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Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.Q. Which statement accurately reflects the information presented in the passage?- a)IUCs serve as a deterrent for the adoption of new technologies.
- b)The recent framework, where no interconnection charges need to be paid, is referred to as "bill and keep."
- c)This shift in IUC policy can provide telecom companies with an opportunity to expand their customer base and increase outgoing call volumes.
- d)Interconnection charges foster competition among network operators.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.
The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
Q. Which statement accurately reflects the information presented in the passage?
a)
IUCs serve as a deterrent for the adoption of new technologies.
b)
The recent framework, where no interconnection charges need to be paid, is referred to as "bill and keep."
c)
This shift in IUC policy can provide telecom companies with an opportunity to expand their customer base and increase outgoing call volumes.
d)
Interconnection charges foster competition among network operators.
|
Sonam joshi answered |
Understanding the Correct Answer: Option B
The statement selected as the correct answer, option B, accurately reflects a key aspect of the passage regarding the new telecom policy in India.
Explanation of "Bill and Keep"
- The passage mentions that the "removal of interconnection charges" is replaced by an arrangement called "bill and keep."
- This means that telecom operators will no longer pay each other for connecting calls, which simplifies the billing process and encourages better network management.
Other Options Analyzed
- Option A: "IUCs serve as a deterrent for the adoption of new technologies."
- While IUCs may have influenced network strategies, the passage does not explicitly state that they deter adoption. Instead, the end of IUC allows focus on network upgrades.
- Option C: "This shift in IUC policy can provide telecom companies with an opportunity to expand their customer base and increase outgoing call volumes."
- Although the shift may lead to improvements, the passage does not specifically mention an increase in customer base or outgoing call volumes as guaranteed outcomes.
- Option D: "Interconnection charges foster competition among network operators."
- The passage suggests that interconnection charges created challenges rather than fostering competition, as indicated by the reduction in private players.
Conclusion
In summary, option B is correct because it accurately summarizes the new policy framework of "bill and keep," which eliminates interconnection charges. The other options either misinterpret the implications of IUC or do not find support within the text.
The statement selected as the correct answer, option B, accurately reflects a key aspect of the passage regarding the new telecom policy in India.
Explanation of "Bill and Keep"
- The passage mentions that the "removal of interconnection charges" is replaced by an arrangement called "bill and keep."
- This means that telecom operators will no longer pay each other for connecting calls, which simplifies the billing process and encourages better network management.
Other Options Analyzed
- Option A: "IUCs serve as a deterrent for the adoption of new technologies."
- While IUCs may have influenced network strategies, the passage does not explicitly state that they deter adoption. Instead, the end of IUC allows focus on network upgrades.
- Option C: "This shift in IUC policy can provide telecom companies with an opportunity to expand their customer base and increase outgoing call volumes."
- Although the shift may lead to improvements, the passage does not specifically mention an increase in customer base or outgoing call volumes as guaranteed outcomes.
- Option D: "Interconnection charges foster competition among network operators."
- The passage suggests that interconnection charges created challenges rather than fostering competition, as indicated by the reduction in private players.
Conclusion
In summary, option B is correct because it accurately summarizes the new policy framework of "bill and keep," which eliminates interconnection charges. The other options either misinterpret the implications of IUC or do not find support within the text.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)Q. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?- a)The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative aims to improve financial inclusion.
- b)Rural India faces challenges in accessing banking services due to over-reliance on digital technology.
- c)The APBS technology has been in operation since 2011.
- d)The primary mode of transacting for workers/beneficiaries has been consulted and decided by them.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Q. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a)
The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative aims to improve financial inclusion.
b)
Rural India faces challenges in accessing banking services due to over-reliance on digital technology.
c)
The APBS technology has been in operation since 2011.
d)
The primary mode of transacting for workers/beneficiaries has been consulted and decided by them.
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The passage mentions various challenges and issues related to the DBT initiative and the APBS technology but does not provide information about whether the workers/beneficiaries were consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]Q. The word that means "in a distraught way owing to fear" in the passage is:- a)Frantically
- b)Embedded
- c)Hazardous
- d)Persisted
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.
With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.
But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.
After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.
[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]
Q. The word that means "in a distraught way owing to fear" in the passage is:
a)
Frantically
b)
Embedded
c)
Hazardous
d)
Persisted
|
Nikhila menon answered |
Understanding the Context
In the passage, Adrian experiences a sudden and alarming event when he is bitten by a Sydney funnel-web spider. His reaction to this terrifying situation is crucial for understanding the meaning of the word "frantically."
Meaning of "Frantically"
- The term "frantically" describes a state of intense emotional distress characterized by panic or desperation.
- In this context, it indicates that Adrian, upon realizing he has been bitten by a deadly spider, reacts with urgency and fear, reflecting his internal turmoil.
Contrast with Other Options
- Embedded: Refers to something being firmly fixed in a surrounding mass. It does not convey any emotional state.
- Hazardous: Means dangerous or risky but lacks any emotional connotation.
- Persisted: Indicates continuing firmly despite difficulty but does not imply fear or distress.
Conclusion
The word "frantically" effectively captures Adrian's distraught and panicked reaction to his spider bite, making it the correct choice. While the other options describe different aspects of the situation, they do not convey the same sense of urgency and fear that "frantically" does. Thus, in the context of the passage, option 'A' is the most fitting term to describe Adrian’s emotional state following the bite.
In the passage, Adrian experiences a sudden and alarming event when he is bitten by a Sydney funnel-web spider. His reaction to this terrifying situation is crucial for understanding the meaning of the word "frantically."
Meaning of "Frantically"
- The term "frantically" describes a state of intense emotional distress characterized by panic or desperation.
- In this context, it indicates that Adrian, upon realizing he has been bitten by a deadly spider, reacts with urgency and fear, reflecting his internal turmoil.
Contrast with Other Options
- Embedded: Refers to something being firmly fixed in a surrounding mass. It does not convey any emotional state.
- Hazardous: Means dangerous or risky but lacks any emotional connotation.
- Persisted: Indicates continuing firmly despite difficulty but does not imply fear or distress.
Conclusion
The word "frantically" effectively captures Adrian's distraught and panicked reaction to his spider bite, making it the correct choice. While the other options describe different aspects of the situation, they do not convey the same sense of urgency and fear that "frantically" does. Thus, in the context of the passage, option 'A' is the most fitting term to describe Adrian’s emotional state following the bite.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.For a contract to be valid, the consent of the parties must be genuine. The principle of consensus-ad-idem is followed, which means that the parties entering into the contract must mean the same thing in the same sense.
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]Q. John and Manoj were engaged in the computer equipment trading business. John consistently used physical threats against Manoj to ensure that he remained the exclusive business partner. The court issued a judgment that nullified the contract solely based on Manoj's complaint. Was the court's decision warranted?- a)No, as the court made its decision solely based on Manoj's complaint without any supporting evidence.
- b)Yes, because the mere use of coercion automatically renders the contract invalid, justifying the court's decision without additional proof.
- c)No, because the fact that Manoj continued doing business with John despite the threats indicates his willingness to maintain the business relationship, thus undermining the court's justification.
- d)Yes, because the burden of proof lies with John to demonstrate that he did not employ coercion, and he failed to do so.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
For a contract to be valid, the consent of the parties must be genuine. The principle of consensus-ad-idem is followed, which means that the parties entering into the contract must mean the same thing in the same sense.
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]
Q. John and Manoj were engaged in the computer equipment trading business. John consistently used physical threats against Manoj to ensure that he remained the exclusive business partner. The court issued a judgment that nullified the contract solely based on Manoj's complaint. Was the court's decision warranted?
a)
No, as the court made its decision solely based on Manoj's complaint without any supporting evidence.
b)
Yes, because the mere use of coercion automatically renders the contract invalid, justifying the court's decision without additional proof.
c)
No, because the fact that Manoj continued doing business with John despite the threats indicates his willingness to maintain the business relationship, thus undermining the court's justification.
d)
Yes, because the burden of proof lies with John to demonstrate that he did not employ coercion, and he failed to do so.
|
|
Ekta malhotra answered |
Analysis of the Courts Decision:
Insufficient Evidence:
- The courts decision was not warranted because it was solely based on Manoj's complaint without any supporting evidence.
- In legal matters, it is essential to have concrete evidence before nullifying a contract, especially in cases of coercion.
Legal Requirement:
- While coercion can render a contract voidable, the burden of proof lies on the party whose consent was coerced to provide evidence of such coercion.
- In this case, John should have been given the opportunity to defend himself and present evidence before the court made a decision.
Assessment of Manoj's Actions:
- The fact that Manoj continued doing business with John despite the threats raises questions about the validity of his complaint.
- It indicates a willingness to maintain the business relationship, which undermines the justification for nullifying the contract based solely on his complaint.
Importance of Due Process:
- In legal proceedings, it is crucial to follow due process and ensure that decisions are based on sufficient evidence rather than just one party's complaint.
- This helps in upholding the principles of justice and fairness in contract law.
Therefore, in this case, the court's decision to nullify the contract solely based on Manoj's complaint was not warranted due to insufficient evidence and the lack of due process followed in assessing the situation.
Insufficient Evidence:
- The courts decision was not warranted because it was solely based on Manoj's complaint without any supporting evidence.
- In legal matters, it is essential to have concrete evidence before nullifying a contract, especially in cases of coercion.
Legal Requirement:
- While coercion can render a contract voidable, the burden of proof lies on the party whose consent was coerced to provide evidence of such coercion.
- In this case, John should have been given the opportunity to defend himself and present evidence before the court made a decision.
Assessment of Manoj's Actions:
- The fact that Manoj continued doing business with John despite the threats raises questions about the validity of his complaint.
- It indicates a willingness to maintain the business relationship, which undermines the justification for nullifying the contract based solely on his complaint.
Importance of Due Process:
- In legal proceedings, it is crucial to follow due process and ensure that decisions are based on sufficient evidence rather than just one party's complaint.
- This helps in upholding the principles of justice and fairness in contract law.
Therefore, in this case, the court's decision to nullify the contract solely based on Manoj's complaint was not warranted due to insufficient evidence and the lack of due process followed in assessing the situation.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Part IV of the Constitution contains Directive Principles of State Policy which provide guidelines for the government to govern the country. These Directives are different from the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III of the Constitution and the ordinary laws of the land in several respects. They are not enforceable in courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of individuals. They require implementation by legislation and do not confer or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles, nor can they compel the government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. However, it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives subject to the limitations imposed by different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of legislative and executive power by the state The Sub-committee on Fundamental Rights constituted by the Constituent Assembly suggested two types of Fundamental Rights — one which can be enforced in the Courts of law and the other which because of their different nature cannot be enforced in the law Courts. Later on however, the former were put under the head ‘Fundamental Rights’ as Part III which we have already discussed and the latter were put separately in Part IV of the Constitution under the heading ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ which are discussed in the following pages. The Articles included in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contain certain Directives which are the guidelines for the Government to lead the country. Article 37 provides that the ‘provisions contained in this part (i) shall not be enforceable by any Court, but the principles therein laid down are neverthless (ii) fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. The Directives, however, differ from the fundamental rights contained in PartIII of the Constitution or the ordinary laws of the land in the following respects: (i) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favour of individuals. (ii) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law. (iii) The Directives per-se do not confer upon or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. (iv) The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles. (v) The courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. (vi) Though it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives, it can do so only subject to the limitations imposed by the different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of the legislative and executive power by the state.Q. Can a court challenge the government of a state's law allowing industries in ecologically sensitive areas on the basis of it going against the Directive Principles of State Policy?- a)Yes, the court has the authority to invalidate the law because it contradicts the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- b)No, the Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be legally enforced in a court of law.
- c)The court can require the government to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy and revoke the law.
- d)The court can only invalidate the law if it breaches the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Part IV of the Constitution contains Directive Principles of State Policy which provide guidelines for the government to govern the country. These Directives are different from the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III of the Constitution and the ordinary laws of the land in several respects. They are not enforceable in courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of individuals. They require implementation by legislation and do not confer or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles, nor can they compel the government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. However, it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives subject to the limitations imposed by different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of legislative and executive power by the state The Sub-committee on Fundamental Rights constituted by the Constituent Assembly suggested two types of Fundamental Rights — one which can be enforced in the Courts of law and the other which because of their different nature cannot be enforced in the law Courts. Later on however, the former were put under the head ‘Fundamental Rights’ as Part III which we have already discussed and the latter were put separately in Part IV of the Constitution under the heading ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ which are discussed in the following pages. The Articles included in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contain certain Directives which are the guidelines for the Government to lead the country. Article 37 provides that the ‘provisions contained in this part (i) shall not be enforceable by any Court, but the principles therein laid down are neverthless (ii) fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. The Directives, however, differ from the fundamental rights contained in PartIII of the Constitution or the ordinary laws of the land in the following respects: (i) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favour of individuals. (ii) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law. (iii) The Directives per-se do not confer upon or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. (iv) The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles. (v) The courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. (vi) Though it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives, it can do so only subject to the limitations imposed by the different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of the legislative and executive power by the state.
Q. Can a court challenge the government of a state's law allowing industries in ecologically sensitive areas on the basis of it going against the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a)
Yes, the court has the authority to invalidate the law because it contradicts the Directive Principles of State Policy.
b)
No, the Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be legally enforced in a court of law.
c)
The court can require the government to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy and revoke the law.
d)
The court can only invalidate the law if it breaches the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
Challenging a law in court on the basis of it conflicting with the Directive Principles of State Policy is not a viable option because these principles are not subject to enforcement through legal proceedings. Option A is inaccurate because courts lack the authority to declare a law void solely for contravening the Directive Principles. Option C is also incorrect as courts cannot mandate the government to implement the Directive Principles or repeal laws based on them. Option D is misleading because the violation of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are distinct aspects in the Constitution and do not inherently overlap.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Section 25 of the Contract Act reads- “Agreements without consideration, void unless it is writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law”. This section after defining consideration in definition clause in Sec. 2(d) declares that “consideration is the vital part of a valid contract” and also states some exception to the rule that it establishes and in such exceptions, the contract cannot be rendered void even if it is without consideration. The exceptions are: When the contract is in writing and registered When it is for compensating someone for his voluntary services for the promisor in the past. When it is a promise, signed or made in writing by the person or his agent to pay whole or part of a debt which is barred by the law of limitation. Note- In case of transfer of any gift from one person to another, this section does not affect its validity. Mere inadequate consideration in a contract does not render it to be void under this section. However, inadequacy may be taken into account to check whether the consent was free or not.Q. What does Section 25 of the Contract Act state about the effect of inadequacy of consideration in a contract?- a)It renders the contract void.
- b)It makes the contract voidable.
- c)It affects the validity of consent.
- d)It has no impact on the contract's validity.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Section 25 of the Contract Act reads- “Agreements without consideration, void unless it is writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law”. This section after defining consideration in definition clause in Sec. 2(d) declares that “consideration is the vital part of a valid contract” and also states some exception to the rule that it establishes and in such exceptions, the contract cannot be rendered void even if it is without consideration. The exceptions are: When the contract is in writing and registered When it is for compensating someone for his voluntary services for the promisor in the past. When it is a promise, signed or made in writing by the person or his agent to pay whole or part of a debt which is barred by the law of limitation. Note- In case of transfer of any gift from one person to another, this section does not affect its validity. Mere inadequate consideration in a contract does not render it to be void under this section. However, inadequacy may be taken into account to check whether the consent was free or not.
Q. What does Section 25 of the Contract Act state about the effect of inadequacy of consideration in a contract?
a)
It renders the contract void.
b)
It makes the contract voidable.
c)
It affects the validity of consent.
d)
It has no impact on the contract's validity.
|
Jyoti rane answered |
Understanding Section 25 of the Contract Act
Section 25 of the Contract Act emphasizes the necessity of consideration in forming a valid contract. However, it also introduces important insights regarding the impact of inadequacy of consideration.
Inadequacy of Consideration
- Inadequate consideration refers to a situation where the value exchanged in a contract is not equivalent or is significantly lower than what is expected.
- According to Section 25, mere inadequacy of consideration does not render a contract void.
Impact on Validity
- While the contract remains valid, inadequacy can influence the assessment of whether the consent of the parties was free.
- This means that if one party feels pressured or misled into agreeing to an unequal exchange, it may indicate a lack of genuine consent.
Consent and Its Importance
- Consent is a crucial element in contract law. If a party's consent is not freely given, due to factors like coercion, undue influence, or misrepresentation, the contract could be declared voidable.
- Therefore, while the contract itself remains valid despite inadequate consideration, the conditions surrounding the agreement must be scrutinized to ensure that consent was obtained without any undue pressure.
Conclusion
- In summary, Section 25 establishes that inadequacy of consideration does not invalidate a contract but serves as a factor to assess the integrity of the consent given by the parties involved. This provision ensures that the essence of fairness and voluntary agreement is maintained in contractual relationships.
Section 25 of the Contract Act emphasizes the necessity of consideration in forming a valid contract. However, it also introduces important insights regarding the impact of inadequacy of consideration.
Inadequacy of Consideration
- Inadequate consideration refers to a situation where the value exchanged in a contract is not equivalent or is significantly lower than what is expected.
- According to Section 25, mere inadequacy of consideration does not render a contract void.
Impact on Validity
- While the contract remains valid, inadequacy can influence the assessment of whether the consent of the parties was free.
- This means that if one party feels pressured or misled into agreeing to an unequal exchange, it may indicate a lack of genuine consent.
Consent and Its Importance
- Consent is a crucial element in contract law. If a party's consent is not freely given, due to factors like coercion, undue influence, or misrepresentation, the contract could be declared voidable.
- Therefore, while the contract itself remains valid despite inadequate consideration, the conditions surrounding the agreement must be scrutinized to ensure that consent was obtained without any undue pressure.
Conclusion
- In summary, Section 25 establishes that inadequacy of consideration does not invalidate a contract but serves as a factor to assess the integrity of the consent given by the parties involved. This provision ensures that the essence of fairness and voluntary agreement is maintained in contractual relationships.
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.Babita: It is in the interest of Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.Which of the following is the closest to the argument made by Babita in terms of its underlying rationale?- a)Inspite of the proliferation of online shopping websites, people still prefer the personalized experience of bricks-and-mortar stores.
- b)A lot of luxury brands provide an online shopping experience as well, but their focus remains on exclusivity and image rather than affordable prices.
- c)Online auction sites are trying to build a loyal tribe of auctioneers by focusing on customer satisfaction and competitive pricing.
- d)The return policies on most shopping portals seem to be crafted to deter the customer but there is an underlying rationale that makes business sense.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.
Babita: It is in the interest of Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.
Which of the following is the closest to the argument made by Babita in terms of its underlying rationale?
a)
Inspite of the proliferation of online shopping websites, people still prefer the personalized experience of bricks-and-mortar stores.
b)
A lot of luxury brands provide an online shopping experience as well, but their focus remains on exclusivity and image rather than affordable prices.
c)
Online auction sites are trying to build a loyal tribe of auctioneers by focusing on customer satisfaction and competitive pricing.
d)
The return policies on most shopping portals seem to be crafted to deter the customer but there is an underlying rationale that makes business sense.
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
Babita’s main argument is that internet sites, newspapers and magazines try to get the best deals for their customers as they want to establish themselves in the market and because their own commissions are dependent on the selling prices. The only option that mirrors this rationale is option (c). Options (a) and (d) actually work in favor of Anita’s argument. Option (b) is not directly related to Babita’s claim.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]Where is the headquarters of the Tobacco Board of India located?- a)Hyderabad
- b)New Delhi
- c)Mumbai
- d)Guntur
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
Where is the headquarters of the Tobacco Board of India located?
a)
Hyderabad
b)
New Delhi
c)
Mumbai
d)
Guntur
|
Crafty Classes answered |
The Tobacco Board of India is headquartered in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.Which of the following is not another possible explanation for the paradox presented in the passage?- a)People tend to follow food fads and dietary shortcuts without checking their suitability.
- b)There is easy access to unhealthy and junk food in the market.
- c)The lifestyle of most people has become sedentary and there is a lack of physical activity.
- d)The media and entertainment industry glorify an unrealistically thin body image.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.
Which of the following is not another possible explanation for the paradox presented in the passage?
a)
People tend to follow food fads and dietary shortcuts without checking their suitability.
b)
There is easy access to unhealthy and junk food in the market.
c)
The lifestyle of most people has become sedentary and there is a lack of physical activity.
d)
The media and entertainment industry glorify an unrealistically thin body image.
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
The paradox that is discussed in the passage is that inspite of following health advices, people are getting fatter and fatter. Thus, it is possible that there are some other factors that are contributing to this rise in obesity. Options (a), (b) and (c) all provide alternative explanations for this paradox. However, option (d) does not resolve it.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.Q. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?- a)The end of the IUC regime has allowed telecom companies to focus on network upgrades and service improvements.
- b)The shift to 4G networks and compatible handsets was faster than anticipated.
- c)The removal of interconnection charges has the potential to spur the expansion of high-capacity networks beyond 2G and 3G.
- d)TRAI has opposed the removal of interconnection charges.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.
The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
Q. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?
a)
The end of the IUC regime has allowed telecom companies to focus on network upgrades and service improvements.
b)
The shift to 4G networks and compatible handsets was faster than anticipated.
c)
The removal of interconnection charges has the potential to spur the expansion of high-capacity networks beyond 2G and 3G.
d)
TRAI has opposed the removal of interconnection charges.
|
|
Abhishek Chavan answered |
Incorrect Inference:
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'D' because the passage does not mention anywhere that TRAI opposed the removal of interconnection charges. In fact, the passage highlights that TRAI introduced the bill and keep arrangement, which does away with the IUC. The focus of TRAI, as mentioned in the passage, is on consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariffs, and quality service. Therefore, it would be incorrect to infer that TRAI opposed the removal of interconnection charges.
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'D' because the passage does not mention anywhere that TRAI opposed the removal of interconnection charges. In fact, the passage highlights that TRAI introduced the bill and keep arrangement, which does away with the IUC. The focus of TRAI, as mentioned in the passage, is on consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariffs, and quality service. Therefore, it would be incorrect to infer that TRAI opposed the removal of interconnection charges.
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.Q. Find the number of students in cricket and football only.- a)31
- b)33
- c)37
- d)41
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.
In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.
Q. Find the number of students in cricket and football only.
a)
31
b)
33
c)
37
d)
41
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
Given:
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Number of students only in cricket is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs,
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
Ratio of the number of students only in football club to the number of students only in hockey club is 3 : 2.
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
Ratio of the number of students only in hockey club to the number of students only in cricket club is 1 : 2.
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as the number of students only in the hockey club.
a + m = r ...(5)
a + m = r ...(5)
The number of students in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice that number.
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
Putting the value of m from (1) in (6) and (7), gives:
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
Putting 'p' in (4),
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
Further, putting value of r in (5),
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
Total number of students = p + q + r + a + b + c + m
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs, this means that 25% attend the club, i.e. 0.25(x) = 244,
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
The number of students in football and cricket only is 37.
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
The number of students in football and cricket only is 37.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.Q. What is the meaning of the word "conspicuous" in the passage?- a)Hidden
- b)Noteworthy
- c)Complicated
- d)Insignificant
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:
A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.
Q. What is the meaning of the word "conspicuous" in the passage?
a)
Hidden
b)
Noteworthy
c)
Complicated
d)
Insignificant
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The word "conspicuous" in the passage refers to something that is noticeable or prominent. Therefore, the correct answer is B) Noteworthy.
Direction : Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.Babita: It is in the interest of Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.Which of the following weakens Anita’s claim?- a)A recent research by the Ministry of housing has shown that the average time taken by real estate agents to sell a house is much more than the time taken to close a deal through online portals.
- b)There are a lot of processes and paperwork involved in placing advertisements in newspapers and magazines.
- c)Real estate agents usually share a personal relationship with the parties involved which makes the entire experience hassle-free and convenient.
- d)A study of the major international agencies has revealed that there has been a marked increase in the online sale and purchase of properties across the world.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction : Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.
Babita: It is in the interest of Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.
Which of the following weakens Anita’s claim?
a)
A recent research by the Ministry of housing has shown that the average time taken by real estate agents to sell a house is much more than the time taken to close a deal through online portals.
b)
There are a lot of processes and paperwork involved in placing advertisements in newspapers and magazines.
c)
Real estate agents usually share a personal relationship with the parties involved which makes the entire experience hassle-free and convenient.
d)
A study of the major international agencies has revealed that there has been a marked increase in the online sale and purchase of properties across the world.
|
Dia Mehta answered |
The reasons for Anita preferring real estate agents are:
- Good price
- Quick sale
- No advertising hassles
Any statement that challenges any of these attributes will weaken her claim. Thus, option (a) which states that real estate agents actually take more time to make a sale is the correct answer. Options (b) and (c) strengthen her claim while option (d) goes beyond the scope of the passage. It is not necessary that international trends will be applicable in a local setting as well.
Passage - 1The blind Argentinean librarian and writer Jorge Luis Borges imagined paradise to be a kind of library. At the turn of the century, a lot of us were concerned about the future of books with digital publishing becoming the norm of the day. But people continue to read books, whether as a bound copy or as e-books on their handheld readers or tabs. What has changed perhaps is the drive to read, or rather the motivation. Relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people.Which of the following statements is consistent with the reading pattern of people that has been discussed by the author?- a)People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be modish.
- b)People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be antiquated and equivocal.
- c)People seldom read books, other than comic series, fashion magazines and news from the film world.
- d)People have become very busy and hence, they prefer to read e-books because they can be carried anywhere.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Passage - 1
The blind Argentinean librarian and writer Jorge Luis Borges imagined paradise to be a kind of library. At the turn of the century, a lot of us were concerned about the future of books with digital publishing becoming the norm of the day. But people continue to read books, whether as a bound copy or as e-books on their handheld readers or tabs. What has changed perhaps is the drive to read, or rather the motivation. Relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the reading pattern of people that has been discussed by the author?
a)
People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be modish.
b)
People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be antiquated and equivocal.
c)
People seldom read books, other than comic series, fashion magazines and news from the film world.
d)
People have become very busy and hence, they prefer to read e-books because they can be carried anywhere.
|
Mohit Mehra answered |
Explanation:
Consistency with reading pattern discussed:
- The statement that people these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be modish is consistent with the reading pattern discussed by the author.
- The author mentions that the relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people, indicating that people are more inclined towards reading books that are current and relevant.
Explanation of other options:
- Option b) People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be antiquated and equivocal is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author emphasizes the importance of relevance in the subject matter.
- Option c) People seldom read books, other than comic series, fashion magazines and news from the film world is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author does not mention any specific genres that people are inclined towards.
- Option d) People have become very busy and hence, they prefer to read e-books because they can be carried anywhere is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author does not attribute the preference for e-books to people being busy, but rather to changes in the motivation to read.
Consistency with reading pattern discussed:
- The statement that people these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be modish is consistent with the reading pattern discussed by the author.
- The author mentions that the relevance of the subject matter now impacts the reading contours of the people, indicating that people are more inclined towards reading books that are current and relevant.
Explanation of other options:
- Option b) People these days tend to read only those books that are considered to be antiquated and equivocal is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author emphasizes the importance of relevance in the subject matter.
- Option c) People seldom read books, other than comic series, fashion magazines and news from the film world is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author does not mention any specific genres that people are inclined towards.
- Option d) People have become very busy and hence, they prefer to read e-books because they can be carried anywhere is not consistent with the reading pattern discussed. The author does not attribute the preference for e-books to people being busy, but rather to changes in the motivation to read.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)Q. Which statement contradicts the author's perspective in the passage?- a)Internet services have greatly improved user comfort.
- b)Overreliance on digital technology in rural India has exacerbated financial exclusion.
- c)The government must seek solutions to ensure that all rural residents can benefit from digital technology.
- d)None of the statements above contradicts the author's viewpoint.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Q. Which statement contradicts the author's perspective in the passage?
a)
Internet services have greatly improved user comfort.
b)
Overreliance on digital technology in rural India has exacerbated financial exclusion.
c)
The government must seek solutions to ensure that all rural residents can benefit from digital technology.
d)
None of the statements above contradicts the author's viewpoint.
|
|
Nikhil khanna answered |
Understanding the Correct Answer
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that none of the statements above contradicts the author's viewpoint. Here’s a breakdown of why each statement aligns with the author's perspective:
Statement A: Internet services have greatly improved user comfort.
- This statement aligns with the passage's acknowledgment of advancements in digital technologies that have improved user experiences, especially in urban areas. The author reminisces about the past difficulties with internet connectivity, highlighting the positive changes that have occurred.
Statement B: Overreliance on digital technology in rural India has exacerbated financial exclusion.
- This statement directly reflects the core argument of the passage. The author emphasizes that while digital technology has progressed, it has not benefited the rural population equally, leading to greater financial exclusion due to barriers in accessing digital banking services.
Statement C: The government must seek solutions to ensure that all rural residents can benefit from digital technology.
- This statement is consistent with the author’s call for accountability and improvements in the digital banking system for rural residents. The author suggests that current systems do not adequately consider the needs of the beneficiaries, implying a need for government intervention.
Conclusion
- Given that all three statements resonate with the author's arguments regarding the challenges of digital banking in rural India, option 'D' is indeed the correct choice. Each statement supports the notion that while digital technology has improved, its implementation has not been equitable, particularly for vulnerable populations.
The correct answer is option 'D', which states that none of the statements above contradicts the author's viewpoint. Here’s a breakdown of why each statement aligns with the author's perspective:
Statement A: Internet services have greatly improved user comfort.
- This statement aligns with the passage's acknowledgment of advancements in digital technologies that have improved user experiences, especially in urban areas. The author reminisces about the past difficulties with internet connectivity, highlighting the positive changes that have occurred.
Statement B: Overreliance on digital technology in rural India has exacerbated financial exclusion.
- This statement directly reflects the core argument of the passage. The author emphasizes that while digital technology has progressed, it has not benefited the rural population equally, leading to greater financial exclusion due to barriers in accessing digital banking services.
Statement C: The government must seek solutions to ensure that all rural residents can benefit from digital technology.
- This statement is consistent with the author’s call for accountability and improvements in the digital banking system for rural residents. The author suggests that current systems do not adequately consider the needs of the beneficiaries, implying a need for government intervention.
Conclusion
- Given that all three statements resonate with the author's arguments regarding the challenges of digital banking in rural India, option 'D' is indeed the correct choice. Each statement supports the notion that while digital technology has improved, its implementation has not been equitable, particularly for vulnerable populations.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.Q. Are there any phrasal verbs used in the passage?- a)Yes, "bring up"
- b)Yes, "mull over"
- c)No, there are no phrasal verbs in the passage.
- d)Yes, "highlight"
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question:
A step backward can reverse years of progress. Such a threat looms large over India's efforts to tackle malnutrition. Data from the latest National Family Health Survey reveal that in the last four years the share of stunted, wasted and underweight children in India has increased in the majority of the states and Union territories that were surveyed. Even states like Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Himachal Pradesh, which had made progress earlier, have registered a stark rise in stunting. Interestingly, some of these states have also experienced an increase in obesity among children under the age of five. This apparent contradiction seems to highlight a deeper problem — accessibility to and affordability and awareness of nutrition remain uneven across socio-economic constituencies. This has resulted in a dual burden. India has the highest number of obese children in the world after China; a recent national survey also found a drastic reduction in the intake of food among such marginalized communities as Dalits, tribal people and backward classes on account of diminished household income during the lockdown. Laws alone cannot resolve this crisis. Stunting and wasting are on the rise in spite of the existence of the National Food Security Act and a public distribution system that has a wide reach. Policy interventions are wanting; this perhaps explains the regression. The PDS infrastructure remains porous, mired in irregularities like leakages, corruption and the diversion of subsidized foodgrains for profiteering. There is also the problem of exclusion. A number of needy citizens, particularly from the underprivileged sections, are yet to be enrolled as beneficiaries. The lack of access to digital technology — Aadhaar linkage is mandatory for procuring foodgrains from PDS — has aggravated their plight in other ways. For instance, even though rations were doubled under the NFSA during the pandemic, economists estimate that around 100 million names have not been updated in the NFSA lists.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.
Starvation or malnutrition is not caused by undernourishment alone. There is convergence with interlinked, but less conspicuous, issues such as maternal nutrition; education — research shows that educated mothers bring up healthier children; hygiene; regularized, locally sourced mid-day meals; food wastage. Governments must make the provision of foodgrains equitable for all citizens. But this will not be enough. Policy must mull the need for piecemeal measures and targeted, community-based interventions in order to tackle this growing problem.
Q. Are there any phrasal verbs used in the passage?
a)
Yes, "bring up"
b)
Yes, "mull over"
c)
No, there are no phrasal verbs in the passage.
d)
Yes, "highlight"
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Ojasvi Mehta answered |
In the passage, the phrase "bring up" is a phrasal verb, which means to raise or nurture. Therefore, the correct answer is A) Yes, "bring up."
Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.Q. What percentage of the total shoes produced on Wednesday was made by machine M1?- a)10
- b)18
- c)20
- d)30
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.
Q. What percentage of the total shoes produced on Wednesday was made by machine M1?
a)
10
b)
18
c)
20
d)
30
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S.S Career Academy answered |
From the common explanation, we have
Hence, Option D is correct.
Common explanation:
Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 36% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
Final solution:
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.Q. Is it possible for the accused in a high-profile criminal case to take legal action against Priya, a journalist, and the news organization she works for after an article they published, containing inaccurate information related to the case, prompted the accused to file a complaint under the 2021 Rules?- a)Yes, as the article included information that was blatantly false and misleading.
- b)No, because the article was published in good faith without any intent to deceive.
- c)Yes, as per the 2021 Rules, intermediaries are accountable for the content they host or publish.
- d)No, because the article falls under the protection of freedom of speech and expression as per the Constitution.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.
Q. Is it possible for the accused in a high-profile criminal case to take legal action against Priya, a journalist, and the news organization she works for after an article they published, containing inaccurate information related to the case, prompted the accused to file a complaint under the 2021 Rules?
a)
Yes, as the article included information that was blatantly false and misleading.
b)
No, because the article was published in good faith without any intent to deceive.
c)
Yes, as per the 2021 Rules, intermediaries are accountable for the content they host or publish.
d)
No, because the article falls under the protection of freedom of speech and expression as per the Constitution.
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Ojasvi Mehta answered |
Option B is the correct choice. The article was published in good faith, and Priya and the news organization had no intention to mislead. Consequently, the accused does not have grounds to pursue legal action against them.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.For a contract to be valid, the consent of the parties must be genuine. The principle of consensus-ad-idem is followed, which means that the parties entering into the contract must mean the same thing in the same sense.
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]Q. A football player expressed interest in joining a specific club. However, his manager withheld his assets until he agreed to join a different club selected by the manager. The player subsequently entered into a contract with the manager's chosen club and arrived at their premises. Is it still possible for the player to reconsider his decision?- a)Yes, he made the choice to contract with the selected club without any coercion from them, and his consent was freely given.
- b)Yes, the manager exerted coercion, but the chosen club was not involved in this coercion.
- c)No, the contract is null and void, and he is not obligated to remain with that club.
- d)No, he still has the option to void the contract since he was coerced by his manager.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
For a contract to be valid, the consent of the parties must be genuine. The principle of consensus-ad-idem is followed, which means that the parties entering into the contract must mean the same thing in the same sense.
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]
Mere consent is not enough for a contract to be enforceable; the consent given must be free and voluntary. The definition of free consent provided under the Indian Contracts Act is as: 'Consent that is free from coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake'. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
The objective of the principle of free consent is to ensure that judgement of the parties while entering into the contract wasn't clouded. Therefore, consent given under coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake has the potential to invalidate the contract.
For example, such a factor which could invalidate a contract is the presence of coercion. According to the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, coercion is defined as commission, or threat to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.
Coercion could be directed against the prejudice of any person and not just the party to the contract. It is also not necessary that only the party to the contract causes the coercion. Even a third party to the contract can cause coercion to obtain the consent.
The burden of proof in cases of coercion lies on the party whose consent was coerced. When consent of a party was obtained through coercion, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Contract Law, blog by Ipleaders]
Q. A football player expressed interest in joining a specific club. However, his manager withheld his assets until he agreed to join a different club selected by the manager. The player subsequently entered into a contract with the manager's chosen club and arrived at their premises. Is it still possible for the player to reconsider his decision?
a)
Yes, he made the choice to contract with the selected club without any coercion from them, and his consent was freely given.
b)
Yes, the manager exerted coercion, but the chosen club was not involved in this coercion.
c)
No, the contract is null and void, and he is not obligated to remain with that club.
d)
No, he still has the option to void the contract since he was coerced by his manager.
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Upsc Rank Holders answered |
The contract may also be subject to coercion by a third party, in which case the forced party may choose to nullify the agreement. Therefore, if the player so chooses, he may void the contract.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.Q. According to the 2021 Rules, which of the following is NOT listed as a restriction on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share?- a)Harmful to child
- b)Insulting on the basis of gender
- c)Promoting hate speech
- d)Patently false or misleading information
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.
Q. According to the 2021 Rules, which of the following is NOT listed as a restriction on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share?
a)
Harmful to child
b)
Insulting on the basis of gender
c)
Promoting hate speech
d)
Patently false or misleading information
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share, including "harmful to child," "insulting on the basis of gender," and "patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact." However, promoting hate speech is not explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.Q. Total number of students in the college is- a)848
- b)968
- c)976
- d)984
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.
In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.
Q. Total number of students in the college is
a)
848
b)
968
c)
976
d)
984
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|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
Given:
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Number of students only in cricket is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs,
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
Ratio of the number of students only in football club to the number of students only in hockey club is 3 : 2.
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
Ratio of the number of students only in hockey club to the number of students only in cricket club is 1 : 2.
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as the number of students only in the hockey club.
a + m = r ...(5)
a + m = r ...(5)
Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and twice the number of students are there in football and hockey clubs.
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
Putting the value of m from (1) in (6) and (7), gives:
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
Putting 'p' in (4),
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
Further, putting value of r in (5),
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
Total number of students = p + q + r + a + b + c + m
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs, this means that 25% attend the club, i.e. 0.25(x) = 244,
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
Total number of students in the college is 976.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.That Minnu Mani, a 23-year-old from the Kurichiya tribe in Kerala, secured a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction is both heart-warming and a reminder. Minnu’s success is a rare story for India’s tribal communities. Sports has discovered some talent among tribals and politics has embraced a few. But data tells the real story. The recently released Tribal Development Report 2022 by Bharat Rural Livelihoods Foundation provides damning statistics. They are 8.6% of the population, and they fare considerably worse than others when it comes to access to sanitation, drinking water, education and proper nutrition.The report also says that tribal communities have been pushed farther away from alluvial plains and fertile river basins over the decades, which has had a direct impact on their livelihood. Of the 257 Scheduled Tribe districts in the country, 230 or 90% are in either forested or hilly or dry areas. And past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 illogically pitted the imperatives of environment protection against the needs of Adivasi communities.While that approach has been modified and today Adivasis are seen as important stakeholders in forest conservation, on-ground contestations continue. Last year’s amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules have been protested by tribal communities on the ground that they undermine the rights of tribes and forest dwellers over forest resources as envisioned in the Forest Rights Act, 2009. Adivasi activists say the changes make it easier for businesses to divert forest land and make obtaining clearances by commercial entities easier. If true, these provisions have serious implications for tribal welfare.It’s also true that there has been increasing political courting of tribal communities in recent years. From expanding ST status to new communities to the Adivasi vote becoming a sought-after electoral commodity to India getting its first tribal President in Droupadi Murmu, tribals have emerged as a serious political bloc. But their genuine empowerment will lie in creating opportunities. We need thousands more Minnu Manis and Droupadi Murmus.Q. What is the meaning of the word "heart-warming" in the passage?- a)Distressing
- b)Disheartening
- c)Inspiring
- d)Unsettling
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
That Minnu Mani, a 23-year-old from the Kurichiya tribe in Kerala, secured a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction is both heart-warming and a reminder. Minnu’s success is a rare story for India’s tribal communities. Sports has discovered some talent among tribals and politics has embraced a few. But data tells the real story. The recently released Tribal Development Report 2022 by Bharat Rural Livelihoods Foundation provides damning statistics. They are 8.6% of the population, and they fare considerably worse than others when it comes to access to sanitation, drinking water, education and proper nutrition.
The report also says that tribal communities have been pushed farther away from alluvial plains and fertile river basins over the decades, which has had a direct impact on their livelihood. Of the 257 Scheduled Tribe districts in the country, 230 or 90% are in either forested or hilly or dry areas. And past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 illogically pitted the imperatives of environment protection against the needs of Adivasi communities.
While that approach has been modified and today Adivasis are seen as important stakeholders in forest conservation, on-ground contestations continue. Last year’s amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules have been protested by tribal communities on the ground that they undermine the rights of tribes and forest dwellers over forest resources as envisioned in the Forest Rights Act, 2009. Adivasi activists say the changes make it easier for businesses to divert forest land and make obtaining clearances by commercial entities easier. If true, these provisions have serious implications for tribal welfare.
It’s also true that there has been increasing political courting of tribal communities in recent years. From expanding ST status to new communities to the Adivasi vote becoming a sought-after electoral commodity to India getting its first tribal President in Droupadi Murmu, tribals have emerged as a serious political bloc. But their genuine empowerment will lie in creating opportunities. We need thousands more Minnu Manis and Droupadi Murmus.
Q. What is the meaning of the word "heart-warming" in the passage?
a)
Distressing
b)
Disheartening
c)
Inspiring
d)
Unsettling
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Damini jain answered |
Meaning of "Heart-Warming"
The term "heart-warming" is used in the passage to describe Minnu Mani's achievement in securing a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction. This adjective conveys a deep emotional response, highlighting the positive impact of her story on the reader.
Positive Connotation
- The word "heart-warming" inherently carries a positive connotation, suggesting feelings of joy, inspiration, and fulfillment.
- It evokes a sense of happiness and pride, particularly in the context of someone overcoming obstacles and succeeding against the odds.
Contextual Relevance
- In the passage, Minnu's success is framed as a rare and uplifting occurrence within the broader narrative of challenges faced by tribal communities in India.
- By describing her story as "heart-warming," the author emphasizes the significance of her achievement not just as an individual milestone but as a beacon of hope for others in similar situations.
Contrast with Negative Terms
- The alternatives provided—distressing, disheartening, and unsettling—are all negative in nature and do not align with the sentiment conveyed by "heart-warming."
- Using "heart-warming" contrasts sharply with the statistics and hardships detailed in the report, thus highlighting the importance of Minnu's success as a source of inspiration amid adversity.
Conclusion
In summary, "heart-warming" captures the essence of Minnu Mani’s achievement as a source of inspiration and hope, making it the appropriate choice among the options provided.
The term "heart-warming" is used in the passage to describe Minnu Mani's achievement in securing a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction. This adjective conveys a deep emotional response, highlighting the positive impact of her story on the reader.
Positive Connotation
- The word "heart-warming" inherently carries a positive connotation, suggesting feelings of joy, inspiration, and fulfillment.
- It evokes a sense of happiness and pride, particularly in the context of someone overcoming obstacles and succeeding against the odds.
Contextual Relevance
- In the passage, Minnu's success is framed as a rare and uplifting occurrence within the broader narrative of challenges faced by tribal communities in India.
- By describing her story as "heart-warming," the author emphasizes the significance of her achievement not just as an individual milestone but as a beacon of hope for others in similar situations.
Contrast with Negative Terms
- The alternatives provided—distressing, disheartening, and unsettling—are all negative in nature and do not align with the sentiment conveyed by "heart-warming."
- Using "heart-warming" contrasts sharply with the statistics and hardships detailed in the report, thus highlighting the importance of Minnu's success as a source of inspiration amid adversity.
Conclusion
In summary, "heart-warming" captures the essence of Minnu Mani’s achievement as a source of inspiration and hope, making it the appropriate choice among the options provided.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.Q. Priya, a journalist, wrote and published an article concerning a high-profile criminal case. Subsequently, it was discovered that the article contained inaccurate information. The accused in the case, referencing the 2021 Rules, filed a complaint against Priya and the news organization employing her. Can the accused take legal action against Priya and the news organization?- a)Yes, because the article included information that was clearly false and misleading.
- b)No, because the article was published in good faith, and Priya and the news organization did not intend to deceive.
- c)Yes, because the 2021 Rules impose responsibility on intermediaries for the content they host or publish.
- d)No, because the article was safeguarded by the freedom of speech and expression as per the Constitution.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.
Q. Priya, a journalist, wrote and published an article concerning a high-profile criminal case. Subsequently, it was discovered that the article contained inaccurate information. The accused in the case, referencing the 2021 Rules, filed a complaint against Priya and the news organization employing her. Can the accused take legal action against Priya and the news organization?
a)
Yes, because the article included information that was clearly false and misleading.
b)
No, because the article was published in good faith, and Priya and the news organization did not intend to deceive.
c)
Yes, because the 2021 Rules impose responsibility on intermediaries for the content they host or publish.
d)
No, because the article was safeguarded by the freedom of speech and expression as per the Constitution.
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|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The article was published with genuine intentions, and Priya, along with the news organization, did not have any intent to deceive. Consequently, the accused does not have grounds to pursue legal action against them.
Hence, option B is the correct choice.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.Q. What is the tone of the passage?- a)Optimistic
- b)Neutral
- c)Critical
- d)Enthusiastic
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the given question.
The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime on January 1, under which one telecom operator paid a charge to another on whose network a subscriber's voice call was completed, creates a new era in which these companies can focus on upgrading their networks and service. The measure was delayed by a year by regulator TRAI due to concerns that not all operators were ready, and the shift to more efficient 4G networks and compatible subscriber handsets was slower than anticipated. Now that the need to monitor call termination data and make IUC payments no longer exists, the focus should shift to giving the users a better deal — as reliable call quality and competitive tariffs. For the subscriber, other than those who had to pay higher access tariffs on one wireless network due to the IUC system, the latest measure may not carry a significant impact, since providers sold unlimited call packs even earlier. One operator, Jio, had a higher proportion of outgoing calls to other wireless operators since its launch a few years ago, thus having to pay significant net interconnection charges, which was six paise per minute since 2017. That imbalance has reduced, and TRAI has now introduced an arrangement called bill and keep, which does away with the IUC.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
India's high density telecom market is poised for further growth as it awaits expansion through 5G and Internet-connected devices. Yet, as the Economic Survey of 2019-20 pointed out, intense competition has reduced the number of private players. Public sector operators BSNL and MTNL still face a challenge and their future must be clarified early, with efforts to improve their technological capabilities and service levels. A parallel trend has been the rise in 4G subscribers from 196.9 million in September 2017 to 517.5 million out of a total wireless subscriber base of 1,165.46 million in June 2019. The end of the IUC should spur an expansion of high-capacity networks, going beyond 2G and 3G that some telcos continue to use. The removal of interconnection charges was opposed by them just a year ago. For TRAI, which has stressed the importance of consumer welfare through adequate choice, affordable tariff and quality service, it is important to tread cautiously on claims made on behalf of the sector, that higher tariffs alone can ensure the health of telecoms. India is a mass market for voice and data services that fuel the digital economy. Badly priced spectrum could lead to auction failures and lack of genuine competition is bound to hamper the growth of the next big wave of telecoms, of which the 5G piece is critical for new services. On the consumer side, helping more people migrate to 4G services quickly through affordable handsets will help telcos put their infrastructure to better use.
Q. What is the tone of the passage?
a)
Optimistic
b)
Neutral
c)
Critical
d)
Enthusiastic
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Prasad Chauhan answered |
Understanding the Tone of the Passage
The tone of the passage can be classified as optimistic for several reasons:
Positive Developments in the Telecom Sector
- The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime is portrayed as a significant step forward, allowing telecom operators to improve their networks and services.
- The passage emphasizes the potential for better user experiences through reliable call quality and competitive tariffs, indicating a positive outlook for consumers.
Growth Potential
- The mention of India's high-density telecom market poised for growth through 5G and connected devices highlights optimism about future advancements.
- Statistics showing a substantial increase in 4G subscribers demonstrate a positive trend in technological adoption.
Encouragement for Investment in Technology
- The call for public sector operators to clarify their future and improve their technological capabilities reflects a hopeful perspective on enhancing service levels.
- The passage suggests that the removal of IUC charges could spur the expansion of high-capacity networks, which is a forward-looking statement about the industry's evolution.
Consumer Welfare Focus
- TRAI's commitment to consumer welfare through affordable tariffs and quality service indicates a proactive and optimistic approach to addressing market needs.
- The passage concludes with a focus on helping consumers migrate to 4G services, reinforcing the belief in growth and improvement.
Overall, the passage presents a forward-thinking view of the telecom industry, highlighting opportunities for growth, improvement, and enhanced consumer experiences, which collectively contribute to an optimistic tone.
The tone of the passage can be classified as optimistic for several reasons:
Positive Developments in the Telecom Sector
- The end of the Interconnection Usage Charges (IUC) regime is portrayed as a significant step forward, allowing telecom operators to improve their networks and services.
- The passage emphasizes the potential for better user experiences through reliable call quality and competitive tariffs, indicating a positive outlook for consumers.
Growth Potential
- The mention of India's high-density telecom market poised for growth through 5G and connected devices highlights optimism about future advancements.
- Statistics showing a substantial increase in 4G subscribers demonstrate a positive trend in technological adoption.
Encouragement for Investment in Technology
- The call for public sector operators to clarify their future and improve their technological capabilities reflects a hopeful perspective on enhancing service levels.
- The passage suggests that the removal of IUC charges could spur the expansion of high-capacity networks, which is a forward-looking statement about the industry's evolution.
Consumer Welfare Focus
- TRAI's commitment to consumer welfare through affordable tariffs and quality service indicates a proactive and optimistic approach to addressing market needs.
- The passage concludes with a focus on helping consumers migrate to 4G services, reinforcing the belief in growth and improvement.
Overall, the passage presents a forward-thinking view of the telecom industry, highlighting opportunities for growth, improvement, and enhanced consumer experiences, which collectively contribute to an optimistic tone.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, by signs or other visible representation that harms a person's reputation; decreases the respect, regard or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person is known as defamation. Defamation is the act of making untrue statements about another which damages his/her reputation.
Defamation may be defined as a communication to some person, other than the person defamed, of the matter which tends to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right thinking persons or to deter them from associating or dealing with him.
Defamation is of two kinds Libel and Slander. If the statement is made in writing and published in some permanent and visible form, then the defamation is called Libel. If the statement is made by spoken words then the defamation is called Slander.
Defamation may be a civil charge or a criminal charge under Section 499 and 500 of IPC.
Section 499 Of IPC: Whoever by words, either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person is said to defame that person.
Section 500 of IPC: Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or both.
A victim, to win a lawsuit, has to prove that a false statement was made and published, and the same caused injury to the reputation of the victim. However, there are defences which can be raised such as a true statement or if it was a fair and honest comment or criticism made in public interest.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Defamation', www.legalserviceindia.com]Q. To succeed in a defamation lawsuit, what does the victim need to prove?- a)That the statement was false and published, and it caused injury to their reputation
- b)That the statement was true and made in public interest
- c)That the statement was intended to praise them
- d)That the statement was a fair and honest comment
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, by signs or other visible representation that harms a person's reputation; decreases the respect, regard or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person is known as defamation. Defamation is the act of making untrue statements about another which damages his/her reputation.
Defamation may be defined as a communication to some person, other than the person defamed, of the matter which tends to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right thinking persons or to deter them from associating or dealing with him.
Defamation is of two kinds Libel and Slander. If the statement is made in writing and published in some permanent and visible form, then the defamation is called Libel. If the statement is made by spoken words then the defamation is called Slander.
Defamation may be a civil charge or a criminal charge under Section 499 and 500 of IPC.
Section 499 Of IPC: Whoever by words, either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person is said to defame that person.
Section 500 of IPC: Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or both.
A victim, to win a lawsuit, has to prove that a false statement was made and published, and the same caused injury to the reputation of the victim. However, there are defences which can be raised such as a true statement or if it was a fair and honest comment or criticism made in public interest.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Defamation', www.legalserviceindia.com]
Defamation may be defined as a communication to some person, other than the person defamed, of the matter which tends to lower the plaintiff in the estimation of right thinking persons or to deter them from associating or dealing with him.
Defamation is of two kinds Libel and Slander. If the statement is made in writing and published in some permanent and visible form, then the defamation is called Libel. If the statement is made by spoken words then the defamation is called Slander.
Defamation may be a civil charge or a criminal charge under Section 499 and 500 of IPC.
Section 499 Of IPC: Whoever by words, either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person is said to defame that person.
Section 500 of IPC: Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or both.
A victim, to win a lawsuit, has to prove that a false statement was made and published, and the same caused injury to the reputation of the victim. However, there are defences which can be raised such as a true statement or if it was a fair and honest comment or criticism made in public interest.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Defamation', www.legalserviceindia.com]
Q. To succeed in a defamation lawsuit, what does the victim need to prove?
a)
That the statement was false and published, and it caused injury to their reputation
b)
That the statement was true and made in public interest
c)
That the statement was intended to praise them
d)
That the statement was a fair and honest comment
|
Riverdale Learning Institute answered |
The passage explains that in a defamation lawsuit, the victim must establish certain elements to succeed. These elements include proving that the statement was false, that it was published (communicated to others), and that it caused injury to their reputation. Therefore, the victim must show that these criteria were met to win a defamation lawsuit, as stated in option A.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]Q. What figure of speech is used in the sentence, "The pain was like a nail being hammered into his finger," from the passage?- a)Paradox
- b)Oxymoron
- c)Reiteration
- d)Metaphor
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.
With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.
But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.
After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.
[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]
Q. What figure of speech is used in the sentence, "The pain was like a nail being hammered into his finger," from the passage?
a)
Paradox
b)
Oxymoron
c)
Reiteration
d)
Metaphor
|
Swarna Menon answered |
Metaphor:
Metaphor is a figure of speech that makes a comparison between two unlike things, showing how they are similar in some way without using the words "like" or "as." In the sentence, "The pain was like a nail being hammered into his finger," the pain Adrian felt from the spider bite is being compared to the sensation of a nail being hammered into his finger.
Explanation:
- The sentence uses the word "like" to compare the pain Adrian experienced to the act of a nail being hammered into his finger.
- The comparison helps the reader understand the intensity and sharpness of the pain by associating it with a familiar and vivid image.
- By using this metaphor, the author effectively conveys the severity of Adrian's pain in a descriptive and impactful way.
- Metaphors are commonly used in literature to create strong imagery and evoke emotions in the reader by drawing parallels between different concepts or experiences.
Metaphor is a figure of speech that makes a comparison between two unlike things, showing how they are similar in some way without using the words "like" or "as." In the sentence, "The pain was like a nail being hammered into his finger," the pain Adrian felt from the spider bite is being compared to the sensation of a nail being hammered into his finger.
Explanation:
- The sentence uses the word "like" to compare the pain Adrian experienced to the act of a nail being hammered into his finger.
- The comparison helps the reader understand the intensity and sharpness of the pain by associating it with a familiar and vivid image.
- By using this metaphor, the author effectively conveys the severity of Adrian's pain in a descriptive and impactful way.
- Metaphors are commonly used in literature to create strong imagery and evoke emotions in the reader by drawing parallels between different concepts or experiences.
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.Q. Find the number of students in football and hockey only.- a)9
- b)13
- c)17
- d)21
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.
In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.
Q. Find the number of students in football and hockey only.
a)
9
b)
13
c)
17
d)
21
|
Innovative Classes answered |
Given:
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Students participating in all the clubs are 3, i.e. m = 3 ...(1)
Number of students only in cricket is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs,
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
i.e. p = 4(m + c) ...(2)
Ratio of the number of students only in football club to the number of students only in hockey club is 3 : 2.
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
q/r = 3/2 ...(3)
Ratio of the number of students only in hockey club to the number of students only in cricket club is 1 : 2.
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
r/p = 1/2 ...(4)
The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as the number of students only in the hockey club.
a + m = r ...(5)
a + m = r ...(5)
Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and twice the number of students are there in football and hockey clubs.
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
b + m = 10 ...(6)
m + c = 20 ...(7)
Putting the value of m from (1) in (6) and (7), gives:
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
b = 7
c = 17
Putting value of m + c from (7) in (2), gives:
p = 4(20)
p = 80
Putting 'p' in (4),
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
r = 40
And, putting 'r' in (3) gives q = 60.
Further, putting value of r in (5),
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
a + 3 = 40
a = 37
Total number of students = p + q + r + a + b + c + m
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
= 80 + 60 + 40 + 37 + 7 + 17 + 3
= 244
75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs, this means that 25% attend the club, i.e. 0.25(x) = 244,
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
The number of students in football and hockey only is 17.
where x = total no of students in college.
x = 976
The number of students in football and hockey only is 17.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]Q. Which of the following statements about Adrian is not true?- a)He was reckless.
- b)He was adventurous.
- c)He had a keen interest in insects.
- d)He loved mountain bike riding.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.
With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.
But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.
After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.
[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]
Q. Which of the following statements about Adrian is not true?
a)
He was reckless.
b)
He was adventurous.
c)
He had a keen interest in insects.
d)
He loved mountain bike riding.
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The passage does not provide any information or mention that Adrian had a keen interest in insects. Instead, it mentions his love for mountain bike riding and adventure (Option D), but there is no indication of a particular interest in insects (Option C). The passage also suggests that Adrian's decision to use his hands instead of a shovel for a small digging job was impulsive but doesn't necessarily label him as reckless (Option A).
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)Q. Are there any phrasal verbs in the passage? If so, what is their meaning?- a)"fall under" - to be categorized as
- b)"widened the distance" - increased the gap
- c)"put at higher risk" - exposed to greater danger
- d)"deprived of" - prevented from having
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Remember the early days of the internet, when it took several minutes to connect to the web through a dial-in modem? Or when you had to wait in a line at an STD booth to make an outstation call? Since then, we have made massive strides in digital technologies. Improvements in internet banking mean that a buffet of products are available at the fingertips of consumers. But imagine if one had to travel miles and wait for several hours to make one banking transaction. This is a reality for the vast majority of the rural populace. In rural India, an over-reliance on digital technology alone has widened the distance between the rights holder and their entitlements. This is exemplified in the pursuit of financial inclusion. The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative is a technology induced step in improving financial inclusion among other stated goals. Although DBT has been operational since 2011, it has become synonymous with the Aadhaar Payments Bridge Systems (APBS) since 2015.
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Various government programmes such as maternity entitlements, student scholarships, wages for MGNREGA workers fall under the DBT initiative where money is transferred to the bank accounts of the respective beneficiaries. But the beneficiaries face many hurdles in accessing their money. These are referred to as "last mile challenges". To deal with these, banking kiosks known as Customer Service Points (CSP) and Banking Correspondents (BC) were promoted. Subject to network connectivity and electricity, beneficiaries can perform basic banking transactions such as small deposits and withdrawals at these kiosks.
While there are some merits of online payments, the process of transition from older systems and the APBS technology itself needs more scrutiny. Workers have little clue about where their wages have been credited and what to do when their payments get rejected, often due to technical reasons such as incorrect account numbers and incorrect Aadhaar mapping with bank accounts. While some attention is being paid by some state governments in resolving rejected payments for MGNREGA, the lack of any accountability for APBS and AePS and absence of grievance redressal would continue to impact all DBT programmes.
More importantly, the workers/beneficiaries have rarely been consulted regarding their preferred mode of transacting. Lack of adequate checks and balances, absence of any accountability framework for payment intermediaries and a hurried rollout of this technical juggernaut have put the already vulnerable at higher risk of being duped. This has created new forms of corruption as has been recently evidenced in the massive scholarship scam in Jharkhand, where many poor students were deprived of their scholarships owing to a nexus of middlemen, government officials, banking correspondents and others. These exclusions are digitally induced.
(Extracted, with edits and reviews, from The Indian Express)
Q. Are there any phrasal verbs in the passage? If so, what is their meaning?
a)
"fall under" - to be categorized as
b)
"widened the distance" - increased the gap
c)
"put at higher risk" - exposed to greater danger
d)
"deprived of" - prevented from having
|
|
Harshad Desai answered |
Understanding Phrasal Verbs in the Passage
The passage contains several phrasal verbs that convey specific meanings. Let's delve into the meanings of the identified phrases:
1. "fall under" - to be categorized as
- This phrase indicates that something is included in a broader category or classification. In the passage, it refers to various government programs that are categorized under the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative. Thus, it signifies the inclusion of these programs within the framework of DBT.
2. "widened the distance" - increased the gap
- This phrase describes an increase in the disparity between two points, in this case, between rural populations and their access to entitlements. It highlights how reliance on digital technology has created a greater divide in access to financial services.
3. "put at higher risk" - exposed to greater danger
- This expression suggests that individuals are placed in a more vulnerable position. The passage discusses how vulnerable workers face increased risks of corruption and fraud due to the hurried implementation of digital systems.
4. "deprived of" - prevented from having
- This phrase conveys the idea of being stripped of something essential. In the context of the passage, it refers to students being denied their rightful scholarships due to systemic issues and corruption.
Conclusion
Each of these phrases enriches the text by providing clarity on the challenges faced by rural populations in accessing benefits. Understanding these phrasal verbs is crucial for grasping the broader implications of the passage on financial inclusion and technology's role in it.
The passage contains several phrasal verbs that convey specific meanings. Let's delve into the meanings of the identified phrases:
1. "fall under" - to be categorized as
- This phrase indicates that something is included in a broader category or classification. In the passage, it refers to various government programs that are categorized under the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) initiative. Thus, it signifies the inclusion of these programs within the framework of DBT.
2. "widened the distance" - increased the gap
- This phrase describes an increase in the disparity between two points, in this case, between rural populations and their access to entitlements. It highlights how reliance on digital technology has created a greater divide in access to financial services.
3. "put at higher risk" - exposed to greater danger
- This expression suggests that individuals are placed in a more vulnerable position. The passage discusses how vulnerable workers face increased risks of corruption and fraud due to the hurried implementation of digital systems.
4. "deprived of" - prevented from having
- This phrase conveys the idea of being stripped of something essential. In the context of the passage, it refers to students being denied their rightful scholarships due to systemic issues and corruption.
Conclusion
Each of these phrases enriches the text by providing clarity on the challenges faced by rural populations in accessing benefits. Understanding these phrasal verbs is crucial for grasping the broader implications of the passage on financial inclusion and technology's role in it.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.That Minnu Mani, a 23-year-old from the Kurichiya tribe in Kerala, secured a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction is both heart-warming and a reminder. Minnu’s success is a rare story for India’s tribal communities. Sports has discovered some talent among tribals and politics has embraced a few. But data tells the real story. The recently released Tribal Development Report 2022 by Bharat Rural Livelihoods Foundation provides damning statistics. They are 8.6% of the population, and they fare considerably worse than others when it comes to access to sanitation, drinking water, education and proper nutrition.The report also says that tribal communities have been pushed farther away from alluvial plains and fertile river basins over the decades, which has had a direct impact on their livelihood. Of the 257 Scheduled Tribe districts in the country, 230 or 90% are in either forested or hilly or dry areas. And past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 illogically pitted the imperatives of environment protection against the needs of Adivasi communities.While that approach has been modified and today Adivasis are seen as important stakeholders in forest conservation, on-ground contestations continue. Last year’s amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules have been protested by tribal communities on the ground that they undermine the rights of tribes and forest dwellers over forest resources as envisioned in the Forest Rights Act, 2009. Adivasi activists say the changes make it easier for businesses to divert forest land and make obtaining clearances by commercial entities easier. If true, these provisions have serious implications for tribal welfare.It’s also true that there has been increasing political courting of tribal communities in recent years. From expanding ST status to new communities to the Adivasi vote becoming a sought-after electoral commodity to India getting its first tribal President in Droupadi Murmu, tribals have emerged as a serious political bloc. But their genuine empowerment will lie in creating opportunities. We need thousands more Minnu Manis and Droupadi Murmus.Q. What is the tone of the passage?- a)Optimistic
- b)Neutral
- c)Critical
- d)Complimentary
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
That Minnu Mani, a 23-year-old from the Kurichiya tribe in Kerala, secured a contract in the Women’s Premier League auction is both heart-warming and a reminder. Minnu’s success is a rare story for India’s tribal communities. Sports has discovered some talent among tribals and politics has embraced a few. But data tells the real story. The recently released Tribal Development Report 2022 by Bharat Rural Livelihoods Foundation provides damning statistics. They are 8.6% of the population, and they fare considerably worse than others when it comes to access to sanitation, drinking water, education and proper nutrition.
The report also says that tribal communities have been pushed farther away from alluvial plains and fertile river basins over the decades, which has had a direct impact on their livelihood. Of the 257 Scheduled Tribe districts in the country, 230 or 90% are in either forested or hilly or dry areas. And past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 illogically pitted the imperatives of environment protection against the needs of Adivasi communities.
While that approach has been modified and today Adivasis are seen as important stakeholders in forest conservation, on-ground contestations continue. Last year’s amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules have been protested by tribal communities on the ground that they undermine the rights of tribes and forest dwellers over forest resources as envisioned in the Forest Rights Act, 2009. Adivasi activists say the changes make it easier for businesses to divert forest land and make obtaining clearances by commercial entities easier. If true, these provisions have serious implications for tribal welfare.
It’s also true that there has been increasing political courting of tribal communities in recent years. From expanding ST status to new communities to the Adivasi vote becoming a sought-after electoral commodity to India getting its first tribal President in Droupadi Murmu, tribals have emerged as a serious political bloc. But their genuine empowerment will lie in creating opportunities. We need thousands more Minnu Manis and Droupadi Murmus.
Q. What is the tone of the passage?
a)
Optimistic
b)
Neutral
c)
Critical
d)
Complimentary
|
|
Ameya Datta answered |
Understanding the Tone of the Passage
The tone of the passage is primarily critical, reflecting the challenges faced by India's tribal communities. Here’s a detailed breakdown:
Highlighting Disparities
- The passage starts by presenting the statistical reality of tribal communities in India, indicating that they make up 8.6% of the population but suffer significantly in essential areas such as sanitation, education, and nutrition.
Addressing Policy Failures
- It criticizes past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, which prioritized environmental protection over the needs of Adivasi communities. This indicates a critique of governmental decisions and their impacts on tribal welfare.
Protests and Rights Issues
- The mention of protests against amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules demonstrates a critical perspective on current policies that allegedly undermine tribal rights.
Political Exploitation
- Although there is acknowledgment of increasing political attention toward tribal communities, the passage critiques the superficial nature of this attention. It emphasizes that true empowerment lies in creating real opportunities rather than merely seeking electoral gains.
Conclusion
- The call for more individuals like Minnu Mani and Droupadi Murmu, while hopeful, is wrapped in a critical examination of the systemic issues that prevent genuine progress for tribal communities.
Overall, the passage balances instances of hope with a critical analysis of the ongoing struggles faced by tribal populations in India, making option 'C' the most accurate characterization of its tone.
The tone of the passage is primarily critical, reflecting the challenges faced by India's tribal communities. Here’s a detailed breakdown:
Highlighting Disparities
- The passage starts by presenting the statistical reality of tribal communities in India, indicating that they make up 8.6% of the population but suffer significantly in essential areas such as sanitation, education, and nutrition.
Addressing Policy Failures
- It criticizes past policies like the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, which prioritized environmental protection over the needs of Adivasi communities. This indicates a critique of governmental decisions and their impacts on tribal welfare.
Protests and Rights Issues
- The mention of protests against amendments to the Forest Conservation Rules demonstrates a critical perspective on current policies that allegedly undermine tribal rights.
Political Exploitation
- Although there is acknowledgment of increasing political attention toward tribal communities, the passage critiques the superficial nature of this attention. It emphasizes that true empowerment lies in creating real opportunities rather than merely seeking electoral gains.
Conclusion
- The call for more individuals like Minnu Mani and Droupadi Murmu, while hopeful, is wrapped in a critical examination of the systemic issues that prevent genuine progress for tribal communities.
Overall, the passage balances instances of hope with a critical analysis of the ongoing struggles faced by tribal populations in India, making option 'C' the most accurate characterization of its tone.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]Q. What tone does the provided passage convey among the options below?- a)Ethical
- b)Emotional
- c)Humorous
- d)Romantic
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Guided by his love of mountain-bike riding and adventure, Adrian had founded Synergy Trails, a construction company that specialized in installing narrow, winding dirt-bike trails in bushland for weekend and competition riders. Over the years, the 40-year-old had encountered hazardous fauna while digging around in soil, including venomous arachnids and snakes, but he knew how to distinguish the non-threatening ones from the dangerous ones. Adrian was trained in first-aid, though he never took it seriously.
With the clock ticking down towards the start of the four-day long weekend, Adrian had only a small digging job left to do. His shovel was in his vehicle, parked some 50 metres away. He considered getting it, but the job was small, and only a light dig was necessary to get beneath the shallow soil and leaf litter. So he used his hands instead. Just as his fingers slid under the pile of leaves, he felt a sharp, deep pain in his left hand. Adrian quickly pulled out his hand to see a spider gripping his left index finger. The five-centimetre-long glossy black creature had its fangs firmly embedded into the skin, piercing through to his knuckle. The pain was equivalent to a nail hammered into his finger.
But that wasn’t the worst of it. Adrian knew immediately that the spider wrapped around his finger was a Sydney funnel-web (Atrax robustus). He frantically flicked his hand up and down to throw off the spider, but it didn’t move. He persisted, shaking his hand even harder and, after three or four seconds, it finally let go of its grip and dropped to the ground at Adrian’s feet. He looked down just in time to double-check the spider’s identity before it buried itself back under the leaf litter. It was a fully grown male Sydney funnel-web, the deadliest spider in Australia.
After 15 years working in the bush, encountering different types of spiders and snakes, Adrian never imagined he’d get bitten. But all it took for him to become a victim was one brief moment when he was rushing to finish a simple job. He called out to his crew mate, Phil, who was working close by. Phil dropped his shovel and ran over. The pair calmly walked to the four-wheel-drive while Adrian pinched down hard at the base of his knuckle to slow the spread of venom into his bloodstream. They both knew a bite like this, if left untreated, could cause death within an hour. Fortunately, the trail where they had been working was not very far from Hornsby Ku-ring-gai Hospital. About 10 minutes after arriving at the hospital, Adrian suddenly became incoherent and couldn’t finish his sentences. Then his face and tongue started twitching, he felt nauseous.
[extracted, with edits and revisions, from Reader’s Digest: The Spider bite, by Dian Godley.]
Q. What tone does the provided passage convey among the options below?
a)
Ethical
b)
Emotional
c)
Humorous
d)
Romantic
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The passage's tone is emotional because the author employs an emotionally charged writing style when recounting an incident, event, or story to convey their feelings about it.
Therefore, option B is the accurate choice.
Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.Q. The pairs of shoes produced by M4 on Monday is what percentage of the pairs of shoes produced by M3 on Wednesday?- a)100
- b)120
- c)240
- d)480
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.
Q. The pairs of shoes produced by M4 on Monday is what percentage of the pairs of shoes produced by M3 on Wednesday?
a)
100
b)
120
c)
240
d)
480
|
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
From the common explanation, we have
Hence, Option D is correct.
Common explanation:
Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 36% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
Final solution:
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.Q. Total number of students in different clubs is- a)212
- b)242
- c)244
- d)246
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information and answer the given question.
In a college, there are three student clubs (cricket club, football club, and hockey club). Number of students only in cricket club is 4 times the number of students in both football and hockey clubs. Ratio of students only in football club to the students only in hockey club is 3 : 2. While the ratio of students only in hockey club to the students only in cricket club is 1 : 2. 3 students are participating in all the clubs. The number of students in both cricket and football clubs is the same as that of students only in the hockey club. Students who are in both cricket and hockey clubs are 10 and the number of students in football and hockey clubs is twice. 75% of the students in the college are not in any of these clubs.
Q. Total number of students in different clubs is
a)
212
b)
242
c)
244
d)
246
|
Vira Patel answered |
Understanding the Problem
In this scenario, we have three clubs: cricket, football, and hockey. We need to determine the total number of students involved in these clubs based on the provided relationships.
Setting Up Variables
- Let the number of students only in the football club be F.
- Let the number of students only in the hockey club be H.
- The number of students only in the cricket club is 4(F + H).
- The ratio of students in football to hockey is 3:2, so F = (3/2)H.
- The ratio of students in hockey to cricket is 1:2, therefore H = (1/2)(4(F + H)) = 2(F + H).
Finding the Relationships
- From F = (3/2)H, we can express H in terms of F: H = (2/3)F.
- Substituting H into H = 2(F + H) gives an equation to solve.
Calculating Students in Each Club
1. Football and Hockey: Using the ratio, we get:
- F = 3x, H = 2x (where x is a common multiplier).
2. Cricket Club: Students only in cricket club = 4(F + H) = 4(3x + 2x) = 20x.
3. Students in All Clubs: 3 students are participating in all clubs.
4. Students in Both Cricket and Hockey: 10 students are in both clubs.
5. Total in Football and Hockey: Given as twice the number in hockey (2H).
Calculating Total Students
- Total students in cricket club = 20x + 10 (overlap) + 3 (all clubs).
- Total students in football club = F (3x) + 3 (all clubs).
- Total students in hockey club = H (2x) + 10 (overlap) + 3 (all clubs).
Final Calculation
Assuming the total number of students in college is T:
- 0.75T = students not in any club.
- Therefore, 0.25T = total students in clubs.
After solving the equations based on the relationships, we find:
- Total number of students in different clubs = 244.
Conclusion
The correct answer is option 'C' with a total of 244 students participating in the clubs, confirming the calculations align with the relationships provided in the question.
In this scenario, we have three clubs: cricket, football, and hockey. We need to determine the total number of students involved in these clubs based on the provided relationships.
Setting Up Variables
- Let the number of students only in the football club be F.
- Let the number of students only in the hockey club be H.
- The number of students only in the cricket club is 4(F + H).
- The ratio of students in football to hockey is 3:2, so F = (3/2)H.
- The ratio of students in hockey to cricket is 1:2, therefore H = (1/2)(4(F + H)) = 2(F + H).
Finding the Relationships
- From F = (3/2)H, we can express H in terms of F: H = (2/3)F.
- Substituting H into H = 2(F + H) gives an equation to solve.
Calculating Students in Each Club
1. Football and Hockey: Using the ratio, we get:
- F = 3x, H = 2x (where x is a common multiplier).
2. Cricket Club: Students only in cricket club = 4(F + H) = 4(3x + 2x) = 20x.
3. Students in All Clubs: 3 students are participating in all clubs.
4. Students in Both Cricket and Hockey: 10 students are in both clubs.
5. Total in Football and Hockey: Given as twice the number in hockey (2H).
Calculating Total Students
- Total students in cricket club = 20x + 10 (overlap) + 3 (all clubs).
- Total students in football club = F (3x) + 3 (all clubs).
- Total students in hockey club = H (2x) + 10 (overlap) + 3 (all clubs).
Final Calculation
Assuming the total number of students in college is T:
- 0.75T = students not in any club.
- Therefore, 0.25T = total students in clubs.
After solving the equations based on the relationships, we find:
- Total number of students in different clubs = 244.
Conclusion
The correct answer is option 'C' with a total of 244 students participating in the clubs, confirming the calculations align with the relationships provided in the question.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]What was the percentage growth in rice exports after the government lifted restrictions?- a)27.4%
- b)45.7%
- c)85.8%
- d)15.9%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]
What was the percentage growth in rice exports after the government lifted restrictions?
a)
27.4%
b)
45.7%
c)
85.8%
d)
15.9%
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
Rice exports surged by 85.8% following the lifting of export restrictions.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Is depression more difficult to treat in old age? Late life depression (LLD) is caused by multiple factors working together. It has three broad risk factors — biological, psychological, and social. Scientists are yet to identify a candidate biomarker — a biological molecule in blood, body fluids, or other tissues, that is a sign of a disease process — for LLD. On the other hand, studies have found some evidence for genetic contribution to LLD. Scientists have also advanced several hypotheses involving the genes that code for serotonin synthesis, norepinephrine transporter, and the neurotrophic factor, but these ideas require more tests. A subset of LLD, called vascular depression, may be associated with cerebrovascular lesions. Stress that accumulates over one’s life leads to a sustained secretion of cortisol, the hormone that regulates the body’s stress response. Increased cortisol levels lead to the loss of brain cells in the hippocampus, which is implicated in memory and learning. (This brain cell loss can be partially mitigated by the use of antidepressants.)Researchers have proposed a vascular theory based on the observation that depression is a frequent outcome in people who have had a stroke. Vascular depression is associated with brain lesions, which appear as bright spots on brain scans. These spots, called white matter hyperintensities, disrupt brain signalling and brain circuits. Heart attacks and heart conditions often lead to LLD, as do diabetes and hip fracture. Depressive symptoms can also manifest if a person doesn’t optimally recover from physical illnesses. Personality attributes may colour the origin and expression of depressive symptoms in older adults. Neuroticism — the personality disposition to experience negative emotions, anger, irritability, and emotional instability — is consistently implicated in LLD. Depressed individuals may overreact to life events or misinterpret them. Recent adverse life events (loss of a job, bereavement, etc.) are more frequently reported among depressed elderly people than among nondepressed older adults. The locus of control refers to the degree to which an individual feels a sense of agency in their life. A person with an external locus of control will feel that external forces — such as random chance, environmental factors, or the actions of others — are more responsible for the events that occur in their own life. The 1995 Longitudinal Aging Study Amsterdam found that the emergence and persistence of depressive symptoms were predicted by having an external locus of control.Q. Which of the following statements undermines the argument that depressed individuals might exhibit heightened reactions or misinterpretations of life events?- a)Responses are not exclusive to depression and can also be seen in individuals without the disorder.
- b)Stressful life events were more linked to depression in individuals with an external locus of control.
- c)Individuals with a prior history of depression were inclined to construe ambiguous information negatively compared to non-depressed individuals.
- d)The inability to recall specific positive experiences accurately can render individuals more prone to negative interpretations and exaggerated reactions to life events.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Is depression more difficult to treat in old age? Late life depression (LLD) is caused by multiple factors working together. It has three broad risk factors — biological, psychological, and social. Scientists are yet to identify a candidate biomarker — a biological molecule in blood, body fluids, or other tissues, that is a sign of a disease process — for LLD. On the other hand, studies have found some evidence for genetic contribution to LLD. Scientists have also advanced several hypotheses involving the genes that code for serotonin synthesis, norepinephrine transporter, and the neurotrophic factor, but these ideas require more tests. A subset of LLD, called vascular depression, may be associated with cerebrovascular lesions. Stress that accumulates over one’s life leads to a sustained secretion of cortisol, the hormone that regulates the body’s stress response. Increased cortisol levels lead to the loss of brain cells in the hippocampus, which is implicated in memory and learning. (This brain cell loss can be partially mitigated by the use of antidepressants.)
Researchers have proposed a vascular theory based on the observation that depression is a frequent outcome in people who have had a stroke. Vascular depression is associated with brain lesions, which appear as bright spots on brain scans. These spots, called white matter hyperintensities, disrupt brain signalling and brain circuits. Heart attacks and heart conditions often lead to LLD, as do diabetes and hip fracture. Depressive symptoms can also manifest if a person doesn’t optimally recover from physical illnesses. Personality attributes may colour the origin and expression of depressive symptoms in older adults. Neuroticism — the personality disposition to experience negative emotions, anger, irritability, and emotional instability — is consistently implicated in LLD. Depressed individuals may overreact to life events or misinterpret them. Recent adverse life events (loss of a job, bereavement, etc.) are more frequently reported among depressed elderly people than among nondepressed older adults. The locus of control refers to the degree to which an individual feels a sense of agency in their life. A person with an external locus of control will feel that external forces — such as random chance, environmental factors, or the actions of others — are more responsible for the events that occur in their own life. The 1995 Longitudinal Aging Study Amsterdam found that the emergence and persistence of depressive symptoms were predicted by having an external locus of control.
Q. Which of the following statements undermines the argument that depressed individuals might exhibit heightened reactions or misinterpretations of life events?
a)
Responses are not exclusive to depression and can also be seen in individuals without the disorder.
b)
Stressful life events were more linked to depression in individuals with an external locus of control.
c)
Individuals with a prior history of depression were inclined to construe ambiguous information negatively compared to non-depressed individuals.
d)
The inability to recall specific positive experiences accurately can render individuals more prone to negative interpretations and exaggerated reactions to life events.
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
Option A implies that the inclination to overreact or misinterpret life events might not be unique to individuals with depression, suggesting that these tendencies may not be directly attributed to the disorder itself. Conversely, options B, C, and D present evidence that substantiates the notion that individuals experiencing depression may indeed display exaggerated reactions or misinterpretations of life events. As such, these options do not undermine the argument.
Therefore, option A is the accurate choice.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Part IV of the Constitution contains Directive Principles of State Policy which provide guidelines for the government to govern the country. These Directives are different from the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III of the Constitution and the ordinary laws of the land in several respects. They are not enforceable in courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of individuals. They require implementation by legislation and do not confer or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles, nor can they compel the government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. However, it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives subject to the limitations imposed by different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of legislative and executive power by the state The Sub-committee on Fundamental Rights constituted by the Constituent Assembly suggested two types of Fundamental Rights — one which can be enforced in the Courts of law and the other which because of their different nature cannot be enforced in the law Courts. Later on however, the former were put under the head ‘Fundamental Rights’ as Part III which we have already discussed and the latter were put separately in Part IV of the Constitution under the heading ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ which are discussed in the following pages. The Articles included in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contain certain Directives which are the guidelines for the Government to lead the country. Article 37 provides that the ‘provisions contained in this part (i) shall not be enforceable by any Court, but the principles therein laid down are neverthless (ii) fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. The Directives, however, differ from the fundamental rights contained in PartIII of the Constitution or the ordinary laws of the land in the following respects: (i) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favour of individuals. (ii) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law. (iii) The Directives per-se do not confer upon or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. (iv) The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles. (v) The courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. (vi) Though it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives, it can do so only subject to the limitations imposed by the different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of the legislative and executive power by the state.Q. What is the duty of the state regarding the implementation of Directive Principles?- a)It is not the duty of the state.
- b)The state has unlimited discretion in implementing them.
- c)The state must implement them, subject to constitutional limitations.
- d)The state can implement them only if approved by the judiciary.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Part IV of the Constitution contains Directive Principles of State Policy which provide guidelines for the government to govern the country. These Directives are different from the Fundamental Rights contained in Part III of the Constitution and the ordinary laws of the land in several respects. They are not enforceable in courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of individuals. They require implementation by legislation and do not confer or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles, nor can they compel the government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. However, it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives subject to the limitations imposed by different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of legislative and executive power by the state The Sub-committee on Fundamental Rights constituted by the Constituent Assembly suggested two types of Fundamental Rights — one which can be enforced in the Courts of law and the other which because of their different nature cannot be enforced in the law Courts. Later on however, the former were put under the head ‘Fundamental Rights’ as Part III which we have already discussed and the latter were put separately in Part IV of the Constitution under the heading ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ which are discussed in the following pages. The Articles included in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contain certain Directives which are the guidelines for the Government to lead the country. Article 37 provides that the ‘provisions contained in this part (i) shall not be enforceable by any Court, but the principles therein laid down are neverthless (ii) fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. The Directives, however, differ from the fundamental rights contained in PartIII of the Constitution or the ordinary laws of the land in the following respects: (i) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favour of individuals. (ii) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law. (iii) The Directives per-se do not confer upon or take away any legislative power from the appropriate legislature. (iv) The courts cannot declare any law as void on the ground that it contravenes any of the Directive Principles. (v) The courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directives or to make any law for that purpose. (vi) Though it is the duty of the state to implement the Directives, it can do so only subject to the limitations imposed by the different provisions of the Constitution upon the exercise of the legislative and executive power by the state.
Q. What is the duty of the state regarding the implementation of Directive Principles?
a)
It is not the duty of the state.
b)
The state has unlimited discretion in implementing them.
c)
The state must implement them, subject to constitutional limitations.
d)
The state can implement them only if approved by the judiciary.
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The state is indeed obligated to enforce the Directive Principles, but this obligation is not unconditional; it is contingent upon the constitutional restrictions that govern the state's legislative and executive authority. As such, the state is required to adhere to these principles while operating within the boundaries set forth by the Constitution. This explanation offers a thorough grasp of the state's role in relation to the Directive Principles.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.Neha, a dietician by profession, reads this article and decides to revamp her offerings based on it. Which of the following will be in line with the argument presented in the passage?- a)A comprehensive diet plan that focusses on managing daily dietary intake of various food groups.
- b)A seminar that discusses the pros and cons of the most popular diets in the market.
- c)A diet plan along the lines of the one followed by Ms. Tamara-the country’s current top model who is famous for her exotic food choices.
- d)A comparative analysis of the superfoods trending right now, especially those that are rare and difficult to source.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
We are bombarded with misguided advertisements that give advice on healthy-eating, and this has had the effect of making food seem hugely complicated. People are demoralized because they are trying to follow this advice, yet they are getting fatter and fatter. For lots of people, food has become a minefield of dos and don’ts and a relaxed appreciation of the pleasures of eating has got a bit lost along the way. In fact, eating well is simple when you apply a few fundamental principles.
Neha, a dietician by profession, reads this article and decides to revamp her offerings based on it. Which of the following will be in line with the argument presented in the passage?
a)
A comprehensive diet plan that focusses on managing daily dietary intake of various food groups.
b)
A seminar that discusses the pros and cons of the most popular diets in the market.
c)
A diet plan along the lines of the one followed by Ms. Tamara-the country’s current top model who is famous for her exotic food choices.
d)
A comparative analysis of the superfoods trending right now, especially those that are rare and difficult to source.
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
The passage clearly states that eating well is simply a process of applying a few basic principles. Thus, any focus on superfoods or trending diets or exotic food items will prove contrary to the idea discussed. Hence, Neha should focus on developing a diet plan that emphasizes on eating properly and one that talks about the normal food habits of people.
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.Q. How many pairs of shoes does machine M4 produce on Thursday?- a)120
- b)80
- c)20
- d)60
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
On Saturday, a shoemaker purchased four different machines. In a nearby factory, he set up his machinery. To run the machines, he employed some workers. On Monday, all four machines went into operation. Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. He named all four machines (M1, M2, M3 and M4). The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 30% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively.
Q. How many pairs of shoes does machine M4 produce on Thursday?
a)
120
b)
80
c)
20
d)
60
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
From the common explanation, we have
Reqd. pairs = 120
Hence, Option A is correct.
Common explanation:
Every day from Monday through Thursday, all four machines produced a combined 200 pairs of shoes. M2 produced 24%, 12%, 20%, and 36% of the total pair of shoes produced on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday by the four machines, respectively. The number of shoes made by M4 every day was twice that of M2 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
The number of shoes made by M1 every day was thrice that of M3 every day.
Final solution:
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.Q. Rahul, a devoted user of a social media platform, shared a satirical meme targeting a political leader. The meme, while not containing any explicit content, featured an offensive caption alongside the leader's image. Citing the 2021 Rules, the platform took down the post and temporarily suspended Rahul's account. Can Rahul legally contest the platform's action in court?- a)Yes, because the meme did not violate any of the reasonable restrictions outlined in the Constitution or the IT Act.
- b)No, because the platform has the authority to enforce its terms of service agreement with its users.
- c)Yes, because the 2021 Rules encompass broad and subjective restrictions that could potentially infringe upon users' freedom of speech and expression.
- d)No, because the meme insulted a political leader and, therefore, falls under the "insulting on the basis of gender" restriction within the 2021 Rules.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The Constitution allows for certain reasonable restrictions with respect to freedom of speech and expression on grounds such as national security, public order, decency, and morality. The IT Act prohibits uploading or sharing content which is obscene, sexually explicit, relates to child sex abuse, or violates a person’s privacy. The 2021 Rules specify certain additional restrictions on the types of information users of intermediary platforms can create, upload, or share. These include: (i) “harmful to child”, (ii) “insulting on the basis of gender”, and (iii) “knowingly and intentionally communicates any information which is patently false or misleading in nature but may reasonably be perceived as a fact”. Some of these restrictions are subjective and overbroad, and may adversely affect the freedom of speech and expression of users of intermediary platforms. The Supreme Court (2015) has held that a restriction on speech, in order to be reasonable, must be narrowly tailored so as to restrict only what is absolutely necessary. It also held that a speech can be limited on the grounds under the Constitution when it reaches the level of incitement. Other forms of speech even if offensive or unpopular remain protected under the Constitution. The Rules require the intermediaries to make these restrictions part of their service agreement with users. This implies that users must exercise prior restraint, and intermediaries may interpret and decide upon the lawfulness of content on these grounds. Such overbroad grounds under the Rules may not give a person clarity on what is restricted and may create a ‘chilling effect’ on their freedom of speech and expression. This may also lead to over-compliance from intermediaries as their exemption from liability is contingent upon observing due diligence.
Q. Rahul, a devoted user of a social media platform, shared a satirical meme targeting a political leader. The meme, while not containing any explicit content, featured an offensive caption alongside the leader's image. Citing the 2021 Rules, the platform took down the post and temporarily suspended Rahul's account. Can Rahul legally contest the platform's action in court?
a)
Yes, because the meme did not violate any of the reasonable restrictions outlined in the Constitution or the IT Act.
b)
No, because the platform has the authority to enforce its terms of service agreement with its users.
c)
Yes, because the 2021 Rules encompass broad and subjective restrictions that could potentially infringe upon users' freedom of speech and expression.
d)
No, because the meme insulted a political leader and, therefore, falls under the "insulting on the basis of gender" restriction within the 2021 Rules.
|
|
Ojasvi Mehta answered |
Rahul has the legal standing to contest the platform's action in court because the 2021 Rules encompass broad and subjective restrictions that could potentially encroach upon users' freedom of speech and expression. Consequently, option C is the accurate choice.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twenty-five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad-based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.The logical corollary to the observation made by the author in relation to investment by corporates is best reflected in which of the following options:- a)These need to be supplemented with measures to address the weaknesses in the current public-private partnership models.
- b)Banks are wary of long gestation projects which will expose them to risks of asset-liability mismatches.
- c)Given the state of government (Centre and state) finances, creating the necessary fiscal space for this kind of investment push requires rationalizing subsidies such as food and fertilizer.
- d)If one ticks the boxes, for an organisation that is so old and somewhat resistant to change, it is remarkable that so many reforms have been introduced since 2014.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
As infrastructure investments (as a proportion of GDP) have fallen sharply over the twenty-five year plan period (2013-17), attempts to revive the investment cycle are welcome. However, considering that infrastructure investment over the past six years adds up to Rs 51.2 lakh crore, doubling this over the next six years is a tall order. These are not normal times. The economy has slowed down considerably. The financial system remains choked. Add to that an overleveraged corporate sector that is in no mood to invest, and achieving these targets looks increasingly difficult. And a broad-based pick-up in growth is unlikely in the near term. Reviving the investment cycle requires more than just ambitious targets.
The logical corollary to the observation made by the author in relation to investment by corporates is best reflected in which of the following options:
a)
These need to be supplemented with measures to address the weaknesses in the current public-private partnership models.
b)
Banks are wary of long gestation projects which will expose them to risks of asset-liability mismatches.
c)
Given the state of government (Centre and state) finances, creating the necessary fiscal space for this kind of investment push requires rationalizing subsidies such as food and fertilizer.
d)
If one ticks the boxes, for an organisation that is so old and somewhat resistant to change, it is remarkable that so many reforms have been introduced since 2014.
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
Option (c) is an extension of the argument put forth by the author in the passage. Option (a) is out of scope and has no connection to investment by corporates whatsoever. Options (b) and (d) are out of scope as well.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]Which labour-intensive sector experienced a decline in exports?- a)Leather products
- b)Ceramic products and glassware
- c)Handicrafts
- d)Readymade garments
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]
India’s merchandise exports grew at the fastest pace in 28 months in October, witnessing double-digit growth of 17.3 per cent year-on-year (Y-o-Y) to touch $39.2 billion, due to inventory build-up in the Western countries ahead of the Christmas season.
However, the imports hit an all-time high of $66.34 billion in October, growing at 3.9 per cent, leading to a widening of the trade deficit, or the gap between imports and exports, to $27.1 billion from $20.8 billion in September, data released by the commerce department on Thursday showed.
On the brighter side, non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery exports, an indication of a clearer parameter of exports’ health and domestic manufacturing, grew 27.7 per cent to touch $31.36 billion in the previous month.
Exports growth was driven by higher demand for items such as engineering goods (39.4 per cent), chemicals (27.35 per cent), electronic goods (45.7 per cent), readymade garments (35.1 per cent) and rice (85.8 per cent).
On the other hand, exports of petroleum products, with a 12 per cent share in India's export basket, continued to contract in October (-22.1 per cent) at $4.6 billion due to sustained decline in global crude oil prices.
Commerce secretary Sunil Barthwal said exports performance this year will be better than last year and if the trend continues, India will be able to export goods and services worth $800 billion during this financial year.
“October is also the time when inventory build-up happens for Christmas sales. Prima facie, what I feel is that this Christmas sales looks better than last year,” Barthwal said.
Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal added, “Perhaps, that is also reflecting that we are able to contribute more in terms of exports to these countries.”
Federation of Indian Export Organisations (Fieo) president Ashwani Kumar said an impressive double-digit growth in merchandise exports, amid continuing global economic uncertainties is an encouraging sign of revival, although volatility in crude and metal prices have also played a key role in increasing the value of exports to some extent.
“The rising tensions between Israel-Iran has continuously led to logistical challenges with regard to international trade getting impacted as most of our trade to Europe, Africa, Commonwealth of Independent States and the Gulf region are happening through the Red Sea route prompting buyers to have little large inventories,” Kumar added.
On a cumulative basis, during April-October, exports saw 3.2 per cent growth at $244.5 billion while imports grew 5.7 per cent at $416.9 billion leading to a trade deficit of $164.65 billion during the same period.
“Our strategy of focusing on certain sectors, countries are perhaps now yielding results. Our manufacturing competitiveness, which is coming due to focus on the PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme, is yielding results. Ultimately, a country’s exports are an extension of its manufacturing competitiveness,” Barthwal said.
The jump in imports in October was led by shipments of items such as crude oil (13.3 per cent), electronic goods (6.8 per cent), vegetable oil (50.9 per cent), machinery (8.7 per cent), non-ferrous metals (26.1 per cent), into the country.
Non-petroleum and non-gems and jewellery imports grew at a faster pace of 5.3 per cent as compared to overall imports of items. Gold imports continued to remain high at $7.14 billion, despite a 1 per cent year-on-year contraction in October.
Aditi Nayar, chief economist and head of research and outreach at Icra, said the merchandise trade data for October displayed divergent trends, with a sharp rise in the trade deficit in sequential terms, amid a sizable moderation relative to October last year.
“One of the chief reasons underpinning the sequential rise in the trade deficit appears to be a jump in the volume of crude oil imports, as well as the festival season-led uptick in gold imports. Looking ahead, we expect the current account deficit to ease to 1.2 per cent of GDP in the ongoing quarter (Q3) from an estimated 1.8 per cent of GDP in Q2FY25, and settle around 1 per cent of GDP for the year (FY25) as a whole," she added.
Services exports saw 21.3 per cent growth at $34 billion in October, while services imports witnessed 26.3 per cent rise to $17 billion, resulting in a surplus of $17 billion.
The services trade data for October, however, is an “estimate”, which will be revised based on the Reserve Bank of India’s subsequent release.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "India’s Exports Surge in October 2024" Dated 20/11/24]
Which labour-intensive sector experienced a decline in exports?
a)
Leather products
b)
Ceramic products and glassware
c)
Handicrafts
d)
Readymade garments
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
Ceramic products and glassware saw a 6.1% decline in exports.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) SpaceX Crew-8 mission, currently stationed at the International Space Station (ISS), is experiencing delays in its return to Earth due to severe weather in Florida’s splashdown zones. Consecutive hurricanes Helene and Milton have wreaked havoc across the state, bringing life-threatening conditions such as deadly storm surges, destructive hurricane-force winds and widespread flooding.
In March 2024, the mission transported four crew members to the ISS — NASA astronauts Matthew Dominick, Michael Barratt, Jeanette Epps and Roscosmos cosmonaut Alexander Grebenkin. Completing a seven-month science expedition aboard the orbiting laboratory, the crew will return important and time-sensitive research to Earth.
The mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Crew Program, which aims to transport astronauts to and from the ISS using commercial spacecraft.
The original plan was to undock Crew-8's Dragon capsule, Endeavour, on the night of October 7, 2024, but the unpredictable weather from Hurricane Milton forced a nearly week-long delay to ensure a safe return.
Hurricane Milton was a Category-5 tropical cyclone at its peak that formed in the Gulf of Mexico on October 5, 2024. Milton became the second-most intense Atlantic hurricane ever recorded in the region, rapidly intensifying from a category 1 hurricane (119 kilometres per hour or kmph to 153 kmph) to a category 5 hurricane (>253 kmph) in 12 hours on October 7.
The powerful storm churned up the seas in the splashdown zone, prompting NASA and SpaceX to wait for Milton to pass before approving Crew-8’s return to Earth.
Hurricane Helene arrived in Florida a fortnight before Milton. The hurricane’s near-record size, storm surge, winds and rainfall created a catastrophic disaster, extending over 500 miles inland from the Florida coast. The storm claimed over 230 lives across Florida, Georgia, South Carolina, North Carolina, Tennessee and Virginia, flooding towns, destroying infrastructure and sweeping away homes.
Weather forecasts are still uncertain for undocking on October 22 and 23. If conditions improve, NASA and SpaceX are aiming for no earlier than 6.35 am on October 23, 2024, to undock from the space station.
Meanwhile, astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry Wilmore, launched aboard Boeing’s Starliner in June 2024 for an eight-day mission, are still stranded on the ISS due to technical issues with Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft.
The Starliner had to return without its crew for safety reasons, extending their mission significantly. NASA and Boeing identified helium leaks and experienced issues with the spacecraft reaction control thrusters on June 6 as Starliner approached the space station.
Originally planned for ten days, Williams and Wilmore now expect to spend around 240 days in space, continuing their work aboard the ISS.
[Excerpt from Down To Earth "NASA’s Crew-8 Mission Delayed by Severe Florida Weather" Dated 24/10/24]What was the original undocking date for the Crew-8 mission?- a)October 5, 2024
- b)October 7, 2024
- c)October 10, 2024
- d)October 22, 2024
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) SpaceX Crew-8 mission, currently stationed at the International Space Station (ISS), is experiencing delays in its return to Earth due to severe weather in Florida’s splashdown zones. Consecutive hurricanes Helene and Milton have wreaked havoc across the state, bringing life-threatening conditions such as deadly storm surges, destructive hurricane-force winds and widespread flooding.
In March 2024, the mission transported four crew members to the ISS — NASA astronauts Matthew Dominick, Michael Barratt, Jeanette Epps and Roscosmos cosmonaut Alexander Grebenkin. Completing a seven-month science expedition aboard the orbiting laboratory, the crew will return important and time-sensitive research to Earth.
The mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Crew Program, which aims to transport astronauts to and from the ISS using commercial spacecraft.
The original plan was to undock Crew-8's Dragon capsule, Endeavour, on the night of October 7, 2024, but the unpredictable weather from Hurricane Milton forced a nearly week-long delay to ensure a safe return.
Hurricane Milton was a Category-5 tropical cyclone at its peak that formed in the Gulf of Mexico on October 5, 2024. Milton became the second-most intense Atlantic hurricane ever recorded in the region, rapidly intensifying from a category 1 hurricane (119 kilometres per hour or kmph to 153 kmph) to a category 5 hurricane (>253 kmph) in 12 hours on October 7.
The powerful storm churned up the seas in the splashdown zone, prompting NASA and SpaceX to wait for Milton to pass before approving Crew-8’s return to Earth.
Hurricane Helene arrived in Florida a fortnight before Milton. The hurricane’s near-record size, storm surge, winds and rainfall created a catastrophic disaster, extending over 500 miles inland from the Florida coast. The storm claimed over 230 lives across Florida, Georgia, South Carolina, North Carolina, Tennessee and Virginia, flooding towns, destroying infrastructure and sweeping away homes.
Weather forecasts are still uncertain for undocking on October 22 and 23. If conditions improve, NASA and SpaceX are aiming for no earlier than 6.35 am on October 23, 2024, to undock from the space station.
Meanwhile, astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry Wilmore, launched aboard Boeing’s Starliner in June 2024 for an eight-day mission, are still stranded on the ISS due to technical issues with Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft.
The Starliner had to return without its crew for safety reasons, extending their mission significantly. NASA and Boeing identified helium leaks and experienced issues with the spacecraft reaction control thrusters on June 6 as Starliner approached the space station.
Originally planned for ten days, Williams and Wilmore now expect to spend around 240 days in space, continuing their work aboard the ISS.
[Excerpt from Down To Earth "NASA’s Crew-8 Mission Delayed by Severe Florida Weather" Dated 24/10/24]
The United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) SpaceX Crew-8 mission, currently stationed at the International Space Station (ISS), is experiencing delays in its return to Earth due to severe weather in Florida’s splashdown zones. Consecutive hurricanes Helene and Milton have wreaked havoc across the state, bringing life-threatening conditions such as deadly storm surges, destructive hurricane-force winds and widespread flooding.
In March 2024, the mission transported four crew members to the ISS — NASA astronauts Matthew Dominick, Michael Barratt, Jeanette Epps and Roscosmos cosmonaut Alexander Grebenkin. Completing a seven-month science expedition aboard the orbiting laboratory, the crew will return important and time-sensitive research to Earth.
The mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Crew Program, which aims to transport astronauts to and from the ISS using commercial spacecraft.
The original plan was to undock Crew-8's Dragon capsule, Endeavour, on the night of October 7, 2024, but the unpredictable weather from Hurricane Milton forced a nearly week-long delay to ensure a safe return.
Hurricane Milton was a Category-5 tropical cyclone at its peak that formed in the Gulf of Mexico on October 5, 2024. Milton became the second-most intense Atlantic hurricane ever recorded in the region, rapidly intensifying from a category 1 hurricane (119 kilometres per hour or kmph to 153 kmph) to a category 5 hurricane (>253 kmph) in 12 hours on October 7.
The powerful storm churned up the seas in the splashdown zone, prompting NASA and SpaceX to wait for Milton to pass before approving Crew-8’s return to Earth.
Hurricane Helene arrived in Florida a fortnight before Milton. The hurricane’s near-record size, storm surge, winds and rainfall created a catastrophic disaster, extending over 500 miles inland from the Florida coast. The storm claimed over 230 lives across Florida, Georgia, South Carolina, North Carolina, Tennessee and Virginia, flooding towns, destroying infrastructure and sweeping away homes.
Weather forecasts are still uncertain for undocking on October 22 and 23. If conditions improve, NASA and SpaceX are aiming for no earlier than 6.35 am on October 23, 2024, to undock from the space station.
Meanwhile, astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry Wilmore, launched aboard Boeing’s Starliner in June 2024 for an eight-day mission, are still stranded on the ISS due to technical issues with Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft.
The Starliner had to return without its crew for safety reasons, extending their mission significantly. NASA and Boeing identified helium leaks and experienced issues with the spacecraft reaction control thrusters on June 6 as Starliner approached the space station.
Originally planned for ten days, Williams and Wilmore now expect to spend around 240 days in space, continuing their work aboard the ISS.
[Excerpt from Down To Earth "NASA’s Crew-8 Mission Delayed by Severe Florida Weather" Dated 24/10/24]
What was the original undocking date for the Crew-8 mission?
a)
October 5, 2024
b)
October 7, 2024
c)
October 10, 2024
d)
October 22, 2024
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
The original undocking was scheduled for October 7, 2024, but was postponed due to Hurricane Milton.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Behold GPT4— while ChatGPT continues to fascinate society, OpenAI has already unveiled its successor, even though no other generative AI could possibly capture the same level of public interest. Well, generative AIs are often termed “humanlike”. But would they ever reach the limits of human reasoning? It’s important to note that ChatGPT or its ilk is “a lumbering statistical engine for pattern matching, gorging on hundreds of terabytes of data and extrapolating the most likely conversational response or most probable answer to a scientific question,” as summarised by Noam Chomsky, Ian Roberts, and Jeffrey Watumull in a fascinating recent piece in the New York Times. In contrast, the human mind “seeks not to infer brute correlations among data points but to create explanations,” these authors wrote. GPT4 passed a simulated bar exam with a score around the top 10 per cent of test takers, whereas GPT3.5’ s score was around the bottom 10 per cent, indicating an increase in capacity.However, when asked “Son of an actor, this American guitarist and rock singer released many songs and albums and toured with his band. His name is “Elvis” what?” GPT4 chose “Elvis Presley,” although he was not the son of an actor. Thus, GPT4 can still miss subtle details. Yet there is a more serious issue. A generative AI makes up information when it doesn’t know the exact answer —an issue widely known as “hallucination.” As OpenAI acknowledged, like earlier GPT models, GPT4 also “hallucinates” facts and makes reasoning errors, although it scores “40 per cent higher” than GPT3.5 on tests intended to measure hallucination. Yet “ChatGPT and similar programs,” according to Noam Chomsky and his co-authors, “are incapable of distinguishing the possible from the impossible.” A tree, an apple, gravity, and the ground are all physical concepts that an AI would not understand, although, in most cases, it would continue to explain how an apple would fall on the ground due to gravity with spectacular accuracy. But the AI’s lack of comprehension of the real world would remain. And when the exact answer is unknown, it would continue to assign possibilities to impossible without explanations.Q. What is the term used in the passage to describe the issue of generative AI making up information when it lacks the exact answer?- a)Imagination
- b)Reasoning
- c)Hallucination
- d)Inference
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Behold GPT4— while ChatGPT continues to fascinate society, OpenAI has already unveiled its successor, even though no other generative AI could possibly capture the same level of public interest. Well, generative AIs are often termed “humanlike”. But would they ever reach the limits of human reasoning? It’s important to note that ChatGPT or its ilk is “a lumbering statistical engine for pattern matching, gorging on hundreds of terabytes of data and extrapolating the most likely conversational response or most probable answer to a scientific question,” as summarised by Noam Chomsky, Ian Roberts, and Jeffrey Watumull in a fascinating recent piece in the New York Times. In contrast, the human mind “seeks not to infer brute correlations among data points but to create explanations,” these authors wrote. GPT4 passed a simulated bar exam with a score around the top 10 per cent of test takers, whereas GPT3.5’ s score was around the bottom 10 per cent, indicating an increase in capacity.
However, when asked “Son of an actor, this American guitarist and rock singer released many songs and albums and toured with his band. His name is “Elvis” what?” GPT4 chose “Elvis Presley,” although he was not the son of an actor. Thus, GPT4 can still miss subtle details. Yet there is a more serious issue. A generative AI makes up information when it doesn’t know the exact answer —an issue widely known as “hallucination.” As OpenAI acknowledged, like earlier GPT models, GPT4 also “hallucinates” facts and makes reasoning errors, although it scores “40 per cent higher” than GPT3.5 on tests intended to measure hallucination. Yet “ChatGPT and similar programs,” according to Noam Chomsky and his co-authors, “are incapable of distinguishing the possible from the impossible.” A tree, an apple, gravity, and the ground are all physical concepts that an AI would not understand, although, in most cases, it would continue to explain how an apple would fall on the ground due to gravity with spectacular accuracy. But the AI’s lack of comprehension of the real world would remain. And when the exact answer is unknown, it would continue to assign possibilities to impossible without explanations.
Q. What is the term used in the passage to describe the issue of generative AI making up information when it lacks the exact answer?
a)
Imagination
b)
Reasoning
c)
Hallucination
d)
Inference
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EduRev CLAT answered |
In the passage, the issue of generative AI making up information when it lacks the exact answer is referred to as "hallucination." This term is used to describe the phenomenon where the AI generates responses that may not be based on factual information. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows."Fake News" is a real phenomenon. There are sleazy predators who cook up completely apocryphal news stories and try to get them circulated on social media and on the internet. But it's a terrible pollution of the language for the president to call any article that criticizes him "fake news." If you compare the credibility of the president's statement with those of the mainstream media, there's just no comparison. The president's been called out on lie after lie after lie. And as someone who's often written for the so-called "mainstream media," for all their flaws, they got fact-checkers. They won't let me just write anything that comes into my head, I've got to prove it. So that's the kind of standard that has established the credibility of many of the news media.And the basis of democracy is that everyone can be criticized, particularly the leaders. We don't have a monarch, a Supreme Leader, or a dictator for life. We've got a person who is temporarily in charge of the government and when he makes an error, it is mandatory for the free press to call it out. To try to delegitimize the press whenever it criticizes the president, it's really the reflex of an autocrat, of a tin-pot dictator in some banana republic and not worthy of a democracy like the United States where the president serves in our pleasure and can be criticized just like anyone else.Q. The author's depiction of the president suggests which of the following?- a)The president thinks he is impervious to error.
- b)The news media are more trustworthy than the president.
- c)(1) and (2) are both
- d)None of (1) or (2)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
"Fake News" is a real phenomenon. There are sleazy predators who cook up completely apocryphal news stories and try to get them circulated on social media and on the internet. But it's a terrible pollution of the language for the president to call any article that criticizes him "fake news." If you compare the credibility of the president's statement with those of the mainstream media, there's just no comparison. The president's been called out on lie after lie after lie. And as someone who's often written for the so-called "mainstream media," for all their flaws, they got fact-checkers. They won't let me just write anything that comes into my head, I've got to prove it. So that's the kind of standard that has established the credibility of many of the news media.
And the basis of democracy is that everyone can be criticized, particularly the leaders. We don't have a monarch, a Supreme Leader, or a dictator for life. We've got a person who is temporarily in charge of the government and when he makes an error, it is mandatory for the free press to call it out. To try to delegitimize the press whenever it criticizes the president, it's really the reflex of an autocrat, of a tin-pot dictator in some banana republic and not worthy of a democracy like the United States where the president serves in our pleasure and can be criticized just like anyone else.
Q. The author's depiction of the president suggests which of the following?
a)
The president thinks he is impervious to error.
b)
The news media are more trustworthy than the president.
c)
(1) and (2) are both
d)
None of (1) or (2)
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S.S Career Academy answered |
The author's description of the president can be used to determine alternatives 1 and 2. The author implies that the president can make mistakes just like any other person when he says that the press has the right to call him out when he does. As he claims that there is "no comparison" between the president's words and those of the mainstream media, Option 2 is likewise accurate. This suggests that the news media are more trustworthy than the presidency.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world’s first wooden satellite, LignoSat, was launched by Japanese scientists on Tuesday to understand the feasibility of timber in space. Kyoto University and homebuilder Sumitomo Forestry jointly developed the wooden satellite, LignoSat, and sent it to the International Space Station (ISS) on a SpaceX mission. The satellite will be positioned approximately 400 kilometres above Earth. The mini-satellite was launched to test the viability of a renewable material in future space habitation and exploration. An astronaut and professor from Kyoto University, Takao Doi, envisions timber as a sustainable resource supporting long-term human settlement in space. While explaining the sustainability of timber in space, Doi said, "With timber, a material we can produce ourselves, we can build houses, live, and work in space indefinitely."LignoSat is inspired by wooden aircraftThe team of scientists crafted LignoSat from honoki wood, inspired by early wooden aircraft. The wood used is a Japanese magnolia species traditionally used for sword sheaths. The decision came after the 10-month ISS study confirming the Honoki's resilience in space. The wooden aircraft are made without screws or glue reflecting traditional craftsmanship. The Doi's team is planning for an ambitious 50-year strategy to send timber structures on the moon and mars. The spacecraft is developed with Nasa-certified wooden satellite validating wood as a space-suited material.Space temp changes drasticallyThe spacecraft will revolve around Earth for six months and it will measure how well the wood withstands the harsh space environment. The temperatures in the space change dramatically between -100 degrees and 100 degrees Celsius testing the durability of wood in extreme conditions. During its tenure in space, the wood's ability to protect semiconductor components from cosmic radiation will also be analysed helping future data centre designs for space. The metal satellites leave aluminium oxide during re-entry, while this is not the case with wooden satellites which produce minimal pollution and result in a low environmental footprint. According to Doi, the success of wooden alternatives might result “in the ban of metal satellites” in future.The team is likely to promote wooden satellites to companies such as SpaceX if LignoSat performs as expected. The satellite might be revolutionising space exploration with eco-friendly materials. As per Kenji Kariya of Sumitomo Forestry, the timber industry will also benefit from the latest innovation.Material And Measure Of LignoSat SatelliteLignoSat is a 4 inches cube-sized satellite that weighs around 2 pounds, prepared with japanese techniques. According to the Japan Times, Magnolia wood was used as it has the strength and workability after space exposure tests that were conducted on cherry, birch and magnolia wood chips.The wooden satellites are less harmful to the environment post-decommissioning.Takao Doi said, “With timber, a material we can produce by ourselves, we will be able to build houses, live and work in space forever”.[Excerpt from Business Standard "Japan launches world's first wooden satellite, LignoSat, into space " Dated 11/11/24]What is the main purpose of the LignoSat mission? - a) To test the use of aluminium in satellites
- b) To assess the durability of wood in space
- c) To explore the potential of metal-free satellites
- d)To conduct radiation experiments on Earth
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The world’s first wooden satellite, LignoSat, was launched by Japanese scientists on Tuesday to understand the feasibility of timber in space. Kyoto University and homebuilder Sumitomo Forestry jointly developed the wooden satellite, LignoSat, and sent it to the International Space Station (ISS) on a SpaceX mission. The satellite will be positioned approximately 400 kilometres above Earth. The mini-satellite was launched to test the viability of a renewable material in future space habitation and exploration. An astronaut and professor from Kyoto University, Takao Doi, envisions timber as a sustainable resource supporting long-term human settlement in space. While explaining the sustainability of timber in space, Doi said, "With timber, a material we can produce ourselves, we can build houses, live, and work in space indefinitely."
The world’s first wooden satellite, LignoSat, was launched by Japanese scientists on Tuesday to understand the feasibility of timber in space. Kyoto University and homebuilder Sumitomo Forestry jointly developed the wooden satellite, LignoSat, and sent it to the International Space Station (ISS) on a SpaceX mission. The satellite will be positioned approximately 400 kilometres above Earth. The mini-satellite was launched to test the viability of a renewable material in future space habitation and exploration. An astronaut and professor from Kyoto University, Takao Doi, envisions timber as a sustainable resource supporting long-term human settlement in space. While explaining the sustainability of timber in space, Doi said, "With timber, a material we can produce ourselves, we can build houses, live, and work in space indefinitely."
LignoSat is inspired by wooden aircraft
The team of scientists crafted LignoSat from honoki wood, inspired by early wooden aircraft. The wood used is a Japanese magnolia species traditionally used for sword sheaths. The decision came after the 10-month ISS study confirming the Honoki's resilience in space. The wooden aircraft are made without screws or glue reflecting traditional craftsmanship. The Doi's team is planning for an ambitious 50-year strategy to send timber structures on the moon and mars. The spacecraft is developed with Nasa-certified wooden satellite validating wood as a space-suited material.
Space temp changes drastically
The spacecraft will revolve around Earth for six months and it will measure how well the wood withstands the harsh space environment. The temperatures in the space change dramatically between -100 degrees and 100 degrees Celsius testing the durability of wood in extreme conditions. During its tenure in space, the wood's ability to protect semiconductor components from cosmic radiation will also be analysed helping future data centre designs for space.
The metal satellites leave aluminium oxide during re-entry, while this is not the case with wooden satellites which produce minimal pollution and result in a low environmental footprint. According to Doi, the success of wooden alternatives might result “in the ban of metal satellites” in future.
The team is likely to promote wooden satellites to companies such as SpaceX if LignoSat performs as expected. The satellite might be revolutionising space exploration with eco-friendly materials. As per Kenji Kariya of Sumitomo Forestry, the timber industry will also benefit from the latest innovation.
Material And Measure Of LignoSat Satellite
LignoSat is a 4 inches cube-sized satellite that weighs around 2 pounds, prepared with japanese techniques.
According to the Japan Times, Magnolia wood was used as it has the strength and workability after space exposure tests that were conducted on cherry, birch and magnolia wood chips.
The wooden satellites are less harmful to the environment post-decommissioning.
Takao Doi said, “With timber, a material we can produce by ourselves, we will be able to build houses, live and work in space forever”.
[Excerpt from Business Standard "Japan launches world's first wooden satellite, LignoSat, into space " Dated 11/11/24]
What is the main purpose of the LignoSat mission?
a)
To test the use of aluminium in satellites
b)
To assess the durability of wood in space
c)
To explore the potential of metal-free satellites
d)
To conduct radiation experiments on Earth
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
The LignoSat mission aims to test wood's durability in the harsh conditions of space.
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.[1] could be split into two parts by the formation of a new ocean in the distant future, as per the researchers. Two major sections of the continent are moving apart, which could eventually result in the creation of a new body of water. Landlocked countries, such as Uganda and Zambia, could potentially have their own coastlines in millions of years.The formation of the East African Rift, a 35-mile-long crack in Ethiopia’s deserts in 2005, marked the beginning of the creation of a new sea. The crack was identified as being at the border of three tectonic plates that have already been distancing themselves for some time: African Nubian, African Somali, and Arabian. These types of tectonic shifts were also observed in the creation of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden between East Africa and Western Asia.GPS tracking shows that land movements between these tectonic plates have been continuously occurring at different rates, with the Arabian plate moving away from Africa at a pace of one inch per year. The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden will flood the Afar region and the East African Rift Valley and turn into a new ocean. The part of East Africa will become a separate continent.[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “New ocean may arise as Africa continues to split into two parts, say scientists”, The Economic Times]Q. Which region is identified as the beginning of the creation of a new sea?- a)Uganda
- b)Ethiopia
- c)Zambia
- d)Somalia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
[1] could be split into two parts by the formation of a new ocean in the distant future, as per the researchers. Two major sections of the continent are moving apart, which could eventually result in the creation of a new body of water. Landlocked countries, such as Uganda and Zambia, could potentially have their own coastlines in millions of years.
The formation of the East African Rift, a 35-mile-long crack in Ethiopia’s deserts in 2005, marked the beginning of the creation of a new sea. The crack was identified as being at the border of three tectonic plates that have already been distancing themselves for some time: African Nubian, African Somali, and Arabian. These types of tectonic shifts were also observed in the creation of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden between East Africa and Western Asia.
GPS tracking shows that land movements between these tectonic plates have been continuously occurring at different rates, with the Arabian plate moving away from Africa at a pace of one inch per year. The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden will flood the Afar region and the East African Rift Valley and turn into a new ocean. The part of East Africa will become a separate continent.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “New ocean may arise as Africa continues to split into two parts, say scientists”, The Economic Times]
Q. Which region is identified as the beginning of the creation of a new sea?
a)
Uganda
b)
Ethiopia
c)
Zambia
d)
Somalia
|
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Ojasvi Mehta answered |
The passage highlights the beginning of the creation of a new sea, and it specifically identifies Ethiopia as the location where this process started. It mentions a 35-mile-long crack in Ethiopia's deserts in 2005, which is associated with the formation of a new sea. The crack is situated at the border of three tectonic plates: African Nubian, African Somali, and Arabian.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Section 25 of the Contract Act reads- “Agreements without consideration, void unless it is writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law”. This section after defining consideration in definition clause in Sec. 2(d) declares that “consideration is the vital part of a valid contract” and also states some exception to the rule that it establishes and in such exceptions, the contract cannot be rendered void even if it is without consideration. The exceptions are: When the contract is in writing and registered When it is for compensating someone for his voluntary services for the promisor in the past. When it is a promise, signed or made in writing by the person or his agent to pay whole or part of a debt which is barred by the law of limitation. Note- In case of transfer of any gift from one person to another, this section does not affect its validity. Mere inadequate consideration in a contract does not render it to be void under this section. However, inadequacy may be taken into account to check whether the consent was free or not.Q. What does Section 25 of the Contract Act state about agreements without consideration?- a)They are always valid.
- b)They are void unless in writing and registered.
- c)They are void unless there is verbal consent.
- d)They are void only if they involve gifts.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Section 25 of the Contract Act reads- “Agreements without consideration, void unless it is writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law”. This section after defining consideration in definition clause in Sec. 2(d) declares that “consideration is the vital part of a valid contract” and also states some exception to the rule that it establishes and in such exceptions, the contract cannot be rendered void even if it is without consideration. The exceptions are: When the contract is in writing and registered When it is for compensating someone for his voluntary services for the promisor in the past. When it is a promise, signed or made in writing by the person or his agent to pay whole or part of a debt which is barred by the law of limitation. Note- In case of transfer of any gift from one person to another, this section does not affect its validity. Mere inadequate consideration in a contract does not render it to be void under this section. However, inadequacy may be taken into account to check whether the consent was free or not.
Q. What does Section 25 of the Contract Act state about agreements without consideration?
a)
They are always valid.
b)
They are void unless in writing and registered.
c)
They are void unless there is verbal consent.
d)
They are void only if they involve gifts.
|
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Ojasvi Mehta answered |
Section 25 of the Contract Act, as per the passage, states that agreements without consideration are void unless they meet certain conditions. These conditions include the agreement being in writing and registered, or falling under specific exceptions. Therefore, option B, which states that such agreements are void unless in writing and registered, is the correct answer. This is a fundamental principle of contract law, as it ensures that contracts have a basis in consideration to be legally enforceable.
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.Is depression more difficult to treat in old age? Late life depression (LLD) is caused by multiple factors working together. It has three broad risk factors — biological, psychological, and social. Scientists are yet to identify a candidate biomarker — a biological molecule in blood, body fluids, or other tissues, that is a sign of a disease process — for LLD. On the other hand, studies have found some evidence for genetic contribution to LLD. Scientists have also advanced several hypotheses involving the genes that code for serotonin synthesis, norepinephrine transporter, and the neurotrophic factor, but these ideas require more tests. A subset of LLD, called vascular depression, may be associated with cerebrovascular lesions. Stress that accumulates over one’s life leads to a sustained secretion of cortisol, the hormone that regulates the body’s stress response. Increased cortisol levels lead to the loss of brain cells in the hippocampus, which is implicated in memory and learning. (This brain cell loss can be partially mitigated by the use of antidepressants.)Researchers have proposed a vascular theory based on the observation that depression is a frequent outcome in people who have had a stroke. Vascular depression is associated with brain lesions, which appear as bright spots on brain scans. These spots, called white matter hyperintensities, disrupt brain signalling and brain circuits. Heart attacks and heart conditions often lead to LLD, as do diabetes and hip fracture. Depressive symptoms can also manifest if a person doesn’t optimally recover from physical illnesses. Personality attributes may colour the origin and expression of depressive symptoms in older adults. Neuroticism — the personality disposition to experience negative emotions, anger, irritability, and emotional instability — is consistently implicated in LLD. Depressed individuals may overreact to life events or misinterpret them. Recent adverse life events (loss of a job, bereavement, etc.) are more frequently reported among depressed elderly people than among nondepressed older adults. The locus of control refers to the degree to which an individual feels a sense of agency in their life. A person with an external locus of control will feel that external forces — such as random chance, environmental factors, or the actions of others — are more responsible for the events that occur in their own life. The 1995 Longitudinal Aging Study Amsterdam found that the emergence and persistence of depressive symptoms were predicted by having an external locus of control.Q. What are the three broad risk factors associated with late life depression (LLD) as mentioned in the passage?- a)Genetic, biological, and psychological
- b)Biological, psychological, and social
- c)Neuroticism, environmental, and social
- d)Hormonal, psychological, and genetic
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Is depression more difficult to treat in old age? Late life depression (LLD) is caused by multiple factors working together. It has three broad risk factors — biological, psychological, and social. Scientists are yet to identify a candidate biomarker — a biological molecule in blood, body fluids, or other tissues, that is a sign of a disease process — for LLD. On the other hand, studies have found some evidence for genetic contribution to LLD. Scientists have also advanced several hypotheses involving the genes that code for serotonin synthesis, norepinephrine transporter, and the neurotrophic factor, but these ideas require more tests. A subset of LLD, called vascular depression, may be associated with cerebrovascular lesions. Stress that accumulates over one’s life leads to a sustained secretion of cortisol, the hormone that regulates the body’s stress response. Increased cortisol levels lead to the loss of brain cells in the hippocampus, which is implicated in memory and learning. (This brain cell loss can be partially mitigated by the use of antidepressants.)
Researchers have proposed a vascular theory based on the observation that depression is a frequent outcome in people who have had a stroke. Vascular depression is associated with brain lesions, which appear as bright spots on brain scans. These spots, called white matter hyperintensities, disrupt brain signalling and brain circuits. Heart attacks and heart conditions often lead to LLD, as do diabetes and hip fracture. Depressive symptoms can also manifest if a person doesn’t optimally recover from physical illnesses. Personality attributes may colour the origin and expression of depressive symptoms in older adults. Neuroticism — the personality disposition to experience negative emotions, anger, irritability, and emotional instability — is consistently implicated in LLD. Depressed individuals may overreact to life events or misinterpret them. Recent adverse life events (loss of a job, bereavement, etc.) are more frequently reported among depressed elderly people than among nondepressed older adults. The locus of control refers to the degree to which an individual feels a sense of agency in their life. A person with an external locus of control will feel that external forces — such as random chance, environmental factors, or the actions of others — are more responsible for the events that occur in their own life. The 1995 Longitudinal Aging Study Amsterdam found that the emergence and persistence of depressive symptoms were predicted by having an external locus of control.
Q. What are the three broad risk factors associated with late life depression (LLD) as mentioned in the passage?
a)
Genetic, biological, and psychological
b)
Biological, psychological, and social
c)
Neuroticism, environmental, and social
d)
Hormonal, psychological, and genetic
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
The passage discusses that late life depression (LLD) is influenced by multiple factors working together, and it can be attributed to three broad risk factors: biological, psychological, and social. These factors collectively contribute to the development of depression in older adults. Therefore, option B is the correct answer as it accurately identifies these three risk factors.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]Under which act was the Tobacco Board of India established?- a)The Tobacco Board Act of 1975
- b)The Tobacco Export Regulation Act of 1980
- c)The Indian Tobacco Authority Act of 1972
- d)The Farmer Support Act of 1978
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
Under which act was the Tobacco Board of India established?
a)
The Tobacco Board Act of 1975
b)
The Tobacco Export Regulation Act of 1980
c)
The Indian Tobacco Authority Act of 1972
d)
The Farmer Support Act of 1978
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
The Tobacco Board of India was established under the Tobacco Board Act of 1975.
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]What is the primary goal of the Tobacco Board of India (TBI) in promoting Indian tobacco in the Middle East?- a)To reduce tobacco production in India
- b)To increase the income of Indian farmers
- c)To focus solely on processed tobacco exports
- d)To limit tobacco exports to domestic markets
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
India is the world’s second largest producer of tobacco, with an annual production of around 800 million kgs. According to the studies conducted by the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is more remunerative than other crops grown in the country. FCV tobacco is cultivated in 97,127 hectares in the State this season by 43,125 farmers and produced 205.50 million kg of produce. In an interview with Bandhavi Annam, Tobacco Board chairman Yashwanth Kumar Chidipothu explained that crop insurance to tobacco farmers will benefit them and attain a balance between regulatory control and international demand and revealed the strategies for supporting tobacco farmers and boosting the exports of Indian tobacco.
What is the Tobacco Board’s strategy regarding crop size, and how are you managing the balance between regulatory control and international demand?
Though there are several varieties of tobacco, the Tobacco Board regulates only the cultivation and sales of FCV tobacco produced in Andhra Pradesh and a few districts in Karnataka. After weighing the suggestions of experts from Tobacco institute of India, farmer unions, and demand in the international market, we decide on the crop size every year, while keeping the competition from Brazil and African countries in view. For the 2024-25 crop year, the total crop size is 167 million kg. As the production is under 170 million kg, as per the instructions of GOI, our farmers have been instructed not to cultivate excess tobacco to prevent from paying additional penalties.
How do national weather disasters impact tobacco crops, and what is your comprehensive strategy for supporting tobacco farmers, such as crop insurance?
Excessive rains, and floods have an adverse impact on the growth and quality of FCV tobacco, an arid crop in the area. Approximately 83,000 small farmers are growing FCV tobacco under the Tobacco Board in both States. The absence of insurance support for FCV tobacco farmers was a major issue. Unlike other crops, FCV tobacco was not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) or the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme. Integrating FCV tobacco farmers into insurance schemes would provide comprehensive risk management and ease their financial hardship. I, along with MP Daggubati Purandeswari, submitted a representation to Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on August 9, and he also responded positively.
What are your plans for mechanisation in light of rising labour costs?
The mechanisation of tobacco cultivation is very complicated in comparison with other crops. However, we are striving hard to integrate the latest technology in the processing of tobacco leaves. A tying machine for air-curing leaves has been introduced but not commercialised. In addition to this, trials are underway to replace fuel with electricity and solar power in tobacco barrens. The introduction of the electronic auction process has been a major relief to the farmers.
What is your strategy for boosting the export of Indian tobacco, and are there any specific targets set by the Government of India?
The Tobacco Board does not have any set targets, but the exports have increased tremendously. We generated Rs 9,740 crores of exports in 2023, Rs 12,005 crores in 2024, and domestic revenue of over Rs 78,000 crores in 2024. Our farmers earned a name for themselves in the international market for their resilience in sustaining their crops, especially during COVID-19 pandemic, when the production reduced tremendously in other countries. India earned good faith with the companies and that resulted in increased exports in the following years.
On the other hand, the export department of the Tobacco Board has been working aggressively and in coordination with the Department of Commerce to encourage more foreign companies to purchase our produce and reduce export charges.
What are the new initiatives undertaken by the Tobacco Board to double the farmer’s income?
We already doubled the income of tobacco farmers. In 2022, the average price of tobacco is Rs 179, Rs 223 in 2023, and Rs 286.5 in August 2024. This price is likely to increase to Rs 300 in the next few months, courtesy of the Indian reputation in the international market.
Does the Tobacco Board have a dedicated vigilance department to combat illicit trade in India? How are you addressing this issue?
The Tobacco Board closely monitors the excessive cultivation and the illegal sales of tobacco by middlemen. However, the illegal production, sales of cigarettes and other tobacco products do not come under the jurisdiction of the Board. The fact that India is the fourth largest illegal cigarette market in the world with illicit trade causing an annual revenue loss of Rs 21,000 crore to the government must be noted. Therefore, the Tobacco Board, in coordination with Customs, Excise, and Income Tax departments, would like to take the initiative in curbing illegal trade.
[Excerpt from The New Indian Express "Indian Tobacco Board Promotes Export Growth" Dated 14/11/24]
What is the primary goal of the Tobacco Board of India (TBI) in promoting Indian tobacco in the Middle East?
a)
To reduce tobacco production in India
b)
To increase the income of Indian farmers
c)
To focus solely on processed tobacco exports
d)
To limit tobacco exports to domestic markets
|
|
Crafty Classes answered |
TBI aims to boost the income of Indian farmers by enhancing the brand value of unmanufactured tobacco in international markets, especially in the UAE.
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