Incorrect pair: 2
Therefore, there are three correctly matched pairs. Thus, the correct answer is option 'C', indicating that only three pairs are accurately matched.

What distinguishes Kamarajar Port from other major ports in India?
  • a)
    Its location in Tamil Nadu
  • b)
    Being privately owned
  • c)
    Operational under a different model
  • d)
    Handling only coal cargo
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Kamarajar Port stands out from other major ports in India due to its operational framework under the landlord port model, where the port authority regulates while private entities manage operational activities. This model enables a blend of public and private sector efficiencies, contributing to the port's growth and success.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is primarily found in the Western Ghats region.
Statement-II:
Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly states that Wroughton’s free-tailed bat is primarily found in the Western Ghats region, as mentioned in the provided information. However, Statement-II is incorrect as the bat is classified as Data Deficient by the IUCN, not as Critically Endangered. The IUCN classification for this species has evolved over time, and the current status is Data Deficient due to insufficient comprehensive data, as mentioned in the source material.

Consider the following statements:
1. The depreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar can lead to an increase in India's trade and current account deficits.
2. Higher inflation in India compared to the United States can diminish the value of the Indian rupee and lead to capital outflows.
3. A weaker rupee generally benefits all exporters by increasing their competitiveness in international markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of the Statements
The question revolves around the implications of the depreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar, inflation differentials, and the effects on exporters.
Statement 1: Trade and Current Account Deficits
- The depreciation of the Indian rupee makes imports more expensive while exports become cheaper for foreign buyers.
- While this could theoretically boost exports, if the value of imports rises significantly (especially for essential goods like oil), it can lead to increased trade and current account deficits.
- Thus, this statement is correct.
Statement 2: Higher Inflation and Capital Outflows
- If inflation in India is higher than in the US, the purchasing power of the rupee declines.
- This can deter foreign investment and lead to capital outflows as investors seek better returns elsewhere.
- Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Statement 3: Impact on Exporters
- While a weaker rupee can enhance the competitiveness of exporters by making their products cheaper in foreign markets, it is not beneficial for all exporters.
- Exporters of raw materials or those who rely on imported components may suffer due to higher costs of imports, negating the benefits of a weaker rupee.
- Therefore, this statement is not universally correct.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': "1 and 2 Only."

Consider the following statements regarding the Kilauea Volcano:
1. Kilauea is a composite volcano characterized by steep slopes and explosive eruptions.
2. The summit caldera of Kilauea is a large depression that covers over 4 square miles.
3. Kilauea has been nearly continuously active from 1983 to 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. Kilauea is not a composite volcano; it is a shield volcano. Shield volcanoes are characterized by broad, gentle slopes formed from highly fluid basalt lava and typically have low explosivity. This contrasts with composite volcanoes, which have steep slopes and are known for more explosive eruptions.
2. Statement 2: This statement is correct. The summit caldera of Kilauea is indeed a large depression that is approximately 3 miles long and 2 miles wide, covering over 4 square miles. This feature is typical of shield volcanoes and results from the collapse of the volcano's summit following an eruption.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. Kilauea has been nearly continuously active from 1983 to 2018. During this period, it was one of the most active volcanoes in the world, with frequent eruptions that significantly shaped the landscape of Hawaii's Big Island.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C, as only the second and third statements accurately describe the characteristics of the Kilauea Volcano.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Adi Kekir Ginger - Arunachal Pradesh
2. Dalle Khursani - Sikkim
3. Naga King Chilli - Assam
4. Kaji Nimu - Nagaland
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Pairs
The question presents pairs of unique agricultural products and their respective regions in Northeast India. Let's analyze each pair to determine their correctness.
1. Adi Kekir Ginger - Arunachal Pradesh
- Correct Match: Adi Kekir Ginger is indeed a variety of ginger that originates from Arunachal Pradesh. This pair is correctly matched.
2. Dalle Khursani - Sikkim
- Correct Match: Dalle Khursani, known for its spicy flavor, is a chili variety that is native to Sikkim. This pair is also correctly matched.
3. Naga King Chilli - Assam
- Incorrect Match: The Naga King Chilli, known for its extreme heat, is actually from Nagaland, not Assam. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
4. Kaji Nimu - Nagaland
- Incorrect Match: Kaji Nimu, a type of lemon, is primarily cultivated in Assam, not Nagaland. Hence, this pair is also incorrectly matched.
Conclusion
- Based on the analysis, we find that:
- Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Adi Kekir Ginger - Arunachal Pradesh
- Dalle Khursani - Sikkim
- Incorrectly Matched Pairs:
- Naga King Chilli - Assam
- Kaji Nimu - Nagaland
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements regarding the PM- Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) Scheme:
1. PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 64,180 crores for the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
2. The scheme includes the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology.
3. PM-ABHIM exclusively focuses on urban health needs, neglecting rural health infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
To determine the correct statements, let's analyze each statement individually:
1. Statement 1: PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 64,180 crores for the period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
This statement is correct. PM-ABHIM is indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with the specified financial outlay and timeline, aiming to strengthen healthcare infrastructure across the country.
2. Statement 2: The scheme includes the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology.
This statement is also correct. Among the components under PM-ABHIM, the establishment of a national institution for One Health and 4 new National Institutes for Virology is included to enhance health surveillance and response capabilities.
3. Statement 3: PM-ABHIM exclusively focuses on urban health needs, neglecting rural health infrastructure.
This statement is incorrect. PM-ABHIM does not exclusively focus on urban health needs. In fact, it includes significant components for rural health infrastructure, such as the construction of rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) and Block Public Health Units (BPHUs), indicating a balanced focus on both urban and rural areas.
Given this analysis, only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Dark Eagle anti-missile system is designed to potentially outmatch Russian air defense systems, including the S-300V4, S-400, and S-500.
Statement-II:
The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct emphasize six core values, including Independence, Impartiality, Integrity, Propriety, Equality, and Competence and Diligence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Analysis of Statements
To evaluate the correctness of Statements I and II, we need to examine each one closely.
Statement-I: Dark Eagle Anti-Missile System
- The Dark Eagle anti-missile system is indeed designed with advanced technology aimed at countering sophisticated air defense systems.
- It is positioned to potentially outmatch Russian air defense systems, including the S-300V4, S-400, and S-500, which are known for their effectiveness in intercepting various aerial threats.
Statement-II: Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct
- The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct outline essential values for the judiciary.
- They emphasize six core values:
- Independence
- Impartiality
- Integrity
- Propriety
- Equality
- Competence and Diligence
- These principles serve as guidelines to uphold the integrity of the judicial system.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct and address different contexts—military technology and judicial ethics.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, as they pertain to entirely different subjects.
Correct Answer Justification
- Given the correctness of both statements and their lack of direct explanatory relationship, the appropriate choice is:
Option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Kerch Strait is approximately 3 km long, 15 km wide, and 18 meters deep.
Statement-II:
The Kerch Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I correctly describes the physical dimensions of the Kerch Strait, mentioning its length, width, and depth. Statement-II is also accurate, indicating that the Kerch Strait serves as a connection between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. Furthermore, Statement-II explains why the specific geographical details mentioned in Statement-I are significant in understanding the Kerch Strait's location and purpose. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides essential context that supports and explains Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The National Mission on Libraries (NML) Scheme was launched in 2012 by the Ministry of Culture to implement National Knowledge Commission (NKC, 2005) recommendations on library and information sciences development.
Statement-II:
The National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) aims to document India's cultural heritage, including art forms, artists, crafts, and performing arts, and to create a National Register of Artists and Art Practices.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered

- Statement-I correctly describes the establishment of the National Mission on Libraries (NML) Scheme in 2012 by the Ministry of Culture to implement the recommendations of the National Knowledge Commission (NKC) related to library and information sciences development.
- Statement-II accurately outlines the objectives of the National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM), which include documenting India's cultural heritage, creating a National Register of Artists and Art Practices, and focusing on mapping villages and art forms. This statement complements and further explains the context provided in Statement-I, linking the two initiatives under the Ministry of Culture.

Consider the following statements regarding the PM CARES Fund:
1. The PM CARES Fund allows 100% tax exemption under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act.
2. The Fund is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
3. Donations to the PM CARES Fund qualify as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Banerjee answered
Overview of PM CARES Fund
The PM CARES Fund (Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund) was established to provide relief during emergencies such as the COVID-19 pandemic. Understanding the tax implications and regulatory framework surrounding this fund is essential.
Statement Analysis
1. 100% Tax Exemption
- The PM CARES Fund allows for 100% tax exemption under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act.
- This makes it attractive for individual and corporate donors seeking tax benefits.
2. Audit by CAG
- The statement that the Fund is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect.
- The PM CARES Fund does not fall under the purview of CAG audits, leading to transparency concerns.
3. CSR Expenditure
- Donations to the PM CARES Fund do qualify as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013.
- This classification allows companies to count these contributions toward their CSR obligations.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correct Statements: 1 and 3
- Incorrect Statement: 2
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only). This distinction is vital for stakeholders considering contributions to the PM CARES Fund, as it highlights the tax benefits and CSR implications while also pointing out the lack of CAG oversight.

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical and socio-economic landscape of Syria:
1. Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) is the leading rebel group that emerged as a dominant force in Syria after the ouster of President Bashar al-Assad.
2. Syria's economy has remained stable despite the ongoing conflict, maintaining a GDP (PPP) of over $50 billion without significant infrastructure damage.
3. The majority of Syria's population practices Sunni Islam, with Alawism and Shia Islam being practiced by a minority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1 is correct. Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) has indeed emerged as a dominant rebel group following the ouster of President Bashar al-Assad, marking a significant shift in the power dynamics within Syria.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Syria's economy has not remained stable; it has faced severe challenges due to the prolonged conflict, resulting in significant damage to infrastructure and a contraction in economic development. Although the GDP (PPP) is around $50.28 billion, this reflects the impact of ongoing instability rather than stability.
- Statement 3 is correct. The majority of Syria's population practices Sunni Islam, accounting for approximately 74%, with Alawism and Shia Islam practiced by about 13% of the population. This highlights the religious composition of the country.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.

Consider the following statements regarding Haemophilia A:
1. Haemophilia A is an inherited blood disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor IX.
2. Gene therapy has emerged as a potential treatment for Haemophilia A in recent medical advancements.
3. The disorder primarily affects females due to its X-linked genetic nature.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Saha answered
Understanding Haemophilia A
Haemophilia A is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. To clarify the statements regarding this condition:
1. Incorrect Statement about Clotting Factor
- Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not factor IX.
- Factor IX deficiency pertains to Haemophilia B, which is a separate condition.
2. Gene Therapy as a Treatment
- There have been significant advancements in gene therapy for Haemophilia A.
- This therapy aims to provide a functional copy of the gene responsible for producing clotting factor VIII, thus potentially offering a long-term solution for patients.
3. Misconception About Gender Affected
- Haemophilia A is X-linked, meaning it is primarily expressed in males who inherit the affected X chromosome from their carrier mothers.
- Females can be carriers and may exhibit mild symptoms, but the disorder predominantly affects males.
Conclusion
- The correct answer is option C: "2 Only." Gene therapy is indeed a promising approach for treating Haemophilia A, while statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
- Understanding these distinctions is crucial for grasping the complexities of genetic disorders and their treatments in modern medicine.

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs)?
  • a)
    FTAs aim to eliminate tariffs and non-tariff barriers among member countries.
  • b)
    FTAs provide for a common external tariff for non-member countries.
  • c)
    FTAs cover trade in goods and services, including provisions on intellectual property rights (IPRs) in advanced agreements.
  • d)
    FTAs offer preferential market access through tariff concessions.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
Answer: B) FTAs provide for a common external tariff for non-member countries.
Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) focus on reducing or eliminating tariffs and trade barriers between the participating member countries while allowing each member to maintain its individual tariff policies for non-member countries. A common external tariff is a characteristic of a Customs Union, not an FTA. Advanced FTAs may also include provisions related to intellectual property rights, investment, and competition policy.

Where is the Khorlochhu Hydropower Project located?
  • a)
    Western Bhutan
  • b)
    Eastern Bhutan
  • c)
    Northern Bhutan
  • d)
    Southern Bhutan
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Mehta answered
Khorlochhu Hydropower Project Location
The Khorlochhu Hydropower Project is situated in Bhutan, specifically in the eastern part of the country.
Geographical Context
- Bhutan is divided into several regions, including western, eastern, northern, and southern areas.
- The eastern region of Bhutan encompasses significant river systems and is known for its potential for hydropower generation.
Significance of Eastern Bhutan
- Eastern Bhutan is characterized by steep terrains and abundant water resources, making it suitable for hydropower projects.
- The Khorlochhu River, which is part of this region, provides the necessary water flow for the project.
Development and Impact
- The Khorlochhu Hydropower Project aims to harness the river's potential to generate electricity, contributing to Bhutan's energy needs.
- Hydropower is a crucial sector in Bhutan, with the country focusing on renewable energy sources to sustain its economy and export electricity to neighboring countries.
Conclusion
In summary, the Khorlochhu Hydropower Project is located in eastern Bhutan, leveraging the region's natural resources for sustainable energy development. This project aligns with Bhutan's commitment to renewable energy and economic growth through hydropower.

Consider the following statements regarding the IndiaAI Future Skills platform:
1. The IndiaAI Future Skills platform is a part of the seven foundational pillars of the IndiaAI Mission, aiming to democratize AI education across India.
2. The initiative includes the establishment of Data and AI Labs exclusively in Tier 1 cities to foster AI education.
3. The platform is developed in collaboration with industry partners to ensure alignment with evolving industry demands.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 2 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the IndiaAI Future Skills Platform
The IndiaAI Future Skills platform is a significant initiative aimed at enhancing AI education across India. Let's analyze the statements to understand why the correct answer is option 'B'.
Statement 1: True
- The IndiaAI Future Skills platform is indeed part of the seven foundational pillars of the IndiaAI Mission.
- Its primary goal is to democratize AI education, making it accessible to a wider audience across the country.
Statement 2: False
- Contrary to the statement, the initiative does not limit the establishment of Data and AI Labs to only Tier 1 cities.
- The aim is to promote AI education in various regions, including Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, to ensure inclusivity.
Statement 3: True
- The platform is developed in collaboration with industry partners, which ensures that the educational content is aligned with current and evolving industry demands.
- This collaboration is crucial for providing relevant skills that meet the needs of the job market.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is true.
- Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 3 is true.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', which includes statements 1 and 3 only. This highlights the platform's commitment to broadening AI education while ensuring industry relevance, excluding the misconception regarding the restriction of labs to Tier 1 cities.

What is the primary innovation of the carbon-14 diamond battery developed by scientists from the University of Bristol and the UK Atomic Energy Authority?
  • a)
    Capturing slow-moving electrons
  • b)
    Utilizing carbon-12
  • c)
    Harnessing light particles
  • d)
    Operating in extreme temperatures
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The primary innovation of the carbon-14 diamond battery is its mechanism of capturing fast-moving electrons from within the diamond structure. This process is akin to how solar panels harness light particles for energy conversion. By utilizing carbon-14, a radioactive isotope with a half-life of 5,700 years, this battery marks a significant advancement in energy technology, particularly suitable for applications in extreme environments like space where conventional battery replacements are impractical.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme aims to provide nutritional support and improve school attendance among students by offering one hot cooked meal to students in Balvatika and classes I to VIII at government and aided schools on all school days.
Statement-II:
The Voronezh radar system, recently acquired by India from Russia, enhances India's early warning and missile defense capabilities by tracking various threats, including ballistic missiles and aircraft, up to distances of 8,000 kilometers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
While Statement-I accurately describes the objectives and details of the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme, Statement-II inaccurately describes the purpose and features of the Voronezh radar system. The Voronezh radar system was acquired from Russia, not by India, and it is primarily a Russian defense infrastructure designed to enhance Russia's early warning and missile defense capabilities, not India's. Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect in the context of the provided information.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Varmam therapy is a drugless and non-invasive traditional healing modality within the Siddha system of medicine, focusing on vital energy points known as Varmam.
Statement-II:
The recent inauguration of the Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime route has significantly reduced shipping times and costs between India and Russia, enhancing trade in key sectors like oil, food, and machinery.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes Varmam therapy as a drugless and non-invasive healing modality focusing on vital energy points within the Siddha system of medicine. Statement-II discusses the inauguration of the Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime route, which indeed has reduced shipping times and costs between India and Russia, enhancing trade in various sectors. While both statements are factually correct, they are independent of each other and do not have a direct explanatory relationship. Thus, the correct answer is (b) as both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Exercise SLINEX 2024 is a multilateral naval exercise involving India, Sri Lanka, and the United Kingdom.
Statement-II:
The CPTPP (Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership) includes the United Kingdom as one of its founding members.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered

Statement-I refers to Exercise SLINEX 2024, which is actually a bilateral naval exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not involving the United Kingdom. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly states that the United Kingdom is one of the founding members of the CPTPP, which is not accurate. The United Kingdom recently joined the CPTPP as the 12th member but was not part of the original founding members. Hence, Statement-I is correct regarding the Exercise SLINEX 2024, while Statement-II is incorrect regarding the CPTPP membership of the United Kingdom.

Consider the following statements regarding the GenCast AI Model by Google DeepMind:
1. GenCast is primarily designed to improve short-term weather forecasting using real-time data analysis.
2. The model employs a neural network architecture with over 40,000 nodes for processing data.
3. GenCast can produce weather forecasts in under 10 minutes, which is significantly faster than traditional numerical weather prediction models.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. GenCast is designed to enhance long-term weather forecasting capabilities, not just short-term forecasting. It utilizes historical data and machine learning to improve the accuracy of longer-term predictions, up to 15 days in advance.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. GenCast utilizes a sophisticated neural network architecture consisting of 41,162 nodes. These nodes process a vast amount of data to refine and improve the accuracy of weather forecasts.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. GenCast produces forecasts in approximately 8 minutes using a single TPU v5 unit. This speed is significantly faster compared to traditional numerical weather prediction models, which can take several hours to generate forecasts.
Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Article 67(b) of the Constitution of India:
1. Article 67(b) provides that the Vice President of India can be removed from office through a resolution passed by a special majority in the Rajya Sabha and a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.
2. A minimum of 21 days' notice is required before moving a resolution for the removal of the Vice President.
3. The Constitution specifies particular grounds for the removal of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaideep Singh answered
Understanding Article 67(b) of the Constitution of India
Article 67(b) outlines the process for the removal of the Vice President of India. Let's analyze the statements given in the question.
Statement 1: Removal Process
- Article 67(b) indeed states that the Vice President can be removed from office through a resolution.
- This resolution must be passed by a majority of the total membership of the Rajya Sabha (upper house) and a simple majority in the Lok Sabha (lower house).
- Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Notice Requirement
- The Constitution requires a minimum notice period of 14 days before moving a resolution for the removal of the Vice President, not 21 days as stated.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3: Grounds for Removal
- Unlike the removal of the President, Article 67 does not specify any particular grounds for the removal of the Vice President.
- The removal can be initiated based on political reasons, therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Conclusion
- After analyzing the statements, it is clear that only statement 1 is correct.
- The correct answer is option A: 1 Only.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The SVAGRIHA rating system promotes the concept of green buildings and sustainability under the Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA).
Statement-II:
The Caste Census in India has historically faced challenges such as caste mobility and data accuracy issues.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Statement-I correctly describes the SVAGRIHA rating system, which indeed promotes green buildings and sustainability under the GRIHA framework. Statement-II addresses challenges related to the Caste Census in India, mentioning issues like caste mobility and data accuracy problems. While both statements are factually correct, they pertain to different topics and do not explain or relate to each other. Hence, the correct answer is option (b), indicating that both statements are correct but are not directly connected or explanatory of one another in the context provided.

Consider the following statements regarding the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. The Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of a bank's total deposits that must be maintained as liquid cash with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. Banks earn interest on the funds maintained as CRR with the RBI.
3. A reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio typically results in increased liquidity for banks, allowing them to lend more.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered

- Statement 1 is correct. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is indeed the percentage of a bank's total deposits that must be maintained as liquid cash with the Reserve Bank of India. This requirement is a tool used by the RBI to control liquidity in the banking system.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Banks do not earn interest on the funds maintained as CRR with the RBI. This is a critical aspect of CRR, as it implies a cost for banks when they have to hold a part of their deposits as non-earning assets.
- Statement 3 is correct. A reduction in the CRR means that banks are required to hold a smaller percentage of their deposits as cash with the RBI. This increases the liquidity available with banks, allowing them to lend more, thereby enhancing credit availability and potentially stimulating economic growth.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

What is the primary objective of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) in India?
  • a)
    To reduce the incidence of malaria cases
  • b)
    To eliminate tuberculosis as a public health issue by 2025
  • c)
    To promote vaccination against hepatitis
  • d)
    To improve sanitation facilities in rural areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The primary objective of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) in India is to eliminate tuberculosis as a public health issue by 2025. This initiative aims to reduce TB cases and mortality through targeted interventions and a comprehensive strategy. By focusing on early detection, complete treatment, prevention, and strengthening TB care services, the NTEP strives to achieve the goal of making India tuberculosis-free by 2025.

Consider the following statements regarding the GenCast model and the One Nation One Election proposal:
1. The GenCast model utilizes a probabilistic ensemble forecasting method which allows it to outperform traditional forecasting systems in terms of predictive accuracy.
2. The concept of simultaneous elections in India was last practiced in 1967 before the current proposal for One Nation One Election.
3. Implementing the One Nation One Election proposal would require significant constitutional amendments, including the introduction of a new Article 82A.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
1. Statement 1: The GenCast model indeed uses a probabilistic ensemble forecasting method, which enhances its predictive accuracy by considering a range of possible weather scenarios. This allows it to outperform traditional weather forecasting systems in various scenarios, as mentioned in the text. Therefore, this statement is correct.
2. Statement 2: Historical context reveals that the practice of simultaneous elections in India was last conducted in 1967. The recent proposal for One Nation One Election aims to revert to a similar system. Thus, this statement is correct.
3. Statement 3: The implementation of the One Nation One Election proposal would indeed require substantial constitutional amendments, including the introduction of a new Article 82A to standardize assembly tenures with the Lok Sabha, as highlighted in the text. Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Given that all three statements are correct, the correct answer is Option D.

Consider the following statements regarding the Malayan Night Heron and the Chakki River:
1. The Malayan Night Heron is a medium-sized, primarily nocturnal bird found across India and Southeast Asia, with a diet mainly consisting of earthworms and beetles.
2. The Chakki River is a tributary of the Beas River, flowing through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, and is primarily fed by glacial melt from the Himalayas.
3. Unregulated sand mining and stone-crushing activities have significantly altered the course of the Chakki River, leading to severe ecological degradation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
1. The Malayan Night Heron: This statement is correct. The Malayan Night Heron is indeed a medium-sized, primarily nocturnal bird found across India and Southeast Asia, and its diet mainly consists of earthworms and beetles. The recent sighting in Madurai highlights its presence in India, and its nocturnal and dietary habits are typical of the species.
2. The Chakki River: This statement is incorrect. While the Chakki River is a tributary of the Beas River and flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, it is primarily fed by snow and rainfall from the Dhauladhar mountains, not glacial melt from the Himalayas. This distinction is important as the source of its water affects the river's flow and seasonal behavior.
3. Ecological Degradation of the Chakki River: This statement is correct. Unregulated sand mining and stone-crushing activities have altered the course of the Chakki River, leading to severe ecological degradation. These activities have significantly impacted the riverbed and banks, highlighting environmental concerns that necessitate sustainable practices to protect the river's ecosystem.
Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct choice.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Malayan Night Heron - Found in Southeast Asia and migrates to India
2. Chakki River - Tributary of the Sutlej River
3. Paris Agreement - Finalized in 2015 to combat climate change
4. Beas River - Originally known as Hyphasis by Ancient Greeks
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Malayan Night Heron - Found in Southeast Asia and migrates to India: This pair is correctly matched. The Malayan Night Heron is native to Southeast Asia and migrates to India during the winter months.
2. Chakki River - Tributary of the Sutlej River: This pair is incorrectly matched. The Chakki River is a tributary of the Beas River, not the Sutlej River.
3. Paris Agreement - Finalized in 2015 to combat climate change: This pair is correctly matched. The Paris Agreement was finalized in 2015 and aims to mitigate the impacts of climate change.
4. Beas River - Originally known as Hyphasis by Ancient Greeks: This pair is correctly matched. The Beas River was referred to as Hyphasis by the Ancient Greeks.
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Arctic sea ice is shrinking at a rate of 12.6% per decade, the fastest in at least 1,500 years.
Statement-II:
The loss of Arctic sea ice enhances warming through the albedo effect, where darker ocean water absorbs more heat, leading to further climatic changes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered

Statement-I correctly mentions that Arctic sea ice is indeed shrinking at a rate of 12.6% per decade, which is supported by scientific data and research. Statement-II also accurately describes the albedo effect, explaining that the loss of Arctic sea ice leads to a positive feedback loop where darker ocean water absorbs more heat, further contributing to warming and climatic changes. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications of Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic Ice Melting:
1. The Arctic sea ice is shrinking at a rate of 12.6% per decade, which is the fastest in the last 500 years.
2. The first ice-free day in the Arctic could occur as soon as September 2027 under certain climatic conditions.
3. The loss of Arctic sea ice enhances global warming through the albedo effect, where darker ocean water absorbs more heat.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
1. Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Arctic sea ice is indeed shrinking at a significant rate of 12.6% per decade, the statement claiming this is the fastest rate in the last 500 years is incorrect. The correct timeframe for this rate being the fastest is at least 1,500 years.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The prediction that the first ice-free day in the Arctic could occur as soon as September 2027 under certain climatic conditions is consistent with recent studies indicating the rapid decline of Arctic ice due to climate change.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The loss of Arctic sea ice indeed enhances global warming through the albedo effect. As ice, which reflects sunlight, is replaced by darker ocean water, more heat is absorbed, leading to further warming and ice melt.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

Consider the following pairs regarding the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and related judicial interventions in India:
1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution - Mandates the establishment of a UCC
2. Shah Bano Case (1985) - Reinforced the need for a separate Hindu Code Bill
3. Special Marriage Act (1954) - Allows for civil marriages across different religions
4. KM Munshi - Advocated for UCC to promote national unity and equality for women
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution - Correctly matched. Article 44 is indeed a Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the state to strive for a Uniform Civil Code for its citizens.
2. Shah Bano Case (1985) - Incorrectly matched. The Shah Bano case was significant for highlighting the need for a UCC, but it was not related to the Hindu Code Bill. It dealt with the right to maintenance for a Muslim woman, which led to discussions on the necessity of a UCC to ensure uniform rights for all women.
3. Special Marriage Act (1954) - Correctly matched. This Act provides a framework for marriage, divorce, and other personal matters for individuals irrespective of their religion, allowing civil marriages across different religions.
4. KM Munshi - Correctly matched. KM Munshi was a staunch advocate for the UCC during the Constituent Assembly debates, arguing that it would promote national unity and ensure equality for women.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

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