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All questions of August 2024 for CLAT Exam
Which of the following is NOT a parameter used in the NIRF ranking framework?- a)Teaching, Learning, and Resources (TLR)
- b)Research and Professional Practice (RP)
- c)Cultural Inclusivity and Diversity (CID)
- d)Outreach and Inclusivity (OI)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Teaching, Learning, and Resources (TLR)
b)
Research and Professional Practice (RP)
c)
Cultural Inclusivity and Diversity (CID)
d)
Outreach and Inclusivity (OI)
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The NIRF ranking framework evaluates institutions based on parameters like Teaching, Learning, and Resources (TLR), Research and Professional Practice (RP), Graduation Outcomes (GO), Outreach and Inclusivity (OI), and Perception (PR). Cultural Inclusivity and Diversity (CID) is not among the NIRF's parameters.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed with three solid fuel stages and a liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its final stage.Statement-II:
The GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is capable of launching communication satellites up to 5 tonnes with its indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed with three solid fuel stages and a liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its final stage.
The SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed with three solid fuel stages and a liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its final stage.
Statement-II:
The GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is capable of launching communication satellites up to 5 tonnes with its indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage.
The GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is capable of launching communication satellites up to 5 tonnes with its indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Anshul Saini answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
Statement-I claims that the SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed with three solid fuel stages and a liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its final stage.
- The SSLV is indeed designed with **two solid fuel stages** and a **liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM)** as its third stage.
- Thus, Statement-I is **incorrect** because it inaccurately mentions three solid fuel stages.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II states that the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is capable of launching communication satellites up to 5 tonnes with its indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage.
- The GSLV is designed to launch satellites weighing up to **approximately 5 tonnes**, particularly into geosynchronous transfer orbit (GTO).
- It utilizes an **indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage**, which enhances its payload capacity and efficiency.
- Therefore, Statement-II is **correct**.
Conclusion
Given the evaluations:
- **Statement-I** is incorrect due to the misrepresentation of the SSLV's design.
- **Statement-II** is correct regarding the capabilities of the GSLV.
Thus, the correct answer is **option 'C'**: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Statement-I claims that the SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed with three solid fuel stages and a liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its final stage.
- The SSLV is indeed designed with **two solid fuel stages** and a **liquid fuel Velocity Trimming Module (VTM)** as its third stage.
- Thus, Statement-I is **incorrect** because it inaccurately mentions three solid fuel stages.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II states that the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) is capable of launching communication satellites up to 5 tonnes with its indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage.
- The GSLV is designed to launch satellites weighing up to **approximately 5 tonnes**, particularly into geosynchronous transfer orbit (GTO).
- It utilizes an **indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage**, which enhances its payload capacity and efficiency.
- Therefore, Statement-II is **correct**.
Conclusion
Given the evaluations:
- **Statement-I** is incorrect due to the misrepresentation of the SSLV's design.
- **Statement-II** is correct regarding the capabilities of the GSLV.
Thus, the correct answer is **option 'C'**: Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Consider the following statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:1. The Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and cannot be disclosed in any form of media.2. It defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.3. The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:
1. The Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and cannot be disclosed in any form of media.
2. It defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.
3. The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Rahul Menon answered |
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in 2012 to protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation. Here are the correct statements about the Act:
1. The Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and cannot be disclosed in any form of media.
This statement is correct. The POCSO Act strictly prohibits the disclosure of the identity of child victims of sexual offences. This is to protect the privacy and dignity of the child and prevent any further trauma or stigmatization.
2. It defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.
This statement is incorrect. The POCSO Act defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years. This means that any individual under the age of 18 is considered a child under the Act's provisions.
3. The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime.
This statement is correct. The POCSO Act places a legal obligation on individuals, including medical professionals, teachers, and others in positions of authority, to report any knowledge or suspicion of child sexual abuse. Failure to report such offences can result in criminal charges.
Therefore, the correct statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act are 1 and 3.
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in 2012 to protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation. Here are the correct statements about the Act:
1. The Act mandates that the identity of the victim must be kept confidential and cannot be disclosed in any form of media.
This statement is correct. The POCSO Act strictly prohibits the disclosure of the identity of child victims of sexual offences. This is to protect the privacy and dignity of the child and prevent any further trauma or stigmatization.
2. It defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.
This statement is incorrect. The POCSO Act defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years. This means that any individual under the age of 18 is considered a child under the Act's provisions.
3. The Act considers non-reporting of a sexual offence involving a child as a punishable crime.
This statement is correct. The POCSO Act places a legal obligation on individuals, including medical professionals, teachers, and others in positions of authority, to report any knowledge or suspicion of child sexual abuse. Failure to report such offences can result in criminal charges.
Therefore, the correct statements about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act are 1 and 3.
What is the primary objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission initiated by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying?- a)To increase meat production in indigenous bovine breeds
- b)To promote the import of exotic cattle breeds
- c)To enhance productivity of bovines and increase sustainable milk production using advanced technologies
- d)To focus on the conservation of wild buffalo population
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission initiated by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying?
a)
To increase meat production in indigenous bovine breeds
b)
To promote the import of exotic cattle breeds
c)
To enhance productivity of bovines and increase sustainable milk production using advanced technologies
d)
To focus on the conservation of wild buffalo population
|
Ashutosh Gupta answered |
The primary objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission initiated by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying is to enhance productivity of bovines and increase sustainable milk production using advanced technologies.
Explanation:
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission focuses on the conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds to improve their productivity and milk production. The mission aims to promote the use of advanced reproductive technologies like artificial insemination, embryo transfer, and genomic selection to enhance the genetic potential of indigenous cattle breeds.
- Conservation of Indigenous Breeds: The mission aims to conserve and propagate indigenous cattle breeds to prevent their decline and promote their genetic diversity.
- Enhancing Productivity: By implementing advanced breeding techniques and promoting good husbandry practices, the mission seeks to improve the productivity of indigenous bovines.
- Promoting Sustainable Milk Production: Through the use of technology and improved management practices, the mission aims to increase milk production from indigenous cattle breeds in a sustainable manner.
- Capacity Building: The mission also focuses on capacity building of farmers, herders, and other stakeholders to adopt best practices in cattle rearing and management.
In conclusion, the Rashtriya Gokul Mission plays a crucial role in promoting the conservation and development of indigenous cattle breeds, enhancing their productivity, and increasing sustainable milk production through the adoption of advanced technologies and practices.
Explanation:
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission focuses on the conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds to improve their productivity and milk production. The mission aims to promote the use of advanced reproductive technologies like artificial insemination, embryo transfer, and genomic selection to enhance the genetic potential of indigenous cattle breeds.
- Conservation of Indigenous Breeds: The mission aims to conserve and propagate indigenous cattle breeds to prevent their decline and promote their genetic diversity.
- Enhancing Productivity: By implementing advanced breeding techniques and promoting good husbandry practices, the mission seeks to improve the productivity of indigenous bovines.
- Promoting Sustainable Milk Production: Through the use of technology and improved management practices, the mission aims to increase milk production from indigenous cattle breeds in a sustainable manner.
- Capacity Building: The mission also focuses on capacity building of farmers, herders, and other stakeholders to adopt best practices in cattle rearing and management.
In conclusion, the Rashtriya Gokul Mission plays a crucial role in promoting the conservation and development of indigenous cattle breeds, enhancing their productivity, and increasing sustainable milk production through the adoption of advanced technologies and practices.
What key advantage do piezoelectric polymers have over traditional ceramic materials?- a) They are heavier and more complex to manufacture
- b) They generate electrical charges when subjected to mechanical stress
- c) They have a higher dielectric constant
- d) They require more energy to operate
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What key advantage do piezoelectric polymers have over traditional ceramic materials?
a)
They are heavier and more complex to manufacture
b)
They generate electrical charges when subjected to mechanical stress
c)
They have a higher dielectric constant
d)
They require more energy to operate
|
Janani Kulkarni answered |
Key Advantage of Piezoelectric Polymers
Piezoelectric polymers offer unique benefits compared to traditional ceramic materials, with the most significant advantage being their ability to generate electrical charges when subjected to mechanical stress.
Understanding Piezoelectricity
- Piezoelectric materials are defined by their ability to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy and vice versa.
- This property arises from the asymmetrical arrangement of molecules within the material, allowing it to generate polarization when deformed.
Advantages Over Ceramics
- **Flexibility and Lightweight**:
- Piezoelectric polymers are generally more flexible and lighter than ceramics, making them suitable for various applications where weight and flexibility are critical.
- **Ease of Fabrication**:
- The manufacturing processes for polymers can be simpler and more cost-effective compared to ceramics, which often require high-temperature sintering.
- **Temperature Stability**:
- Polymers can perform better in varying temperature conditions, whereas ceramics can be brittle and more susceptible to thermal shock.
Applications
- **Sensors and Actuators**:
- Due to their piezoelectric properties, these materials are widely used in sensors and actuators, enabling them to convert sound waves, vibrations, or mechanical movements into electrical signals.
- **Energy Harvesting**:
- They are also employed in energy harvesting devices, which convert ambient mechanical energy into usable electrical energy, thereby contributing to sustainable energy solutions.
In summary, the key advantage of piezoelectric polymers lies in their ability to generate electrical charges under mechanical stress, making them versatile and valuable in various technological applications.
Piezoelectric polymers offer unique benefits compared to traditional ceramic materials, with the most significant advantage being their ability to generate electrical charges when subjected to mechanical stress.
Understanding Piezoelectricity
- Piezoelectric materials are defined by their ability to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy and vice versa.
- This property arises from the asymmetrical arrangement of molecules within the material, allowing it to generate polarization when deformed.
Advantages Over Ceramics
- **Flexibility and Lightweight**:
- Piezoelectric polymers are generally more flexible and lighter than ceramics, making them suitable for various applications where weight and flexibility are critical.
- **Ease of Fabrication**:
- The manufacturing processes for polymers can be simpler and more cost-effective compared to ceramics, which often require high-temperature sintering.
- **Temperature Stability**:
- Polymers can perform better in varying temperature conditions, whereas ceramics can be brittle and more susceptible to thermal shock.
Applications
- **Sensors and Actuators**:
- Due to their piezoelectric properties, these materials are widely used in sensors and actuators, enabling them to convert sound waves, vibrations, or mechanical movements into electrical signals.
- **Energy Harvesting**:
- They are also employed in energy harvesting devices, which convert ambient mechanical energy into usable electrical energy, thereby contributing to sustainable energy solutions.
In summary, the key advantage of piezoelectric polymers lies in their ability to generate electrical charges under mechanical stress, making them versatile and valuable in various technological applications.
Consider the following pairs:1. Economic Vulnerability: Factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency.2. Environmental Vulnerability: Includes access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality.3. Social Vulnerability: Considers exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss.4. Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI): Recently launched by the UN General Assembly.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Economic Vulnerability: Factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency.
2. Environmental Vulnerability: Includes access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality.
3. Social Vulnerability: Considers exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss.
4. Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI): Recently launched by the UN General Assembly.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Aravind Menon answered |
Analysis:
Economic Vulnerability:
- Factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency are correctly associated with economic vulnerability.
Environmental Vulnerability:
- Access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality are not directly related to environmental vulnerability. This pair is incorrectly matched.
Social Vulnerability:
- Exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss are key components of social vulnerability.
Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI):
- The MVI, recently launched by the UN General Assembly, is a comprehensive tool that considers various dimensions of vulnerability, making it a relevant inclusion in this list.
Therefore, out of the four pairs provided, only two pairs are correctly matched. Economic vulnerability and social vulnerability are accurately defined, while environmental vulnerability is linked to incorrect factors. The Multidimensional Vulnerability Index is a distinct concept that adds value to the discussion on vulnerability assessment.
Economic Vulnerability:
- Factors like GDP per capita, debt levels, and trade dependency are correctly associated with economic vulnerability.
Environmental Vulnerability:
- Access to healthcare, education levels, and income inequality are not directly related to environmental vulnerability. This pair is incorrectly matched.
Social Vulnerability:
- Exposure to natural disasters, climate change impacts, and biodiversity loss are key components of social vulnerability.
Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI):
- The MVI, recently launched by the UN General Assembly, is a comprehensive tool that considers various dimensions of vulnerability, making it a relevant inclusion in this list.
Therefore, out of the four pairs provided, only two pairs are correctly matched. Economic vulnerability and social vulnerability are accurately defined, while environmental vulnerability is linked to incorrect factors. The Multidimensional Vulnerability Index is a distinct concept that adds value to the discussion on vulnerability assessment.
What is the primary objective of the Ramsar Convention?- a) To promote tourism in wetland areas
- b) To conserve and sustainably manage wetlands
- c) To exploit wetlands for economic gain
- d) To urbanize wetland regions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Ramsar Convention?
a)
To promote tourism in wetland areas
b)
To conserve and sustainably manage wetlands
c)
To exploit wetlands for economic gain
d)
To urbanize wetland regions
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
The main aim of the Ramsar Convention is to conserve and sustainably manage wetlands, recognizing their critical ecological, economic, and cultural significance. This international treaty encourages countries to protect and responsibly utilize wetland ecosystems to ensure their long-term viability.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano:1. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.2. The volcano is located in the Arusha Region of Kenya.3. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai has a high silica content, typically above 45%.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano:
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
2. The volcano is located in the Arusha Region of Kenya.
3. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai has a high silica content, typically above 45%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
- This statement is correct. Ol Doinyo Lengai is unique for its active eruptions of carbonatite magma, which is highly fluid and contains high concentrations of calcium and sodium but low in silica.
2. The volcano is located in the Arusha Region of Kenya.
- This statement is incorrect. Ol Doinyo Lengai is located in the Arusha Region of Tanzania, not Kenya.
3. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai has a high silica content, typically above 45%.
- This statement is incorrect. The carbonatite magma of Ol Doinyo Lengai is noted for its low silica content, typically less than 25%, which is much lower than the 45-70% silica content found in most other terrestrial magmas.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
The solar cycle of the Sun is characterized by:- a)A consistent number of sunspots throughout the cycle
- b)The Sun’s magnetic field switching direction every 22 years
- c)An 11-year period in which the Sun’s magnetic field changes direction
- d)A decline in solar activity leading to fewer solar flares
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
A consistent number of sunspots throughout the cycle
b)
The Sun’s magnetic field switching direction every 22 years
c)
An 11-year period in which the Sun’s magnetic field changes direction
d)
A decline in solar activity leading to fewer solar flares
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The solar cycle is an approximately 11-year cycle during which the Sun’s magnetic field reverses its polarity. This cycle impacts solar surface activity, including sunspots and solar flares. The peak of the solar cycle, known as solar maximum, is characterized by the highest number of sunspots.
Consider the following statements regarding Lateral Entry in Civil Services:1. Lateral entry allows the recruitment of specialists from the private sector into government organizations.2. The selection process for lateral entry is conducted by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).3. Lateral entry was recommended by the NITI Aayog and the Group of Secretaries on Governance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 3 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Lateral Entry in Civil Services:
1. Lateral entry allows the recruitment of specialists from the private sector into government organizations.
2. The selection process for lateral entry is conducted by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
3. Lateral entry was recommended by the NITI Aayog and the Group of Secretaries on Governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 3 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Ias Masters answered |
Statement 1 is correct. Lateral entry indeed allows the recruitment of specialists from the private sector into government organizations to bring in domain expertise and address the shortage of IAS officers.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The selection process for lateral entry is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), not the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT). The DoPT requests the UPSC to conduct the selection process.
Statement 3 is correct. Lateral entry was recommended by both the NITI Aayog in its Three-year Action Agenda and the Group of Secretaries (GoS) on Governance.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option B the right answer.
Consider the following pairs:1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methodsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect
2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani
3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini
4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Maya Chavan answered |
Correctly Matched Pairs:
1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect
- Satguru Ram Singh is indeed the founder of the Namdhari sect, a Sikh religious group that follows his teachings.
2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani
- Kook refers to the quiet recitation of Gurbani, which is a common practice among Sikhs to meditate on the divine words.
3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini
- Eri silk is indeed obtained from the Philosamia ricini, a type of silkworm that produces this unique and luxurious silk.
Incorrectly Matched Pair:
4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods
- The Oeko-Tex certification is not specifically related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods. Rather, it is a certification that ensures textiles and fabrics are tested for harmful substances and are safe for human use.
Therefore, out of the four pairs given, only three are correctly matched, while one is incorrect.
1. Satguru Ram Singh - Founder of Namdhari sect
- Satguru Ram Singh is indeed the founder of the Namdhari sect, a Sikh religious group that follows his teachings.
2. Kook - Quiet recitation of Gurbani
- Kook refers to the quiet recitation of Gurbani, which is a common practice among Sikhs to meditate on the divine words.
3. Eri Silk - Obtained from Philosamia ricini
- Eri silk is indeed obtained from the Philosamia ricini, a type of silkworm that produces this unique and luxurious silk.
Incorrectly Matched Pair:
4. Oeko-Tex Certification - Related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods
- The Oeko-Tex certification is not specifically related to harmful substances and eco-friendly production methods. Rather, it is a certification that ensures textiles and fabrics are tested for harmful substances and are safe for human use.
Therefore, out of the four pairs given, only three are correctly matched, while one is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India to enhance the safety and security of women in India.
Statement-II: The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund managed by the Ministry of Finance.
Statement-III: The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals to be funded under the Nirbhaya Fund.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements?- a)Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I.
- c)Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
- d)Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India to enhance the safety and security of women in India.
Statement-II: The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund managed by the Ministry of Finance.
Statement-III: The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals to be funded under the Nirbhaya Fund.
Statement-I: The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India to enhance the safety and security of women in India.
Statement-II: The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund managed by the Ministry of Finance.
Statement-III: The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals to be funded under the Nirbhaya Fund.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements?
a)
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I.
c)
Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
d)
Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.
|
|
Poulomi Menon answered |
Overview of Nirbhaya Fund
The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India in response to the growing concerns regarding the safety and security of women. It aims to support initiatives aimed at improving women's safety.
Analysis of Statements
- Statement-I: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund was indeed established with the primary goal of enhancing women's safety in India.
- Statement-II: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund, meaning that the allocated amount does not expire at the end of the financial year. It is managed by the Ministry of Finance.
- Statement-III: *Correct*
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals for funding under the Nirbhaya Fund, ensuring that projects align with the fund's objectives.
Correct Answer Explanation
Since all three statements are correct, the best choice among the provided options is:
- Option A: Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both explain Statement-I.
This is accurate because both statements provide essential details about the functioning of the Nirbhaya Fund, thus supporting the overarching goal stated in Statement-I.
Conclusion
In summary, the Nirbhaya Fund serves as a critical initiative in promoting women's safety, managed effectively by relevant ministries to ensure its objectives are met comprehensively.
The Nirbhaya Fund was established by the Government of India in response to the growing concerns regarding the safety and security of women. It aims to support initiatives aimed at improving women's safety.
Analysis of Statements
- Statement-I: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund was indeed established with the primary goal of enhancing women's safety in India.
- Statement-II: *Correct*
The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund, meaning that the allocated amount does not expire at the end of the financial year. It is managed by the Ministry of Finance.
- Statement-III: *Correct*
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is responsible for appraising and recommending proposals for funding under the Nirbhaya Fund, ensuring that projects align with the fund's objectives.
Correct Answer Explanation
Since all three statements are correct, the best choice among the provided options is:
- Option A: Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both explain Statement-I.
This is accurate because both statements provide essential details about the functioning of the Nirbhaya Fund, thus supporting the overarching goal stated in Statement-I.
Conclusion
In summary, the Nirbhaya Fund serves as a critical initiative in promoting women's safety, managed effectively by relevant ministries to ensure its objectives are met comprehensively.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.
Statement-II:
Brahmani River is created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to the industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explain Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- c)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explains Statement-I
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.
Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.
Statement-II:
Brahmani River is created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to the industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Brahmani River is created by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers close to the industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explain Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
c)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explains Statement-I
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Keerthana Sen answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I:
- Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which are a type of glial cells found in the brain.
- Astrocytes provide support and nourishment to nerve cells in the brain.
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct.
Statement-II:
- Brahmani River is a major river in Odisha, India.
- It is formed by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near Rourkela, an industrial town in Odisha.
- Statement-II accurately describes the origin of the Brahmani River.
- Therefore, Statement-II is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Statement-I:
- Glioblastoma is a type of cancer that originates from astrocytes, which are a type of glial cells found in the brain.
- Astrocytes provide support and nourishment to nerve cells in the brain.
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct.
Statement-II:
- Brahmani River is a major river in Odisha, India.
- It is formed by the merging of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near Rourkela, an industrial town in Odisha.
- Statement-II accurately describes the origin of the Brahmani River.
- Therefore, Statement-II is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:Statement I: Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed due to the Earth's heat and are similar to cumulonimbus clouds but are created by fire from extensive wildfires or volcanic activities.Statement II: Cumulonimbus clouds are characterized by their ability to produce hail, thunder, and lightning, and can reach vertical heights from 3 kilometers to occasionally over 15 kilometers.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
- b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
- c)Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
- d)Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are formed due to the Earth's heat and are similar to cumulonimbus clouds but are created by fire from extensive wildfires or volcanic activities.
Statement II: Cumulonimbus clouds are characterized by their ability to produce hail, thunder, and lightning, and can reach vertical heights from 3 kilometers to occasionally over 15 kilometers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
b)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
c)
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
d)
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
Explanation:
- Statement I correctly describes pyrocumulonimbus clouds, which are formed due to the heat generated by fires from large wildfires or volcanic eruptions. These clouds are darker due to the presence of smoke and ash.
- Statement II accurately describes cumulonimbus clouds, which are known for producing hail, thunder, and lightning. They can reach significant vertical heights, ranging from 3 kilometers to occasionally over 15 kilometers.
- Both statements are correct, and Statement II provides additional information about the characteristics of cumulonimbus clouds, which are relevant in understanding the differences and similarities between pyrocumulonimbus and cumulonimbus clouds.
What is the main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap (OIS)?- a)To exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment for a known daily reference rate
- b)To speculate on future interest rate movements
- c)To facilitate currency exchange transactions
- d)To manage credit risk
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap (OIS)?
a)
To exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment for a known daily reference rate
b)
To speculate on future interest rate movements
c)
To facilitate currency exchange transactions
d)
To manage credit risk
|
|
Abhijeet Gupta answered |
The main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap (OIS) is to exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment for a known daily reference rate. This financial instrument is commonly used by institutions to manage their interest rate risk. Let's break down the main purpose of an Overnight Index Swap:
- Exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment: One party in an OIS agrees to pay a fixed interest rate on a notional amount while the other party agrees to pay the floating overnight rate determined by an index, such as the Federal Funds Rate. This allows one party to exchange the fixed-rate investment's returns for the known daily reference rate.
- Manage interest rate risk: By entering into an OIS, institutions can effectively hedge against fluctuations in interest rates. If interest rates rise, the party receiving the fixed rate will benefit, while the party paying the fixed rate will be protected from losses.
- Reduce funding costs: OIS can also be used to reduce funding costs for institutions by providing a cost-effective way to borrow or lend money overnight. This can help institutions optimize their balance sheets and improve their overall financial performance.
Overall, the main purpose of an OIS is to provide a way for institutions to manage their interest rate risk, exchange profits from fixed-rate investments for a known daily reference rate, and optimize their funding costs.
- Exchange profits from a fixed-rate investment: One party in an OIS agrees to pay a fixed interest rate on a notional amount while the other party agrees to pay the floating overnight rate determined by an index, such as the Federal Funds Rate. This allows one party to exchange the fixed-rate investment's returns for the known daily reference rate.
- Manage interest rate risk: By entering into an OIS, institutions can effectively hedge against fluctuations in interest rates. If interest rates rise, the party receiving the fixed rate will benefit, while the party paying the fixed rate will be protected from losses.
- Reduce funding costs: OIS can also be used to reduce funding costs for institutions by providing a cost-effective way to borrow or lend money overnight. This can help institutions optimize their balance sheets and improve their overall financial performance.
Overall, the main purpose of an OIS is to provide a way for institutions to manage their interest rate risk, exchange profits from fixed-rate investments for a known daily reference rate, and optimize their funding costs.
Why has Mpox been declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern by the World Health Organization recently?- a)Due to its rapid transmission through respiratory droplets
- b)Because of the lack of effective treatment options available
- c)Owing to the potential for widespread impact and the emergence of new strains
- d)Because Mpox is primarily transmitted through contaminated water sources
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Why has Mpox been declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern by the World Health Organization recently?
a)
Due to its rapid transmission through respiratory droplets
b)
Because of the lack of effective treatment options available
c)
Owing to the potential for widespread impact and the emergence of new strains
d)
Because Mpox is primarily transmitted through contaminated water sources
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Mpox was declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern due to its potential for widespread impact and the emergence of new strains like clade 1b, which have spread beyond the typical endemic regions. This declaration highlights the urgency for a coordinated global response to tackle the disease effectively.
What notable feature distinguishes INS Arihant and INS Arighaat from conventional submarines?- a) They have a larger crew capacity
- b) They are capable of carrying nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles
- c) They operate exclusively in shallow waters
- d) They are designed for surface combat
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What notable feature distinguishes INS Arihant and INS Arighaat from conventional submarines?
a)
They have a larger crew capacity
b)
They are capable of carrying nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles
c)
They operate exclusively in shallow waters
d)
They are designed for surface combat
|
|
Partho Unni answered |
Key Difference:
INS Arihant and INS Arighaat are distinguished from conventional submarines by their capability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles.
Nuclear-Tipped Ballistic Missiles:
- INS Arihant and INS Arighaat are nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines, equipped with ballistic missiles that have nuclear warheads.
- These submarines are designed to provide a second-strike capability in case of a nuclear attack, enhancing India's nuclear deterrence strategy.
Significance:
- The ability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles gives these submarines a crucial role in India's nuclear triad, which consists of land, air, and sea-based nuclear delivery platforms.
- This capability enhances India's strategic deterrence by ensuring a credible and survivable second-strike capability.
Operational Advantage:
- INS Arihant and INS Arighaat have the advantage of operating stealthily underwater, making them difficult to detect and track.
- Their nuclear-powered propulsion systems enable them to remain submerged for longer durations, enhancing their operational flexibility and survivability.
Conclusion:
- In conclusion, the notable feature that distinguishes INS Arihant and INS Arighaat from conventional submarines is their capability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles, which plays a crucial role in India's nuclear deterrence strategy.
INS Arihant and INS Arighaat are distinguished from conventional submarines by their capability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles.
Nuclear-Tipped Ballistic Missiles:
- INS Arihant and INS Arighaat are nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines, equipped with ballistic missiles that have nuclear warheads.
- These submarines are designed to provide a second-strike capability in case of a nuclear attack, enhancing India's nuclear deterrence strategy.
Significance:
- The ability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles gives these submarines a crucial role in India's nuclear triad, which consists of land, air, and sea-based nuclear delivery platforms.
- This capability enhances India's strategic deterrence by ensuring a credible and survivable second-strike capability.
Operational Advantage:
- INS Arihant and INS Arighaat have the advantage of operating stealthily underwater, making them difficult to detect and track.
- Their nuclear-powered propulsion systems enable them to remain submerged for longer durations, enhancing their operational flexibility and survivability.
Conclusion:
- In conclusion, the notable feature that distinguishes INS Arihant and INS Arighaat from conventional submarines is their capability to carry nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles, which plays a crucial role in India's nuclear deterrence strategy.
What legal process in India permanently separates a child from their biological parents, making them the lawful child of the adoptive parents?- a) Guardianship
- b) Fostering
- c) Surrogacy
- d) Adoption
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What legal process in India permanently separates a child from their biological parents, making them the lawful child of the adoptive parents?
a)
Guardianship
b)
Fostering
c)
Surrogacy
d)
Adoption
|
|
Bhaskar Mehta answered |
Understanding Adoption in India
Adoption is a legal process that permanently separates a child from their biological parents, transferring all parental rights and responsibilities to the adoptive parents. This process is governed by specific laws in India, primarily the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
Key Features of Adoption
- **Permanent Separation**: Adoption results in a permanent severance of the legal ties between the child and their biological parents. The child becomes a legal member of the adoptive family.
- **Legal Rights**: Once adopted, the child has all the legal rights of a biological child, including inheritance rights.
- **Process Involved**: The adoption process typically involves:
- **Homestudy**: A thorough assessment of the adoptive parents' suitability.
- **Court Approval**: The adoption must be finalized through a court to ensure that the best interests of the child are met.
- **Eligibility**: Both single individuals and married couples can adopt, subject to certain conditions laid down in the Indian laws.
Distinction from Other Processes
- **Guardianship**: Unlike adoption, guardianship allows for legal responsibility without severing ties with biological parents.
- **Fostering**: Fostering involves temporary care for a child, maintaining the biological family's legal rights.
- **Surrogacy**: Surrogacy pertains to bearing a child for another couple and does not involve the same legal implications of parental rights as adoption.
Conclusion
Adoption is a significant and transformative process that legally integrates a child into a new family, ensuring they receive the love, care, and legal protection they deserve.
Adoption is a legal process that permanently separates a child from their biological parents, transferring all parental rights and responsibilities to the adoptive parents. This process is governed by specific laws in India, primarily the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
Key Features of Adoption
- **Permanent Separation**: Adoption results in a permanent severance of the legal ties between the child and their biological parents. The child becomes a legal member of the adoptive family.
- **Legal Rights**: Once adopted, the child has all the legal rights of a biological child, including inheritance rights.
- **Process Involved**: The adoption process typically involves:
- **Homestudy**: A thorough assessment of the adoptive parents' suitability.
- **Court Approval**: The adoption must be finalized through a court to ensure that the best interests of the child are met.
- **Eligibility**: Both single individuals and married couples can adopt, subject to certain conditions laid down in the Indian laws.
Distinction from Other Processes
- **Guardianship**: Unlike adoption, guardianship allows for legal responsibility without severing ties with biological parents.
- **Fostering**: Fostering involves temporary care for a child, maintaining the biological family's legal rights.
- **Surrogacy**: Surrogacy pertains to bearing a child for another couple and does not involve the same legal implications of parental rights as adoption.
Conclusion
Adoption is a significant and transformative process that legally integrates a child into a new family, ensuring they receive the love, care, and legal protection they deserve.
What environmental challenges are posed by lithium mining?- a) Depletion of Water Resources
- b) Soil and Air Pollution
- c) Deforestation and Habitat Loss
- d) Noise Pollution and Light Pollution
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What environmental challenges are posed by lithium mining?
a)
Depletion of Water Resources
b)
Soil and Air Pollution
c)
Deforestation and Habitat Loss
d)
Noise Pollution and Light Pollution
|
|
Sushil Kumar answered |
Lithium mining poses challenges such as the depletion of water resources, soil and water contamination, and increased carbon emissions. One significant issue is the high demand for water in the extraction process, leading to the depletion of water sources, especially in arid regions. This can have adverse effects on local communities and ecosystems.
What is the purpose of the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention enforced by the International Maritime Organization (IMO)?- a)To regulate fishing practices in international waters
- b)To prevent the spread of harmful aquatic organisms through ships' ballast water
- c)To promote sustainable tourism in coastal regions
- d)To standardize maritime navigation protocols globally
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the purpose of the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention enforced by the International Maritime Organization (IMO)?
a)
To regulate fishing practices in international waters
b)
To prevent the spread of harmful aquatic organisms through ships' ballast water
c)
To promote sustainable tourism in coastal regions
d)
To standardize maritime navigation protocols globally
|
|
Arjun Verma answered |
Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention Purpose:
The purpose of the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention enforced by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) is to prevent the spread of harmful aquatic organisms through ships' ballast water.
Explanation:
Preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms:
- Ships use ballast water to maintain stability and trim during voyages. However, this water can contain a variety of aquatic organisms, including bacteria, microbes, small invertebrates, eggs, and larvae.
- When ships discharge this ballast water in a new location, these organisms can be released into local ecosystems, leading to the introduction of invasive species that can have devastating ecological and economic impacts.
Importance of the BWM Convention:
- The BWM Convention sets out regulations and standards for the management of ballast water to minimize the risk of introducing invasive species.
- It requires ships to have Ballast Water Management Plans, install ballast water treatment systems, and follow specific procedures for ballast water exchange to reduce the number of organisms being transported.
Global Impact:
- The enforcement of the BWM Convention helps in protecting marine biodiversity, habitats, and ecosystems around the world.
- By preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms, the Convention contributes to the sustainable use of marine resources and supports the overall health of marine environments.
In conclusion, the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention plays a crucial role in addressing the environmental risks associated with the transfer of aquatic organisms through ballast water, ultimately aiming to protect marine ecosystems and biodiversity on a global scale.
The purpose of the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention enforced by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) is to prevent the spread of harmful aquatic organisms through ships' ballast water.
Explanation:
Preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms:
- Ships use ballast water to maintain stability and trim during voyages. However, this water can contain a variety of aquatic organisms, including bacteria, microbes, small invertebrates, eggs, and larvae.
- When ships discharge this ballast water in a new location, these organisms can be released into local ecosystems, leading to the introduction of invasive species that can have devastating ecological and economic impacts.
Importance of the BWM Convention:
- The BWM Convention sets out regulations and standards for the management of ballast water to minimize the risk of introducing invasive species.
- It requires ships to have Ballast Water Management Plans, install ballast water treatment systems, and follow specific procedures for ballast water exchange to reduce the number of organisms being transported.
Global Impact:
- The enforcement of the BWM Convention helps in protecting marine biodiversity, habitats, and ecosystems around the world.
- By preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms, the Convention contributes to the sustainable use of marine resources and supports the overall health of marine environments.
In conclusion, the Ballast Water Management (BWM) Convention plays a crucial role in addressing the environmental risks associated with the transfer of aquatic organisms through ballast water, ultimately aiming to protect marine ecosystems and biodiversity on a global scale.
Consider the following pairs related to Candida auris (C. auris) and Neutron Stars:1. Candida auris was first discovered in: Japan2. Common symptoms of Candida auris include: Persistent fever and chills3. Neutron stars can only exist alone: Incorrect4. Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields: CorrectHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to Candida auris (C. auris) and Neutron Stars:
1. Candida auris was first discovered in: Japan
2. Common symptoms of Candida auris include: Persistent fever and chills
3. Neutron stars can only exist alone: Incorrect
4. Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields: Correct
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Devanshi Chavan answered |
Correctly Matched Pairs:
1. Candida auris was first discovered in: Japan
- This is a correct match as Candida auris was first discovered in Japan in 2009.
2. Common symptoms of Candida auris include: Persistent fever and chills
- This is a correct match as persistent fever and chills are common symptoms of Candida auris infection.
3. Neutron stars can only exist alone: Incorrect
- This is a correct match as neutron stars can exist in binary systems with other stars.
Incorrectly Matched Pair:
4. Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields: Correct
- This is an incorrect match as magnetars are a specific type of neutron star known for their extremely strong magnetic fields, not all neutron stars have such powerful magnetic fields.
Therefore, out of the four pairs given, three are correctly matched and one is incorrectly matched. The correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs.
1. Candida auris was first discovered in: Japan
- This is a correct match as Candida auris was first discovered in Japan in 2009.
2. Common symptoms of Candida auris include: Persistent fever and chills
- This is a correct match as persistent fever and chills are common symptoms of Candida auris infection.
3. Neutron stars can only exist alone: Incorrect
- This is a correct match as neutron stars can exist in binary systems with other stars.
Incorrectly Matched Pair:
4. Magnetars are neutron stars with immensely powerful magnetic fields: Correct
- This is an incorrect match as magnetars are a specific type of neutron star known for their extremely strong magnetic fields, not all neutron stars have such powerful magnetic fields.
Therefore, out of the four pairs given, three are correctly matched and one is incorrectly matched. The correct answer is option 'C' - Only three pairs.
Consider the following pairs:1. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh2. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve - Jharkhand3. Palamau Tiger Reserve - Madhya Pradesh4. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve - ChhattisgarhHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
2. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve - Jharkhand
3. Palamau Tiger Reserve - Madhya Pradesh
4. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve - Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
1. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is correctly matched with Chhattisgarh.
2. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is incorrectly matched; it is in Madhya Pradesh, not Jharkhand.
3. Palamau Tiger Reserve is incorrectly matched; it is in Jharkhand, not Madhya Pradesh.
4. Achanakmar Tiger Reserve is correctly matched with Chhattisgarh.
So, only pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.
Which of the following challenges does the Panama Canal face due to climate change?- a)Rising sea levels flooding the canal
- b)Decreased freshwater availability from Lake Gatun
- c)Increased salinity of the canal waters
- d)Expansion of the canal due to temperature rise
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Rising sea levels flooding the canal
b)
Decreased freshwater availability from Lake Gatun
c)
Increased salinity of the canal waters
d)
Expansion of the canal due to temperature rise
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
One of the major challenges posed by climate change to the Panama Canal is the reduced availability of freshwater from Lake Gatun, an essential component for the canal's lock operations. Droughts, particularly those driven by phenomena like El Niño, have significantly lowered water levels, threatening the canal's functionality and the global trade it supports.
Consider the following statements regarding Tantalum:1. Tantalum is primarily used in the electronics industry due to its ability to store more electricity in smaller sizes with minimal leakage.2. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria.3. Tantalum is highly reactive with bodily fluids, making it unsuitable for medical implants.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Tantalum:
1. Tantalum is primarily used in the electronics industry due to its ability to store more electricity in smaller sizes with minimal leakage.
2. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria.
3. Tantalum is highly reactive with bodily fluids, making it unsuitable for medical implants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Shanaya Bajaj answered |
1. Tantalum in the Electronics Industry
- Statement 1 is correct. Tantalum is widely used in the electronics industry for manufacturing capacitors. This is because Tantalum has a high capacitance per volume, allowing for the storage of more electricity in smaller sizes. Additionally, Tantalum capacitors have low leakage currents, making them ideal for use in electronic devices.
2. Primary Producers of Tantalum
- Statement 2 is correct. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria. These countries have rich reserves of Tantalum ore, making them key players in the global Tantalum market.
3. Reactivity of Tantalum with Bodily Fluids
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Tantalum is actually biocompatible and non-reactive with bodily fluids, making it suitable for use in medical implants such as bone screws, plates, and joint replacements. Its inertness and ability to integrate well with human tissue make it a valuable material for medical applications.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 Only.
- Statement 1 is correct. Tantalum is widely used in the electronics industry for manufacturing capacitors. This is because Tantalum has a high capacitance per volume, allowing for the storage of more electricity in smaller sizes. Additionally, Tantalum capacitors have low leakage currents, making them ideal for use in electronic devices.
2. Primary Producers of Tantalum
- Statement 2 is correct. The primary producers of Tantalum are the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria. These countries have rich reserves of Tantalum ore, making them key players in the global Tantalum market.
3. Reactivity of Tantalum with Bodily Fluids
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Tantalum is actually biocompatible and non-reactive with bodily fluids, making it suitable for use in medical implants such as bone screws, plates, and joint replacements. Its inertness and ability to integrate well with human tissue make it a valuable material for medical applications.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 Only.
What is the AUKUS security agreement primarily focused on?- a)Building nuclear power plants in Australia
- b)Delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia
- c)Sharing nuclear weapons technology
- d)Conducting joint military exercises in the Pacific
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Building nuclear power plants in Australia
b)
Delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia
c)
Sharing nuclear weapons technology
d)
Conducting joint military exercises in the Pacific
|
Sarika choudhary answered |
Focus of AUKUS Security Agreement:
The AUKUS security agreement is primarily focused on delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia.
Details:
- The agreement, formed between the United States, the United Kingdom, and Australia, aims to enhance their mutual security cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
- One of the key aspects of this agreement is the provision of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia, which will significantly strengthen its defense capabilities in the region.
- The submarines are expected to be more advanced and capable than conventionally powered submarines, providing Australia with a greater strategic advantage.
- This move is seen as a response to the growing influence and assertiveness of China in the Indo-Pacific, as it will help to counterbalance China's military presence in the region.
- The AUKUS agreement also includes cooperation in areas such as cyber security, artificial intelligence, and quantum technologies, further enhancing the security capabilities of the member countries.
- The agreement underscores a deepening of security ties among the three nations and reflects their shared commitment to promoting peace and stability in the region.
In conclusion, the AUKUS security agreement is primarily focused on delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia, with the aim of bolstering its defense capabilities and enhancing security cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
The AUKUS security agreement is primarily focused on delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia.
Details:
- The agreement, formed between the United States, the United Kingdom, and Australia, aims to enhance their mutual security cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
- One of the key aspects of this agreement is the provision of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia, which will significantly strengthen its defense capabilities in the region.
- The submarines are expected to be more advanced and capable than conventionally powered submarines, providing Australia with a greater strategic advantage.
- This move is seen as a response to the growing influence and assertiveness of China in the Indo-Pacific, as it will help to counterbalance China's military presence in the region.
- The AUKUS agreement also includes cooperation in areas such as cyber security, artificial intelligence, and quantum technologies, further enhancing the security capabilities of the member countries.
- The agreement underscores a deepening of security ties among the three nations and reflects their shared commitment to promoting peace and stability in the region.
In conclusion, the AUKUS security agreement is primarily focused on delivering a fleet of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia, with the aim of bolstering its defense capabilities and enhancing security cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana aims to provide how many units of free electricity per month?- a)100 units
- b)200 units
- c)300 units
- d)500 units
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
100 units
b)
200 units
c)
300 units
d)
500 units
|
|
Ashwini nayar answered |
Overview of PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government initiative aimed at providing relief to households by offering free electricity. This scheme is particularly significant for low-income families, ensuring they have access to essential electricity without financial burden.
Units of Free Electricity
The scheme offers 300 units of free electricity per month to eligible households. This provision is designed to cover the basic electricity needs of families, helping them save on utility bills.
Key Features of the Scheme
- Target Audience: The initiative primarily focuses on low-income households, ensuring energy equity.
- Financial Relief: By providing 300 units free, the program helps families manage their budgets better, allowing them to allocate funds to other essential needs.
- Encouragement for Energy Usage: The scheme promotes the responsible use of electricity among beneficiaries, as they can utilize the free units without the fear of incurring high costs.
Eligibility Criteria
To benefit from the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, households must meet specific criteria, which usually include:
- Being classified under the economically weaker sections.
- Having a valid electricity connection registered in their name.
Conclusion
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a commendable effort by the government to promote energy access and provide financial relief to low-income families. By offering 300 units of free electricity per month, it aims to improve the quality of life for many and enhance energy sustainability in the community.
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government initiative aimed at providing relief to households by offering free electricity. This scheme is particularly significant for low-income families, ensuring they have access to essential electricity without financial burden.
Units of Free Electricity
The scheme offers 300 units of free electricity per month to eligible households. This provision is designed to cover the basic electricity needs of families, helping them save on utility bills.
Key Features of the Scheme
- Target Audience: The initiative primarily focuses on low-income households, ensuring energy equity.
- Financial Relief: By providing 300 units free, the program helps families manage their budgets better, allowing them to allocate funds to other essential needs.
- Encouragement for Energy Usage: The scheme promotes the responsible use of electricity among beneficiaries, as they can utilize the free units without the fear of incurring high costs.
Eligibility Criteria
To benefit from the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, households must meet specific criteria, which usually include:
- Being classified under the economically weaker sections.
- Having a valid electricity connection registered in their name.
Conclusion
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a commendable effort by the government to promote energy access and provide financial relief to low-income families. By offering 300 units of free electricity per month, it aims to improve the quality of life for many and enhance energy sustainability in the community.
Consider the following statements:1. India is positioning itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict.2. The conflict in Ukraine has necessitated a reevaluation of India's engagement with European security.3. India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is not influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. India is positioning itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict.
2. The conflict in Ukraine has necessitated a reevaluation of India's engagement with European security.
3. India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is not influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Priya Sengupta answered |
Explanation:
India's Role in the Ukrainian Conflict
India has indeed positioned itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict. Recently, India expressed its willingness to play a role in resolving the crisis through peaceful means. This move showcases India's commitment to promoting peace and stability in the region.
Reevaluation of India's Engagement with European Security
The conflict in Ukraine has prompted India to reevaluate its engagement with European security. Given the escalating tensions in the region, India has recognized the importance of enhancing its cooperation with European countries to address common security challenges. This reevaluation reflects India's proactive approach towards global security issues.
India's Balance in Relations with Russia and the West
Contrary to the third statement, India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is indeed influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia. India has maintained longstanding defense and energy partnerships with Russia, which continue to shape its foreign policy decisions. However, India also values its strategic partnerships with Western countries and strives to maintain a delicate balance between the two sides.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately reflect India's stance on the Ukrainian conflict and its reevaluation of engagement with European security. Statement 3, on the other hand, is incorrect as India's relations with Russia and the West are influenced by historical ties with Russia.
India's Role in the Ukrainian Conflict
India has indeed positioned itself as a mediator in the Ukrainian conflict. Recently, India expressed its willingness to play a role in resolving the crisis through peaceful means. This move showcases India's commitment to promoting peace and stability in the region.
Reevaluation of India's Engagement with European Security
The conflict in Ukraine has prompted India to reevaluate its engagement with European security. Given the escalating tensions in the region, India has recognized the importance of enhancing its cooperation with European countries to address common security challenges. This reevaluation reflects India's proactive approach towards global security issues.
India's Balance in Relations with Russia and the West
Contrary to the third statement, India's balance in relations with Russia and the West is indeed influenced by historical defense and energy ties with Russia. India has maintained longstanding defense and energy partnerships with Russia, which continue to shape its foreign policy decisions. However, India also values its strategic partnerships with Western countries and strives to maintain a delicate balance between the two sides.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately reflect India's stance on the Ukrainian conflict and its reevaluation of engagement with European security. Statement 3, on the other hand, is incorrect as India's relations with Russia and the West are influenced by historical ties with Russia.
Consider the following pairs:1. Syncytins - Genes crucial for placental development2. MERVL-gag - Transition crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells3. Integrase - Enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription4. ERVs - Remnants of ancient bacterial infectionsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Syncytins - Genes crucial for placental development
2. MERVL-gag - Transition crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells
3. Integrase - Enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription
4. ERVs - Remnants of ancient bacterial infections
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
1. Syncytins - Genes crucial for placental development: Correct. Syncytins are indeed genes thought to have descended from Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs) and are crucial for placental development.
2. MERVL-gag - Transition crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells: Correct. MERVL-gag is derived from an ERV, and this transition is crucial for producing pluripotent stem cells capable of forming different cell types.
3. Integrase - Enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription: Incorrect. Integrase is an enzyme that facilitates the integration of viral DNA into the host genome. The enzyme that facilitates reverse transcription is reverse transcriptase.
4. ERVs - Remnants of ancient bacterial infections: Incorrect. ERVs (Endogenous Retroviruses) are remnants of ancient viral infections, not bacterial infections, that have integrated into the genome of the host species.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.
Which one of the following Tiger Reserves has the largest area under "Critical Tiger Habitat"?- a)Corbett
- b)Ranthambore
- c)Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam
- d)Sunderbans
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Corbett
b)
Ranthambore
c)
Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam
d)
Sunderbans
|
|
Tanvi nair answered |
Overview of Critical Tiger Habitat
Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is designated areas within tiger reserves that are crucial for the survival of the tiger population. These areas are protected to ensure that tigers can thrive in their natural environment.
Comparative Analysis of Tiger Reserves
When evaluating the largest CTH among the options provided:
Conclusion
The correct answer is option 'C' - Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam. Its extensive area and diverse ecosystem play a crucial role in conservation efforts, making it the largest Critical Tiger Habitat among the listed reserves. This emphasizes the importance of preserving such habitats for the survival of tigers in the wild.
Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is designated areas within tiger reserves that are crucial for the survival of the tiger population. These areas are protected to ensure that tigers can thrive in their natural environment.
Comparative Analysis of Tiger Reserves
When evaluating the largest CTH among the options provided:
- Corbett National Park: One of the oldest national parks in India, Corbett has a significant area dedicated to tiger preservation but doesn't surpass Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam.
- Ranthambore National Park: Known for its scenic landscape and rich wildlife, Ranthambore has a substantial area for tigers, yet it is smaller compared to Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam.
- Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve: This reserve is the largest in India, covering approximately 3,568 square kilometers. It provides a vast and varied habitat for tigers, making it the largest CTH among the options.
- Sundarbans Tiger Reserve: While the Sundarbans is famous for its unique mangrove ecosystem and is a UNESCO World Heritage site, its area is smaller than that of Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam.
Conclusion
The correct answer is option 'C' - Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam. Its extensive area and diverse ecosystem play a crucial role in conservation efforts, making it the largest Critical Tiger Habitat among the listed reserves. This emphasizes the importance of preserving such habitats for the survival of tigers in the wild.
The Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces is significant for which of the following reasons?- a)It marked the first use of nuclear weapons by Ukraine
- b)It involved the capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian troops
- c)It led to a peace treaty between Ukraine and Russia
- d)It was a humanitarian operation to provide aid to Russian civilians
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
It marked the first use of nuclear weapons by Ukraine
b)
It involved the capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian troops
c)
It led to a peace treaty between Ukraine and Russia
d)
It was a humanitarian operation to provide aid to Russian civilians
|
|
Sarika choudhary answered |
Significance of the Kursk Operation by Ukrainian Forces:
Capture of Russian Territory:
The Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces is significant because it involved the capture of Russian territory. This marked a major escalation in the conflict between Ukraine and Russia, with Ukrainian troops successfully taking control of key areas in the Kursk region. This event had far-reaching implications for the ongoing conflict and the geopolitical landscape in the region.
Impact on the Conflict:
The capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian forces in the Kursk operation significantly shifted the dynamics of the conflict. It demonstrated the military capabilities of the Ukrainian forces and their determination to defend their sovereignty. This event also had implications for the negotiations and potential resolution of the conflict between Ukraine and Russia.
International Response:
The Kursk operation garnered international attention and raised concerns about the escalating conflict between Ukraine and Russia. The capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian forces led to reactions from various countries and international organizations, further highlighting the significance of this military operation.
Implications for Peace Talks:
The Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces could potentially impact peace talks between Ukraine and Russia. The successful capture of Russian territory may influence negotiations and discussions aimed at resolving the conflict. It could also shape future diplomatic efforts and strategies to achieve a peaceful resolution to the ongoing conflict.
In conclusion, the Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces is significant primarily because it involved the capture of Russian territory, which had implications for the conflict, international relations, and peace talks between Ukraine and Russia.
Capture of Russian Territory:
The Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces is significant because it involved the capture of Russian territory. This marked a major escalation in the conflict between Ukraine and Russia, with Ukrainian troops successfully taking control of key areas in the Kursk region. This event had far-reaching implications for the ongoing conflict and the geopolitical landscape in the region.
Impact on the Conflict:
The capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian forces in the Kursk operation significantly shifted the dynamics of the conflict. It demonstrated the military capabilities of the Ukrainian forces and their determination to defend their sovereignty. This event also had implications for the negotiations and potential resolution of the conflict between Ukraine and Russia.
International Response:
The Kursk operation garnered international attention and raised concerns about the escalating conflict between Ukraine and Russia. The capture of Russian territory by Ukrainian forces led to reactions from various countries and international organizations, further highlighting the significance of this military operation.
Implications for Peace Talks:
The Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces could potentially impact peace talks between Ukraine and Russia. The successful capture of Russian territory may influence negotiations and discussions aimed at resolving the conflict. It could also shape future diplomatic efforts and strategies to achieve a peaceful resolution to the ongoing conflict.
In conclusion, the Kursk operation by Ukrainian forces is significant primarily because it involved the capture of Russian territory, which had implications for the conflict, international relations, and peace talks between Ukraine and Russia.
What is the primary objective of the Bhavishya software introduced by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare for central government Ministries/Departments?- a)To automate the recruitment process for government employees
- b)To track pension payments for retired employees
- c)To manage leave applications for government officials
- d)To monitor the attendance of government employees
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Bhavishya software introduced by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare for central government Ministries/Departments?
a)
To automate the recruitment process for government employees
b)
To track pension payments for retired employees
c)
To manage leave applications for government officials
d)
To monitor the attendance of government employees
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
The primary objective of the Bhavishya software is to streamline pension processing for retired government employees, aiming to address issues like delays and errors in handling pension cases. By automating processes and ensuring accountability, the software helps in efficient pension payment tracking, benefiting both the retirees and the concerned departments.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Supreme Court highlighted the significance of considering the delay in trial and extensive pre-trial detention as reasons to relax stringent bail conditions in cases related to money laundering.
Statement-II:
The US District Court of Columbia accused search giant - Google - of using its dominant position in the online search market by cutting exclusive deals with smartphone makers such as Apple and Samsung.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court highlighted the significance of considering the delay in trial and extensive pre-trial detention as reasons to relax stringent bail conditions in cases related to money laundering.
Statement-II:
The US District Court of Columbia accused search giant - Google - of using its dominant position in the online search market by cutting exclusive deals with smartphone makers such as Apple and Samsung.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Supreme Court highlighted the significance of considering the delay in trial and extensive pre-trial detention as reasons to relax stringent bail conditions in cases related to money laundering.
Statement-II:
The US District Court of Columbia accused search giant - Google - of using its dominant position in the online search market by cutting exclusive deals with smartphone makers such as Apple and Samsung.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
BT Educators answered |
Statement-I is correct as it reflects the recent news involving the Supreme Court's stance on relaxing stringent bail conditions due to trial delays in money laundering cases.
Statement-II is also correct as it highlights the US District Court's accusation against Google for maintaining a monopoly through exclusive deals, unrelated to the Supreme Court's bail relaxation context. Therefore, both statements are individually correct but are not interlinked in terms of explanation, making option (b) the correct choice.
What is the primary goal of the Gaganyaan project initiated by ISRO in 2007?- a)To establish a permanent human settlement on Mars
- b)To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
- c)To explore deep space beyond our solar system
- d)To study the atmosphere of Saturn
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the Gaganyaan project initiated by ISRO in 2007?
a)
To establish a permanent human settlement on Mars
b)
To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
c)
To explore deep space beyond our solar system
d)
To study the atmosphere of Saturn
|
|
Debanshi Desai answered |
The primary goal of the Gaganyaan project initiated by ISRO in 2007 is:
- To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
The Gaganyaan project aims to showcase India's ability to send humans into space and bring them back safely. It involves developing the necessary technologies, infrastructure, and expertise to launch crewed missions into low Earth orbit. This project is crucial for India as it will pave the way for future manned space missions and establish the country as a key player in the global space exploration arena.
- Key Objectives of the Gaganyaan Project:
1. Developing a crew module: ISRO is working on designing and building a crew module that can carry astronauts into space and bring them back to Earth safely.
2. Human spaceflight training: The Gaganyaan project includes training Indian astronauts for space missions, including simulations, physical fitness training, and other necessary preparations.
3. Launch vehicle development: ISRO is developing a new launch vehicle, the GSLV Mk III, capable of carrying crewed missions into space.
4. International collaboration: The Gaganyaan project involves collaboration with international space agencies and organizations to leverage expertise and resources for successful human spaceflight missions.
Overall, the Gaganyaan project is a significant step towards India's ambition to become a major player in human space exploration. It demonstrates the country's technological prowess and commitment to pushing the boundaries of space exploration.
- To demonstrate India's capability for launching crewed orbital spacecraft
The Gaganyaan project aims to showcase India's ability to send humans into space and bring them back safely. It involves developing the necessary technologies, infrastructure, and expertise to launch crewed missions into low Earth orbit. This project is crucial for India as it will pave the way for future manned space missions and establish the country as a key player in the global space exploration arena.
- Key Objectives of the Gaganyaan Project:
1. Developing a crew module: ISRO is working on designing and building a crew module that can carry astronauts into space and bring them back to Earth safely.
2. Human spaceflight training: The Gaganyaan project includes training Indian astronauts for space missions, including simulations, physical fitness training, and other necessary preparations.
3. Launch vehicle development: ISRO is developing a new launch vehicle, the GSLV Mk III, capable of carrying crewed missions into space.
4. International collaboration: The Gaganyaan project involves collaboration with international space agencies and organizations to leverage expertise and resources for successful human spaceflight missions.
Overall, the Gaganyaan project is a significant step towards India's ambition to become a major player in human space exploration. It demonstrates the country's technological prowess and commitment to pushing the boundaries of space exploration.
Consider the following pairs:1. Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano: Only known volcano actively erupting carbonatite magma2. Western Ghats: Longest mountain range in India3. Anamudi: Highest peak in the Western Ghats4. Godavari River: Originates in the Western GhatsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano: Only known volcano actively erupting carbonatite magma
2. Western Ghats: Longest mountain range in India
3. Anamudi: Highest peak in the Western Ghats
4. Godavari River: Originates in the Western Ghats
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Master Training Institute answered |
1. Ol Doinyo Lengai Volcano: Only known volcano actively erupting carbonatite magma - Correct. Ol Doinyo Lengai is indeed the only known volcano in the world that actively erupts carbonatite magma.
2. Western Ghats: Longest mountain range in India - Incorrect. While the Western Ghats are significant, the longest mountain range in India is the Himalayas.
3. Anamudi: Highest peak in the Western Ghats - Correct. Anamudi is indeed the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
4. Godavari River: Originates in the Western Ghats - Correct. The Godavari River originates in the Western Ghats, specifically in the Nashik District of Maharashtra.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:1. The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is the third largest tiger reserve in India.2. The core area of a Tiger Reserve is managed as an inviolate area, while the buffer area may have a lesser degree of protection.3. No changes in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made without the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is the third largest tiger reserve in India.
2. The core area of a Tiger Reserve is managed as an inviolate area, while the buffer area may have a lesser degree of protection.
3. No changes in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made without the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Shilpa Chavan answered |
Overview of the Statements
The three statements regarding the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve and tiger reserves in general need to be evaluated carefully to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
- This reserve is indeed noted for its significant size and importance in tiger conservation.
- It is recognized as one of the largest tiger reserves in India, making this statement correct.
Statement 2: Management of Core and Buffer Areas
- In tiger reserves, the core area is designated as an inviolate zone, meaning it is protected from any human activity that could disturb wildlife.
- The buffer area, while still protected, allows for some human activities and development.
- This differentiation in management practices is a standard protocol in tiger conservation, making this statement also correct.
Statement 3: Changes in Boundaries
- The protocol for changing the boundaries of a tiger reserve is strictly regulated.
- Any modifications require the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wildlife, ensuring that conservation priorities are maintained.
- This statement is accurate as well.
Conclusion
Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is option 'D', which states that all statements (1, 2, and 3) are true. This reflects the structured approach to wildlife conservation in India, emphasizing the importance of protected areas and regulatory frameworks.
The three statements regarding the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve and tiger reserves in general need to be evaluated carefully to determine their correctness.
Statement 1: Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
- This reserve is indeed noted for its significant size and importance in tiger conservation.
- It is recognized as one of the largest tiger reserves in India, making this statement correct.
Statement 2: Management of Core and Buffer Areas
- In tiger reserves, the core area is designated as an inviolate zone, meaning it is protected from any human activity that could disturb wildlife.
- The buffer area, while still protected, allows for some human activities and development.
- This differentiation in management practices is a standard protocol in tiger conservation, making this statement also correct.
Statement 3: Changes in Boundaries
- The protocol for changing the boundaries of a tiger reserve is strictly regulated.
- Any modifications require the recommendation of the Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wildlife, ensuring that conservation priorities are maintained.
- This statement is accurate as well.
Conclusion
Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is option 'D', which states that all statements (1, 2, and 3) are true. This reflects the structured approach to wildlife conservation in India, emphasizing the importance of protected areas and regulatory frameworks.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh is set to become the third largest tiger reserve in India.
Statement-II:
Neutron stars are the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh is set to become the third largest tiger reserve in India.
The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh is set to become the third largest tiger reserve in India.
Statement-II:
Neutron stars are the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion.
Neutron stars are the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
BT Educators answered |
Statement-I talks about the establishment of the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh as the third largest tiger reserve in India, which is an accurate representation of the news provided in the source material. This statement aligns with the information given about the new tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh.
Statement-II discusses neutron stars as the remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion. While this statement accurately describes neutron stars according to the information provided in the source material, it is not directly related to the content of the news about the new tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh. Therefore, Statement-II is unrelated to the context of the question and is considered incorrect in this scenario.
What is the significance of Japan being situated on the Ring of Fire in relation to seismic activity?- a)Japan experiences the highest number of earthquakes globally.
- b)The Ring of Fire is a region with minimal seismic activity.
- c)Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire.
- d)Seismic activity in Japan is nonexistent because of its geographical location.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of Japan being situated on the Ring of Fire in relation to seismic activity?
a)
Japan experiences the highest number of earthquakes globally.
b)
The Ring of Fire is a region with minimal seismic activity.
c)
Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire.
d)
Seismic activity in Japan is nonexistent because of its geographical location.
|
|
Debanshi Desai answered |
Location on the Ring of Fire
Japan is situated on the Ring of Fire, which is a horseshoe-shaped belt that surrounds the Pacific Ocean and is known for its high levels of seismic activity. This area is home to about 75% of the world's active and dormant volcanoes, as well as 90% of the world's earthquakes.
Frequency of Earthquakes
Due to its location on the Ring of Fire, Japan experiences frequent earthquakes. The tectonic plates beneath Japan are constantly moving and interacting, leading to a high level of seismic activity in the region. These movements can result in earthquakes of varying magnitudes, ranging from minor tremors to devastating quakes.
Impact on Japan
The frequent earthquakes in Japan have significant impacts on the country, including the potential for widespread destruction, loss of life, and economic repercussions. Japan has implemented strict building codes and disaster preparedness measures to mitigate the effects of earthquakes, but the risk remains due to the country's location on the Ring of Fire.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire. The high levels of seismic activity in the region make it imperative for Japan to be vigilant and prepared for potential earthquakes and their aftermath.
Japan is situated on the Ring of Fire, which is a horseshoe-shaped belt that surrounds the Pacific Ocean and is known for its high levels of seismic activity. This area is home to about 75% of the world's active and dormant volcanoes, as well as 90% of the world's earthquakes.
Frequency of Earthquakes
Due to its location on the Ring of Fire, Japan experiences frequent earthquakes. The tectonic plates beneath Japan are constantly moving and interacting, leading to a high level of seismic activity in the region. These movements can result in earthquakes of varying magnitudes, ranging from minor tremors to devastating quakes.
Impact on Japan
The frequent earthquakes in Japan have significant impacts on the country, including the potential for widespread destruction, loss of life, and economic repercussions. Japan has implemented strict building codes and disaster preparedness measures to mitigate the effects of earthquakes, but the risk remains due to the country's location on the Ring of Fire.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Japan faces frequent earthquakes due to its location on the Ring of Fire. The high levels of seismic activity in the region make it imperative for Japan to be vigilant and prepared for potential earthquakes and their aftermath.
Consider the following statements regarding the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project:1. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is located on the reservoir of Omkareshwar dam on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh.2. The project is managed by the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy.3. It is estimated to produce 196.5 million units of electricity annually and reduce carbon emissions by 2.3 lakh tons.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project:
1. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is located on the reservoir of Omkareshwar dam on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh.
2. The project is managed by the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy.
3. It is estimated to produce 196.5 million units of electricity annually and reduce carbon emissions by 2.3 lakh tons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is indeed located on the reservoir of the Omkareshwar dam, which is on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh. This location and detail are accurate as per the information provided.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Although the project was carried out under the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy, it is managed by SJVN Green Energy Limited (SGEL), a subsidiary of SJVN, which is a partnership between the Government of India and the Government of Himachal Pradesh. This means the direct management is not under the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy but under SGEL.
- Statement 3 is correct. The project is indeed estimated to produce 196.5 million units of electricity in its first year and reduce carbon emissions by 2.3 lakh tons, supporting the Indian government's environmental goals.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.
What has contributed to the increased susceptibility of the Wayanad district in Kerala to landslides?- a)Changes in crop patterns
- b)Heavy rainfall and geological factors
- c)Construction of resorts and tourist activities
- d)Climate change effects
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What has contributed to the increased susceptibility of the Wayanad district in Kerala to landslides?
a)
Changes in crop patterns
b)
Heavy rainfall and geological factors
c)
Construction of resorts and tourist activities
d)
Climate change effects
|
Krithika Joshi answered |
Heavy rainfall and geological factors:
- The Wayanad district in Kerala experiences heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, which saturates the soil and increases its susceptibility to landslides.
- The region's hilly terrain and geological composition, including steep slopes and fragile rock formations, make it prone to landslides triggered by heavy rainfall.
- The presence of faults, fractures, and joint planes in the rocks in Wayanad further contributes to the instability of the region, increasing the risk of landslides.
- Deforestation and soil erosion, exacerbated by heavy rainfall, weaken the soil structure and increase the chances of landslides occurring in the district.
- The combination of heavy rainfall and geological factors heightens the vulnerability of Wayanad to landslides, posing significant risks to the local population and infrastructure.
- The Wayanad district in Kerala experiences heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, which saturates the soil and increases its susceptibility to landslides.
- The region's hilly terrain and geological composition, including steep slopes and fragile rock formations, make it prone to landslides triggered by heavy rainfall.
- The presence of faults, fractures, and joint planes in the rocks in Wayanad further contributes to the instability of the region, increasing the risk of landslides.
- Deforestation and soil erosion, exacerbated by heavy rainfall, weaken the soil structure and increase the chances of landslides occurring in the district.
- The combination of heavy rainfall and geological factors heightens the vulnerability of Wayanad to landslides, posing significant risks to the local population and infrastructure.
Consider the following pairs:1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand2. Malappuram: Karnataka3. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer4. Wayanad: KeralaHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand
2. Malappuram: Karnataka
3. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer
4. Wayanad: Kerala
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Sreemoyee Menon answered |
Correctly Matched Pairs
1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand
Rudraprayag is a district in the state of Uttarakhand, India. It is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.
2. Wayanad: Kerala
Wayanad is a district in the state of Kerala, India. It is known for its scenic beauty, wildlife sanctuaries, and spice plantations.
Incorrectly Matched Pairs
3. Malappuram: Karnataka
Malappuram is a district in the state of Kerala, not Karnataka. It is known for its cultural diversity and historical significance.
4. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer
Udham Singh was a freedom fighter from India who assassinated Michael O'Dwyer, not Brigadier Reginald Dyer. He sought revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre where Dyer was responsible for the deaths of hundreds of innocent civilians.
Therefore, only two pairs given above are correctly matched - Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand and Wayanad: Kerala.
1. Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand
Rudraprayag is a district in the state of Uttarakhand, India. It is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.
2. Wayanad: Kerala
Wayanad is a district in the state of Kerala, India. It is known for its scenic beauty, wildlife sanctuaries, and spice plantations.
Incorrectly Matched Pairs
3. Malappuram: Karnataka
Malappuram is a district in the state of Kerala, not Karnataka. It is known for its cultural diversity and historical significance.
4. Udham Singh: Assassinated Brigadier Reginald Dyer
Udham Singh was a freedom fighter from India who assassinated Michael O'Dwyer, not Brigadier Reginald Dyer. He sought revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre where Dyer was responsible for the deaths of hundreds of innocent civilians.
Therefore, only two pairs given above are correctly matched - Rudraprayag: Uttarakhand and Wayanad: Kerala.
What are the characteristic wind speeds of a land-based deep depression?- a) 30-40 km/h
- b) 51-62 km/h
- c) 62-88 km/h
- d) 40-51 km/h
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What are the characteristic wind speeds of a land-based deep depression?
a)
30-40 km/h
b)
51-62 km/h
c)
62-88 km/h
d)
40-51 km/h
|
Aim It Academy answered |
A land-based deep depression is characterized by wind speeds ranging from 51 to 62 km/h, which is just below the threshold for classification as a tropical cyclone. This unique weather phenomenon forms over land and can lead to significant rainfall and flooding, impacting areas that are not typically accustomed to such weather patterns.
What is the significance of Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs) in the human genome according to recent research findings?- a)ERVs are active viruses that can cause diseases in humans.
- b)ERVs are remnants of ancient viral infections integrated into the human genome.
- c)ERVs are currently causing genetic mutations in human DNA.
- d)ERVs are fully functional viral sequences that replicate in human cells.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs) in the human genome according to recent research findings?
a)
ERVs are active viruses that can cause diseases in humans.
b)
ERVs are remnants of ancient viral infections integrated into the human genome.
c)
ERVs are currently causing genetic mutations in human DNA.
d)
ERVs are fully functional viral sequences that replicate in human cells.
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs) are remnants of ancient viral infections that have integrated into the human genome. Recent research suggests that these ERVs, often referred to as 'zombie' regions, make up around 8% of the human genome. When these retroviruses infect germ cells, their genetic material can be passed down to the next generation, becoming a permanent part of the host's DNA. These ERVs are essentially inactive viral sequences within the genome that no longer produce functional viruses but persist as embedded genetic fossils.
Consider the following pairs:1. Nankai Trough: Situated off the southwest Pacific coast of Japan2. Ring of Fire: Area encompassing the Pacific Ocean with frequent earthquakes and volcanic activity3. Magnitude 9.0 Earthquake: Triggered a tsunami and nuclear disaster in 20044. Clinical Trials Registry-India: Maintained by Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Nankai Trough: Situated off the southwest Pacific coast of Japan
2. Ring of Fire: Area encompassing the Pacific Ocean with frequent earthquakes and volcanic activity
3. Magnitude 9.0 Earthquake: Triggered a tsunami and nuclear disaster in 2004
4. Clinical Trials Registry-India: Maintained by Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Rajveer Chaudhary answered |
Analysis of the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one:
1. Nankai Trough
- Description: Located off the southwest Pacific coast of Japan, this subduction zone is known for its seismic activities.
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
2. Ring of Fire
- Description: This is a major area in the Pacific Ocean basin characterized by frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, encircling the Pacific Plate.
- Correctness: This pair is also correctly matched.
3. Magnitude 9.0 Earthquake
- Description: Refers to the earthquake that struck off the coast of Japan in 2011, triggering a massive tsunami and the Fukushima nuclear disaster.
- Correctness: This pair is incorrectly matched since the event described occurred in 2011, not 2004.
4. Clinical Trials Registry-India
- Description: This registry is indeed maintained by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to enhance transparency in clinical trials.
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
Conclusion
- Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Nankai Trough
- Ring of Fire
- Clinical Trials Registry-India
- Total Correct Pairs: 3 pairs are correctly matched.
Since only 3 out of the 4 pairs are accurate, the correct answer is "b) Only two pairs." However, the analysis shows that three pairs are indeed correct, indicating a potential error in the provided options.
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let's examine each one:
1. Nankai Trough
- Description: Located off the southwest Pacific coast of Japan, this subduction zone is known for its seismic activities.
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
2. Ring of Fire
- Description: This is a major area in the Pacific Ocean basin characterized by frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, encircling the Pacific Plate.
- Correctness: This pair is also correctly matched.
3. Magnitude 9.0 Earthquake
- Description: Refers to the earthquake that struck off the coast of Japan in 2011, triggering a massive tsunami and the Fukushima nuclear disaster.
- Correctness: This pair is incorrectly matched since the event described occurred in 2011, not 2004.
4. Clinical Trials Registry-India
- Description: This registry is indeed maintained by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) to enhance transparency in clinical trials.
- Correctness: This pair is correctly matched.
Conclusion
- Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Nankai Trough
- Ring of Fire
- Clinical Trials Registry-India
- Total Correct Pairs: 3 pairs are correctly matched.
Since only 3 out of the 4 pairs are accurate, the correct answer is "b) Only two pairs." However, the analysis shows that three pairs are indeed correct, indicating a potential error in the provided options.
Consider the following statements:1. Glioblastoma originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.2. Glioblastoma grows rapidly, damaging healthy tissue it encounters, and can occur at any age.3. The main treatments for glioblastoma include surgery, radiotherapy, and immunotherapy.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Glioblastoma originates from astrocytes, which nourish nerve cells.
2. Glioblastoma grows rapidly, damaging healthy tissue it encounters, and can occur at any age.
3. The main treatments for glioblastoma include surgery, radiotherapy, and immunotherapy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Kaavya Gupta answered |
Explanation:
1. Glioblastoma Origin:
- Glioblastoma originates from astrocytes, which are star-shaped glial cells that provide support and nutrition to nerve cells in the brain.
2. Growth and Damage:
- Glioblastoma is known for its rapid growth and invasive nature. It can quickly spread and damage healthy brain tissue that it encounters, leading to severe neurological symptoms and complications.
- It is a highly malignant type of brain tumor that can occur at any age, although it is more common in older adults.
3. Treatment Options:
- The main treatments for glioblastoma include surgery, where attempts are made to remove as much of the tumor as possible without causing further damage to the brain.
- Radiotherapy is often used after surgery to target any remaining cancer cells and slow down tumor growth.
- Immunotherapy, which involves using the body's immune system to fight cancer, is also being explored as a potential treatment option for glioblastoma.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as they describe the origin and characteristics of glioblastoma. Statement 3 is also correct as it mentions the main treatment options for this type of brain tumor. Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 Only.
1. Glioblastoma Origin:
- Glioblastoma originates from astrocytes, which are star-shaped glial cells that provide support and nutrition to nerve cells in the brain.
2. Growth and Damage:
- Glioblastoma is known for its rapid growth and invasive nature. It can quickly spread and damage healthy brain tissue that it encounters, leading to severe neurological symptoms and complications.
- It is a highly malignant type of brain tumor that can occur at any age, although it is more common in older adults.
3. Treatment Options:
- The main treatments for glioblastoma include surgery, where attempts are made to remove as much of the tumor as possible without causing further damage to the brain.
- Radiotherapy is often used after surgery to target any remaining cancer cells and slow down tumor growth.
- Immunotherapy, which involves using the body's immune system to fight cancer, is also being explored as a potential treatment option for glioblastoma.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct as they describe the origin and characteristics of glioblastoma. Statement 3 is also correct as it mentions the main treatment options for this type of brain tumor. Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1 and 2 Only.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
Village Defence Guards (VDGs) were initially known as Village Defence Committees (VDCs) and were established in the Jammu and Kashmir region in 1995 to provide local defense against terrorist activities.Statement-II:
The VDGs primarily function under the direction of the SP/SSP of the district concerned and play a key role in surveillance, intelligence gathering, and community mobilization to combat terrorism effectively.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Village Defence Guards (VDGs) were initially known as Village Defence Committees (VDCs) and were established in the Jammu and Kashmir region in 1995 to provide local defense against terrorist activities.
Village Defence Guards (VDGs) were initially known as Village Defence Committees (VDCs) and were established in the Jammu and Kashmir region in 1995 to provide local defense against terrorist activities.
Statement-II:
The VDGs primarily function under the direction of the SP/SSP of the district concerned and play a key role in surveillance, intelligence gathering, and community mobilization to combat terrorism effectively.
The VDGs primarily function under the direction of the SP/SSP of the district concerned and play a key role in surveillance, intelligence gathering, and community mobilization to combat terrorism effectively.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Divey Sethi answered |
Statement-I correctly describes the origin and purpose of the Village Defence Guards (VDGs) in the Jammu and Kashmir region, formerly known as Village Defence Committees (VDCs), established in 1995 to provide local defense against terrorist activities.
Statement-II accurately highlights the operational structure and functions of the VDGs, emphasizing their role under the direction of the SP/SSP of the district concerned, and their responsibilities in surveillance, intelligence gathering, and community mobilization to combat terrorism effectively.
Both statements are factually correct and logically connected, with Statement-II explaining the operational aspect that complements the establishment and purpose described in Statement-I. Thus, option (a) is the correct choice.
What is the primary goal of the Women Entrepreneurship Program (WEP) introduced by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)?
- a)To empower around 25 lakh women in India
- b)To provide financial support to all women entrepreneurs
- c)To conduct research on women entrepreneurship
- d)To offer free online courses on various subjects
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the Women Entrepreneurship Program (WEP) introduced by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)?
a)
To empower around 25 lakh women in India
b)
To provide financial support to all women entrepreneurs
c)
To conduct research on women entrepreneurship
d)
To offer free online courses on various subjects
|
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
The primary goal of the Women Entrepreneurship Program (WEP) initiated by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is to empower around 25 lakh women in India by equipping them with essential skills, knowledge, and resources to start and expand their businesses. This program aims to address the unique challenges faced by women entrepreneurs and foster economic growth by creating an inclusive environment for female business owners.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
Sheikh Hasina, the former Prime Minister of Bangladesh, fled to India after being ousted from power, impacting India's bilateral relations.Statement-II:
The Gaganyaan project, part of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme, aims to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by launching a crew of 4 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sheikh Hasina, the former Prime Minister of Bangladesh, fled to India after being ousted from power, impacting India's bilateral relations.
Sheikh Hasina, the former Prime Minister of Bangladesh, fled to India after being ousted from power, impacting India's bilateral relations.
Statement-II:
The Gaganyaan project, part of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme, aims to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by launching a crew of 4 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission.
The Gaganyaan project, part of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme, aims to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by launching a crew of 4 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Keerthana Shah answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
- Sheikh Hasina was indeed ousted from power in Bangladesh in 2001.
- Following her ousting, she sought refuge in India, which had implications for India-Bangladesh relations.
- While her flight to India did affect bilateral dynamics, it was not the sole factor determining the relationship.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Gaganyaan project is a significant initiative under India's Human Spaceflight Programme.
- The aim is to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by sending a crew of 4 members into orbit at approximately 400 km for a 3-day mission.
- This project showcases India's technological advancements in space exploration and aims to enhance its standing as a space power.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately reflects Sheikh Hasina's political situation and its impact on India-Bangladesh relations.
- Statement-II correctly describes the objectives of the Gaganyaan project and its significance.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The contexts of political events in Bangladesh and space exploration are distinct and not causally linked.
Thus, the correct answer is option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Sheikh Hasina was indeed ousted from power in Bangladesh in 2001.
- Following her ousting, she sought refuge in India, which had implications for India-Bangladesh relations.
- While her flight to India did affect bilateral dynamics, it was not the sole factor determining the relationship.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Gaganyaan project is a significant initiative under India's Human Spaceflight Programme.
- The aim is to demonstrate human spaceflight capability by sending a crew of 4 members into orbit at approximately 400 km for a 3-day mission.
- This project showcases India's technological advancements in space exploration and aims to enhance its standing as a space power.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct:
- Statement-I accurately reflects Sheikh Hasina's political situation and its impact on India-Bangladesh relations.
- Statement-II correctly describes the objectives of the Gaganyaan project and its significance.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The contexts of political events in Bangladesh and space exploration are distinct and not causally linked.
Thus, the correct answer is option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
What is the primary goal of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme launched by the Indian government?
- a)To promote tourism in Parsi heritage sites
- b)To increase the declining Parsi population
- c)To provide financial assistance for education to Parsi youth
- d)To support the construction of Parsi temples
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme launched by the Indian government?
a)
To promote tourism in Parsi heritage sites
b)
To increase the declining Parsi population
c)
To provide financial assistance for education to Parsi youth
d)
To support the construction of Parsi temples
|
|
Rounak Singh answered |
Primary goal of Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
The primary goal of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme launched by the Indian government is to increase the declining Parsi population in India.
Reason for the declining Parsi population:
The Parsi community in India has been facing a decline in population due to factors such as low fertility rates, late marriages, and emigration. This has raised concerns about the future of the community and its cultural heritage.
Initiatives under the Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
The Jiyo Parsi Scheme aims to address this decline by providing various forms of support to encourage Parsi couples to have more children. This includes financial assistance for fertility treatments, counseling services, and awareness campaigns to promote family planning and early marriages within the community.
Importance of increasing the Parsi population:
The Parsi community has made significant contributions to various fields in India, including business, art, culture, and philanthropy. By increasing the Parsi population, the government aims to ensure the preservation of this rich cultural heritage for future generations.
Impact of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
Since its launch, the Jiyo Parsi Scheme has shown some positive results in terms of increasing the birth rate within the Parsi community. By providing support and incentives for Parsi couples to have children, the scheme aims to reverse the trend of population decline and secure the future of the Parsi community in India.
The primary goal of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme launched by the Indian government is to increase the declining Parsi population in India.
Reason for the declining Parsi population:
The Parsi community in India has been facing a decline in population due to factors such as low fertility rates, late marriages, and emigration. This has raised concerns about the future of the community and its cultural heritage.
Initiatives under the Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
The Jiyo Parsi Scheme aims to address this decline by providing various forms of support to encourage Parsi couples to have more children. This includes financial assistance for fertility treatments, counseling services, and awareness campaigns to promote family planning and early marriages within the community.
Importance of increasing the Parsi population:
The Parsi community has made significant contributions to various fields in India, including business, art, culture, and philanthropy. By increasing the Parsi population, the government aims to ensure the preservation of this rich cultural heritage for future generations.
Impact of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
Since its launch, the Jiyo Parsi Scheme has shown some positive results in terms of increasing the birth rate within the Parsi community. By providing support and incentives for Parsi couples to have children, the scheme aims to reverse the trend of population decline and secure the future of the Parsi community in India.
What is the purpose of a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) in the context of Indian parliamentary processes?- a) To draft new laws
- b) To investigate specific matters
- c) To conduct regular audits
- d) To oversee state elections
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the purpose of a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) in the context of Indian parliamentary processes?
a)
To draft new laws
b)
To investigate specific matters
c)
To conduct regular audits
d)
To oversee state elections
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs) are ad-hoc bodies established to carry out detailed scrutiny of specific matters within a defined time frame. In the Indian parliamentary system, JPCs consist of members from both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and are tasked with investigating and examining critical issues that require in-depth analysis and investigation.
What led to Vinesh Phogat's disqualification at the Paris Olympics for the women's 50kg wrestling final?- a)She failed to secure a win in the final bout.
- b)She exceeded the weight limit during the final weigh-in.
- c)She sustained an injury during the competition.
- d)She was disqualified due to a technical violation.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What led to Vinesh Phogat's disqualification at the Paris Olympics for the women's 50kg wrestling final?
a)
She failed to secure a win in the final bout.
b)
She exceeded the weight limit during the final weigh-in.
c)
She sustained an injury during the competition.
d)
She was disqualified due to a technical violation.
|
|
Kirti Banerjee answered |
Overview of Vinesh Phogat's Disqualification
Vinesh Phogat's disqualification during the women's 50kg wrestling final at the Paris Olympics raised significant discussion and concern. The primary reason for her disqualification was related to weight regulations.
Reason for Disqualification
- Weight Limit Exceeded:
- Vinesh Phogat was disqualified because she exceeded the weight limit during the final weigh-in. Each wrestler must adhere to specific weight categories, and failure to meet these requirements can lead to disqualification.
- Importance of Weight Management:
- Wrestlers are required to carefully manage their weight during training and competition. Exceeding the limit not only disqualifies them from the event but also affects their eligibility for future competitions.
Impact of the Disqualification
- Significance of the Event:
- The Olympics is one of the most prestigious stages for athletes. Disqualification at this level can have profound implications on an athlete's career and reputation.
- Athlete's Response:
- Following the disqualification, Vinesh expressed disappointment, emphasizing the rigorous training and preparation that goes into qualifying for the Olympics.
Conclusion
Vinesh Phogat's disqualification due to exceeding the weight limit serves as a reminder of the strict regulations governing competitive wrestling. It highlights the importance of discipline in maintaining weight for athletes at elite levels.
Vinesh Phogat's disqualification during the women's 50kg wrestling final at the Paris Olympics raised significant discussion and concern. The primary reason for her disqualification was related to weight regulations.
Reason for Disqualification
- Weight Limit Exceeded:
- Vinesh Phogat was disqualified because she exceeded the weight limit during the final weigh-in. Each wrestler must adhere to specific weight categories, and failure to meet these requirements can lead to disqualification.
- Importance of Weight Management:
- Wrestlers are required to carefully manage their weight during training and competition. Exceeding the limit not only disqualifies them from the event but also affects their eligibility for future competitions.
Impact of the Disqualification
- Significance of the Event:
- The Olympics is one of the most prestigious stages for athletes. Disqualification at this level can have profound implications on an athlete's career and reputation.
- Athlete's Response:
- Following the disqualification, Vinesh expressed disappointment, emphasizing the rigorous training and preparation that goes into qualifying for the Olympics.
Conclusion
Vinesh Phogat's disqualification due to exceeding the weight limit serves as a reminder of the strict regulations governing competitive wrestling. It highlights the importance of discipline in maintaining weight for athletes at elite levels.
Chapter doubts & questions for August 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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