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All questions of Unit 3: Other Essential Elements of a Contract for CA Foundation Exam
X offers to sell a painting to Z which X knows is the copy of a well-known master piece. Z thinking that the painting is original decides to buy it at a very high price. Is this a valid contract?- a)Yes, price is not the criteria for setting aside the contract
- b)No, X is guilty of fraud.
- c)Yes, Z has an erroneous belief as to the value of the painting
- d)No X is guilty of misrepresentation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
X offers to sell a painting to Z which X knows is the copy of a well-known master piece. Z thinking that the painting is original decides to buy it at a very high price. Is this a valid contract?
a)
Yes, price is not the criteria for setting aside the contract
b)
No, X is guilty of fraud.
c)
Yes, Z has an erroneous belief as to the value of the painting
d)
No X is guilty of misrepresentation
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
Section to which the given problem relates: Explanation to Section 20.
Decision:
This contract is valid.
Reason:
An erroneous opinion as to the value of the thing which forms the subject matter of the agreement is not treated as mistake relating to a matter of fact. Here, X will have to blame himself for ignorance of the true value of the painting.
Decision:
This contract is valid.
Reason:
An erroneous opinion as to the value of the thing which forms the subject matter of the agreement is not treated as mistake relating to a matter of fact. Here, X will have to blame himself for ignorance of the true value of the painting.
S, a seller of imitation jewellery, sells his business to B and promises, not to carry on business in imitation jewellery and real jewellery. The agreement is: - a)Fully valid
- b)Valid with regard to imitation jewellery and void as regards real jewellery
- c)Void with regard to imitation jewellery, and valid as regards real jewellery
- d)Wholly void
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
S, a seller of imitation jewellery, sells his business to B and promises, not to carry on business in imitation jewellery and real jewellery. The agreement is:
a)
Fully valid
b)
Valid with regard to imitation jewellery and void as regards real jewellery
c)
Void with regard to imitation jewellery, and valid as regards real jewellery
d)
Wholly void
|
Sagarika Pillai answered |
Explanation:
The given agreement is a restrictive covenant, which means that the seller is restricted from carrying on a similar business after selling his business to the buyer.
Validity of the Agreement:
The agreement is fully valid as it meets the following conditions:
- The agreement is made in connection with the sale of a business - The seller has sold his business of imitation jewellery to the buyer. The restrictive covenant is made in connection with the sale of this business.
- The restriction is reasonable in terms of time and geographical area - The agreement does not specify the time duration or geographical area of the restriction. However, it can be inferred that the restriction is reasonable as it applies only to imitation jewellery and real jewellery.
- The restriction is necessary to protect the goodwill of the business - The restriction is necessary to protect the goodwill of the business as the seller has sold his business of imitation jewellery to the buyer. If the seller carries on a similar business, it may lead to confusion among customers and harm the reputation of the buyer's business.
Therefore, the agreement is fully valid as it meets all the necessary conditions for a restrictive covenant.
The given agreement is a restrictive covenant, which means that the seller is restricted from carrying on a similar business after selling his business to the buyer.
Validity of the Agreement:
The agreement is fully valid as it meets the following conditions:
- The agreement is made in connection with the sale of a business - The seller has sold his business of imitation jewellery to the buyer. The restrictive covenant is made in connection with the sale of this business.
- The restriction is reasonable in terms of time and geographical area - The agreement does not specify the time duration or geographical area of the restriction. However, it can be inferred that the restriction is reasonable as it applies only to imitation jewellery and real jewellery.
- The restriction is necessary to protect the goodwill of the business - The restriction is necessary to protect the goodwill of the business as the seller has sold his business of imitation jewellery to the buyer. If the seller carries on a similar business, it may lead to confusion among customers and harm the reputation of the buyer's business.
Therefore, the agreement is fully valid as it meets all the necessary conditions for a restrictive covenant.
A sells his dog through auction sale. B was the highest bidder. B purchases the dog, the dog was of unsound mind but A doesn’t disclose this fact to B. The act of A is _____?- a)The act is fraudulent
- b)It amounts to sale
- c)It amounts to illegal act
- d)It does not amounts to fraud.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A sells his dog through auction sale. B was the highest bidder. B purchases the dog, the dog was of unsound mind but A doesn’t disclose this fact to B. The act of A is _____?
a)
The act is fraudulent
b)
It amounts to sale
c)
It amounts to illegal act
d)
It does not amounts to fraud.
|
Dashvanth Kumar answered |
Active concealment of fact by one party also amounts to fraud here A is bound to disclose the fact that the dog is unsound so it amounts to fraud.Hence such an act by A is fraudulent
An agreement caused by mistake of Indian Law is : - a)A void agreement
- b)A voidable agreement
- c)A valid agreement
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
An agreement caused by mistake of Indian Law is :
a)
A void agreement
b)
A voidable agreement
c)
A valid agreement
d)
None of the above
|
Srsps answered |
Answer :
According to Section 20, “Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void”.
A mortgage was executed in favour of a minor. Can the minor get a Decree for the enforcement of the mortgage?- a)Yes
- b)No
- c)Can’t say
- d)Mortgage is invalid
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A mortgage was executed in favour of a minor. Can the minor get a Decree for the enforcement of the mortgage?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Can’t say
d)
Mortgage is invalid
|
Arun Khanna answered |
Beneficiary : A minor can be a promisee or a beneficiary in a contract and he can opt to enforce the contract to his advantage.
Ex. A mortgage is executed in favour of a minor. The minor can get a decree for enforcement of mortgage.
An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is void. It does not cover an agreement which : - a)Cuts short the period of limitation
- b)Restricts absolutely the parties from enforcing their legal rights
- c)Discharges a party from liability or extinguishes the rights of a party
- d)Provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is void. It does not cover an agreement which :
a)
Cuts short the period of limitation
b)
Restricts absolutely the parties from enforcing their legal rights
c)
Discharges a party from liability or extinguishes the rights of a party
d)
Provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law
|
Jayant Mishra answered |
Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void
11[Every agreement,-
(a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
(b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto from any liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights, is void to that extent.]
Exception 1 : Saving of contract to refer to arbitration dispute that may arise: This section shall not render illegal contract, by which two or more persons agree that any dispute which may arise between them in respect of any subject or class of subject shall be referred to arbitration, and that only the amount awarded in such arbitration shall be recoverable in respect of the dispute so referred . 12[* * *]
Exception,2 : Saving of contract to refer questions that have already arisen : Nor shall this section render illegal any contract in writing, by which two or more persons agree to refer to arbitration any question between them which has already arisen, or affect any provision of any law in force for the time being as to references to arbitration.
Parents or guardians shall _________ for breach of contract by minor:- a)Be held liable
- b)Not be held liable
- c)Be imprisoned
- d)Not be questioned
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Parents or guardians shall _________ for breach of contract by minor:
a)
Be held liable
b)
Not be held liable
c)
Be imprisoned
d)
Not be questioned
|
Kavita Joshi answered |
The guardian or parents of a minor is not liable for the acts of the minor, even if the contract is for the supply of necessaries to the minor. However, if a minor acts as an agent of the guardian or parents, the guardian can be held liable for the acts of the minor.
A , a surgeon employs ‘B’ as an assistant for a term of three years and B agrees not to practice as surgeon during those three years. The agreement is _______.- a)Void
- b)Voidable
- c)Illegal
- d)Valid
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A , a surgeon employs ‘B’ as an assistant for a term of three years and B agrees not to practice as surgeon during those three years. The agreement is _______.
a)
Void
b)
Voidable
c)
Illegal
d)
Valid
|
Sakshi Shah Sks answered |
Valid under the exception of restraint of trade is void
that is service agreement valid
that is service agreement valid
If mistake is unilateral then the contract is: - a)Void
- b)Voidable
- c)Valid
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
If mistake is unilateral then the contract is:
a)
Void
b)
Voidable
c)
Valid
d)
Illegal
|
Nandini Iyer answered |
In other words, a unilateral mistake occurs when only one party is mistaken as to the subject matter or the terms contained in the contract agreement. This type of mistake is generally more common than other types of contract mistakes, such as a mutual mistake (an error that is shared by both parties).
A minor can do which of the following things?- a)Plead minority
- b)Can act as an agent
- c)Enter contract of apprenticeship
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A minor can do which of the following things?
a)
Plead minority
b)
Can act as an agent
c)
Enter contract of apprenticeship
d)
All of the above
|
|
Ipsita Rane answered |
Minor's Rights and Restrictions:
Minors are individuals who have not yet reached the age of majority, which is 18 years in India. As per the Indian Contract Act, minors are not competent to enter into a contract, except in certain cases. The following are the rights and restrictions of minors:
Rights of Minors:
1. Plead Minority: A minor can plead minority as a defense in any legal proceedings against them.
2. Enter Contract of Apprenticeship: A minor can enter into a contract of apprenticeship, which is a type of contract that allows the minor to learn a particular trade or profession while working under the guidance of a skilled person.
3. Enjoy Property Rights: A minor can own and enjoy the property, and any income generated from it.
Restrictions of Minors:
1. Cannot Enter into a Contract: A minor cannot enter into a contract, except in certain cases, such as contracts of apprenticeship.
2. Cannot Act as an Agent: A minor cannot act as an agent or represent someone else in a contract.
3. Cannot Sue or Be Sued: A minor cannot sue or be sued in their own name. However, their guardian can sue or defend on their behalf.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, a minor can plead minority, enter into a contract of apprenticeship, and enjoy property rights. However, they cannot enter into a contract, act as an agent, or sue or be sued in their own name. It is important to understand the rights and restrictions of minors before entering into any legal agreement with them.
Minors are individuals who have not yet reached the age of majority, which is 18 years in India. As per the Indian Contract Act, minors are not competent to enter into a contract, except in certain cases. The following are the rights and restrictions of minors:
Rights of Minors:
1. Plead Minority: A minor can plead minority as a defense in any legal proceedings against them.
2. Enter Contract of Apprenticeship: A minor can enter into a contract of apprenticeship, which is a type of contract that allows the minor to learn a particular trade or profession while working under the guidance of a skilled person.
3. Enjoy Property Rights: A minor can own and enjoy the property, and any income generated from it.
Restrictions of Minors:
1. Cannot Enter into a Contract: A minor cannot enter into a contract, except in certain cases, such as contracts of apprenticeship.
2. Cannot Act as an Agent: A minor cannot act as an agent or represent someone else in a contract.
3. Cannot Sue or Be Sued: A minor cannot sue or be sued in their own name. However, their guardian can sue or defend on their behalf.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, a minor can plead minority, enter into a contract of apprenticeship, and enjoy property rights. However, they cannot enter into a contract, act as an agent, or sue or be sued in their own name. It is important to understand the rights and restrictions of minors before entering into any legal agreement with them.
Which contracts are not Wagering Contract ?- a)Bull & Bear Activities
- b)Lottery
- c)Speculative Activities
- d)All of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which contracts are not Wagering Contract ?
a)
Bull & Bear Activities
b)
Lottery
c)
Speculative Activities
d)
All of these
|
Rajat Patel answered |
A contract by which a promisor agrees that upon the occurrence of an uncertain event or condition he or she will render a performance for which there is no agreed consideration exchanged, and under which the promisee or the beneficiary of the contract is not made whole for any loss caused by such occurrence
Atul contracted to make and deliver 350 pairs of shoes to Bansi by 1st January. A strike of Atul’s employees prevented him from fulfilling his contract. In a suit by Bansi for breach of contract, Atul claimed that the contract was terminated by impossibility of performance. Was his defence good?- a)No, Atul is liable to Bansi for damages
- b)Yes, doctrine of supervening impossibility applies
- c)Yes, doctrine of frustration will apply
- d)Option (b) but not (c)
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Atul contracted to make and deliver 350 pairs of shoes to Bansi by 1st January. A strike of Atul’s employees prevented him from fulfilling his contract. In a suit by Bansi for breach of contract, Atul claimed that the contract was terminated by impossibility of performance. Was his defence good?
a)
No, Atul is liable to Bansi for damages
b)
Yes, doctrine of supervening impossibility applies
c)
Yes, doctrine of frustration will apply
d)
Option (b) but not (c)
|
|
Disha Joshi answered |
's workers delayed production, so he was only able to make and deliver 250 pairs of shoes by the deadline. Bansi was understandably upset and demanded compensation for the missing 100 pairs of shoes.
Atul apologized for the delay and offered to either refund the cost of the missing 100 pairs of shoes or to deliver them as soon as possible with no extra charge. Bansi was satisfied with the offer of the refund and agreed to it.
Atul learned from this experience and made sure to plan for potential delays in future contracts. He also made a point to communicate with his clients throughout the process to avoid any surprises or misunderstandings.
Atul apologized for the delay and offered to either refund the cost of the missing 100 pairs of shoes or to deliver them as soon as possible with no extra charge. Bansi was satisfied with the offer of the refund and agreed to it.
Atul learned from this experience and made sure to plan for potential delays in future contracts. He also made a point to communicate with his clients throughout the process to avoid any surprises or misunderstandings.
A person who enters into a contract with a minor is _____.- a)Responsible for Losses arising out of contract.
- b)Not responsible for all the losses.
- c)Responsible for giving compensation granted to a suit
- d)Cannot sue the minor.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A person who enters into a contract with a minor is _____.
a)
Responsible for Losses arising out of contract.
b)
Not responsible for all the losses.
c)
Responsible for giving compensation granted to a suit
d)
Cannot sue the minor.
|
|
Arun Khanna answered |
A minor cannot disaffirm part of a contract and agree to another part of a contract; the contract is considered in its entirety.
Ratification. A contract can only be disaffirmed while the individual is a minor. After the person reaches maturity, if the contract continues, the former minor is considered to have ratified the contract and is now bound by the contract terms. A person may ratify by signing something, or by continuing to abide by the contract (making payments, for example).so Cannot use the minor.
An agreement entered into with free consent & lawful but inadequate consideration is:
- a)Void
- b)Voidable
- c)Illegal
- d)Valid
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
An agreement entered into with free consent & lawful but inadequate consideration is:
a)
Void
b)
Voidable
c)
Illegal
d)
Valid
|
NAPA SREJA answered |
Consideration must be real and need not be adequate
An illiterate old woman made a gift deed for practically her entire property to her nephew who managed her affairs. The gift can be set aside on the grounds of : - a)Mistake
- b)Coercion
- c)Fraud
- d)Undue Influence
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
An illiterate old woman made a gift deed for practically her entire property to her nephew who managed her affairs. The gift can be set aside on the grounds of :
a)
Mistake
b)
Coercion
c)
Fraud
d)
Undue Influence
|
|
Jayant Mishra answered |
In jurisprudence, undue influence is an equitable doctrine that involves one person taking advantage of a position of power over another person. This inequity in power between the parties can vitiate one party's consent as they are unable to freely exercise their independent will.
If the illegal part of a contract is inseparable from legal part of the contract, the contract becomes :- a)Void
- b)Voidable
- c)Valid
- d)Unenforceable
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If the illegal part of a contract is inseparable from legal part of the contract, the contract becomes :
a)
Void
b)
Voidable
c)
Valid
d)
Unenforceable
|
Kalyan Ghoshal answered |
Understanding Contract Legality
A contract is an agreement between parties that creates legal obligations. However, for a contract to be enforceable, it must be lawful in its entirety. When an illegal part of a contract is inseparable from its legal components, the entire contract is deemed void.
Why the Contract Becomes Void
- Definition of Void Contract: A void contract is one that is not legally binding from the moment it is created. It lacks enforceability due to its illegal nature.
- Inseparability of Illegal and Legal Parts: If the illegal provisions cannot be removed without altering the essence of the agreement, the contract fails. The court cannot enforce any part of it as it would be against public policy.
Legal Implications
- Public Policy Concerns: Contracts involving illegal activities undermine the law and can harm societal interests. Courts will not assist in enforcing agreements that promote illegal acts.
- No Legal Recourse: Parties to a void contract cannot seek legal remedies for breach, as the contract is treated as if it never existed.
Conclusion
In summary, if a contract contains an illegal component that cannot be separated from its legal parts, it renders the entire contract void. This principle protects the integrity of the legal system and ensures that agreements uphold the law and public policy.
A contract is an agreement between parties that creates legal obligations. However, for a contract to be enforceable, it must be lawful in its entirety. When an illegal part of a contract is inseparable from its legal components, the entire contract is deemed void.
Why the Contract Becomes Void
- Definition of Void Contract: A void contract is one that is not legally binding from the moment it is created. It lacks enforceability due to its illegal nature.
- Inseparability of Illegal and Legal Parts: If the illegal provisions cannot be removed without altering the essence of the agreement, the contract fails. The court cannot enforce any part of it as it would be against public policy.
Legal Implications
- Public Policy Concerns: Contracts involving illegal activities undermine the law and can harm societal interests. Courts will not assist in enforcing agreements that promote illegal acts.
- No Legal Recourse: Parties to a void contract cannot seek legal remedies for breach, as the contract is treated as if it never existed.
Conclusion
In summary, if a contract contains an illegal component that cannot be separated from its legal parts, it renders the entire contract void. This principle protects the integrity of the legal system and ensures that agreements uphold the law and public policy.
Which of the following agreements are expressly declared void by the Indian Contract Act?- a)Agreement made without consideration
- b)Agreement by a minor or a person of unsound mind
- c)Agreement in restraint of marriage
- d)Agreement of which the consideration and object are unlawful
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following agreements are expressly declared void by the Indian Contract Act?
a)
Agreement made without consideration
b)
Agreement by a minor or a person of unsound mind
c)
Agreement in restraint of marriage
d)
Agreement of which the consideration and object are unlawful
|
|
Srsps answered |
Certain agreements have been expressly declared void by Indian contract Act, 1872.According to section 2(g) of Indian contract Act, 1872, “a void agreement is an agreement which is not enforceable by law”. Such an agreement does not give rise to any legal consequence and is void ab initio.
1. Agreements in Restraint of Marriage:
Every individual enjoys the freedom to marry and so according to Section 26 of the Contract Act “every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.”
The restraint may be general or partial but the agreement is void, and therefore, an agreement agreeing not to marry at all, or a certain person, or a class of persons, or for a fixed period, is void. However, an agreement restraining the marriage of a minor is valid under the Section.
It is interesting to note that a promise to marry a particular person does not imply any restraint of marriage, and is, therefore, a valid contract.
Which one of the following shows an intention to be bound?- a) Binding in 'essence' only.
- b) Binding in 'honour' only.
- c) This is a 'gentleman's agreement'.
- d) A signature on a legal document.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following shows an intention to be bound?
a)
Binding in 'essence' only.
b)
Binding in 'honour' only.
c)
This is a 'gentleman's agreement'.
d)
A signature on a legal document.
|
|
Charvi Roy answered |
A legal document denotes that the parties see the agreement as being legally binding. In the other scenarios presented, there is an informal agreement being established.
Mistake relating to the identity of subject matter by both the parties is called ________.- a)Unilateral Mistake
- b)Bilateral Mistake
- c)Not a mistake
- d)Misrepresentation.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Mistake relating to the identity of subject matter by both the parties is called ________.
a)
Unilateral Mistake
b)
Bilateral Mistake
c)
Not a mistake
d)
Misrepresentation.
|
|
Priya Patel answered |
A bilateral mistake of fact occurs when both parties to the contract are operating under a mistaken reality. Bilateral mistakes are also known as mutual mistakes or common mistakes.
Execution of a bond requiring employees leaving the organisation before the expiry of the term of service to pay compensation the employer is considered:- a)Unenforceable agreement
- b)Voidable agreement
- c)Valid agreement
- d)Void agreement
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Execution of a bond requiring employees leaving the organisation before the expiry of the term of service to pay compensation the employer is considered:
a)
Unenforceable agreement
b)
Voidable agreement
c)
Valid agreement
d)
Void agreement
|
Vidur Goyal answered |
C is the correct answer
A person who had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence can avoid the contract on the ground of misrepresentation this statement is ________- a)True
- b)False
- c)Partly true
- d)Can’t say
Correct answer is 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A person who had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence can avoid the contract on the ground of misrepresentation this statement is ________
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Partly true
d)
Can’t say
|
|
Vijay Mani answered |
FALSE STATEMENT OF FACT....If a person is avoiding the contract on ground of misrepresentation. it means first he has believed that it was true. and later entering Into contract only he come to knew about this it is false statement. But in this case he alredy discovered it is fault before entering into contract. Avoiding the contract (before contract is entered) is different from cancelling the contract(after contract is made) .
Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(i) A threat to commit suicide does not amount to coercion
(ii) Undue influence involves use of physical pressure
(iii) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(iv) Silence always amounts to fraud
- a)(i) and (ii)
- b)(i), (ii) and (iii)
- c)(i), (ii) and (iv)
- d)(ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(i) A threat to commit suicide does not amount to coercion
(ii) Undue influence involves use of physical pressure
(iii) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(iv) Silence always amounts to fraud
(i) A threat to commit suicide does not amount to coercion
(ii) Undue influence involves use of physical pressure
(iii) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(iv) Silence always amounts to fraud
a)
(i) and (ii)
b)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
c)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
d)
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
|
Freedom Institute answered |
Mistake of law: It is based on the principle of 'Ignorantia Juris Non Excusat ' which means ignorance of law is no excuse if the contract is of land (India). A party is not entitled to any relief on the plea that an act has been done in ignorance of law.
A Contract which is created without the consent of the party is ______.- a)Void
- b)Voidable
- c)Valid
- d)All of the above.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A Contract which is created without the consent of the party is ______.
a)
Void
b)
Voidable
c)
Valid
d)
All of the above.
|
|
Nandini Iyer answered |
A voidable contract is a formal agreement between two parties that may be rendered unenforceable for a number of legal reasons. Reasons that can make a contract voidable include failure by one or both parties to disclose a material fact; a mistake, misrepresentation or fraud; undue influence or duress; one party's legal incapacity to enter a contract; one or more terms that are unconscionable; or a breach of contract.
The concept of Duress under English Contract Law is similar to: - a)Undue Influence
- b)Misrepresentation
- c)Coercion
- d)Fraud
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The concept of Duress under English Contract Law is similar to:
a)
Undue Influence
b)
Misrepresentation
c)
Coercion
d)
Fraud
|
|
Arjun Singhania answered |
Duress and undue influence essentially means that a person or party has been forced into a contract. The contract cannot be considered to be a valid agreement under these circumstances. Under common law, there are two doctrines to consider: duress and undue influence.
Which of the following will stand under fiduciary relationship as per Indian Contract Act, 1872?- a)Father and Son
- b)Advocate and Client
- c)Doctor and Patient
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following will stand under fiduciary relationship as per Indian Contract Act, 1872?
a)
Father and Son
b)
Advocate and Client
c)
Doctor and Patient
d)
All of the above
|
|
Arun Khanna answered |
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines what we mean by “Agreement”. In its section 2 (e), the Act defines the term agreement as “every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other”.
Which of the following is not expressly declared void?- a)Wagering agreement
- b)Agreement to pay time barred debt.
- c)Agreement the meaning of which is certain
- d)Consideration unlawful in part.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not expressly declared void?
a)
Wagering agreement
b)
Agreement to pay time barred debt.
c)
Agreement the meaning of which is certain
d)
Consideration unlawful in part.
|
|
Sinjini Gupta answered |
Explanation:
An agreement to pay a time-barred debt refers to a situation where a person agrees to pay a debt that is no longer enforceable in a court of law due to the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation.
In general, a time-barred debt is considered unenforceable as it is beyond the legal timeframe within which a creditor can file a lawsuit to recover the debt. However, it is important to note that the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation does not automatically extinguish the debt or render it void. It simply means that the creditor cannot seek legal remedies to recover the debt.
Void Agreements:
1. Wagering Agreement: A wagering agreement is one in which two parties agree to bet on the outcome of an uncertain event. Such agreements are expressly declared void as they are considered to be based on chance and involve speculation rather than a legitimate contract.
2. Agreement the meaning of which is uncertain: An agreement must have a certain and definite meaning in order to be enforceable. If the meaning of an agreement is uncertain or vague, it cannot be enforced by the court. Therefore, agreements with uncertain meanings are considered void.
3. Consideration unlawful in part: Consideration refers to something of value that each party to a contract gives or promises to give to the other. If the consideration involved in an agreement is partially unlawful, the agreement is void to the extent of the unlawful part. In other words, if a contract includes an illegal or immoral consideration, the entire contract becomes void.
Agreement to pay a time-barred debt:
Unlike the other options mentioned, an agreement to pay a time-barred debt is not expressly declared void under the Indian Contract Act, 1872. While it may not be enforceable in a court of law, it does not render the agreement itself void. Parties can still voluntarily agree to pay a time-barred debt, but the creditor cannot seek legal remedies for its recovery.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - Agreement to pay a time-barred debt.
An agreement to pay a time-barred debt refers to a situation where a person agrees to pay a debt that is no longer enforceable in a court of law due to the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation.
In general, a time-barred debt is considered unenforceable as it is beyond the legal timeframe within which a creditor can file a lawsuit to recover the debt. However, it is important to note that the expiration of the prescribed period of limitation does not automatically extinguish the debt or render it void. It simply means that the creditor cannot seek legal remedies to recover the debt.
Void Agreements:
1. Wagering Agreement: A wagering agreement is one in which two parties agree to bet on the outcome of an uncertain event. Such agreements are expressly declared void as they are considered to be based on chance and involve speculation rather than a legitimate contract.
2. Agreement the meaning of which is uncertain: An agreement must have a certain and definite meaning in order to be enforceable. If the meaning of an agreement is uncertain or vague, it cannot be enforced by the court. Therefore, agreements with uncertain meanings are considered void.
3. Consideration unlawful in part: Consideration refers to something of value that each party to a contract gives or promises to give to the other. If the consideration involved in an agreement is partially unlawful, the agreement is void to the extent of the unlawful part. In other words, if a contract includes an illegal or immoral consideration, the entire contract becomes void.
Agreement to pay a time-barred debt:
Unlike the other options mentioned, an agreement to pay a time-barred debt is not expressly declared void under the Indian Contract Act, 1872. While it may not be enforceable in a court of law, it does not render the agreement itself void. Parties can still voluntarily agree to pay a time-barred debt, but the creditor cannot seek legal remedies for its recovery.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - Agreement to pay a time-barred debt.
Ram, a minor got injured his left leg in a football match. He engaged a doctor for the treatment of the leg. The doctor wants to claim for his services from the minor’s property. The claim of the doctor is _______ under the Indian Contract Act, 1872. - a)Valid
- b)Invalid
- c)Void
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Ram, a minor got injured his left leg in a football match. He engaged a doctor for the treatment of the leg. The doctor wants to claim for his services from the minor’s property. The claim of the doctor is _______ under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
a)
Valid
b)
Invalid
c)
Void
d)
Illegal
|
|
Nikita Singh answered |
As per sec 68 of Indian contract act ,1872 , Necessities provided to Incapable persons or their dependents can be claimed from the property of such persons. Here the facilities provided to ram by the doctor is necessities to him . so the claim by the doctor is valid.
S instructs T to enter on his behalf into a wagering transaction. T loses in the transaction and pays from his pocket. He thereafter sues S for reimbursement. Can S raise plea of wager?- a)Yes, S can raise the plea of wager
- b)No, as the agent’s transactions, which is collateral to the main transaction, which is void is not affected
- c)Yes, S can raise the plea of wager but only in the states of Maharashtra & Gujarat
- d)Option (b) is correct whereas (c) is an exception
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
S instructs T to enter on his behalf into a wagering transaction. T loses in the transaction and pays from his pocket. He thereafter sues S for reimbursement. Can S raise plea of wager?
a)
Yes, S can raise the plea of wager
b)
No, as the agent’s transactions, which is collateral to the main transaction, which is void is not affected
c)
Yes, S can raise the plea of wager but only in the states of Maharashtra & Gujarat
d)
Option (b) is correct whereas (c) is an exception
|
|
Akshay Saini answered |
Acted on behalf of S, S cannot raise the plea of wager.
Ram, a minor got injured his left leg in a football match. He engaged a doctor for the treatment of the leg. The doctor wants to claim for his services from the minor’s property. The claim of the doctor is _______ under the Indian Contract Act, 1872. - a)Valid
- b)Invalid
- c)Void
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Ram, a minor got injured his left leg in a football match. He engaged a doctor for the treatment of the leg. The doctor wants to claim for his services from the minor’s property. The claim of the doctor is _______ under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
a)
Valid
b)
Invalid
c)
Void
d)
Illegal
|
Vivek Vivek answered |
As per sec 68 of Indian contract act ,1872 , Necessities provided to Incapable persons or their dependents can be claimed from the property of such persons. Here the facilities provided to ram by the doctor is necessities to him . so the claim by the doctor is valid.
Where the pre – assumption of “ Undue Influence” does not exists : - a)Husband & Wife
- b)Father & Son
- c)Teacher & Student
- d)Doctor & Patient
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Where the pre – assumption of “ Undue Influence” does not exists :
a)
Husband & Wife
b)
Father & Son
c)
Teacher & Student
d)
Doctor & Patient
|
Sai Joshi answered |
I'm sorry, but I'm not sure what you're asking. Could you please provide more context or clarify your question?
Marriage brokerage contracts are: - a)Void
- b)Valid
- c)Legal
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Marriage brokerage contracts are:
a)
Void
b)
Valid
c)
Legal
d)
Illegal
|
|
Rajveer Yadav answered |
Marriage Brokerage Contracts are Void
Marriage brokerage contracts refer to an agreement between two parties, where one party (the broker) agrees to find a suitable partner for the other party (the client) in exchange for a fee. While these contracts were prevalent in the past, they are now considered void under the law for several reasons.
1. Against Public Policy
Marriage is a sacred union between two individuals and cannot be treated as a mere business transaction. Therefore, any contract that treats marriage as a commodity is against public policy and cannot be enforced by law.
2. Violation of Fundamental Rights
Marriage brokerage contracts can lead to the violation of fundamental rights, such as the right to privacy and dignity. The personal information of the clients is often shared without their consent, and they may be subjected to unwanted advances or proposals. This can cause mental trauma and emotional distress, violating their fundamental rights.
3. No Legal Standing
Marriage brokerage contracts are not recognized under Indian law. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, does not provide for any specific provisions regarding such contracts. Therefore, any agreement made between the brokerage and the client is not legally enforceable.
4. No Regulation
Marriage brokerage is an unregulated industry in India. There are no specific laws or regulations that govern the functioning of these agencies. Therefore, clients may be subjected to fraudulent practices, including misrepresentation, false promises, and exploitation.
Conclusion
In conclusion, marriage brokerage contracts are void under Indian law. These contracts are against public policy, violate fundamental rights, and have no legal standing. As a result, individuals should avoid entering into such agreements and instead seek traditional methods of finding a suitable partner, such as through family or friends, or online matrimonial portals.
Marriage brokerage contracts refer to an agreement between two parties, where one party (the broker) agrees to find a suitable partner for the other party (the client) in exchange for a fee. While these contracts were prevalent in the past, they are now considered void under the law for several reasons.
1. Against Public Policy
Marriage is a sacred union between two individuals and cannot be treated as a mere business transaction. Therefore, any contract that treats marriage as a commodity is against public policy and cannot be enforced by law.
2. Violation of Fundamental Rights
Marriage brokerage contracts can lead to the violation of fundamental rights, such as the right to privacy and dignity. The personal information of the clients is often shared without their consent, and they may be subjected to unwanted advances or proposals. This can cause mental trauma and emotional distress, violating their fundamental rights.
3. No Legal Standing
Marriage brokerage contracts are not recognized under Indian law. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, does not provide for any specific provisions regarding such contracts. Therefore, any agreement made between the brokerage and the client is not legally enforceable.
4. No Regulation
Marriage brokerage is an unregulated industry in India. There are no specific laws or regulations that govern the functioning of these agencies. Therefore, clients may be subjected to fraudulent practices, including misrepresentation, false promises, and exploitation.
Conclusion
In conclusion, marriage brokerage contracts are void under Indian law. These contracts are against public policy, violate fundamental rights, and have no legal standing. As a result, individuals should avoid entering into such agreements and instead seek traditional methods of finding a suitable partner, such as through family or friends, or online matrimonial portals.
All agreement in restraint of trade are void does not apply to : - a)The admission of a new partner
- b)Sale of goodwill
- c)Both (a) and (b)
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
All agreement in restraint of trade are void does not apply to :
a)
The admission of a new partner
b)
Sale of goodwill
c)
Both (a) and (b)
d)
None of these
|
|
Lakshmi Kaur answered |
Explanation:
Introduction:
The statement "All agreements in restraint of trade are void" is a general principle of contract law. It means that any agreement that restricts or hinders trade or competition is considered void and unenforceable by the courts. However, there are certain exceptions to this rule, and one such exception is the sale of goodwill.
Explanation of options:
a) The admission of a new partner:
When a new partner is admitted to a partnership, it is not considered a restraint of trade. This is because the admission of a new partner does not restrict or hinder trade or competition. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this case.
b) Sale of goodwill:
The sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Goodwill refers to the reputation and customer base of a business. When a business is sold, the buyer pays for the goodwill in addition to the tangible assets of the business. The buyer pays for the goodwill because it is expected to bring in future profits.
The sale of goodwill may involve a non-compete clause, which restricts the seller from engaging in a similar business within a certain geographical area and for a certain period of time. This non-compete clause is considered valid and enforceable because it is directly related to the sale of goodwill. If the seller were allowed to compete with the buyer immediately after the sale, it would diminish the value of the goodwill that the buyer paid for.
Therefore, the sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. This is why option 'B' is the correct answer.
c) Both (a) and (b):
Option 'c' is incorrect because the admission of a new partner does not fall under the exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Only the sale of goodwill falls under this exception.
d) None of these:
Option 'd' is incorrect because the sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this case.
Introduction:
The statement "All agreements in restraint of trade are void" is a general principle of contract law. It means that any agreement that restricts or hinders trade or competition is considered void and unenforceable by the courts. However, there are certain exceptions to this rule, and one such exception is the sale of goodwill.
Explanation of options:
a) The admission of a new partner:
When a new partner is admitted to a partnership, it is not considered a restraint of trade. This is because the admission of a new partner does not restrict or hinder trade or competition. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this case.
b) Sale of goodwill:
The sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Goodwill refers to the reputation and customer base of a business. When a business is sold, the buyer pays for the goodwill in addition to the tangible assets of the business. The buyer pays for the goodwill because it is expected to bring in future profits.
The sale of goodwill may involve a non-compete clause, which restricts the seller from engaging in a similar business within a certain geographical area and for a certain period of time. This non-compete clause is considered valid and enforceable because it is directly related to the sale of goodwill. If the seller were allowed to compete with the buyer immediately after the sale, it would diminish the value of the goodwill that the buyer paid for.
Therefore, the sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. This is why option 'B' is the correct answer.
c) Both (a) and (b):
Option 'c' is incorrect because the admission of a new partner does not fall under the exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Only the sale of goodwill falls under this exception.
d) None of these:
Option 'd' is incorrect because the sale of goodwill is an exception to the general rule that agreements in restraint of trade are void. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this case.
Gopalaswami proposed to Raman to give 1 kg. of opium if he destroys the property of Swami Nathan, In this case_______.- a)Consideration is unlawful
- b)Object of consideration is unlawful
- c)Consideration is unlawful and object of consideration is partly unlawful
- d)Consideration and its object both are unlawful
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Gopalaswami proposed to Raman to give 1 kg. of opium if he destroys the property of Swami Nathan, In this case_______.
a)
Consideration is unlawful
b)
Object of consideration is unlawful
c)
Consideration is unlawful and object of consideration is partly unlawful
d)
Consideration and its object both are unlawful
|
|
Bhavadharini answered |
The object of the above contract is destroying the property of Swaminathan. Any contract in which the object involves injury to a person or his property is unlawful
Similarly, the consideration here is 1 kg of opium. The consideration is unlawful when it opposes social policy.
Similarly, the consideration here is 1 kg of opium. The consideration is unlawful when it opposes social policy.
A agrees to pay 10 lacs to B if B procures an employment for A in Income Tax Department. - a)Valid
- b)Void
- c)Voidable
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A agrees to pay 10 lacs to B if B procures an employment for A in Income Tax Department.
a)
Valid
b)
Void
c)
Voidable
d)
Illegal
|
|
Tanvi Pillai answered |
Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that a consideration for a contract is not lawful if it falls in any of the following categories:-
(1) the consideration is forbidden by law.
(2) the consideration is of a nature such that if allowed, would defeat the provision of any law.
(3) fraudulent
(4) implies any injury to person or property of another
(5) the consideration is regarded by Court as immoral or opposed to public policy.
Obtaining employment in return for money can be regarded as forbidden by law or opposed to public policy and has also been treated as unlawful consideration under illustration (f) to the provision. Section 10 of the Act makes it compulsory for an agreement to have a lawful consideration to be valid and enforceable by law.
A boy of 21 years for whose property a guardian has been appointed enters into a contract with B in respect of that property. The contract is:- a)Valid
- b)Voidable
- c)Void
- d)Invalid
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A boy of 21 years for whose property a guardian has been appointed enters into a contract with B in respect of that property. The contract is:
a)
Valid
b)
Voidable
c)
Void
d)
Invalid
|
Vasundhara Gosavi answered |
I think the option C is the correct answer because According to Indian Majority Act ,A minor attains majority at age of 18 but there are 2 exception cases when they attains majority at age of 21 one of them is when guardian is appointed by court to look after the minor or his property or both .
in question the boy has attain the age of 21 so guardian has no right on the property of that boy ..
let me know if I am wrong .
In a contract both the parties believe that the subject matter of the contract is in existence but which is infect not in existence. Agreement shall be:- a)Valid
- b)Void
- c)Void due to bilateral mistake
- d)Void due to unilateral mistake
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In a contract both the parties believe that the subject matter of the contract is in existence but which is infect not in existence. Agreement shall be:
a)
Valid
b)
Void
c)
Void due to bilateral mistake
d)
Void due to unilateral mistake
|
|
Devanshi Rane answered |
Validity of a Contract
A contract is an agreement between two or more parties that creates a legal obligation to perform some duties or obligations. For a contract to be valid, it must have the following elements:
1. Offer - An offer is a proposal made by one party to another to enter into a contract.
2. Acceptance - Acceptance is the agreement by the other party to the terms of the offer.
3. Consideration - Consideration is the exchange of something of value by both parties.
4. Competent parties - The parties to the contract must be legally competent to enter into the contract.
5. Legal purpose - The object of the contract must be legal.
Void Due to Bilateral Mistake
When both parties to the contract misunderstand the subject matter of the contract, the agreement is known as a bilateral mistake. In such a case, the contract is voidable. It means that either party can request the contract to be rescinded or cancelled. The reason for this is that there is no meeting of the minds between the parties. The contract is based on a mutual misunderstanding of the subject matter.
Void Due to Unilateral Mistake
When one party to the contract misunderstands the subject matter of the contract, the agreement is known as a unilateral mistake. In such a case, the contract is still valid. However, the party that made the mistake may have the right to rescind or cancel the contract if the other party knew or should have known of the mistake.
In the given scenario, since both parties believed that the subject matter of the contract was in existence but it was actually not in existence, it is a case of bilateral mistake. Therefore, the agreement shall be void due to bilateral mistake.
A contract is an agreement between two or more parties that creates a legal obligation to perform some duties or obligations. For a contract to be valid, it must have the following elements:
1. Offer - An offer is a proposal made by one party to another to enter into a contract.
2. Acceptance - Acceptance is the agreement by the other party to the terms of the offer.
3. Consideration - Consideration is the exchange of something of value by both parties.
4. Competent parties - The parties to the contract must be legally competent to enter into the contract.
5. Legal purpose - The object of the contract must be legal.
Void Due to Bilateral Mistake
When both parties to the contract misunderstand the subject matter of the contract, the agreement is known as a bilateral mistake. In such a case, the contract is voidable. It means that either party can request the contract to be rescinded or cancelled. The reason for this is that there is no meeting of the minds between the parties. The contract is based on a mutual misunderstanding of the subject matter.
Void Due to Unilateral Mistake
When one party to the contract misunderstands the subject matter of the contract, the agreement is known as a unilateral mistake. In such a case, the contract is still valid. However, the party that made the mistake may have the right to rescind or cancel the contract if the other party knew or should have known of the mistake.
In the given scenario, since both parties believed that the subject matter of the contract was in existence but it was actually not in existence, it is a case of bilateral mistake. Therefore, the agreement shall be void due to bilateral mistake.
Which of the following is not true in case of a minor?- a)Rule of estoppel
- b)Ratification of terms on attaining majority
- c)Contract with a minor is valid
- d)All the above.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not true in case of a minor?
a)
Rule of estoppel
b)
Ratification of terms on attaining majority
c)
Contract with a minor is valid
d)
All the above.
|
|
Jayant Mishra answered |
Minors (those under the age of 18, in most states) lack the capacity to make a contract. So a minor who signs a contract can either honor the deal or void the contract. There are a few exceptions, however. For example, in most states, a minor cannot void a contract for necessities like food, clothing, and lodging.
When parties enters into a contract under a mutual mistake of fact the contract is_________ :- a)Valid
- b)Voidable
- c)Void
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
When parties enters into a contract under a mutual mistake of fact the contract is_________ :
a)
Valid
b)
Voidable
c)
Void
d)
None of these
|
|
Aarya Sharma answered |
Mistake of Fact in Contract Law
In contract law, a mistake of fact occurs when one or both parties to a contract misunderstand the essential elements of the agreement at the time it was made. Such a mistake can affect the validity of a contract.
Void Contracts
A void contract is one that is legally unenforceable from the start. A void contract can arise when the subject matter of the contract is illegal or when one of the parties lacks the capacity to enter into the agreement. In the case of a mutual mistake of fact, the contract is void if the mistake relates to a fundamental aspect of the transaction.
Mutual Mistake of Fact
A mutual mistake of fact occurs when both parties to a contract are mistaken about the same essential fact. If the mistake is material, meaning it would have a significant impact on the agreement, then the contract may be voidable or void.
Void Contracts vs. Voidable Contracts
A voidable contract is one that is valid and enforceable but may be rescinded, or canceled, by one or both parties in certain circumstances. For example, a contract may be voidable if one party was coerced into signing it or if one party was under duress.
In the case of a mutual mistake of fact, the contract is void if the mistake relates to a fundamental aspect of the transaction. As such, the contract is not enforceable by either party and is considered void ab initio, or void from the beginning.
In contract law, a mistake of fact occurs when one or both parties to a contract misunderstand the essential elements of the agreement at the time it was made. Such a mistake can affect the validity of a contract.
Void Contracts
A void contract is one that is legally unenforceable from the start. A void contract can arise when the subject matter of the contract is illegal or when one of the parties lacks the capacity to enter into the agreement. In the case of a mutual mistake of fact, the contract is void if the mistake relates to a fundamental aspect of the transaction.
Mutual Mistake of Fact
A mutual mistake of fact occurs when both parties to a contract are mistaken about the same essential fact. If the mistake is material, meaning it would have a significant impact on the agreement, then the contract may be voidable or void.
Void Contracts vs. Voidable Contracts
A voidable contract is one that is valid and enforceable but may be rescinded, or canceled, by one or both parties in certain circumstances. For example, a contract may be voidable if one party was coerced into signing it or if one party was under duress.
In the case of a mutual mistake of fact, the contract is void if the mistake relates to a fundamental aspect of the transaction. As such, the contract is not enforceable by either party and is considered void ab initio, or void from the beginning.
A minor’s estate is liable for the _______ supplied to him: - a)Luxuries
- b)Necessities
- c)Necessaries
- d)All the things
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A minor’s estate is liable for the _______ supplied to him:
a)
Luxuries
b)
Necessities
c)
Necessaries
d)
All the things
|
|
Dashvanth Kumar answered |
Generally minor is not liable to anything but in the case of necessities supplied to him, he is liable to that extent, that to his liability is only from his estate that is his property and not from his personal salary
A contract made by mistake about the Indian Law, is: - a)Valid
- b)Void
- c)Voidable
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A contract made by mistake about the Indian Law, is:
a)
Valid
b)
Void
c)
Voidable
d)
Illegal
|
|
Nandini Iyer answered |
A mistake of India law if is regarded as a valid contract since ignorance of the law is not a good enough excuse. But a mistake of foreign law is considered as a mistake of fact, and if such a mistake is bilateral it will lead to a void contract.
Which of the following are in fiduciary relationship :-- a)Parents and child
- b)Client and solvit
- c)Doctor and patient
- d)All of the above.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are in fiduciary relationship :-
a)
Parents and child
b)
Client and solvit
c)
Doctor and patient
d)
All of the above.
|
Divesh Gupta answered |
A fiduciary relation, a person who holds a legal or ethical relationship of trust with one or more other parties.
in the given option all are fiduciary relationship's example
every one is holding legal or ethical relationship.
in the given option all are fiduciary relationship's example
every one is holding legal or ethical relationship.
Silence amounts to fraud when:- a)Silence is not equivalent to speech
- b)Silence is equivalent to speech
- c)Where circumstances show
- d)None.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Silence amounts to fraud when:
a)
Silence is not equivalent to speech
b)
Silence is equivalent to speech
c)
Where circumstances show
d)
None.
|
|
Simran Pillai answered |
Silence amounts to fraud when it is equivalent to speech. This means that if silence is considered to be the same as making a statement or giving information, then it can be considered fraudulent.
Explanation:
Silence is generally not considered to be equivalent to speech. In most situations, people are expected to speak up and provide information when it is necessary or when they have a duty to disclose certain facts. However, there are certain circumstances where silence can be deemed equivalent to speech, and in these cases, it can amount to fraud.
The correct answer to this question is option 'B', which states that silence is equivalent to speech. This means that if a person remains silent when they have a duty to speak or disclose certain information, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
Examples of when silence can amount to fraud:
1. Duty to Disclose: In certain situations, individuals have a duty to disclose certain information. For example, if a seller knows that a property they are selling has significant structural issues but fails to disclose this information to the buyer, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
2. Half-Truths: Sometimes, silence can be deceptive when combined with partial disclosure or half-truths. If someone provides some information but deliberately withholds important details that would significantly change the meaning or understanding of the situation, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
3. Fiduciary Duty: Individuals in positions of trust, such as lawyers, financial advisors, or agents, have a duty to act in the best interests of their clients. If they remain silent about conflicts of interest or fail to disclose material information that could impact their clients' decisions, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
In these examples, silence is deemed equivalent to speech because it is used to deceive or mislead others. By not speaking up or providing necessary information, individuals are essentially making a false representation or omission, which can be considered fraudulent.
In conclusion, silence can amount to fraud when it is equivalent to speech. This occurs when silence is used to deceive or mislead others, especially when there is a duty to speak or disclose certain information.
Explanation:
Silence is generally not considered to be equivalent to speech. In most situations, people are expected to speak up and provide information when it is necessary or when they have a duty to disclose certain facts. However, there are certain circumstances where silence can be deemed equivalent to speech, and in these cases, it can amount to fraud.
The correct answer to this question is option 'B', which states that silence is equivalent to speech. This means that if a person remains silent when they have a duty to speak or disclose certain information, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
Examples of when silence can amount to fraud:
1. Duty to Disclose: In certain situations, individuals have a duty to disclose certain information. For example, if a seller knows that a property they are selling has significant structural issues but fails to disclose this information to the buyer, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
2. Half-Truths: Sometimes, silence can be deceptive when combined with partial disclosure or half-truths. If someone provides some information but deliberately withholds important details that would significantly change the meaning or understanding of the situation, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
3. Fiduciary Duty: Individuals in positions of trust, such as lawyers, financial advisors, or agents, have a duty to act in the best interests of their clients. If they remain silent about conflicts of interest or fail to disclose material information that could impact their clients' decisions, their silence can be considered fraudulent.
In these examples, silence is deemed equivalent to speech because it is used to deceive or mislead others. By not speaking up or providing necessary information, individuals are essentially making a false representation or omission, which can be considered fraudulent.
In conclusion, silence can amount to fraud when it is equivalent to speech. This occurs when silence is used to deceive or mislead others, especially when there is a duty to speak or disclose certain information.
In order to sustain an action for deceit, there must be proof of:- a)Misrepresentation
- b)Undue Influence
- c)Fraud
- d)Coercion
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In order to sustain an action for deceit, there must be proof of:
a)
Misrepresentation
b)
Undue Influence
c)
Fraud
d)
Coercion
|
|
Rajat Patel answered |
“In order to sustain an action of deceit, there must be proof of fraud, and nothing short of that shall suffice. Secondly, fraud is shown that a false representation has been made:
1) Knowingly, or
2) Without belief in its truth, or
3) Recklessly, careless whether it be true or false.
A sum of money was agreed to be paid to the father in consideration of his giving her daughter in marriage. The agreement is void on ground’s of being: - a)Restraint of marriage
- b)Marriage brokerage contract
- c)Restraint of personal liberty
- d)Restraint of legal proceedings
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
A sum of money was agreed to be paid to the father in consideration of his giving her daughter in marriage. The agreement is void on ground’s of being:
a)
Restraint of marriage
b)
Marriage brokerage contract
c)
Restraint of personal liberty
d)
Restraint of legal proceedings
|
|
Aditya Das answered |
That it violates the principles of equality, freedom, and human rights. In many countries, the practice of paying dowry or bride price is considered discriminatory and degrading towards women. It perpetuates the idea that women are commodities to be bought and sold, rather than individuals with their own rights and agency.
Furthermore, paying a sum of money in exchange for marriage can lead to financial exploitation and abuse. It can create power imbalances within the relationship, where the husband or his family may feel entitled to mistreat or control the wife based on the amount of money paid. This can also prevent women from leaving abusive or unhappy marriages, as they may feel financially trapped.
In order to promote gender equality and protect the rights of individuals, many countries have enacted laws to prohibit or regulate dowry or bride price. These laws aim to ensure that marriages are based on free will and mutual consent, rather than financial transactions.
Therefore, any agreement that involves the exchange of money for marriage is considered void and against the principles of equality and human rights.
Furthermore, paying a sum of money in exchange for marriage can lead to financial exploitation and abuse. It can create power imbalances within the relationship, where the husband or his family may feel entitled to mistreat or control the wife based on the amount of money paid. This can also prevent women from leaving abusive or unhappy marriages, as they may feel financially trapped.
In order to promote gender equality and protect the rights of individuals, many countries have enacted laws to prohibit or regulate dowry or bride price. These laws aim to ensure that marriages are based on free will and mutual consent, rather than financial transactions.
Therefore, any agreement that involves the exchange of money for marriage is considered void and against the principles of equality and human rights.
Mistake as to a law not in force in India makes the contract ________.- a)Void
- b)Valid
- c)Voidable
- d)Illegal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Mistake as to a law not in force in India makes the contract ________.
a)
Void
b)
Valid
c)
Voidable
d)
Illegal
|
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Priya Patel answered |
“A contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India; but a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact." ... Ignorantia juris haud excusat i.e, ignorance of law is no excuse.
S, a minor by fraudulently representing himself to be a major, induced L to lend him Rs. 4 Lakhs. He refused to repay it and L sued him for the money. The contract is: - a)Voidable at the option of the minor
- b)Voidable at the option of L
- c)Wholly valid, S is liable to repay the amount
- d)Totally void and S is not liable to repay the amount due
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
S, a minor by fraudulently representing himself to be a major, induced L to lend him Rs. 4 Lakhs. He refused to repay it and L sued him for the money. The contract is:
a)
Voidable at the option of the minor
b)
Voidable at the option of L
c)
Wholly valid, S is liable to repay the amount
d)
Totally void and S is not liable to repay the amount due
|
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Rishika Kumar answered |
The Contract is Totally Void and S is Not Liable to Repay the Amount Due
Explanation:
1. Minors are Incapable of Contracting:
Under Indian Contract Act,1872, minors are incapable of contracting. A minor is a person who has not yet attained the age of majority, which is 18 years in India. Therefore, any contract entered into by a minor is void ab initio (from the beginning).
2. Fraudulent Representation of Age Does Not Make the Contract Valid:
If a minor fraudulently represents himself to be a major and enters into a contract, it does not make the contract valid. Such a contract is still void as the minor lacks the capacity to contract.
3. S is Not Liable to Repay the Amount Due:
Since the contract is void, S is not liable to repay the amount due to L. Therefore, L cannot recover the amount lent to S.
Conclusion:
In the given scenario, S fraudulently represented himself to be a major and induced L to lend him Rs. 4 Lakhs. However, since S is a minor, the contract is void ab initio, and S is not liable to repay the amount due. L cannot recover the amount lent to S.
Explanation:
1. Minors are Incapable of Contracting:
Under Indian Contract Act,1872, minors are incapable of contracting. A minor is a person who has not yet attained the age of majority, which is 18 years in India. Therefore, any contract entered into by a minor is void ab initio (from the beginning).
2. Fraudulent Representation of Age Does Not Make the Contract Valid:
If a minor fraudulently represents himself to be a major and enters into a contract, it does not make the contract valid. Such a contract is still void as the minor lacks the capacity to contract.
3. S is Not Liable to Repay the Amount Due:
Since the contract is void, S is not liable to repay the amount due to L. Therefore, L cannot recover the amount lent to S.
Conclusion:
In the given scenario, S fraudulently represented himself to be a major and induced L to lend him Rs. 4 Lakhs. However, since S is a minor, the contract is void ab initio, and S is not liable to repay the amount due. L cannot recover the amount lent to S.
Chapter doubts & questions for Unit 3: Other Essential Elements of a Contract - Business Laws for CA Foundation 2025 is part of CA Foundation exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CA Foundation exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CA Foundation 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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Business Laws for CA Foundation
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