All Exams >
CLAT >
Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly >
All Questions
All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for CLAT Exam
With reference to the AMRUT Mission (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation), consider the following statements:1. It comes under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.2. It's one of purpose is to ensure that every household has access to a tap with the assured supply of water and a sewerage connection.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the AMRUT Mission (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation), consider the following statements:
1. It comes under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. It's one of purpose is to ensure that every household has access to a tap with the assured supply of water and a sewerage connection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Rohit Jain answered |
AMRUT Mission (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation)
- It was launched in June 2015
- It comes under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
- Components:
- Capacity building, reform implementation, water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm water drainage, urban transport and development of green spaces and parks.
- The reforms aim at improving delivery of citizen services, bringing down the cost of delivery, improving financial health, augmenting resources and enhancing transparency. It also includes replacement of street lights with LED lights.
- Purpose:
- To ensure that every household has access to a tap with the assured supply of water and a sewerage connection. Hence,statement 2 is correct.
- The Priority zone of the Mission is water supply followed by sewerage.
- To increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well maintained open spaces (e.g. parks).
- To reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport (e.g. walking and cycling).
With reference to the Indian National Army, consider the following statements:1. The INA was formed under the leadership of Mohan Singh.2. The slogan of ‘Delhi Chalo’,was given by Subhash Chandra Bose.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Indian National Army, consider the following statements:
1. The INA was formed under the leadership of Mohan Singh.
2. The slogan of ‘Delhi Chalo’,was given by Subhash Chandra Bose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Vikram Verma answered |
- The INA was first formed under Mohan Singh and Japanese Major Iwaichi Fujiwara and comprised Indian prisoners of war of the British-Indian Army captured by Japan in the Malayan (present-day Malaysia) campaign and at Singapore. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Subash Chandra Bose reached Japanese-controlled Singapore from Germany in July 1943, issued from there his famous call, ‘Delhi Chalo’, and announced the formation of the Azad Hind Government and the Indian National Army on 21st October 1943. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The INA included both the Indian prisoners of war from Singapore and Indian civilians in South-East Asia. It's strength grew to 50,000. The INA fought allied forces in 1944 inside the borders of India in Imphal and in Burma.
With reference to the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:1. It introduced the 10% EWS (Economically Weaker Section) Quota.2. It amended Article 15 and Article 16 of the Indian Constitution.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:
1. It introduced the 10% EWS (Economically Weaker Section) Quota.
2. It amended Article 15 and Article 16 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- The 10% EWS quota was introduced under the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019 by amending Articles 15 and 16. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- It is for economic reservation in jobs and admissions in education institutes for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
- It was enacted to promote the welfare of the poor not covered by the 50% reservation policy for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC).
- It enables both Centre and the states to provide reservation to the EWS of society.
Consider the following statements:1. The Galwan Valley is located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east.2. The Ladakh Plateau lies to the north-east of the Karakoram Range.3. Karakoram Range forms India's frontiers with Pakistan and China.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Galwan Valley is located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east.
2. The Ladakh Plateau lies to the north-east of the Karakoram Range.
3. Karakoram Range forms India's frontiers with Pakistan and China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Vikas Choudhury answered |
Both statements 1&2 are correct.
The Galwan Valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the Line of Actual Control (LAC), and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC. The valley is strategically located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east, which is currently controlled by China as part of its Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. Karakoram Range is also known as Krishnagiri which is situated in the northernmost range of the Trans-Himalayan ranges. It forms India's frontiers with Afghanistan and China. It extends eastwards from the Pamir for about 800 km. It is a range with lofty peaks (elevation 5,500 m and above).Some of the peaks are more than 8,000 metre above sea level. K2 (8,611 m)[Godwin Austen or Qogir] is the second highest peak in the world and the highest peak in the Indian Union. The Ladakh Plateau lies to the north-east of the Karakoram Range.
Consider the following statements regarding Operating Ratio.1. Operating Ratio is a term associated with Indian Railways and it is good if it is more than 100.2. Indian Railways had operating ratio of more than 90 percent in 2019-2020.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Operating Ratio.
1. Operating Ratio is a term associated with Indian Railways and it is good if it is more than 100.
2. Indian Railways had operating ratio of more than 90 percent in 2019-2020.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
Operating ratio, simply put, is amount of money the Railways has to spend to earn ₹100. Lower operating ratio implies better financial health.
THE COMPTROLLER and Auditor General of India in its report on Railways’ finances noted that the Indian Railways’ operating ratio of 98.36% in 2019-2020 does not reflect its true financial performance and if the actual expenditure on pension payments is taken into account, the ratio will be 114.35 %.
With reference to the Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG), consider the following statements:1. It has the ability to detect random quantum events and convert those into a stream of binary digits.2. It was developed by CSIR.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG), consider the following statements:
1. It has the ability to detect random quantum events and convert those into a stream of binary digits.
2. It was developed by CSIR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Niharika Roy answered |
Explanation:
Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG)
- The Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG) has the ability to detect random quantum events and convert those into a stream of binary digits. This process ensures that the generated numbers are truly random and not predictable.
- QRNG was not developed by CSIR. It was actually developed by various research institutions and companies around the world, leveraging principles of quantum mechanics to create truly random numbers.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
a) 1 only
Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG)
- The Quantum Random Number Generator (QRNG) has the ability to detect random quantum events and convert those into a stream of binary digits. This process ensures that the generated numbers are truly random and not predictable.
- QRNG was not developed by CSIR. It was actually developed by various research institutions and companies around the world, leveraging principles of quantum mechanics to create truly random numbers.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
a) 1 only
With reference to the Polar wander, consider the following statements:1. True polar wander represents the shift in the geographical poles relative to Earth's surface, after accounting for the motion of the tectonic plates.2. It can be used to measure the degree to which Earth's magnetic poles have been observed to move relative to the Earth's rotation axis.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Polar wander, consider the following statements:
1. True polar wander represents the shift in the geographical poles relative to Earth's surface, after accounting for the motion of the tectonic plates.
2. It can be used to measure the degree to which Earth's magnetic poles have been observed to move relative to the Earth's rotation axis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Pallavi Rane answered |
True polar wander:
True polar wander refers to the shift in the geographical poles relative to Earth's surface, taking into account the motion of the tectonic plates. This phenomenon is a result of the redistribution of mass within the Earth, causing the planet's axis of rotation to change.
Measure Earth's magnetic poles:
One of the uses of true polar wander is to measure the degree to which Earth's magnetic poles have moved relative to the Earth's rotation axis. This can provide valuable information about the changes in the Earth's magnetic field over time and help scientists understand the dynamics of the planet's magnetic field.
Correctness of the statements:
Both statements are correct as they accurately describe the concept of true polar wander and its significance in measuring the movement of Earth's magnetic poles. True polar wander is an essential process to consider when studying the Earth's changing magnetic field and understanding the planet's geodynamic processes.
True polar wander refers to the shift in the geographical poles relative to Earth's surface, taking into account the motion of the tectonic plates. This phenomenon is a result of the redistribution of mass within the Earth, causing the planet's axis of rotation to change.
Measure Earth's magnetic poles:
One of the uses of true polar wander is to measure the degree to which Earth's magnetic poles have moved relative to the Earth's rotation axis. This can provide valuable information about the changes in the Earth's magnetic field over time and help scientists understand the dynamics of the planet's magnetic field.
Correctness of the statements:
Both statements are correct as they accurately describe the concept of true polar wander and its significance in measuring the movement of Earth's magnetic poles. True polar wander is an essential process to consider when studying the Earth's changing magnetic field and understanding the planet's geodynamic processes.
Consider the following statements:1. The bad bank is involved in lending and taking deposits, it also helps commercial banks clean up their balance sheets and resolve bad loans.2. The takeover of bad loans by the bad bank is normally below the book value of the loan.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The bad bank is involved in lending and taking deposits, it also helps commercial banks clean up their balance sheets and resolve bad loans.
2. The takeover of bad loans by the bad bank is normally below the book value of the loan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Anjali Rao answered |
- About:
- The bad bank is an ARC or an Asset Management Company (AMC) that takes over the bad loans of commercial banks, manages them and finally recovers the money over a period of time.
- The bad bank is not involved in lending and taking deposits, but helps commercial banks clean up their balance sheets and resolve bad loans. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- The takeover of bad loans is normally below the book value of the loan and the bad bank tries to recover as much as possible subsequently. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Effect of Bad Bank:
- Commercial Banks’ Perspective: Commercial banks are saddled with high NPA (Non-Performing Assets/loans) levels, setting up of the Bad bank will help.
- That’s because such a bank will get rid of all its toxic assets, which were reducing its profits, in one quick move.
- When the recovery money is paid back, it will further improve the bank’s position. Meanwhile, it can start lending again.
- Government and Taxpayer Perspective: Whether it is recapitalising PSBs laden with bad loans or giving guarantees for security receipts, the money is coming from the taxpayers’ pocket.
- While recapitalisation and such guarantees are often designated as “reforms”, they are band aids at best.
- The only sustainable solution is to improve the lending operation in PSBs.
- The plan of bailing out commercial banks will collapse if the bad bank is unable to sell such impaired assets in the market. The burden indeed will fall upon the taxpayer.
- Commercial Banks’ Perspective: Commercial banks are saddled with high NPA (Non-Performing Assets/loans) levels, setting up of the Bad bank will help.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bioenergy Crops:1. Bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.2. Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other crops are some of the Bioenergy crops.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Bioenergy Crops:
1. Bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.
2. Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other crops are some of the Bioenergy crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Jaya Nambiar answered |
Statement 1: Bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.
- Bioenergy crops, such as trees and perennial grasses, can have a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.
- These crops can absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere through photosynthesis, reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases responsible for global warming.
- Additionally, the transpiration process in plants releases water vapor, which can have a cooling effect on the surrounding environment.
- The cultivation of bioenergy crops can help mitigate the heat island effect in urban areas and contribute to local climate regulation.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other crops are some of the bioenergy crops.
- Bioenergy crops are specifically grown for the purpose of producing biomass to be used as a source of renewable energy.
- While wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, and sugarcane are important agricultural crops, they are primarily cultivated for food production purposes rather than as bioenergy crops.
- Bioenergy crops are usually dedicated energy crops, such as switchgrass, miscanthus, willow, and poplar, specifically selected for their high biomass potential and ability to be converted into biofuels or used for bioenergy production.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Conclusion:
- From the above analysis, it can be concluded that statement 1 is correct as bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated. However, statement 2 is incorrect as wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other similar crops are not considered bioenergy crops.
- Bioenergy crops, such as trees and perennial grasses, can have a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated.
- These crops can absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere through photosynthesis, reducing the concentration of greenhouse gases responsible for global warming.
- Additionally, the transpiration process in plants releases water vapor, which can have a cooling effect on the surrounding environment.
- The cultivation of bioenergy crops can help mitigate the heat island effect in urban areas and contribute to local climate regulation.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other crops are some of the bioenergy crops.
- Bioenergy crops are specifically grown for the purpose of producing biomass to be used as a source of renewable energy.
- While wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, and sugarcane are important agricultural crops, they are primarily cultivated for food production purposes rather than as bioenergy crops.
- Bioenergy crops are usually dedicated energy crops, such as switchgrass, miscanthus, willow, and poplar, specifically selected for their high biomass potential and ability to be converted into biofuels or used for bioenergy production.
- Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Conclusion:
- From the above analysis, it can be concluded that statement 1 is correct as bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where they are cultivated. However, statement 2 is incorrect as wheat, corn, main edible oilseeds/edible oils, sugarcane, and other similar crops are not considered bioenergy crops.
Consider the following statements:1. The Pangolin is the only mammal to have large keratin scales to cover its skin.2. The Indian Pangolin is mainly found in India in the arid region, the high Himalayas and the northeast region.3. The Pangolin is listed in the IUCN Red List as an Endangered species.Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Pangolin is the only mammal to have large keratin scales to cover its skin.
2. The Indian Pangolin is mainly found in India in the arid region, the high Himalayas and the northeast region.
3. The Pangolin is listed in the IUCN Red List as an Endangered species.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Meera Patel answered |
Explanation:
The given statements are related to Pangolin, a unique mammal. Let's discuss each statement in detail:
Statement 1: The Pangolin is the only mammal to have large keratin scales to cover its skin.
This statement is true. Pangolins are the only mammals that have large keratin scales covering their skin. These scales are made up of the same material as human fingernails and rhino horns.
Statement 2: The Indian Pangolin is mainly found in India in the arid region, the high Himalayas and the northeast region.
This statement is not correct. While the Indian Pangolin is found in India, it is not mainly found in the arid region, high Himalayas or northeast region. It is found in a wide variety of habitats ranging from dry and arid areas to grasslands, scrub forests, and even agricultural areas. It is found in most parts of India except for the higher elevations of the Himalayas.
Statement 3: The Pangolin is listed in the IUCN Red List as an Endangered species.
This statement is true. All eight species of pangolins are listed on the IUCN Red List as endangered or critically endangered due to habitat loss and poaching for their meat and scales.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - statement 2 is not correct.
The given statements are related to Pangolin, a unique mammal. Let's discuss each statement in detail:
Statement 1: The Pangolin is the only mammal to have large keratin scales to cover its skin.
This statement is true. Pangolins are the only mammals that have large keratin scales covering their skin. These scales are made up of the same material as human fingernails and rhino horns.
Statement 2: The Indian Pangolin is mainly found in India in the arid region, the high Himalayas and the northeast region.
This statement is not correct. While the Indian Pangolin is found in India, it is not mainly found in the arid region, high Himalayas or northeast region. It is found in a wide variety of habitats ranging from dry and arid areas to grasslands, scrub forests, and even agricultural areas. It is found in most parts of India except for the higher elevations of the Himalayas.
Statement 3: The Pangolin is listed in the IUCN Red List as an Endangered species.
This statement is true. All eight species of pangolins are listed on the IUCN Red List as endangered or critically endangered due to habitat loss and poaching for their meat and scales.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B - statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements.1. Agni-P is a canisterised missile that has a range of upto 2000 km.2. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving the storage and ease of handling.3. INS Viraat is India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I).Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)2 only
- b)1, 3
- c)1, 2
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Agni-P is a canisterised missile that has a range of upto 2000 km.
2. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving the storage and ease of handling.
3. INS Viraat is India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
2 only
b)
1, 3
c)
1, 2
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Athira Bose answered |
's first indigenous aircraft carrier.4. Canisterisation of missiles also enhances their survivability and protection against enemy attacks.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. Agni-P is a canisterised missile that has a range of upto 2000 km. (True)
2. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving the storage and ease of handling. (True)
3. INSViraat is India's first indigenous aircraft carrier. (False)
4. Canisterisation of missiles also enhances their survivability and protection against enemy attacks. (True)
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are true.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. Agni-P is a canisterised missile that has a range of upto 2000 km. (True)
2. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving the storage and ease of handling. (True)
3. INSViraat is India's first indigenous aircraft carrier. (False)
4. Canisterisation of missiles also enhances their survivability and protection against enemy attacks. (True)
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are true.
Consider the following statements:1. In India, the right of witnesses to testify freely in courts is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.2. The Malimath Committee Report is associated with the recommendation of a witness protection scheme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the right of witnesses to testify freely in courts is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Malimath Committee Report is associated with the recommendation of a witness protection scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Meera Chavan answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: In India, the right of witnesses to testify freely in courts is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
The right to testify freely in courts is not explicitly mentioned as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted by the judiciary to include several other rights, including the right to a fair trial.
However, the right to testify freely in courts is derived from the right to a fair trial, which is an integral part of Article 21. The right to a fair trial includes the right to present evidence, call witnesses, and cross-examine witnesses. Therefore, while not explicitly mentioned, the right of witnesses to testify freely can be considered as a fundamental right under Article 21.
Statement 2: The Malimath Committee Report is associated with the recommendation of a witness protection scheme.
The Malimath Committee Report, submitted in 2003, was a comprehensive report on criminal justice reforms in India. The committee, headed by Justice V.S. Malimath, made several recommendations to improve the criminal justice system.
One of the key recommendations of the Malimath Committee Report was the establishment of a witness protection scheme. The report recognized that witnesses often face threats, intimidation, and harassment, which can deter them from testifying truthfully in court. To address this issue, the committee recommended the creation of a witness protection scheme to ensure the safety and security of witnesses.
The recommendation for a witness protection scheme was aimed at encouraging witnesses to come forward and testify without fear, thereby strengthening the criminal justice system. The scheme would provide measures such as identity protection, relocation, and support to witnesses, ensuring their safety and enabling them to testify freely in court.
Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. While the right of witnesses to testify freely is derived from the right to a fair trial under Article 21, the Malimath Committee Report did indeed recommend the establishment of a witness protection scheme to safeguard witnesses and encourage them to testify truthfully.
Statement 1: In India, the right of witnesses to testify freely in courts is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
The right to testify freely in courts is not explicitly mentioned as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted by the judiciary to include several other rights, including the right to a fair trial.
However, the right to testify freely in courts is derived from the right to a fair trial, which is an integral part of Article 21. The right to a fair trial includes the right to present evidence, call witnesses, and cross-examine witnesses. Therefore, while not explicitly mentioned, the right of witnesses to testify freely can be considered as a fundamental right under Article 21.
Statement 2: The Malimath Committee Report is associated with the recommendation of a witness protection scheme.
The Malimath Committee Report, submitted in 2003, was a comprehensive report on criminal justice reforms in India. The committee, headed by Justice V.S. Malimath, made several recommendations to improve the criminal justice system.
One of the key recommendations of the Malimath Committee Report was the establishment of a witness protection scheme. The report recognized that witnesses often face threats, intimidation, and harassment, which can deter them from testifying truthfully in court. To address this issue, the committee recommended the creation of a witness protection scheme to ensure the safety and security of witnesses.
The recommendation for a witness protection scheme was aimed at encouraging witnesses to come forward and testify without fear, thereby strengthening the criminal justice system. The scheme would provide measures such as identity protection, relocation, and support to witnesses, ensuring their safety and enabling them to testify freely in court.
Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. While the right of witnesses to testify freely is derived from the right to a fair trial under Article 21, the Malimath Committee Report did indeed recommend the establishment of a witness protection scheme to safeguard witnesses and encourage them to testify truthfully.
The freedom of press under Article 19 of Indian constitution is restricted on which of the following grounds?1. Sovereignty and integrity of India,2. Contempt of court,3. Defamation4. Incitement to an offense.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)3 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The freedom of press under Article 19 of Indian constitution is restricted on which of the following grounds?
1. Sovereignty and integrity of India,
2. Contempt of court,
3. Defamation
4. Incitement to an offense.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
3 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Amit Kumar answered |
Press Freedom in India
- Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, 1950: The Supreme Court in Romesh Thappar v. the State of Madras observed that freedom of the press lay at the foundation of all democratic organizations.
- Fundamental Right Under Article 19: The Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, which deals with ‘Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
- Implicit Right: Freedom of the press is not expressly protected by the Indian legal system but it is impliedly protected under article 19(1) (a) of the constitution.
- However, Freedom of the press is also not absolute.
- A law could impose only those restrictions on the exercise of this right, it faces certain restrictions under article 19(2), which is as follows:
- Sovereignty and integrity of India,
- Security of the State,
- Friendly relations with foreign States,
- Public order, decency or morality or in
- Contempt of court,
- Defamation
- Incitement to an offense
- Hence, option D is correct.
Consider the following statements:1. The La Nina is the “cool phase” of El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).2. The La Nina event happens when ocean surface waters cool along the Pacific coast of the South American tropics.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The La Nina is the “cool phase” of El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
2. The La Nina event happens when ocean surface waters cool along the Pacific coast of the South American tropics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Rajesh Khatri answered |
c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements given are correct. The La Nina is the "cool phase" of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), which is a natural climate pattern that occurs in the Pacific Ocean. During a La Nina event, ocean surface waters cool along the Pacific coast of the South American tropics, leading to a variety of weather and climate impacts around the world. La Nina events typically occur every few years and can last anywhere from a few months to several years. They are often associated with below-average temperatures and above-average precipitation in some parts of the world, while causing drier and warmer conditions in others.
With reference to the Sports Authority of India (SAI), consider the following statements:1. The Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the apex national sports body of India for the development of sport in India.2. It was established in 1954.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Sports Authority of India (SAI), consider the following statements:
1. The Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the apex national sports body of India for the development of sport in India.
2. It was established in 1954.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Akshita Menon answered |
Overview of the Sports Authority of India (SAI)
The Sports Authority of India (SAI) plays a pivotal role in the promotion and development of sports in the country.
Statement 1: Apex National Sports Body
- The first statement claims that SAI is the apex national sports body of India for the development of sport.
- This statement is correct. SAI is indeed the premier organization responsible for the overall growth and development of sports in India. It oversees various training programs, infrastructure development, and talent scouting.
Statement 2: Establishment Year
- The second statement asserts that SAI was established in 1954.
- This statement is incorrect. SAI was actually established in 1984. The organization was set up to promote sports and physical fitness in the country, especially in the context of preparing athletes for international competitions.
Conclusion
- Since Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer to the question is option A: 1 only.
- This distinction is crucial for understanding the timeline and significance of sports governance in India.
By recognizing these details, one can appreciate the foundational role SAI plays in nurturing athletic talent and promoting sports culture in India.
The Sports Authority of India (SAI) plays a pivotal role in the promotion and development of sports in the country.
Statement 1: Apex National Sports Body
- The first statement claims that SAI is the apex national sports body of India for the development of sport.
- This statement is correct. SAI is indeed the premier organization responsible for the overall growth and development of sports in India. It oversees various training programs, infrastructure development, and talent scouting.
Statement 2: Establishment Year
- The second statement asserts that SAI was established in 1954.
- This statement is incorrect. SAI was actually established in 1984. The organization was set up to promote sports and physical fitness in the country, especially in the context of preparing athletes for international competitions.
Conclusion
- Since Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer to the question is option A: 1 only.
- This distinction is crucial for understanding the timeline and significance of sports governance in India.
By recognizing these details, one can appreciate the foundational role SAI plays in nurturing athletic talent and promoting sports culture in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Cheetah:1. It is the only carnivore that has been eliminated from India due to over-hunting.2. The African Cheetah is bigger in size than the Asiatic Cheetah.3. Both the African and Asiatic Cheetah are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Cheetah:
1. It is the only carnivore that has been eliminated from India due to over-hunting.
2. The African Cheetah is bigger in size than the Asiatic Cheetah.
3. Both the African and Asiatic Cheetah are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Aniket Kapoor answered |
Statement 1: It is the only carnivore that has been eliminated from India due to over-hunting.
- This statement is correct. The cheetah is indeed the only carnivore that has been eliminated from India due to over-hunting. In the early 20th century, cheetahs were found in several parts of India, but excessive hunting and habitat loss led to their extinction in the country.
Statement 2: The African Cheetah is bigger in size than the Asiatic Cheetah.
- This statement is incorrect. The African cheetah and the Asiatic cheetah are roughly the same size. Both subspecies have similar body structures and measurements. The main difference between them lies in their genetic and geographic distribution.
Statement 3: Both the African and Asiatic Cheetah are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
- This statement is correct. Both the African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) and the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List. The African cheetah is classified as "Vulnerable" while the Asiatic cheetah is classified as "Critically Endangered". The main threats to their survival include habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.
In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
- This statement is correct. The cheetah is indeed the only carnivore that has been eliminated from India due to over-hunting. In the early 20th century, cheetahs were found in several parts of India, but excessive hunting and habitat loss led to their extinction in the country.
Statement 2: The African Cheetah is bigger in size than the Asiatic Cheetah.
- This statement is incorrect. The African cheetah and the Asiatic cheetah are roughly the same size. Both subspecies have similar body structures and measurements. The main difference between them lies in their genetic and geographic distribution.
Statement 3: Both the African and Asiatic Cheetah are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
- This statement is correct. Both the African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) and the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) are listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List. The African cheetah is classified as "Vulnerable" while the Asiatic cheetah is classified as "Critically Endangered". The main threats to their survival include habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.
In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements.1. The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is a preferential tariff system wherein differential tariff could be imposed by a nation on various countries depending upon factors such as whether it is a developed country or a developing country.2. The concept of GSP is very different from the concept of most favoured nation (MFN) status.3. Generalized System of Preferences is outside the purview of WTO.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is a preferential tariff system wherein differential tariff could be imposed by a nation on various countries depending upon factors such as whether it is a developed country or a developing country.
2. The concept of GSP is very different from the concept of most favoured nation (MFN) status.
3. Generalized System of Preferences is outside the purview of WTO.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Amit Sharma answered |
The Generalized System of Preferences, or GSP, is a preferential tariff system which provides tariff reduction on various products. The concept of GSP is very different from the concept of “most favored nation” (MFN). MFN status provides equal treatment in the case of tariff being imposed by a nation but in case of GSP differential tariff could be imposed by a nation on various countries depending upon factors such as whether it is a developed country or a developing country. Both the rules comes under the purview of WTO.
With reference to the Pacific ‘Ring of fire’, consider the following statements:1. It is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.2. It has several tectonic plates on its boundaries.3. The Aleutian Islands in Alaska also form part of this.Which of the above statements are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Pacific ‘Ring of fire’, consider the following statements:
1. It is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
2. It has several tectonic plates on its boundaries.
3. The Aleutian Islands in Alaska also form part of this.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
- The Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’ or the Circum-Pacific Belt, is an area along the Pacific Ocean that is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
- It is home to about 75% of the world’s volcanoes – more than 450 volcanoes. Also, about 90% of the world’s earthquakes occur here. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Ring of Fire is stretched to approximately 40,000 kilometers tracing boundaries between several tectonic plates including the Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Indian-Australian, Nazca, North American, and Philippine Plates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The chain runs up along the western coast of South and North America, crosses over the Aleutian Islands in Alaska, runs down the eastern coast of Asia past New Zealand and into the northern coast of Antarctica. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Brahmaputra river:1. It is known as Yarlung in China.2. It originates from the Kailash range under the name of Burhi Dihing.3. Sadiya is a town in Arunachal Pradesh where the river enters India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1 and 3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Brahmaputra river:
1. It is known as Yarlung in China.
2. It originates from the Kailash range under the name of Burhi Dihing.
3. Sadiya is a town in Arunachal Pradesh where the river enters India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Kalyan Kulkarni answered |
Answer:
The Brahmaputra river is one of the major rivers in Asia, flowing through China, India, and Bangladesh. Let's analyze each statement to determine which one(s) are correct:
Statement 1: It is known as Yarlung in China.
This statement is correct. In China, the Brahmaputra river is known as Yarlung Tsangpo. It flows through Tibet and is an important river in the region.
Statement 2: It originates from the Kailash range under the name of Burhi Dihing.
This statement is incorrect. The Brahmaputra river originates from the Angsi Glacier, located in the Himalayas of Tibet. It is formed by the confluence of the Siang and Lohit rivers in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. The Burhi Dihing is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, not the main river itself.
Statement 3: Sadiya is a town in Arunachal Pradesh where the river enters India.
This statement is correct. Sadiya is a town located in the Tinsukia district of the Indian state of Assam. It is situated at the easternmost part of the state and is the place where the Brahmaputra river enters India from Tibet. Sadiya is an important river port and serves as a gateway to the riverine islands of Majuli and Dibru-Saikhowa.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only. Option (b) is the correct answer.
The Brahmaputra river is one of the major rivers in Asia, flowing through China, India, and Bangladesh. Let's analyze each statement to determine which one(s) are correct:
Statement 1: It is known as Yarlung in China.
This statement is correct. In China, the Brahmaputra river is known as Yarlung Tsangpo. It flows through Tibet and is an important river in the region.
Statement 2: It originates from the Kailash range under the name of Burhi Dihing.
This statement is incorrect. The Brahmaputra river originates from the Angsi Glacier, located in the Himalayas of Tibet. It is formed by the confluence of the Siang and Lohit rivers in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. The Burhi Dihing is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, not the main river itself.
Statement 3: Sadiya is a town in Arunachal Pradesh where the river enters India.
This statement is correct. Sadiya is a town located in the Tinsukia district of the Indian state of Assam. It is situated at the easternmost part of the state and is the place where the Brahmaputra river enters India from Tibet. Sadiya is an important river port and serves as a gateway to the riverine islands of Majuli and Dibru-Saikhowa.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only. Option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Gross domestic product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA).1. GDP maps the economy from the expenditure or demand side, that is by adding up all the expenditures.2. GVA provides a picture of the economy from the supply side.3. GVA maps the value-added by different sectors of the economy such as agriculture, industry and services.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1, 3
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Gross domestic product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA).
1. GDP maps the economy from the expenditure or demand side, that is by adding up all the expenditures.
2. GVA provides a picture of the economy from the supply side.
3. GVA maps the value-added by different sectors of the economy such as agriculture, industry and services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1, 3
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
Ishita Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
1. GDP maps the economy from the expenditure or demand side:
- GDP measures the total monetary value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.
- It is calculated by adding up all the expenditures, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
2. GVA provides a picture of the economy from the supply side:
- GVA measures the value of goods and services produced within an economy, less the cost of inputs and raw materials that are directly attributable to that production.
- It provides a picture of the economy from the supply side, showing the value-added at each stage of production.
3. GVA maps the value-added by different sectors of the economy:
- GVA maps the value-added by different sectors of the economy, such as agriculture, industry, and services.
- It helps in understanding the contribution of each sector to the overall economy and can be used to analyze the productivity and efficiency of different sectors.
Therefore, all the statements mentioned in the question are correct. GDP and GVA are both important indicators used to analyze and understand the economic performance of a country, with GDP focusing on the expenditure side and GVA providing insights from the supply side.
With reference to the White Revolution, consider the following statements:1. It was the brainchild of MS Swaminathan.2. It started operation flood, which focused on milk cooperatives to increase milk production.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the White Revolution, consider the following statements:
1. It was the brainchild of MS Swaminathan.
2. It started operation flood, which focused on milk cooperatives to increase milk production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- The White Revolution in India was the brainchild of Dr Verghese Kurein. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Under him, many important institutions were established like the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd and the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
- The bedrock of the revolution has been the village milk producers' cooperatives. Their major role during Operation Flood was seen as engines of growth in milk production.
- The policy has also favoured the entry of multinational dairy corporations into the Indian dairy sector, through joint ventures: mergers and acquisitions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomic Consortia (INSACOG), consider the following statements:1. The overall aim of the Consortium is to monitor the genomic variations in the SARS-CoV-2 on a regular basis through a multi-laboratory network.2. INSACOG will have a high level Inter-Ministerial Steering Committee which will provide guidance and oversight to the consortium specially for policy matters and it will have a Scientific Advisory Group for scientific and technical guidance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomic Consortia (INSACOG), consider the following statements:
1. The overall aim of the Consortium is to monitor the genomic variations in the SARS-CoV-2 on a regular basis through a multi-laboratory network.
2. INSACOG will have a high level Inter-Ministerial Steering Committee which will provide guidance and oversight to the consortium specially for policy matters and it will have a Scientific Advisory Group for scientific and technical guidance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
The Government of India has launched the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomic Consortia (INSACOG).
- The overall aim of the Consortium is to monitor the genomic variations in the SARS-CoV-2 on a regular basis through a multi-laboratory network. This vital research consortium will also assist in developing potential vaccines in the future.
- It comprises 10 labs namely DBT-NIBMG Kalyani, DBT-ILS Bhubaneswar, ICMR-NIV Pune, DBT-NCCS Pune, CSIR-CCMB Hyderabad, DBT-CDFD Hyderabad, DBT-InSTEM/ NCBS Bengaluru, NIMHANS Bengaluru, CSIR-IGIB Delhi, and NCDC Delhi.
- INSACOG will have a high level Inter-Ministerial Steering Committee which will provide guidance and oversight to the consortium specially for policy matters and it will have a Scientific Advisory Group for scientific and technical guidance.
- Coordinated by Department of Biotechnology (DBT) along with MoH&FW, ICMR, and CSIR, the strategy and roadmap of the National SARS CoV2 Genome Sequencing Consortium (INSACOG) has been prepared.
- Hence both statements are correct.
India currently has Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with which of the following countries?1. Japan2. Australia3. United Kingdom4. SingaporeSelect the correct answer code:- a)1, 2, 3
- b)1, 3, 4
- c)1, 4
- d)1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
India currently has Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with which of the following countries?
1. Japan
2. Australia
3. United Kingdom
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer code:
a)
1, 2, 3
b)
1, 3, 4
c)
1, 4
d)
1, 2, 3, 4
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
India is in dialogue with Israel for concluding a Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
Bilateral free trade agreements are being negotiated with the United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, Australia and Canada.
India currently has Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with Japan and Singapore.
Consider the following statements the 'Sweet revolution':1. The initiative aims to promote sugarcane production in North-eastern states of India.2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements the 'Sweet revolution':
1. The initiative aims to promote sugarcane production in North-eastern states of India.
2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Anjana Chavan answered |
Statement Analysis: The Sweet Revolution
Statement 1: The initiative aims to promote sugarcane production in North-eastern states of India.
Statement 2: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Correct Answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:
The Sweet Revolution is a government initiative to promote the cultivation of sugarcane in India. However, it is not specific to North-eastern states. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as The Sweet Revolution is indeed an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1: The initiative aims to promote sugarcane production in North-eastern states of India.
Statement 2: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Correct Answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:
The Sweet Revolution is a government initiative to promote the cultivation of sugarcane in India. However, it is not specific to North-eastern states. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as The Sweet Revolution is indeed an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding election campaigning:1. A candidate can be disqualified for spending more than prescribed limit for election campaign.2. There is no cap on a political party’s expenditure for campaigning.Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding election campaigning:
1. A candidate can be disqualified for spending more than prescribed limit for election campaign.
2. There is no cap on a political party’s expenditure for campaigning.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- The expenditure limit for candidates for Lok Sabha constituencies was increased from Rs 54 lakh-Rs 70 lakh (depending on states) to Rs 70 lakh-Rs 95 lakh, by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
- Further, the spending limit for Assembly constituencies was hiked from Rs 20 lakh-Rs 28 lakh to Rs 28 lakh- Rs 40 lakh (depending on states).
- It is the amount an election candidate can legally spend for their election campaign and has to account for, which includes expenses on public meetings, rallies, advertisements, posters, banners, vehicles and advertisements.
- All candidates are required to submit their expenditure statement to the ECI within 30 days of the completion of the elections.
- An incorrect account or expenditure beyond the cap can lead to disqualification of the candidate by the ECI for up to three years, under Section 10A of RPA, 1951.
- Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- There is no cap on a political party’s expenditure, which is often exploited by candidates of the party. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the 'Western disturbance', consider the following statements:1. It is an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region.2. It causes the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across Southern India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the 'Western disturbance', consider the following statements:
1. It is an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region.
2. It causes the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across Southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Amit Kumar answered |
- Western Disturbance (WD), labeled as an extra-tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean, is an area of low pressure that brings sudden showers, snow and fog in northwest India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The disturbance travels from the “western” to the eastern direction.
- These travel eastwards on high-altitude westerly jet streams - massive ribbons of fast winds traversing the earth from west to east.
- Western Disturbances are the cause of the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall across North-West India. This phenomenon is usually associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures, and unusual rain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- It is estimated that India gets close to 5-10% of its total annual rainfall from western disturbances
Consider the following statements:1. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) gives the status of developing and developed country to its members on the basis of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita in current USD of the previous year.2. The developing countries get automatic benefit from the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) scheme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) gives the status of developing and developed country to its members on the basis of Gross National Income (GNI) per capita in current USD of the previous year.
2. The developing countries get automatic benefit from the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- There are no World Trade Organisation (WTO) definitions of “developed” and “developing” countries. Members announce for themselves whether they are “developed” or “developing” countries.
- The World Bank assigns the world’s economies to four income groups—low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high-income countries.
- The classifications are updated each year on 1st July and are based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita in current USD of the previous year. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Developing country status in the WTO brings certain rights.
- There are some WTO Agreements which provide developing countries with longer transition periods before they are required to fully implement the agreement and developing countries can receive technical assistance.
- That a WTO member announces itself as a developing country does not automatically mean that it will benefit from the unilateral preference schemes of some of the developed country members such as the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP).
- In practice, it is the preference giving country which decides the list of developing countries that will benefit from the preferences
- Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Which country hosted the official celebrations of World Environment Day in 2021?- a)Germany
- b)India
- c)Kenya
- d)Brazil
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which country hosted the official celebrations of World Environment Day in 2021?
a)
Germany
b)
India
c)
Kenya
d)
Brazil
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
India hosted the official celebrations of World Environment Day in 2021. The theme for that year was "Ecosystem Restoration," emphasizing the urgent need to protect and restore ecosystems around the world to safeguard biodiversity, combat climate change, and ensure a sustainable future for all.
Consider the following statements regarding Guru Gobind Singh one of the ten Sikh Gurus:1. He was the third guru of sikhs.2. He founded the principles of Khalsa.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Guru Gobind Singh one of the ten Sikh Gurus:
1. He was the third guru of sikhs.
2. He founded the principles of Khalsa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
Guru Gobind Singh
- The last of the ten Sikh Gurus, Guru Gobind Singh was born on 22nd December 1666 in Patna, Bihar. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- His birth anniversary is based on the Nanakshahi calendar.
- He became the Sikh guru at the age of nine, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru. He was assassinated in 1708.
- He is known for his significant contributions to the Sikh religion, including the introduction of the turban to cover hair.
- He also founded the principles of Khalsa or the Five ‘K’s.
- The Five K’s are kesh (uncut hair), kanga (wooden comb), kara (iron or steel bracelet), kirpan (dagger) and kachera (short breeches). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These were the five articles of faith that a Khalsa must always adorn.
- He also laid down many other rules for the Khalsa warriors to follow like abstaining from tobacco, alcohol, halal meat, etc. The Khalsa warrior was also duty-bound to protect innocent people from persecution.
- He named Guru Granth Sahib, the religious text of the Khalsas and the Sikhs, as the next Guru of the two communities.
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode, consider the following statements:1. An offline digital payment does not require Internet or telecom connectivity.2. There is a limit of ₹200 per transaction and an overall limit of ₹2,000 until the balance in the account is replenished.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode, consider the following statements:
1. An offline digital payment does not require Internet or telecom connectivity.
2. There is a limit of ₹200 per transaction and an overall limit of ₹2,000 until the balance in the account is replenished.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Anand Chakraborty answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: An offline digital payment does not require Internet or telecom connectivity.
- This statement is correct. The RBI framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode allows for transactions to be conducted without the need for Internet or telecom connectivity.
- This offline mode of payment enables individuals to make payments using their mobile phones or other devices even in areas with poor network coverage.
Statement 2: There is a limit of 200 per transaction and an overall limit of 2,000 until the balance in the account is replenished.
- This statement is also correct. The RBI has set a limit of 200 per transaction and an overall limit of 2,000 until the balance in the account is replenished.
- This limit ensures that small-value transactions can be conducted securely in the offline mode without the risk of large amounts being transacted without connectivity to verify the transaction.
Conclusion:
- Both statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the RBI framework for facilitating small-value digital payments in offline mode. This framework aims to promote digital payments and financial inclusion by providing a convenient and secure way for individuals to make transactions even in areas with limited Internet connectivity.
With reference to the expenditure limit for candidates in Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies, consider the following statements:1. The ceiling on parliamentary poll expenditure has been raised from 70 lakh to 95 lakh rupees in bigger states and 54 lakh to 75 lakhs in smaller states.2. The ceiling on poll expenditure in UT of Jammu and Kashmir has been raised to 95 lakhs.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the expenditure limit for candidates in Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies, consider the following statements:
1. The ceiling on parliamentary poll expenditure has been raised from 70 lakh to 95 lakh rupees in bigger states and 54 lakh to 75 lakhs in smaller states.
2. The ceiling on poll expenditure in UT of Jammu and Kashmir has been raised to 95 lakhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
The Election Commission has enhanced the existing election expenditure limit for candidates in Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies.
- These limits will be applicable in all upcoming elections.
- The ceiling on parliamentary poll expenditure has been raised from 70 lakh to 95 lakh rupees in bigger states and 54 lakh to 75 lakhs in smaller states.
- The bigger states include Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Karnataka, and the smaller states include Goa, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh and UTs.
- The ceiling on poll expenditure in UT of Jammu and Kashmir has been raised to 95 lakhs.
- For Assembly constituencies, expenditure limits have been enhanced from 28 lakh rupees 40 lakh rupees in bigger states and from 20 lakhs to 28 lakhs in smaller states.
- Last major revision in the election expenditure limit was carried out in 2014, which was further increased by 10 percent in 2020. EC had formed a Committee to study the cost factors and other related issues, and make suitable recommendations.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Agreement on Agriculture’:
1. It is aimed to remove trade barriers and to promote transparent market access and integration of global markets.
2. The subsidies for environmental protection and regional development programmes are included in the Green box.
3. The measures to support prices, or subsidies directly related to production quantities are included in the Amber box.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a)1 only
- b)1, 2 and 3
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Agreement on Agriculture’:
1. It is aimed to remove trade barriers and to promote transparent market access and integration of global markets.
2. The subsidies for environmental protection and regional development programmes are included in the Green box.
3. The measures to support prices, or subsidies directly related to production quantities are included in the Amber box.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- The Agreement on Agriculture is aimed to remove trade barriers and to promote transparent market access and integration of global markets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Three pillars of Agreement on Agriculture:
- Domestic Support: It calls for reduction in domestic subsidies that distorts free trade and fair price.
- Under this provision, the Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS) is to be reduced by 20% over a period of 6 years by developed countries and 13% over a period of 10 years by developing countries.
- Under this, Subsidies are categorized into:
- Green Box:
- Subsidies that do not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion.
- They are government-funded and must not involve price support.
- They also include environmental protection and regional development programmes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- “Green box” subsidies are therefore allowed without limits, provided they comply with the policy-specific criteria.
- Amber Box:
- All domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box as all domestic supports except those in the blue and green boxes.
- These include measures to support prices, or subsidies directly related to production quantities. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Blue Box:
- This is the “amber box with conditions”. Such conditions are designed to reduce distortion.
- Any support that would normally be in the amber box is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production.
- At present, there are no limits on spending on blue box subsidies.
- Green Box:
- Market Access: Market access for goods in the WTO means the conditions, tariff and non-tariff measures, agreed by members for the entry of specific goods into their markets.
- Market access requires that tariffs fixed (like custom duties) by individual countries be cut progressively to allow free trade. It also required countries to remove non-tariff barriers and convert them to Tariff duties.
- Export Subsidy: Subsidy on inputs of agriculture, making export cheaper or other incentives for exports such as import duty remission etc are included under export subsidies.
- These can result in dumping of highly subsidized (and cheap) products in other countries and damage the domestic agriculture sector of other countries.
- Domestic Support: It calls for reduction in domestic subsidies that distorts free trade and fair price.
Consider the following statements:1. The Periodic Labour Force Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.2. Quarterly Employment Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Periodic Labour Force Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. Quarterly Employment Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Organization (NSO), MoSPI (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- The Quarterly Employment Survey (QES) is part of the All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey (AQEES). It is released by the Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- It covers establishments employing 10 or more workers in the organised segment in 9 sectors.
- These nine sectors are Manufacturing, Construction, Trade, Transport, Education, Health, Accommodation and Restaurant, IT/ BPO and Financial Services.
Consider the following statements:1. The Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) is a centrally sponsored scheme.2. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries and NAFED have launched One District One Product (ODOP) brands under the PMFME Scheme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) is a centrally sponsored scheme.
2. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries and NAFED have launched One District One Product (ODOP) brands under the PMFME Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- Recently, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited) launched six, One District One Product (ODOP) brands under the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Ministry has signed an agreement with NAFED for developing 10 brands of selected ODOPs under the branding and marketing component of the PMFME scheme. Out of these, six brands are Amrit Phal, Cori Gold, Kashmiri Mantra, Madhu Mantra, Somdana, and Whole Wheat Cookies of Dilli Bakes.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme with an outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore.
- The expenditure under the scheme would be shared in 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in 90:10 ratio with North Eastern and Himalayan States, 60:40 ratio with UTs with legislature and 100% by Centre for other UTs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements about Indo-Israel Relations:1. India is Israel's largest trade partner in Asia and seventh largest globally.2. Operation Breathing Space was conducted by Israel to work with Indian authorities on the Covid-19 response.3. The Indian armed forces have inducted the Phalcon AWACS (airborne warning and control systems) from Israel.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Indo-Israel Relations:
1. India is Israel's largest trade partner in Asia and seventh largest globally.
2. Operation Breathing Space was conducted by Israel to work with Indian authorities on the Covid-19 response.
3. The Indian armed forces have inducted the Phalcon AWACS (airborne warning and control systems) from Israel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- India is Israel's third-largest trade partner in Asia and seventh largest globally.
- Both countries currently have USD 4.14 billion of trade (April 2020 – February 2021), a figure that doesn't include the defence trade which has been increasing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Israeli companies have invested in India in energy, renewable energy, telecom, real estate, water technologies, and are focusing on setting up Research & Development centres or production units in India.
- The first recipients of grants from the Israel-India Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) were announced in July 2018, including companies working to better the lives of Indians and Israelis through efficient water use, improving communications infrastructure, solar energy use, and life-changing surgeries.
- The fund aims to help Israeli entrepreneurs enter the Indian market.
- Israel has been among the top four arms suppliers to India for almost two decades now, notching military sales worth around USD 1 billion every year.
- The Indian armed forces have inducted a wide array of Israeli weapon systems over the years, which range from Phalcon AWACS (airborne warning and control systems) and Heron, Searcher-II and Harop drones to Barak anti-missile defence systems and Spyder quick-reaction anti-aircraft missile systems.
- The acquisitions also include a host of Israeli missiles and precision-guided munitions, from Python and Derby air-to-air missiles to Crystal Maze and Spice-2000 bombs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- At the 15th Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting on Bilateral Defence Cooperation between India and Israel, both countries agreed to form a Task Force to formulate a comprehensive Ten-Year Roadmap to identify new areas of cooperation.
- In 2020, an Israeli team arrived in India with a multi-pronged mission, codenamed Operation Breathing Space to work with Indian authorities on the Covid-19 response. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the “NH – 248BB”, consider the following statements:1. It will be the first-ever elevated Urban Expressway in India.2. The entire project will be equipped with Intelligent Transportation System (ITS).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the “NH – 248BB”, consider the following statements:
1. It will be the first-ever elevated Urban Expressway in India.
2. The entire project will be equipped with Intelligent Transportation System (ITS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Mira Sharma answered |
The Union Minister of Road Transport & Highways reviewed the progress of India’s First Grade Separated Urban Expressway, Dwarka Expressway (NH – 248BB).
- The Minister expressed hope that the 29-kilometre long Expressway, being constructed under the Bharatmala Project and with a cost of Rs.8,662 crore, would be completed before the Independence Day next year.
- Being built in four packages, total length of the Expressway is 29 kilometres out of which 18.9 kilometre length falls in Haryana while remaining 10.1 kilometre length is in Delhi. It starts from Shiv-Murti on National Highway-8 and ends near KherkiDaula Toll Plaza.
- Delhi-Gurugram section of National Highway-8, a part of Delhi-Jaipur-Ahmedabad-Mumbai arm of Golden Quadrilateral (GQ), is presently carrying traffic of over three lakh Passenger Car Units (PCUs). With the construction of the present project, 50 to 60 per cent traffic on National Highway-8 will be reduced.
Key highlights:
- It will be the first-ever elevated Urban Expressway in India and will immensely help reducing the air pollution in Delhi-NCR.
- The Dwarka Expressway would also be the first instance of a project where Tree Plantation of approximately 12,000 trees has been undertaken, keeping protection of the environment in view.
- This will have longest (3.6 kilometre) and widest (8 lane) Urban Road Tunnel in India.
- It will also comprise India’s first 9-kilometre long 8-lane flyover (34-metre wide) on single pier with 6-lane service roads.
- The entire project will be equipped with Intelligent Transportation System (ITS).
- Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) :1. DRDO is the R&D (Research and Development) wing of the Ministry of Science & Technology.2. It was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) :
1. DRDO is the R&D (Research and Development) wing of the Ministry of Science & Technology.
2. It was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Pooja Shah answered |
- DRDO is the R&D (Research and Development) wing of the Ministry of Defence with a vision to empower India with cutting-edge defence technologies. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- Its pursuit of self-reliance and successful indigenous development and production of strategic systems and platforms such as Agni and Prithvi series of missiles, Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas, multi-barrel rocket launcher, Pinaka, air defence system, Akash, a wide range of radars and electronic warfare systems, etc. have given quantum jump to India's military might, generating effective deterrence and providing crucial leverage.
- It was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is a network of more than 50 laboratories which are deeply engaged in developing defence technologies covering various disciplines, like aeronautics, armaments, electronics, combat vehicles, engineering systems etc.
Consider the following statements regarding the Savannas :1. Savannas grow in 40° to 60° latitudes from the Equator.2. Grasses and trees that grow in the savanna have adapted to life with little water and hot temperatures.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Savannas :
1. Savannas grow in 40° to 60° latitudes from the Equator.
2. Grasses and trees that grow in the savanna have adapted to life with little water and hot temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- Savanna, also spelled savannah, vegetation type that grows under hot, seasonally dry climatic conditions and is characterised by an open tree canopy (i.e., scattered trees) above a continuous tall grass understory (the vegetation layer between the forest canopy and the ground).
- The largest areas of savanna are found in Africa, South America, Australia, India, the Myanmar (Burma)–Thailand region in Asia, and Madagascar.
- In general, savannas grow in tropical regions 8° to 20° latitudes from the Equator. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- Conditions are warm to hot in all seasons, but significant rainfall occurs for only a few months each year—about October to March in the Southern Hemisphere and April to September in the Northern Hemisphere.
- Mean annual precipitation is generally 80 to 150 cm although in some central continental locations it may be as low as 50 cm .
- The dry season is typically longer than the wet season, but it varies considerably, from 2 to 11 months. Mean monthly temperatures are about 10 to 20 °C in the dry season and 20 to 30 °C in the wet season.
- Grasses and trees that grow in the savanna have adapted to life with little water and hot temperatures. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Grasses, for example, grow quickly in the wet season when water is abundant and turn brown in the dry season to conserve water.
Consider the following statements regarding Carbonisation.1. It involves pyrolysis of organic carbon to produce coke.2. Wood does not undergo carbonisation.3. A major advantage of industrial carbonisation is that no carbon monoxide emissions are involved.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Carbonisation.
1. It involves pyrolysis of organic carbon to produce coke.
2. Wood does not undergo carbonisation.
3. A major advantage of industrial carbonisation is that no carbon monoxide emissions are involved.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
Fossil fuels generally are the products of the carbonisation of vegetable matter. The term carbonisation is also applied to the pyrolysis of coal to produce coke. Carbonisation is also a stage in the charcoal making process, and is considered the most important step of all since it has such power to influence the whole process from the growing tree to the final distribution of charcoal to various sources. The gas produced by carbonisation has a high content of carbon monoxide which is poisonous when breathed.
Who will release financial assistance under the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme?- a)Prime Minister Narendra Modi
- b)Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy
- c)IPS officer Ajay Bhatnagar
- d)Joint Secretary Shri Amitabh Prasad
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Who will release financial assistance under the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme?
a)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
b)
Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy
c)
IPS officer Ajay Bhatnagar
d)
Joint Secretary Shri Amitabh Prasad
|
Aishwarya nayar answered |
Under the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme, the financial assistance will be released by Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy.
The Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme, launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, aims to provide financial assistance to mothers or guardians of school-going children. The scheme was introduced with the intention of promoting education and reducing the dropout rate in schools.
Explanation:
Objective of the Scheme:
The primary objective of the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme is to encourage children to attend school regularly and complete their education. It aims to provide financial assistance to the mothers or guardians of eligible students to meet their educational expenses.
Role of Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy:
As the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy is responsible for implementing and overseeing the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme. He plays a pivotal role in ensuring that the financial assistance reaches the intended beneficiaries in a timely manner.
Eligibility and Selection Process:
To be eligible for the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme, the mothers or guardians of school-going children must fulfill certain criteria set by the government. The selection process involves verifying the eligibility of applicants based on factors such as income, age, and school attendance of the children.
Financial Assistance:
Under the scheme, eligible beneficiaries receive financial assistance of INR 15,000 per annum. This assistance is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries to ensure transparency and accountability.
Implementation and Monitoring:
The implementation and monitoring of the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme are carried out by the concerned authorities under the guidance of the Chief Minister. Regular reviews and evaluations are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the scheme and make necessary improvements.
In conclusion, Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy is responsible for releasing the financial assistance under the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme. This scheme aims to support the education of school-going children by providing financial assistance to their mothers or guardians. The scheme is implemented and monitored by the respective authorities to ensure transparency and accountability.
The Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme, launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, aims to provide financial assistance to mothers or guardians of school-going children. The scheme was introduced with the intention of promoting education and reducing the dropout rate in schools.
Explanation:
Objective of the Scheme:
The primary objective of the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme is to encourage children to attend school regularly and complete their education. It aims to provide financial assistance to the mothers or guardians of eligible students to meet their educational expenses.
Role of Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy:
As the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy is responsible for implementing and overseeing the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme. He plays a pivotal role in ensuring that the financial assistance reaches the intended beneficiaries in a timely manner.
Eligibility and Selection Process:
To be eligible for the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme, the mothers or guardians of school-going children must fulfill certain criteria set by the government. The selection process involves verifying the eligibility of applicants based on factors such as income, age, and school attendance of the children.
Financial Assistance:
Under the scheme, eligible beneficiaries receive financial assistance of INR 15,000 per annum. This assistance is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries to ensure transparency and accountability.
Implementation and Monitoring:
The implementation and monitoring of the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme are carried out by the concerned authorities under the guidance of the Chief Minister. Regular reviews and evaluations are conducted to assess the effectiveness of the scheme and make necessary improvements.
In conclusion, Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy is responsible for releasing the financial assistance under the Jagananna Amma Vodi scheme. This scheme aims to support the education of school-going children by providing financial assistance to their mothers or guardians. The scheme is implemented and monitored by the respective authorities to ensure transparency and accountability.
Consider the following statements:1. A mutation is a single change in the genetic material of the virus.2. A variant is the whole sequence of the virus, which may contain one or more mutations.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. A mutation is a single change in the genetic material of the virus.
2. A variant is the whole sequence of the virus, which may contain one or more mutations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
Mutation, Variant and Strain
- When a virus replicates it doesn’t always manage to produce an exact copy of itself.
- This means that, over time, the virus may start to differ slightly in terms of its genetic sequence.
- Any changes to the viral genetic sequence during this process is known as a Mutation.
- The words ‘mutation’ and ‘variant’ are sometimes used interchangeably, but they mean quite different things. A mutation is a single change in the genetic material of the virus (RNA in this case). A variant is the whole sequence of the virus (the genome), which may contain one or more mutations. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- When a new variant has different functional properties to the original virus and becomes established in a population, it is sometimes referred to as a New Strain of the virus.
- All strains are variants, but not all variants are strains.
With reference to ‘Agreement on Prohibition of Attacks against Nuclear Installations and Facilities’, consider the following statements:1. The agreement has been signed between India and China.2. According to this agreement, two countries have to inform each other of the nuclear facilities.3. Only nuclear power and research reactor installations are covered under this agreement.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to ‘Agreement on Prohibition of Attacks against Nuclear Installations and Facilities’, consider the following statements:
1. The agreement has been signed between India and China.
2. According to this agreement, two countries have to inform each other of the nuclear facilities.
3. Only nuclear power and research reactor installations are covered under this agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
|
|
Sanjana Roy answered |
Your question, it seems that you have not provided any specific information or topic for me to address. Could you please provide more details or clarify what you would like assistance with?
With reference to the TiHAN-IIT Hyderabad’, consider the following statements:1. It is India’s first Test bed for Autonomous Navigation Systems (Terrestrial and Aerial).2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the TiHAN-IIT Hyderabad’, consider the following statements:
1. It is India’s first Test bed for Autonomous Navigation Systems (Terrestrial and Aerial).
2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
Union Minister of Education laid foundation stone of ‘TiHAN-IIT Hyderabad’, India’s first Test bed for Autonomous Navigation Systems (Terrestrial and Aerial).
- The Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, has sanctioned Rs. 135 crores to IIT Hyderabad under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) to set up a Technology Innovation Hub on Autonomous Navigation and Data Acquisition Systems (UAVs, RoVs, etc.).
- The Technology Innovation Hub on Autonomous Navigation Systems for Unmanned Aerial Vehicles and Remotely Operated Vehicles at IIT Hyderabad, known as 'TiHAN Foundation' has been incorporated as a Section-8 company by the institute in June 2020.
- TiHAN Foundation is a multi-departmental initiative, including researchers from Electrical, Computer Science, Mechanical and Aerospace, Civil, Mathematics, and Design at IIT Hyderabad with collaboration and support from reputed institutions and industry.
- Special Features of this Facility include Test Tracks, Emulation of Real-World Scenarios, State of the Art Simulation Technologies, Road Infrastructure, V2X Communication, Drone Runways and Landing Area, Mechanical Integration Facility, Centralized Control Room/Ground Control Station, Hangars and many more.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, consider the following statements:1. The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS).2. The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, consider the following statements:
1. The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS).
2. The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Aditya Kumar answered |
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) expects to deliver all Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas in the Final Operational Clearance (FOC) variant to the Indian Air Force (IAF) in 2022 while the LCA MK-1A, with specific enhancements, will take flight by middle of this year, said R. Madhavan, Chief Managing Director, HAL.
- Last February the Defence Ministry had signed a ₹48,000 crore deal with HAL to supply 83 LCA MK-1A to the IAF. HAL will be delivering the first three aircraft in 2024 and 16 aircraft per year for subsequent five years, the Defence Ministry had stated earlier.
- The LCA MK-2 features enhanced range and endurance including Onboard Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS), which is being integrated for the first time.
- Heavy stand off weapons will also be integrated on the MK-2.
- The MK-2 will be a heavier and much more capable aircraft than the current LCA variants with the aircraft 1350mm longer, featuring canards and can carry a payload of 6,500 kg compared to 3,500 kg by the LCA.
- Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI), consider the following statements:1. National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI) is a Public Sector Enterprise under National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Science & Technology.2. NICSI started its journey in the ICT service industry on 29th August 1995.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI), consider the following statements:
1. National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI) is a Public Sector Enterprise under National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Science & Technology.
2. NICSI started its journey in the ICT service industry on 29th August 1995.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Maulik Ghoshal answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1:
- National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI) is a Public Sector Enterprise under National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, not Ministry of Science & Technology.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2:
- NICSI indeed started its journey in the ICT service industry on 29th August 1995.
- This statement is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.
Statement 1:
- National Informatics Centre services Incorporated (NICSI) is a Public Sector Enterprise under National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, not Ministry of Science & Technology.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2:
- NICSI indeed started its journey in the ICT service industry on 29th August 1995.
- This statement is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD)’:1. It was launched by the Ministry of Culture with the objective of holistic development of identified pilgrimage destinations.2. It also aims to promote local culture, arts, cuisine, handicrafts, etc., to generate livelihood in the identified places.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD)’:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Culture with the objective of holistic development of identified pilgrimage destinations.
2. It also aims to promote local culture, arts, cuisine, handicrafts, etc., to generate livelihood in the identified places.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Siddharth Dasgupta answered |
Consider the following statements regarding what? Could you please provide more information or context?
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), consider the following statements:1. PMMSY aims to enhance fish production to 220 lakh tons by 2024-25.2. The ambitious scheme will result in doubling export earnings to Rs.1, 00, 000 crores and generate about 55 lakhs direct and indirect employment opportunities in fisheries sector over a period of next five years.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), consider the following statements:
1. PMMSY aims to enhance fish production to 220 lakh tons by 2024-25.
2. The ambitious scheme will result in doubling export earnings to Rs.1, 00, 000 crores and generate about 55 lakhs direct and indirect employment opportunities in fisheries sector over a period of next five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
The Union Minister of Fisheries released the 2nd edition of the newsletter “Matsya Sampada” and a Beneficiary Booklet on Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) which provides a comprehensive outline of the different components/activities of the PMMSY scheme.
- PMMSY aims to enhance fish production to 220 lakh tons by 2024-25.
- This is a media outreach plan of the Department of Fisheries to reach out to fishermen and fish farmers of India.
- The ambitious scheme will result in doubling export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crores and generate about 55 lakhs direct and indirect employment opportunities in fisheries sector over a period of next five years.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:1. Dark Matter was first detected in 1938 by Albert Einstein.2. Dark Matter's gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Dark Matter was first detected in 1938 by Albert Einstein.
2. Dark Matter's gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
Dark Matter
- Dark matter, though never detected, is believed to be present in the entire universe. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
- It is presumed that primordial black holes, those that were formed in the early age of the universe, are a source of dark matter. It was proposed by Professor Stephen Hawking.
- It is believed that combined with dark energy, it makes up more than 95% of the universe.
- Its gravitational force prevents stars in our Milky Way from flying apart. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- However, attempts to detect such dark matter particles using underground experiments, or accelerator experiments including the world's largest accelerator, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), have failed so far.
Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the Subsidiary Alliance?1. It was introduced by Lord Wellesley in India.2. It was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.3. The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed by the Nawab of Awadh in 1801.Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the Subsidiary Alliance?
1. It was introduced by Lord Wellesley in India.
2. It was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.
3. The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed by the Nawab of Awadh in 1801.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1 and 3 only
|
|
Poulomi Chakraborty answered |
Explanation:
The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy introduced by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805. The policy aimed to create a network of dependent states under the British East India Company's control. The correct statements regarding the Subsidiary Alliance are as follows:
Statement 1: It was introduced by Lord Wellesley in India.
This statement is correct. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy during his tenure as the Governor-General of India.
Statement 2: It was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.
This statement is incorrect. The Subsidiary Alliance was actually a policy of direct interference in the internal affairs of the allied state. Under this policy, the British East India Company would provide military protection to the allied state in exchange for control over its foreign relations and the stationing of British troops within its territory. The allied state was also required to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of these troops. In essence, the Subsidiary Alliance allowed the British to exert significant influence and control over the affairs of the allied state.
Statement 3: The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed by the Nawab of Awadh in 1801.
This statement is correct. The first Subsidiary Treaty was indeed signed by the Nawab of Awadh (Oudh) in 1801. This marked the beginning of the implementation of the Subsidiary Alliance policy.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 3 only. The Subsidiary Alliance was not a policy of non-interference but rather a policy of direct interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.
The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy introduced by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805. The policy aimed to create a network of dependent states under the British East India Company's control. The correct statements regarding the Subsidiary Alliance are as follows:
Statement 1: It was introduced by Lord Wellesley in India.
This statement is correct. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy during his tenure as the Governor-General of India.
Statement 2: It was a policy of non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.
This statement is incorrect. The Subsidiary Alliance was actually a policy of direct interference in the internal affairs of the allied state. Under this policy, the British East India Company would provide military protection to the allied state in exchange for control over its foreign relations and the stationing of British troops within its territory. The allied state was also required to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of these troops. In essence, the Subsidiary Alliance allowed the British to exert significant influence and control over the affairs of the allied state.
Statement 3: The first Subsidiary Treaty was signed by the Nawab of Awadh in 1801.
This statement is correct. The first Subsidiary Treaty was indeed signed by the Nawab of Awadh (Oudh) in 1801. This marked the beginning of the implementation of the Subsidiary Alliance policy.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 3 only. The Subsidiary Alliance was not a policy of non-interference but rather a policy of direct interference in the internal affairs of the allied state.
With reference to Sulfur Dioxide(SO2) Pollution, consider the following statements:1. The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.2. There are no natural sources of Sulfur dioxide pollution.3. Short-term exposures to SO2 can harm the human respiratory system and make breathing difficult.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Sulfur Dioxide(SO2) Pollution, consider the following statements:
1. The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.
2. There are no natural sources of Sulfur dioxide pollution.
3. Short-term exposures to SO2 can harm the human respiratory system and make breathing difficult.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Vijay Kumar answered |
- The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Smaller sources of SO2 emissions include: industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore, natural sources such as volcanoes, and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment that burn fuel with a high sulfur content. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
- SO2 can affect both health and the environment. Short-term exposures to SO2 can harm the human respiratory system and make breathing difficult. People with asthma, particularly children, are sensitive to these effects of SO2. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of CLAT exam.
Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CLAT Exam by signing up for free.
Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly
1041 docs|717 tests
|
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!
Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
|
Signup on EduRev and stay on top of your study goals
10M+ students crushing their study goals daily