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All questions of March 2024 for CLAT Exam
What is the primary method for producing sponge iron? - a)Blast Furnace
- b)Direct Reduction
- c)Electric Arc Furnace
- d)Open Hearth Furnace
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary method for producing sponge iron?
a)
Blast Furnace
b)
Direct Reduction
c)
Electric Arc Furnace
d)
Open Hearth Furnace
|
Swara Tiwari answered |
Direct Reduction:
Direct reduction is the primary method for producing sponge iron. This process involves the reduction of iron ore in solid state at lower temperatures using non-coking coal as the reductant.
Process:
- The iron ore is first crushed and ground to release the iron mineral particles.
- The crushed ore is then mixed with coal and heated in a rotary kiln at temperatures ranging from 800°C to 1050°C.
- During the reduction process, the iron ore is reduced to metallic iron while the gangue materials in the ore are removed as slag.
- The reduced iron, also known as sponge iron due to its porous nature, is then cooled and processed further to remove impurities.
- The sponge iron can be used as a raw material in the steelmaking process by melting it in an electric arc furnace or induction furnace.
Advantages of Direct Reduction:
- Direct reduction is more energy efficient compared to traditional methods like blast furnace.
- It allows for the use of non-coking coal, which is more readily available and cheaper than coking coal.
- The process produces less greenhouse gas emissions, making it more environmentally friendly.
In conclusion, direct reduction is the preferred method for producing sponge iron due to its efficiency, cost-effectiveness, and environmental benefits.
Direct reduction is the primary method for producing sponge iron. This process involves the reduction of iron ore in solid state at lower temperatures using non-coking coal as the reductant.
Process:
- The iron ore is first crushed and ground to release the iron mineral particles.
- The crushed ore is then mixed with coal and heated in a rotary kiln at temperatures ranging from 800°C to 1050°C.
- During the reduction process, the iron ore is reduced to metallic iron while the gangue materials in the ore are removed as slag.
- The reduced iron, also known as sponge iron due to its porous nature, is then cooled and processed further to remove impurities.
- The sponge iron can be used as a raw material in the steelmaking process by melting it in an electric arc furnace or induction furnace.
Advantages of Direct Reduction:
- Direct reduction is more energy efficient compared to traditional methods like blast furnace.
- It allows for the use of non-coking coal, which is more readily available and cheaper than coking coal.
- The process produces less greenhouse gas emissions, making it more environmentally friendly.
In conclusion, direct reduction is the preferred method for producing sponge iron due to its efficiency, cost-effectiveness, and environmental benefits.
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Consider the following statements about ‘Cantonment’ boards: - It is a purely military area where only military personnel and their families reside.
- It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about ‘Cantonment’ boards:
- It is a purely military area where only military personnel and their families reside.
- It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Nilesh Malik answered |
Explanation:
Incorrect Statements:
- The first statement is incorrect. Cantonment boards are not purely military areas. They are local self-government bodies that are responsible for the municipal administration of civilian areas within the cantonment.
- The second statement is also incorrect. Cantonment boards do not work under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Instead, they function under the overall administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D) Neither 1 nor 2.
Incorrect Statements:
- The first statement is incorrect. Cantonment boards are not purely military areas. They are local self-government bodies that are responsible for the municipal administration of civilian areas within the cantonment.
- The second statement is also incorrect. Cantonment boards do not work under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Instead, they function under the overall administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D) Neither 1 nor 2.
Consider the following statements regarding Coral reefs. - Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface.
- Coral reefs help in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion.
- Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their colour.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Coral reefs.
- Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface.
- Coral reefs help in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion.
- Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their colour.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Poulomi Nair answered |
Explanation:
Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface:
This statement is incorrect. Coral reefs actually cover less than 0.1% of the earth's surface, but they are home to an incredibly diverse range of marine species.
Coral reefs help in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion:
This statement is correct. Coral reefs act as natural barriers that help protect coastlines from the impact of waves and storms, reducing coastal flooding and erosion. They provide crucial protection to many coastal communities around the world.
Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their color:
This statement is also correct. When ocean temperatures rise, corals experience stress and expel the algae living in their tissues, causing them to turn white or "bleach." This process, known as coral bleaching, can have devastating effects on coral reef ecosystems.
In conclusion, statement 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. So the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.
Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface:
This statement is incorrect. Coral reefs actually cover less than 0.1% of the earth's surface, but they are home to an incredibly diverse range of marine species.
Coral reefs help in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion:
This statement is correct. Coral reefs act as natural barriers that help protect coastlines from the impact of waves and storms, reducing coastal flooding and erosion. They provide crucial protection to many coastal communities around the world.
Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their color:
This statement is also correct. When ocean temperatures rise, corals experience stress and expel the algae living in their tissues, causing them to turn white or "bleach." This process, known as coral bleaching, can have devastating effects on coral reef ecosystems.
In conclusion, statement 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. So the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.
Consider the following statements: - The UNCOVER program is part of the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) initiative aimed at uncovering insights about the early universe.
- The James Webb Space Telescope is designed to conduct infrared astronomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The UNCOVER program is part of the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) initiative aimed at uncovering insights about the early universe.
- The James Webb Space Telescope is designed to conduct infrared astronomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
T.S Academy answered |
What is the Uncover program?
- The UNCOVER program is part of the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) initiative aimed at uncovering insights about the early universe. Specifically, UNCOVER, which stands for Ultra-deep NIRCam and NIRSpec Observations Before the Epoch of Reionization, focuses on two main goals:
- Identifying first-light galaxies during the Dark Ages
- Studying ultra-low luminosity galaxies responsible for the epoch of reionization.
- The James Webb Space Telescope is a space telescope designed to conduct infrared astronomy. Its high-resolution and high-sensitivity instruments allow it to view objects too old, distant, or faint for the Hubble Space Telescope
Consider the following statements: - The African Club is a close association of creditor nations that get together to offer debt relief and financial support to debtor governments within the African Union.
- The African Club was founded in 2023 after Democratic Republic of the Congo consented to meet in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia with its public creditors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The African Club is a close association of creditor nations that get together to offer debt relief and financial support to debtor governments within the African Union.
- The African Club was founded in 2023 after Democratic Republic of the Congo consented to meet in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia with its public creditors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Mahi Banerjee answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1:
The African Club is not a close association of creditor nations that offer debt relief and financial support to debtor governments within the African Union. It is actually a fictional entity and does not exist in reality. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2:
The claim that the African Club was founded in 2023 after the Democratic Republic of the Congo consented to meet in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia with its public creditors is also false. There is no evidence of such an event taking place. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D - Neither 1 nor 2.
Consider the following statements about the ADITI scheme: - It is launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It aims to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the ADITI scheme:
- It is launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It aims to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Sahana Singh answered |
Explanation:
Incorrect Statements:
a) 1 only
The first statement is incorrect as the ADITI scheme is not launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
b) 2 only
The second statement is also incorrect as the ADITI scheme does not aim to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
Correct Answer:
c) Both 1 and 2
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
In conclusion, the ADITI scheme is not launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, and it does not aim to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
Incorrect Statements:
a) 1 only
The first statement is incorrect as the ADITI scheme is not launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
b) 2 only
The second statement is also incorrect as the ADITI scheme does not aim to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
Correct Answer:
c) Both 1 and 2
Since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
In conclusion, the ADITI scheme is not launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, and it does not aim to leverage emerging technologies in the power sector through indigenous development and collaboration.
In the context of which one of the following is the term ‘BioTRIG’ mentioned? - a)Extraction of rare earth elements
- b)Natural gas extraction technologies
- c)Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
- d)Waste-to-energy technologies
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of which one of the following is the term ‘BioTRIG’ mentioned?
a)
Extraction of rare earth elements
b)
Natural gas extraction technologies
c)
Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d)
Waste-to-energy technologies
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Context: A recent study introduces a waste management technology called ‘BioTRIG,’ utilizing pyrolysis at the community level in rural India.
- This process converts organic waste into useful products like bio-oil, syngas, and biochar fertilize
- The BioTRIG system aims to address various rural challenges, including indoor air pollution, soil degradation, and lack of reliable electricity.
With reference to India’s Lokpal and Lokayuktas, consider the following statements: - The idea of a Lokpal first came up in 1963 during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry.
- Karnataka was the first state to create a Lokayukta in 1972.
- The Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, including the Lokpal chairperson and members.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to India’s Lokpal and Lokayuktas, consider the following statements:
- The idea of a Lokpal first came up in 1963 during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry.
- Karnataka was the first state to create a Lokayukta in 1972.
- The Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, including the Lokpal chairperson and members.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Nandini Bose answered |
Explanation:
Statement Analysis:
- The first statement is incorrect as the idea of a Lokpal first came up in 1966, not 1963, during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry.
- The second statement is correct as Karnataka was indeed the first state to create a Lokayukta in 1972.
- The third statement is incorrect as the Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, but not against the Lokpal chairperson and members.
Therefore, only statement two is correct.
Key Points:
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas are anti-corruption authorities in India.
- The Lokpal is at the central level, while Lokayuktas are at the state level.
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas can inquire into allegations of corruption against public servants.
- The Lokpal chairperson and members are also public servants, so complaints against them would be dealt with by a different mechanism.
This information is crucial for understanding the roles and functions of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas in India.
Statement Analysis:
- The first statement is incorrect as the idea of a Lokpal first came up in 1966, not 1963, during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry.
- The second statement is correct as Karnataka was indeed the first state to create a Lokayukta in 1972.
- The third statement is incorrect as the Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, but not against the Lokpal chairperson and members.
Therefore, only statement two is correct.
Key Points:
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas are anti-corruption authorities in India.
- The Lokpal is at the central level, while Lokayuktas are at the state level.
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas can inquire into allegations of corruption against public servants.
- The Lokpal chairperson and members are also public servants, so complaints against them would be dealt with by a different mechanism.
This information is crucial for understanding the roles and functions of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas in India.
With reference to the Ring of Fire, consider the following statements: - The Ring of Fire is a region characterized by high volcanic activity but no seismic activity.
- The Ring of Fire is primarily located in the Indian Ocean and is home to numerous coral reefs.
- It is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic plate movements.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only One
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Ring of Fire, consider the following statements:
- The Ring of Fire is a region characterized by high volcanic activity but no seismic activity.
- The Ring of Fire is primarily located in the Indian Ocean and is home to numerous coral reefs.
- It is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to tectonic plate movements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only One
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
- Only statement 3 is correct.
- The Ring of Fire is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to the movement of tectonic plates. It is where several tectonic plates meet, resulting in significant geological activity, including the formation of volcanoes and seismic events.
Consider the following heritage sites: - Gwalior Fort
- Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple
- Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley
- Bhimbetka rock shelters
How many of the above are included in UNESCO’s tentative list recently?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following heritage sites:
- Gwalior Fort
- Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple
- Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley
- Bhimbetka rock shelters
How many of the above are included in UNESCO’s tentative list recently?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: Madhya Pradesh celebrates a significant achievement as six of its heritage sites are included in UNESCO’s tentative list.
- The sites included are Gwalior Fort, the Historical Group of Dhamnar, Bhojeshwar Mahadev Temple, Rock Art Sites of Chambal Valley, Khooni Bhandara in Burhanpur, and God Memorial of Ramnagar in Mandla.
Consider the following pairs[GI products: belongs to states] - Rupa Tarakasi: West Bengal
- Banglar Muslin: Odisha
- Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun: Madhya Pradesh
- Risa Textile: Tripura
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs[GI products: belongs to states]
- Rupa Tarakasi: West Bengal
- Banglar Muslin: Odisha
- Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun: Madhya Pradesh
- Risa Textile: Tripura
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
Divey Sethi answered |
- Only pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.
- Odisha: Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Filigree)
- West Bengal: Banglar muslin (Traditional Handloom Craft)
- Madhya Pradesh: Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun (Garlic)
- Tripura: Risa Textile
Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan evam Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan (PM-SURAJ) is an initiative of the - a)Ministry of Labour and Employment
- b)Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- c)NITI Aayog
- d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan evam Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan (PM-SURAJ) is an initiative of the
a)
Ministry of Labour and Employment
b)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
c)
NITI Aayog
d)
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
|
Valor Academy answered |
- Context: The Prime Minister virtually launched the Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan evam Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan (PM-SURAJ) portal, aimed at providing credit support to entrepreneurs from disadvantaged sections of society.
- The portal serves as a one-stop point for applying and monitoring progress for loan and credit schemes implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Consider the following statements about the Electric Vehicles Initiative (EVI): - It is a multi-government policy forum dedicated to accelerating the introduction and adoption of electric vehicles worldwide.
- The International Renewable Energy Agency acts as Coordinator to support the EVI member governments in this activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Electric Vehicles Initiative (EVI):
- It is a multi-government policy forum dedicated to accelerating the introduction and adoption of electric vehicles worldwide.
- The International Renewable Energy Agency acts as Coordinator to support the EVI member governments in this activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
The Electric Vehicles Initiative (EVI) is a multi-government policy forum dedicated to accelerating the introduction and adoption of electric vehicles worldwide. The IEA acts as Coordinator to support the EVI member governments in this activity.
Consider the following statements about Agalega Island: - It is located in the Pacific Ocean.
- It is a part of the Seychelles archipelago.
- It is a dependency of Mauritius.
How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Agalega Island:
- It is located in the Pacific Ocean.
- It is a part of the Seychelles archipelago.
- It is a dependency of Mauritius.
How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Manasa Pillai answered |
Agalega Island
Agalega Island is a remote island located in the Indian Ocean, not the Pacific Ocean. It is not a part of the Seychelles archipelago, but rather a dependency of Mauritius.
Therefore, only the third statement is correct regarding Agalega Island.
Agalega Island is a remote island located in the Indian Ocean, not the Pacific Ocean. It is not a part of the Seychelles archipelago, but rather a dependency of Mauritius.
Therefore, only the third statement is correct regarding Agalega Island.
Consider the following statements about Harit Nauka Initiative: - It is an initiative of the Indian Ports Association (IPA).
- It is aimed at promoting the adoption of greener technologies in inland waterway vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Harit Nauka Initiative:
- It is an initiative of the Indian Ports Association (IPA).
- It is aimed at promoting the adoption of greener technologies in inland waterway vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
- Context: PM Modi will inaugurate India’s first green hydrogen fuel cell inland waterway vessel as part of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
- What is the Harit Nauka initiative?
- The Harit Nauka initiative is a program launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways aimed at promoting the adoption of greener technologies in inland waterway vessels. It focuses on shifting inland vessels towards sustainable alternatives, such as hydrogen fuel cells, to reduce environmental impact.
- This initiative aims to establish the V.O.Chidambaranar Port as India’s first Green Hydrogen Hub Port, with projects including a desalination plant and hydrogen production facility.
Consider the following statements: - Genome India Project (GIP) is a research initiative led by the Bangalore-based Indian Institute of Science’s Centre for Brain Research and funded by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research.
- The GIP aims to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India.
- Human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Genome India Project (GIP) is a research initiative led by the Bangalore-based Indian Institute of Science’s Centre for Brain Research and funded by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research.
- The GIP aims to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India.
- Human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- Context: The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) announced the completion of India’s ‘10,000 genome’ project, aiming to create a reference database of whole-genome sequences representative of the country’s diverse population.
- The Genome India Project (GIP) is a national project that aims to sequence 10,000 genomes by the end of 2023. The project is funded by the Government of India’s Department of Biotechnology and is led by the Centre for Brain Research (CBR). The GIP’s first phase aims to identify genetic variations by sequencing the genomes of 10,000 people across India. The project’s goal is to develop personalized medicine based on patients’ genomes.
- S1: Genome India Project funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by Indian Institute of Science’s Centre for Brain Research(CBR).
- S2: The project aims to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study.
- S3: Human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body. It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of an organism.
Consider the following statements: - Leopard (Panthera pardus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- In India,Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards followed by Maharashtra.
- It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boa.
How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Leopard (Panthera pardus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- In India,Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards followed by Maharashtra.
- It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boa.
How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Context: The report on the Status of Leopards in India was recently released by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The leopard (IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix-I; Schedule-I in WPA), scientifically known as Panthera pardus, is the smallest member of the Big Cat family and is highly adaptable to various habitats. It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boar. Melanism, resulting in black skin and spots, is common but often mistaken for a different species called the black panther. Leopards inhabit a wide range from Africa to Asia, including the Indian subcontinent.
Consider the following statements about Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP): - It is a bi-national hydropower project between India and Bhutan.
- It is situated on the Sankosh River.
- It is governed by the integrated Indian-Bhutan Friendship Treaty, which was signed in New Delhi on February 8, 2007
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP):
- It is a bi-national hydropower project between India and Bhutan.
- It is situated on the Sankosh River.
- It is governed by the integrated Indian-Bhutan Friendship Treaty, which was signed in New Delhi on February 8, 2007
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Alok Sengupta answered |
Explanation:
Incorrect Statements:
- The first statement is incorrect. Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP) is not a bi-national project between India and Bhutan. It is actually a joint project between India and Nepal.
- The second statement is also incorrect. The project is situated on the Mahakali River, not the Sankosh River.
- The third statement is incorrect as well. The project is not governed by the integrated Indian-Bhutan Friendship Treaty.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D', none of the statements given are correct.
Incorrect Statements:
- The first statement is incorrect. Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP) is not a bi-national project between India and Bhutan. It is actually a joint project between India and Nepal.
- The second statement is also incorrect. The project is situated on the Mahakali River, not the Sankosh River.
- The third statement is incorrect as well. The project is not governed by the integrated Indian-Bhutan Friendship Treaty.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D', none of the statements given are correct.
The Mission LiFE, a global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment, introduced by India at - a)The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
- b)The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
- c)The World Sustainable Development Summit 2020, New Delhi
- d)The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022, Glasgow
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The Mission LiFE, a global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment, introduced by India at
a)
The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
b)
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
c)
The World Sustainable Development Summit 2020, New Delhi
d)
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022, Glasgow
|
|
Swara Tiwari answered |
Explanation:
Introduction of The Mission LiFE:
- The Mission LiFE was introduced by India at the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022 in Glasgow.
Objective of The Mission LiFE:
- The main objective of The Mission LiFE is to create a global mass movement to encourage individual and community action towards protecting and preserving the environment.
Key Features of The Mission LiFE:
- The initiative aims to nudge people towards sustainable practices such as waste reduction, energy conservation, and promoting biodiversity.
- It focuses on fostering a sense of responsibility towards the environment and encouraging proactive steps to mitigate climate change.
Significance of The Mission LiFE:
- The Mission LiFE is crucial in addressing the pressing environmental issues faced by the world today, including climate change, deforestation, and pollution.
- By mobilizing individuals and communities to take action, it can create a significant impact in safeguarding the planet for future generations.
Global Impact of The Mission LiFE:
- The global reach of The Mission LiFE can inspire people from all corners of the world to come together and work towards a common goal of environmental sustainability.
- Through collective efforts, The Mission LiFE can contribute to achieving global targets set for environmental conservation and climate action.
In conclusion, The Mission LiFE introduced by India at the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022 in Glasgow is a significant initiative aimed at mobilizing individuals and communities worldwide to take proactive steps towards protecting the environment and combating climate change.
Introduction of The Mission LiFE:
- The Mission LiFE was introduced by India at the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022 in Glasgow.
Objective of The Mission LiFE:
- The main objective of The Mission LiFE is to create a global mass movement to encourage individual and community action towards protecting and preserving the environment.
Key Features of The Mission LiFE:
- The initiative aims to nudge people towards sustainable practices such as waste reduction, energy conservation, and promoting biodiversity.
- It focuses on fostering a sense of responsibility towards the environment and encouraging proactive steps to mitigate climate change.
Significance of The Mission LiFE:
- The Mission LiFE is crucial in addressing the pressing environmental issues faced by the world today, including climate change, deforestation, and pollution.
- By mobilizing individuals and communities to take action, it can create a significant impact in safeguarding the planet for future generations.
Global Impact of The Mission LiFE:
- The global reach of The Mission LiFE can inspire people from all corners of the world to come together and work towards a common goal of environmental sustainability.
- Through collective efforts, The Mission LiFE can contribute to achieving global targets set for environmental conservation and climate action.
In conclusion, The Mission LiFE introduced by India at the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2022 in Glasgow is a significant initiative aimed at mobilizing individuals and communities worldwide to take proactive steps towards protecting the environment and combating climate change.
Consider the following statements regarding Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya. - Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya are contemporaries.
- While Adi Shankaracharya propounded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, Sri Ramanujacharya propounded Advaita Vedanta.
- Both argued that the ultimate reality is Brahman.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya.
- Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya are contemporaries.
- While Adi Shankaracharya propounded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, Sri Ramanujacharya propounded Advaita Vedanta.
- Both argued that the ultimate reality is Brahman.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Puja Menon answered |
Explanation:
Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya were not contemporaries, as they lived in different time periods. Adi Shankaracharya lived in the 8th century AD, while Sri Ramanujacharya lived in the 11th century AD. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.
Differences in Vedanta Philosophy:
- Adi Shankaracharya propounded Advaita Vedanta, which emphasizes the non-dual nature of reality and the identity of the individual soul (Atman) with the ultimate reality (Brahman).
- Sri Ramanujacharya, on the other hand, propounded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, which maintains that while the individual soul is distinct from Brahman, it is still inseparable from Brahman.
Similarity in Belief:
Both Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya argued that the ultimate reality is Brahman. Despite their differences in the details of their philosophies, both philosophers recognized Brahman as the ultimate truth.
Therefore, only the second statement is correct, and the correct answer is option 'A' (Only one).
Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya were not contemporaries, as they lived in different time periods. Adi Shankaracharya lived in the 8th century AD, while Sri Ramanujacharya lived in the 11th century AD. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.
Differences in Vedanta Philosophy:
- Adi Shankaracharya propounded Advaita Vedanta, which emphasizes the non-dual nature of reality and the identity of the individual soul (Atman) with the ultimate reality (Brahman).
- Sri Ramanujacharya, on the other hand, propounded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, which maintains that while the individual soul is distinct from Brahman, it is still inseparable from Brahman.
Similarity in Belief:
Both Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya argued that the ultimate reality is Brahman. Despite their differences in the details of their philosophies, both philosophers recognized Brahman as the ultimate truth.
Therefore, only the second statement is correct, and the correct answer is option 'A' (Only one).
Consider the following statements regarding Black corals. - Black corals are located in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
- They are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
- They are found only in deep waters and they cannot survive in shallow waters.
- They act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Black corals.
- Black corals are located in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
- They are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
- They are found only in deep waters and they cannot survive in shallow waters.
- They act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
- Context: The Great Barrier Reef is experiencing its fifth mass coral bleaching event in eight years, driven by global heating and an El Niño climate pattern.
- Using a remote-controlled submarine, researchers at Smithsonian Institution, Washington, discovered five new species of black corals living as deep as 2,500 feet (760 metres) below the surface in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
- Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000 metres), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years.
- Unlike their colourful, shallow-water cousins that rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy, black corals are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
- Similarly to shallow-water corals that build colourful reefs full of fish, black corals act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators in what is otherwise a mostly barren sea floor.
Consider the following statements about Border Roads Organisation: - It is a statutory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
- It undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.
- Officers and personnel from the Indian Engineering Services (IES) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b) Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Border Roads Organisation:
- It is a statutory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
- It undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.
- Officers and personnel from the Indian Engineering Services (IES) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Ipsita Choudhary answered |
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Statement 1: It is a statutory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
- This statement is correct. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Defence in India.
Statement 2: It undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.
- This statement is correct. The BRO is responsible for road construction and maintenance in border areas of India as well as in friendly neighboring countries.
Statement 3: Officers and personnel from the Indian Engineering Services (IES) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
- This statement is incorrect. The parent cadre of the BRO is the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF), which is a part of the Border Roads Organisation. GREF personnel are responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and infrastructure in border areas.
Therefore, only the second statement is correct.
Explanation:
Statement 1: It is a statutory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
- This statement is correct. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Defence in India.
Statement 2: It undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.
- This statement is correct. The BRO is responsible for road construction and maintenance in border areas of India as well as in friendly neighboring countries.
Statement 3: Officers and personnel from the Indian Engineering Services (IES) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
- This statement is incorrect. The parent cadre of the BRO is the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF), which is a part of the Border Roads Organisation. GREF personnel are responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and infrastructure in border areas.
Therefore, only the second statement is correct.
Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association: - It is a regional trade organization and free trade area.
- It operates independently of the European Union (EU).
- It currently has more than10 member countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association:
- It is a regional trade organization and free trade area.
- It operates independently of the European Union (EU).
- It currently has more than10 member countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Asha Tiwari answered |
Explanation:
- Statement 1: It is a regional trade organization and free trade area.
This statement is correct. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is indeed a regional trade organization and a free trade area.
- Statement 2: It operates independently of the European Union (EU).
This statement is also correct. EFTA is a separate entity from the EU and operates independently.
- Statement 3: It currently has more than 10 member countries.
This statement is incorrect. EFTA currently has four member countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. Therefore, only two out of the three statements are correct, making option 'B' the correct answer.
‘Gorsam Kora’ festival is celebrated in which state? - a)Odisha
- b)Assam
- c)Arunachal Pradesh
- d)Sikkim
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Gorsam Kora’ festival is celebrated in which state?
a)
Odisha
b)
Assam
c)
Arunachal Pradesh
d)
Sikkim
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- Context: The Gorsam Kora Festival, held annually in Arunachal Pradesh’s Zemithang valley, concluded, celebrating the shared Himalayan Buddhist cultural heritage and the enduring friendship between India and Bhutan.
- Located along the Nyanmjang Chu River, Zemithang is historically significant as the refuge where the 14th Dalai Lama sought sanctuary in 1959.
- The festival, centred around the 93-foot tall stupa – ‘Gorsam Chorten’ built in the 13th century, attracts thousands of devotees, including Bhutanese nationals, for prayers and traditional rituals.
Consider the following pairs[Wildlife Sanctuary: State]: - Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary: Karnataka
- Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary: Odisha
- Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary: Goa
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs[Wildlife Sanctuary: State]:
- Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary: Karnataka
- Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary: Odisha
- Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary: Goa
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Only 2 and 3 pairs are correctly matched
Pandavula Gutta, a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills, has been officially recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site recently, is located in which of the following states? - a)Tamil Nadu
- b)Kerala
- c)Telangana
- d)Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Pandavula Gutta, a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills, has been officially recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site recently, is located in which of the following states?
a)
Tamil Nadu
b)
Kerala
c)
Telangana
d)
Karnataka
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Context: Pandavula Gutta, an ancient geological marvel in Telangana (Jayashankar Bhupalpally District), has been designated as the exclusive Geo-heritage site in the state.
- Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. The State-wise details are given in Annexure. GSI or the respective State governments take necessary measures to protect these sites.
Consider the following statements: - It is a narrow waterway separating North and South America.
- It is a man-made canal connecting the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
- It is a desert region located in Central America.
Which one of the above statements about the Darien Gap is true?- a)Only 1
- b)Only 2
- c)Only 3
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- It is a narrow waterway separating North and South America.
- It is a man-made canal connecting the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
- It is a desert region located in Central America.
Which one of the above statements about the Darien Gap is true?
a)
Only 1
b)
Only 2
c)
Only 3
d)
None of the above
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
- Context: The Darien Gap, a dense jungle spanning northern Colombia and southern Panama, has become a perilous route for migrants seeking asylum in the US.
- What is Darien Gap?
- The Darién Gap is a rugged region in the Isthmus of Darién, connecting Central and South America.
- It comprises dense forests and mountains in Panama’s Darién Province and Colombia’s Chocó Department. Home to indigenous communities, the terrain varies from flat marshlands to mountainous rainforests. With no roads crossing it, travel is challenging and often conducted by boat or on foot. Despite the dangers, increasing violence and limited legal immigration options in their home countries have driven a surge in crossings, primarily by Venezuelans but also by Haitians, Chinese, Afghans, and others.
Consider the following statements: - The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.
- The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman and functions with headquarters at Pune.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.
- The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairman and functions with headquarters at Pune.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Poulomi Nair answered |
Explanation:
Correct Statement:
- Only two: The second and third statements are correct.
Explanation:
- The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is indeed a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, making the first statement correct.
- Films in India must be certified by the CBFC before public exhibition, so the second statement is accurate.
- However, the headquarters of the CBFC is located in Mumbai, not Pune, making the third statement incorrect.
Consider the following statements. - The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
- The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities.
- Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes and castes.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
- The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2017 to look into the sub-categorisation of the OBC communities.
- Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes and castes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Rishabh Malik answered |
Explanation:
Statement Analysis:
- The first statement is correct. The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
- The second statement is incorrect. The Sachar Committee was actually appointed in 2005, not 2017, to look into the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India.
- The third statement is incorrect. Not every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes and castes.
Therefore, only the first statement is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
Statement Analysis:
- The first statement is correct. The Constitution of India mandates the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
- The second statement is incorrect. The Sachar Committee was actually appointed in 2005, not 2017, to look into the social, economic, and educational status of the Muslim community in India.
- The third statement is incorrect. Not every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes and castes.
Therefore, only the first statement is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
Consider the following statements. - The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission.
- Like the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, any additions to the Central OBC list must have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India.
- The NCBC Act, 1993 prescribes that the National Commission for Backward Classes is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine proposals for inclusion in the OBC list, and then forward their decision to the Union government.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission.
- Like the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, any additions to the Central OBC list must have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India.
- The NCBC Act, 1993 prescribes that the National Commission for Backward Classes is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine proposals for inclusion in the OBC list, and then forward their decision to the Union government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Context: The forthcoming judgment in the State of Punjab vs Davinder Singh case by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India holds significant implications for affirmative action and reservations under the Constitution.
- As per the Procedure for Addition prescribed in the NCBC Act, 1993, the Commission is mandated to constitute a Bench to examine such proposals and then forward their decision to the Union government (with dissent, where applicable). The Cabinet then needs to approve the additions and bring legislation to this effect, following which the President is empowered to notify the change.
- Unlike the procedure to add communities to the SC or ST List, additions to the Central OBC list do not have to rely on the concurrence of the Office of the Registrar General of India or any other authority other than the Commission.
- The Commission, as per its guidelines, considers additions to the Central OBC list based on social, educational and economic indicators suggested by the Mandal Commission established in 1979.
Consider the following statements about Nana Jagannath Shankarseth: - He was a founding member of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway.
- He was the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council under the Act of 1861.
- He was the first Indian member of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Nana Jagannath Shankarseth:
- He was a founding member of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway.
- He was the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council under the Act of 1861.
- He was the first Indian member of the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
- Statement 3 is not correct.
- He was one of few founding members of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway along with Sir Jamsetjee Jejeebhoy and David Sasson.
- He became the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council under the Act of 1861, and became a member of the Bombay Board of Education. He also was the first Indian member of the Asiatic Society of Mumbai, and is known to have endowed a school and donated land in Grant Road for a theater.
Consider the following minerals: - Lithium
- Titanium
- Beryllium
- Zirconium
- Niobium
- Tantalum
As per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment act, 2023, how many of the above minerals have been removed from India’s atomic minerals lists?- a)Only three
- b)Only four
- c)Only two
- d)All six
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following minerals:
- Lithium
- Titanium
- Beryllium
- Zirconium
- Niobium
- Tantalum
As per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment act, 2023, how many of the above minerals have been removed from India’s atomic minerals lists?
a)
Only three
b)
Only four
c)
Only two
d)
All six
|
Anagha Patel answered |
Overview of the Amendment
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, introduced significant changes in the classification of certain minerals in India. This legislative change is pivotal for the mining sector and the management of mineral resources.
Removal from Atomic Minerals List
As per the recent amendment, the following minerals have been removed from India's atomic minerals list:
- Lithium
- Titanium
- Beryllium
- Zirconium
- Niobium
- Tantalum
Reason for Removal
The removal of these minerals is primarily due to the evolving understanding of their applications and the need for regulatory clarity. Previously classified as atomic minerals, these substances are recognized for their broader industrial uses rather than just nuclear applications.
Implications of the Change
- Regulatory Flexibility: The removal allows for greater investment and exploration in these minerals, which are essential for various industries, including electronics, aerospace, and renewable energy technologies.
- Market Dynamics: The change is expected to enhance market dynamics by enabling easier access to these minerals, potentially leading to increased domestic production and reduced dependency on imports.
Conclusion
In conclusion, all six minerals listed—Lithium, Titanium, Beryllium, Zirconium, Niobium, and Tantalum—have been removed from India's atomic minerals list as per the 2023 amendment. This reflects a strategic shift towards optimizing resource management and fostering industrial growth.
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, introduced significant changes in the classification of certain minerals in India. This legislative change is pivotal for the mining sector and the management of mineral resources.
Removal from Atomic Minerals List
As per the recent amendment, the following minerals have been removed from India's atomic minerals list:
- Lithium
- Titanium
- Beryllium
- Zirconium
- Niobium
- Tantalum
Reason for Removal
The removal of these minerals is primarily due to the evolving understanding of their applications and the need for regulatory clarity. Previously classified as atomic minerals, these substances are recognized for their broader industrial uses rather than just nuclear applications.
Implications of the Change
- Regulatory Flexibility: The removal allows for greater investment and exploration in these minerals, which are essential for various industries, including electronics, aerospace, and renewable energy technologies.
- Market Dynamics: The change is expected to enhance market dynamics by enabling easier access to these minerals, potentially leading to increased domestic production and reduced dependency on imports.
Conclusion
In conclusion, all six minerals listed—Lithium, Titanium, Beryllium, Zirconium, Niobium, and Tantalum—have been removed from India's atomic minerals list as per the 2023 amendment. This reflects a strategic shift towards optimizing resource management and fostering industrial growth.
The first city-specific ‘Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan’ (ZCBAP) in India was launched in which of the following Indian cities? - a)Bangalore
- b)Hyderabad
- c)Nagpur
- d)Jaipur
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The first city-specific ‘Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan’ (ZCBAP) in India was launched in which of the following Indian cities?
a)
Bangalore
b)
Hyderabad
c)
Nagpur
d)
Jaipur
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Context: Nagpur has initiated India’s first city-specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP), aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions from buildings by 2050.
- The plan covers public buildings, affordable housing, commercial buildings, and homes, focusing on decarbonization and sustainable development.
- Developed by Nagpur Municipal Corporation (NMC) and Nagpur Smart and Sustainable City Development Corporation Limited (NSSCDCL), with support from international partners, the ZCBAP aligns with India’s climate goals and global commitments.
Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion. - It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
- Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence.
- The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Privilege motion.
- It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
- Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence.
- The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Poulomi Nair answered |
Explanation:
There are two correct statements regarding Privilege motion:
Only two
- Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence: This statement is correct because a privilege motion can only be moved in relation to an incident that has occurred recently and is relevant to the functioning of the house.
- The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion: This statement is also correct as the Speaker of the house is responsible for the initial examination of a privilege motion to determine its validity and relevance before it can be taken up for further consideration.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B) Only two.
Consider the following statements about the MethaneSAT: - It is one of the 21 observational components of NASA’s Earth Observing System program.
- It aims to monitor methane emissions from human sources worldwide, with a particular focus on the oil and gas sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the MethaneSAT:
- It is one of the 21 observational components of NASA’s Earth Observing System program.
- It aims to monitor methane emissions from human sources worldwide, with a particular focus on the oil and gas sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Context: MethaneSAT, launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket, is a satellite designed to track and measure methane emissions globally.
- MethaneSAT aims to monitor the oil and gas sector, providing data on emission sources, trends, and changes over time.
- About MethaneSAT:
- Developed by the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF) in partnership with Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency, MethaneSAT will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, collecting data that will be made publicly available in near real-time.
- Equipped with advanced technology, including a high-resolution infrared sensor and spectrometer, MethaneSAT can detect methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion and identify both large and small emitters.
Consider the following statements regarding legislative powers of the Governor. - If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President.
- If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding legislative powers of the Governor.
- If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President.
- If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
Article 200 provides that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature, is presented to the Governor, the Governor shall declare—
(a) that he assents to the Bill; or
(b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or
(c) that he reserves the Bill for the President’s consideration; or
(d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom (First Proviso); or
(e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President (Second Proviso).
(a) that he assents to the Bill; or
(b) that he withholds assent therefrom; or
(c) that he reserves the Bill for the President’s consideration; or
(d) the Governor may, as soon as possible, return the Bill (other than a Money Bill) with a message for re-consideration by the State Legislature. But, if the Bill is again passed by the Legislature with or without amendment, the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom (First Proviso); or
(e) if in the opinion of the Governor, the Bill, if it became law, would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger its constitutional position, he shall not assent to but shall reserve it for the consideration of the President (Second Proviso).
Consider the following statements about Model Code of Conduct (MCC): - The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
- It has no statutory backing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
- The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
- It has no statutory backing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Srestha Kulkarni answered |
Model Code of Conduct (MCC)
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India to regulate the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. Let's analyze the statements provided in the question:
Statement 1: The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
This statement is correct. The MCC is enforced as soon as the election schedule is announced by the Election Commission and remains in force until the results are declared. During this period, political parties and candidates are expected to adhere to the guidelines laid out in the MCC to ensure a free and fair electoral process.
Statement 2: It has no statutory backing.
This statement is also correct. The MCC is not backed by any specific law or legislation. However, political parties and candidates are required to comply with the MCC as a voluntary code of conduct. While the MCC does not have legal enforceability, the Election Commission has the authority to take action against violations of the code.
Conclusion
In conclusion, both statements provided in the question are correct. The MCC is a crucial tool in ensuring fair elections in India, and while it lacks statutory backing, it plays a significant role in maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India to regulate the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. Let's analyze the statements provided in the question:
Statement 1: The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out.
This statement is correct. The MCC is enforced as soon as the election schedule is announced by the Election Commission and remains in force until the results are declared. During this period, political parties and candidates are expected to adhere to the guidelines laid out in the MCC to ensure a free and fair electoral process.
Statement 2: It has no statutory backing.
This statement is also correct. The MCC is not backed by any specific law or legislation. However, political parties and candidates are required to comply with the MCC as a voluntary code of conduct. While the MCC does not have legal enforceability, the Election Commission has the authority to take action against violations of the code.
Conclusion
In conclusion, both statements provided in the question are correct. The MCC is a crucial tool in ensuring fair elections in India, and while it lacks statutory backing, it plays a significant role in maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India (GSI). - The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India (GSI).
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Swara Tiwari answered |
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
- This statement is correct. GSI does indeed declare geo-heritage sites and national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
Statement 2: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- This statement is incorrect. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Mines, not the Ministry of Culture.
Statement 3: The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
- This statement is incorrect. The GSI does not have the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: Only two.
Statement 1: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
- This statement is correct. GSI does indeed declare geo-heritage sites and national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
Statement 2: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- This statement is incorrect. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Mines, not the Ministry of Culture.
Statement 3: The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
- This statement is incorrect. The GSI does not have the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B: Only two.
Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is true? - a)AMR only occurs in bacteria.
- b)Overuse of antibiotics is not a significant factor contributing to AMR.
- c)AMR poses no threat to global public health.
- d)AMR can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is true?
a)
AMR only occurs in bacteria.
b)
Overuse of antibiotics is not a significant factor contributing to AMR.
c)
AMR poses no threat to global public health.
d)
AMR can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer.
|
|
Alok Sengupta answered |
Explanation:
Development of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):
- Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer.
- Genetic mutations in bacteria can lead to changes in their DNA, allowing them to survive exposure to antibiotics.
- Horizontal gene transfer involves the transfer of resistance genes between different bacteria, further contributing to the spread of AMR.
Factors Contributing to AMR:
- Overuse and misuse of antibiotics are significant factors contributing to the development of antimicrobial resistance.
- When antibiotics are used inappropriately or unnecessarily, bacteria have a higher chance of developing resistance to them.
Global Public Health Threat:
- Antimicrobial resistance poses a severe threat to global public health.
- Resistant infections are more challenging to treat, leading to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs.
In conclusion, antimicrobial resistance is a critical issue that can arise in various types of microorganisms, not just bacteria. It is crucial to address the factors contributing to AMR and take proactive measures to prevent its further spread to safeguard public health.
Development of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR):
- Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) can develop through genetic mutations and horizontal gene transfer.
- Genetic mutations in bacteria can lead to changes in their DNA, allowing them to survive exposure to antibiotics.
- Horizontal gene transfer involves the transfer of resistance genes between different bacteria, further contributing to the spread of AMR.
Factors Contributing to AMR:
- Overuse and misuse of antibiotics are significant factors contributing to the development of antimicrobial resistance.
- When antibiotics are used inappropriately or unnecessarily, bacteria have a higher chance of developing resistance to them.
Global Public Health Threat:
- Antimicrobial resistance poses a severe threat to global public health.
- Resistant infections are more challenging to treat, leading to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs.
In conclusion, antimicrobial resistance is a critical issue that can arise in various types of microorganisms, not just bacteria. It is crucial to address the factors contributing to AMR and take proactive measures to prevent its further spread to safeguard public health.
With reference to ‘Elephant Grass’, consider the following statements: - It can be cooked to make soups and stews.
- It can be used as feed for livestock.
- It can be used in the production of biofuels.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to ‘Elephant Grass’, consider the following statements:
- It can be cooked to make soups and stews.
- It can be used as feed for livestock.
- It can be used in the production of biofuels.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Napier grass, also known as elephant grass, is a productive and versatile forage grass native to Africa and southeast Asia. Due to its high yield, it is widely used as feed for livestock and in bioenergy applications.
- Elephant grass is a multipurpose plant. The young leaves and shoots are edible by humans and can be cooked to make soups and stews (Burkill, 1985). The culms can be used to make fences, and the whole plant is used for thatch. It is considered a potential second generation energy source crop in the USA (EPA, 2013). Leaf and culm infusions are reported to have diuretic properties (Duke, 1983). Elephant grass has several environmental applications. It can be used to make mulch and to provide soil erosion control. It is a weed controller and, in Africa, it has been reported to be used as a trap plant in push-pull management strategies to fight against stem borers in maize crops (see Environmental impact below) (Khan et al., 2007).
Consider the following schemes: - Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)
- Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP)
- Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY)
- Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY)
How many of the above schemes have been merged into one scheme, namely Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit. Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY)?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following schemes:
- Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)
- Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan ( SCA to SCSP)
- Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana(BJRCY)
- Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY)
How many of the above schemes have been merged into one scheme, namely Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit. Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY)?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
Lakshmi Chavan answered |
Merger of Schemes into Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY): This scheme aimed at the integrated development of villages with a substantial population of Scheduled Castes by providing them with basic amenities and infrastructure.
- Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP): This scheme focused on providing financial assistance to Scheduled Caste families for their socio-economic development.
- Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY): This scheme aimed at providing hostel facilities to Scheduled Caste students pursuing higher education.
- Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY): This scheme aimed at promoting entrepreneurship among Scheduled Caste individuals in the field of sanitation and waste management.
- Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY): The PM-AJAY scheme is an umbrella scheme that integrates the objectives of the above-mentioned schemes to ensure holistic development and upliftment of Scheduled Caste communities.
Therefore, three out of the four schemes have been merged into the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY), combining their goals and resources to provide a more comprehensive approach towards the development of Scheduled Caste communities.
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY): This scheme aimed at the integrated development of villages with a substantial population of Scheduled Castes by providing them with basic amenities and infrastructure.
- Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP): This scheme focused on providing financial assistance to Scheduled Caste families for their socio-economic development.
- Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY): This scheme aimed at providing hostel facilities to Scheduled Caste students pursuing higher education.
- Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY): This scheme aimed at promoting entrepreneurship among Scheduled Caste individuals in the field of sanitation and waste management.
- Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY): The PM-AJAY scheme is an umbrella scheme that integrates the objectives of the above-mentioned schemes to ensure holistic development and upliftment of Scheduled Caste communities.
Therefore, three out of the four schemes have been merged into the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY), combining their goals and resources to provide a more comprehensive approach towards the development of Scheduled Caste communities.
Consider the following statements about the BhashaNet portal: - It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
- It provides an ecosystem to enable citizens to easily create, communicate, transact, process and retrieve information with ease in digital medium without language barrier.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the BhashaNet portal:
- It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
- It provides an ecosystem to enable citizens to easily create, communicate, transact, process and retrieve information with ease in digital medium without language barrier.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) have launched the BhashaNet portal during the Universal Acceptance Day event with support from the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
- It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
- Universal Acceptance (UA) is a technical requirement that ensures that all domain names, email addresses, and top-level domains (TLDs) are treated equally.
- This means that all UA domain names can be used by any internet-enabled device, application, or system, regardless of script, language, or character length.
Consider the following statements about the World Poverty Clock: - It is a digital tool that shows the number of people living in extreme poverty worldwide.
- It is created by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the World Poverty Clock:
- It is a digital tool that shows the number of people living in extreme poverty worldwide.
- It is created by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Ishaan Choudhary answered |
Understanding the World Poverty Clock
The World Poverty Clock is a significant digital tool that provides insights into global poverty levels. Let’s break down the statements to clarify their accuracy.
Statement 1: It is a digital tool that shows the number of people living in extreme poverty worldwide.
- This statement is correct.
- The World Poverty Clock continuously updates to reflect the number of people living in extreme poverty, defined as those surviving on less than $1.90 a day.
- It offers real-time data and visualizations, making it a valuable resource for understanding global poverty trends.
Statement 2: It is created by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.
- This statement is incorrect.
- The World Poverty Clock was developed by the World Data Lab, not the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
- OPHI is known for its Multidimensional Poverty Index, which measures poverty beyond income levels.
Conclusion
- Given the analysis, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
- The first statement accurately describes the World Poverty Clock, while the second does not reflect the correct organization responsible for its creation.
Key Takeaway
- The World Poverty Clock serves as an important resource for policymakers, researchers, and the public to track and address global poverty effectively.
The World Poverty Clock is a significant digital tool that provides insights into global poverty levels. Let’s break down the statements to clarify their accuracy.
Statement 1: It is a digital tool that shows the number of people living in extreme poverty worldwide.
- This statement is correct.
- The World Poverty Clock continuously updates to reflect the number of people living in extreme poverty, defined as those surviving on less than $1.90 a day.
- It offers real-time data and visualizations, making it a valuable resource for understanding global poverty trends.
Statement 2: It is created by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.
- This statement is incorrect.
- The World Poverty Clock was developed by the World Data Lab, not the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
- OPHI is known for its Multidimensional Poverty Index, which measures poverty beyond income levels.
Conclusion
- Given the analysis, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
- The first statement accurately describes the World Poverty Clock, while the second does not reflect the correct organization responsible for its creation.
Key Takeaway
- The World Poverty Clock serves as an important resource for policymakers, researchers, and the public to track and address global poverty effectively.
Consider the following statements about the SWAYAM Plus platform: - It is an initiative of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to promote online learning in India.
- SWAYAM Plus courses are exclusively for undergraduate students.
- It offers live interactive sessions with instructors and experts.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the SWAYAM Plus platform:
- It is an initiative of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to promote online learning in India.
- SWAYAM Plus courses are exclusively for undergraduate students.
- It offers live interactive sessions with instructors and experts.
How many of the above statements given is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Amar Nair answered |
Explanation:
- Statement 1: It is an initiative of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to promote online learning in India.
- This statement is incorrect. SWAYAM Plus is actually an initiative of the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to enhance the online learning experience for students.
- Statement 2: SWAYAM Plus courses are exclusively for undergraduate students.
- This statement is incorrect. SWAYAM Plus offers courses for both undergraduate and postgraduate students, as well as lifelong learners.
- Statement 3: It offers live interactive sessions with instructors and experts.
- This statement is correct. SWAYAM Plus platform provides live interactive sessions with instructors and experts to facilitate a more engaging learning experience.
Therefore, only one of the statements given is correct, which is the third statement.
The “Women, Business and the Law 2024” report is released by the - a)UN Women
- b)World Economic Forum
- c)World Trade Organization
- d)World Bank Group
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The “Women, Business and the Law 2024” report is released by the
a)
UN Women
b)
World Economic Forum
c)
World Trade Organization
d)
World Bank Group
|
Ias Masters answered |
- Context: The “Women, Business and the Law 2024” report by the World Bank Group examines laws and regulations affecting women’s economic opportunities across 190 economies.
- The report analyzes challenges hindering women’s workforce entry and economic contribution, updating the Women, Business and the Law index with new indicators like Safety and Childcare. Findings reveal a significant global gap in women’s legal rights, with potential economic growth if discriminatory laws are eliminated. India’s rank in the report improved marginally to 113 out of 190.
Consider the following statements: - The G4 nations primarily focus on economic cooperation and trade agreements within the Asia-Pacific region.
- The G4 nations are exclusively European countries seeking closer integration within the European Union.
- The G4 nations emerged as a coalition to combat climate change and promote sustainable development globally.
How many of the above statements about the G4 nations are true?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The G4 nations primarily focus on economic cooperation and trade agreements within the Asia-Pacific region.
- The G4 nations are exclusively European countries seeking closer integration within the European Union.
- The G4 nations emerged as a coalition to combat climate change and promote sustainable development globally.
How many of the above statements about the G4 nations are true?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- The G4 nations are a group composed of Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan, which aim to support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. These countries seek reform in the composition of the Security Council to reflect contemporary global power dynamics.
- S1 is incorrect because the G4 nations’ main focus is not limited to economic cooperation within the Asia-Pacific region; rather, it’s centered around UN reform.
- S2 is incorrect as the G4 nations include Brazil and India, which are not European countries.
- S3 is incorrect because while the G4 nations might have interests in combating climate change and promoting sustainable development, this is not their primary purpose as a group.
What happens to the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor when it is exposed to light? - a)The conductivity decreases.
- b)The conductivity remains unchanged.
- c)The conductivity increases.
- d)The conductivity becomes zero.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What happens to the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor when it is exposed to light?
a)
The conductivity decreases.
b)
The conductivity remains unchanged.
c)
The conductivity increases.
d)
The conductivity becomes zero.
|
Gowri Kumar answered |
Effect of Light on Semiconductor Electrical Conductivity:
When a semiconductor is exposed to light, its electrical conductivity increases. This phenomenon is known as photoconductivity and is commonly observed in materials such as silicon and germanium.
Explanation:
- Generation of Electron-Hole Pairs: When light of sufficient energy falls on a semiconductor, it can excite electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, leaving behind positively charged holes in the valence band. This process generates electron-hole pairs, which contribute to the increase in electrical conductivity.
- Enhanced Carrier Mobility: The presence of additional free electrons and holes in the semiconductor due to the generation of electron-hole pairs increases the carrier concentration and mobility. This leads to a higher conductivity of the material.
- Decreased Band Gap: The absorption of light can also reduce the band gap of the semiconductor, allowing more electrons to move from the valence band to the conduction band, further enhancing conductivity.
- Photoconductive Mode: In certain applications, semiconductors are intentionally designed to exhibit photoconductivity. These photoconductive materials are used in devices such as photodiodes and solar cells, where light exposure is necessary to enhance conductivity and facilitate electron flow.
- Applications: Photoconductivity is utilized in various technological applications, including light sensors, solar panels, and photovoltaic devices, where the ability of semiconductors to conduct electricity under light exposure is crucial for their functioning.
In conclusion, the exposure of a semiconductor to light results in an increase in electrical conductivity due to the generation of electron-hole pairs and enhanced carrier mobility, making it a key factor in the operation of many semiconductor devices.
Consider the following statements about Milankovitch cycles: - The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation.
- The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession.
- The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Milankovitch cycles:
- The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation.
- The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession.
- The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Only statement 2 is correct.
- Milankovitch cycles refer to changes in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession over long periods of time, typically thousands to hundreds of thousands of years. These cycles are instrumental in driving changes in Earth’s climate over geological time scales.
Consider the following places: - Gulmarg
- Kargil
- Nubra Valley
- Hemis
How many of the above places are situated in Ladakh?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following places:
- Gulmarg
- Kargil
- Nubra Valley
- Hemis
How many of the above places are situated in Ladakh?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
Gulmarg is located at a distance of 31 km (19 mi) from Baramulla and 49 km (30 mi) from Srinagar.
Kargil, Nubra Valley and Hemis are part of Ladakh
Kargil, Nubra Valley and Hemis are part of Ladakh
Consider the following statements. - Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
- Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
- Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
- Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Arya Chauhan answered |
Incorrect Statement Explanation:
Statement 1: Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
This statement is correct. Reservation in India is a system of affirmative action that reserves a certain percentage of seats for socially and educationally backward communities in various sectors to promote their representation.
Statement 2: Justice G. Rohini Commission's report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
This statement is incorrect. The Justice G. Rohini Commission's report is actually related to the issue of sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits among various OBC communities. It aims to provide a more nuanced approach to reservation policies by identifying and classifying OBCs into sub-categories based on their level of backwardness.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
Statement 1: Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority educational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
This statement is correct. Reservation in India is a system of affirmative action that reserves a certain percentage of seats for socially and educationally backward communities in various sectors to promote their representation.
Statement 2: Justice G. Rohini Commission's report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
This statement is incorrect. The Justice G. Rohini Commission's report is actually related to the issue of sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits among various OBC communities. It aims to provide a more nuanced approach to reservation policies by identifying and classifying OBCs into sub-categories based on their level of backwardness.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
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