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All questions of CBSE New Pattern: Practice Questions for NEET Exam

Read the following text and answer the following question on the basis of the same:
Excessive exploitation of species, whether a plant or animal reduces the size of its population, so it becomes vulnerable to extinction. Such as Dodo and passenger pigeons have become extinct due to over exploitation by humans. Thus, the world is facing accelerated rates of species extinctions, largely due to human interference.
Assertion : Pollution reduces species biodiversity.
Reason : Spillover of oil in the sea causes the death of several marine animals.
  • a)
    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  • b)
    Assertion is true but reason is false. 
  • c)
    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  • d)
    Both assertion and reason are false.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Preeti Iyer answered
The assertion that "Pollution reduces species biodiversity" is true. Pollution can have numerous detrimental effects on ecosystems, leading to a decrease in species diversity. This happens through direct harm to organisms (such as toxicity leading to death or illness), habitat degradation, and indirect effects like altering food chains.
The reason given, "Spillover of oil in the sea causes the death of several marine animals," is also true. Oil spills are a form of pollution that has devastating effects on marine environments, harming or killing marine animals and birds, damaging ecosystems, and reducing biodiversity as a result.
However, while both the assertion and the reason are true, the reason provided is an example of how pollution can affect biodiversity but not the sole explanation for the assertion. Pollution encompasses a wide range of harmful substances and activities beyond just oil spills, including plastic pollution, chemical runoff, air pollution, and more, all of which can reduce species biodiversity.

Correct option is C. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
There are different methods for Birth control. They are contraceptives (natural or traditional), IUD. Oral contraceptive injectables, implants and surgical methods. Surgical methods are permanent methods of family planning. The methods are operative procedures. MTP (Medical termination of Pregnancy) is voluntary or intentional abortion, performed to end pregnancy before the completion of full term. MTP is mainly meant for removing unsustainable pregnancies.
In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): Surgical method of contraception prevent gamete formation.
Reason (R): Castration cannot be considered as a contraception option.
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Harshath Kumar answered
Gametes are formed even after surgical removal method (vasectomy, Tubectomy) as we have only removed the tubes from surgery which just function in transfer the formed gametes to the target site.
Hence formation of gametes takes place in surgical method.
Castration is the removal of testis. It decreases the testosterone level as a result the man will lose interest in sex drive as a result interfering in one's sexual behavior..

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion (A) : DNA fingerprinting is applied in paternity testing in case of disputes.
Reason(R) : It employs the principle of polymorphism in DNA sequences as polymorphisms
are inheritable from parent to children.
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as respective DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times. These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of the human genome. These sequences show a high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting. As the polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing in case of disputes.

Biotechnology can be defined as the use of biological processes in industry and technology. During the past three decades biotechnology has gained attention due to the gene cloning process. Biotechnological applications are playing an important role in agriculture. They are used in agro-chemical based agriculture, in organic farming, genetically
engineered crop-based agriculture. The green revolution is the milestone or result of these biotechnological processes.
Q. GEAC stands for _________ .
  • a)
    Genetic Extension Approval Committee
  • b)
    Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
  • c)
    Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhay Sengupta answered
GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee.

The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is a regulatory body in India that is responsible for granting approval for activities involving the release of genetically engineered organisms (GEOs) into the environment. It was established under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in accordance with the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (1989) under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Role of GEAC:
The primary role of GEAC is to ensure the safe use and handling of genetically engineered organisms in order to protect human health and the environment. Some of the key responsibilities of GEAC include:

1. Evaluation and approval of proposals: GEAC evaluates applications for the release of GEOs and grants approvals based on scientific assessments of their potential risks and benefits. The committee considers factors such as the nature of the organism, the intended use, and the potential environmental impact.

2. Monitoring and surveillance: GEAC monitors the implementation of approved projects to ensure compliance with the conditions and guidelines set forth during the approval process. This includes regular inspections, data collection, and reporting.

3. Risk assessment: GEAC conducts risk assessments to evaluate the potential adverse effects of genetically engineered organisms on human health and the environment. This involves analyzing data on the characteristics of the organism, its potential for gene transfer, and its potential to cause harm.

4. Public consultation: GEAC organizes public hearings and consultations to gather feedback and opinions from stakeholders, including scientists, environmentalists, farmers, and the general public. This helps in ensuring transparency and public participation in decision-making processes.

Conclusion:
In summary, the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) plays a crucial role in regulating and monitoring the release of genetically engineered organisms in India. By evaluating proposals, conducting risk assessments, and ensuring compliance with guidelines, GEAC helps to ensure the safe and responsible use of biotechnology in agriculture and other sectors.

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same: During sexual reproduction, the male inserts the sperm into the female reproductive tract, and sperm receive by the ovary and after that sperm fuse with the egg (ovum) in the ampullary region, this process is called fertilization, haploid nucleus of sperm fuse with that of ovum to form Diploid zygote.
The phenomenon of sperm activation in mammals is known as.
  • a)
    Parthenogenesis
  • b)
    Amphimixis
  • c)
    Capacitation
  • d)
    Acrosomal reaction
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer:

Introduction:
Sexual reproduction is a process in which two individuals of opposite sexes, male and female, come together to produce offspring. In mammals, this process involves the fusion of sperm and egg, leading to the formation of a diploid zygote.

Fertilization:
Fertilization is the process by which the sperm and egg fuse to form a zygote. In mammals, fertilization occurs in the ampullary region of the female reproductive tract. The male inserts the sperm into the female reproductive tract, and the sperm are received by the ovary. From there, the sperm travel towards the ampullary region where they fuse with the egg.

Diploid Zygote Formation:
During fertilization, the haploid nucleus of the sperm fuses with the haploid nucleus of the ovum (egg) to form a diploid zygote. This diploid zygote contains the full complement of genetic material required for the development of an individual.

Sperm Activation:
Before fertilization can occur, the sperm must undergo a process called capacitation, which is the phenomenon of sperm activation in mammals. Capacitation involves several changes in the sperm, including the removal of certain proteins from the sperm membrane and the modification of its surface characteristics. These changes enable the sperm to be capable of penetrating and fertilizing the egg.

Options:
- Parthenogenesis: Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction where an egg develops into an individual without fertilization. It does not involve the fusion of sperm and egg, so it is not the correct answer.
- Amphimixis: Amphimixis is another term for sexual reproduction, but it does not specifically refer to the process of sperm activation. Therefore, it is not the correct answer.
- Capacitation: Capacitation is the correct answer as it refers to the phenomenon of sperm activation in mammals. It involves the preparation of the sperm for fertilization by undergoing certain changes in its structure and function.
- Acrosomal reaction: The acrosomal reaction is a specific step that occurs during fertilization, where the acrosome (a structure on the head of the sperm) releases enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg's protective layers. While this is an important step in fertilization, it does not describe the overall process of sperm activation, so it is not the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - Capacitation.

Directions: Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: Lactose in lac operon is promoter gene.
Reason: Lactose inactivates the repressor gene.
  • a)
    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  • b)
    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  • c)
    Assertion is true but reason is false.
  • d)
    Both assertion and reason are false.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Sharma answered
Lactose is not a promoter gene but an inducer of lac operon as it combines with a repressor protein formed by repressor or regulatory gene and not the gene itself. The inducer joins the repressor, forming a repressor-inducer complex. This complex prevents the repressor from binding with the operator gene of the operon. This frees the operator gene so that the RNA polymerase can move from the promoter to the structural genes.
The structural genes are then transcribed, forming a piece of polycistronic mRNA. The latter is transcribed by fRNA and ribosomes into enzymes.

Read the following and answer the question given below :
Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first time by W. Aber in 1962 in bacteria. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA duplex at specific points therefore they are also called molecular scissors or biological scissors. Three types of restriction endonucleases are Type 1. Type ll and Type III but only Type II restriction endonucleases are used in recombinant DNA technology. Restriction endonuclease EcoR I recognises the base sequence GAATTC In DNA duplex and cut strands between G and A.
Q. Restriction endonucleases are also called as molecular or biological scissors because:
  • a)
    they cleave base pairs of DNA only at their terminal ends
  • b)
    they cleave one or both the strands of DNA
  • c)
    they act only on single stranded DNA
  • d)
    none of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Riya Banerjee answered
Restriction endonucleases are referred to as molecular or biological scissors because they can cleave both strands of DNA at specific sites. This property is crucial for genetic engineering applications where precise cuts are required to splice genes or insert new sequences into DNA.
Therefore, the correct answer to why restriction endonucleases are called molecular or biological scissors is:
2 they cleave one or both the strands of DNA
This answer reflects the ability of these enzymes to make cuts in double-stranded DNA, which is essential for their role in recombinant DNA technology.

Directions : In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion (A) : Norman E. Borlaug was the father of "Green revolution".
Reason (R) : Green revolution is the period when there is significant increase in agricultural productivity of grains (specially wheat and rice).
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Riya Banerjee answered
The Green Revolution was an endeavour initiated by Norman Borlaug in the 1960s. He is known as the 'Father of Green Revolution' in world. It led to him winning the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his work in developing High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of wheat. In India, the Green Revolution was mainly led by M.S. Swaminathan. The Green Revolution resulted in a great increase in production of food grains (especially wheat and rice) due to the introduction into developing countries of new, high-yielding variety seeds, beginning in the mid-20th century. Its early dramatic successes were in Mexico and the Indian subcontinent. The Green Revolution, spreading over the period from 1967-68 to 1977-78, changed India’s status from a food-deficient country to one of the world's leading agricultural nations.

Direction: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion (A) : The frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in females than that in males.
Reason (R) : In females if only one X-chromosome of female possess allele for colour blind character she becomes the colour blind.
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dev Patel answered
Colour blindness is X-linked sex inheritance. The frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than that in the females because males have only one X chromosomes therefore they develop colour blindness when their sole X- chromosome has the allele for it. Thus, males are more prone to colour blindness while females are carriers. For becoming colour blind, the female must have the allele for it in both her X-chromosomes and if only one X-chromosome of female possess allele for colour blind character she becomes the carrier for this characteristic.

Directions: Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
Assertion: R-type of Pneumococcus is non-virulent.
Reason : R-type of Pneumococcus can be virulent by having transformation with S - type of Pneumococcus.
  • a)
    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  • b)
    Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  • c)
    Assertion is true but reason is false.
  • d)
    Both assertion and reason are false.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
Transformation is the change in the genetic constitution of an organism by picking up genes present in the environment. Pneumococcus has two strains -virulent (S) and non-virulent (R). The virulent strain causes pneumonia. fl-type bacteria form irregular or rough colonies and do not produce any disease while the 5-type bacteria cause pneumonia and then death in the mice. Griffith injected a combination of live £-type and heat killed 5-type bacteria into mice. While some mice survived, others developed the disease of pneumonia and died. Autopsy of the dead mice showed that they possessed both the types of bacteria in living state though the mice had been injected with dead virulent and living non-virulent bacteria. The occurrence of living 5-type virulent bacteria is possible only by their formation from R-type non-virulent bacteria which pick up the trait of virulence from dead bacteria. The phenomenon is called transformation.

Read the following text and answer the following question on the basis of the same:
The term biotechnology refers to the use of living organisms or their products to modify human health and their human environment. For example, ‘testtube’ programme, synthesis of a gene or correcting a defective gene are all part of biotechnology. The basis of modern biotechnology is genetic engineering and maintenance of sterile conditions. Genetic engineering is the technique that alter the chemistry of genetic material i.e. DNA and RNA, then this genetic material is introduced into host organisms, which alter the phenotype of the host organism.
Q. The specific DNA sequence where EcoRI cuts is :
  • a)
    GATTCG
  • b)
    GAATTC
  • c)
    GTTCAA
  • d)
    TTCCAA
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Biotechnology and Genetic Engineering

Biotechnology is a field that involves the use of living organisms or their products to modify human health and the human environment. It encompasses various techniques such as the 'testtube' programme, gene synthesis, and gene correction. The foundation of modern biotechnology lies in genetic engineering and the maintenance of sterile conditions.

Genetic Engineering and DNA

Genetic engineering is a technique used to alter the chemistry of genetic material, specifically DNA and RNA. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a molecule that contains the genetic instructions used in the development and functioning of all known living organisms. It is made up of a sequence of nucleotides, which are represented by the letters A, T, G, and C (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine).

EcoRI and DNA Cutting

EcoRI is a type of enzyme known as a restriction endonuclease, which is commonly used in genetic engineering. This enzyme recognizes specific DNA sequences and cuts the DNA at those locations. The specific DNA sequence where EcoRI cuts is GAATTC.

Explanation of the Answer

The correct answer to the given question is option B, which states that the specific DNA sequence where EcoRI cuts is GAATTC. This answer is accurate because EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease that recognizes and cuts DNA at the sequence GAATTC.

Key Takeaways
- Biotechnology refers to the use of living organisms or their products to modify human health and the human environment.
- Genetic engineering is a technique that alters the chemistry of genetic material, specifically DNA and RNA.
- DNA is a molecule that contains genetic instructions and is made up of nucleotides represented by the letters A, T, G, and C.
- EcoRI is a type of enzyme used in genetic engineering that cuts DNA at specific sequences.
- The specific DNA sequence where EcoRI cuts is GAATTC.

Overall, understanding the principles of biotechnology and genetic engineering is crucial in the field of healthcare and environmental modification. By manipulating genetic material, scientists can make significant advancements in various areas, including medicine, agriculture, and industry.

Pollution, climate changes, over-exploitation by humans etc. are responsible for changes in the ecosystem. Change in an ecosystem is responsible for depletion in biodiversity which directly or indirectly affects human beings and their surroundings. So it is important to conserve biodiversity. There are various methods like in-situ conservation, ex situ conservation by which we can conserve our biodiversity.
Q. Protected areas are example of
  • a)
    In-situ conservation
  • b)
    Ex-situ conservation
  • c)
    Cryopreservation
  • d)
    Green houses.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dev Patel answered
Protected areas, such as national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves, and conservation reserves, are examples of in-situ conservation. In-situ conservation involves the protection of species in their natural habitat, allowing for the conservation of ecosystems and natural processes, thereby supporting the conservation of biodiversity within their own environment. Therefore, the correct answer is: In-situ conservation

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion : Urethra in human male acts as urinogenital canal.
Reason : Urethra carries only urine while sperms are carried by vasa deferentia only.
  • a)
    If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
  • b)
    If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
  • c)
    If the assertion is true but the reason is false
  • d)
    If both the assertion and reason are false
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sinjini Roy answered
Assertion: Urethra in human male acts as urinogenital canal.
Reason: Urethra carries only urine while sperms are carried by vasa deferentia only.

The correct answer is option C: If the assertion is true but the reason is false.

Explanation:

Urethra as a Urinogenital Canal:
- The urethra is a tube that connects the urinary bladder to the external opening of the penis in males.
- It serves as a common passage for the elimination of urine from the urinary bladder as well as the ejaculation of semen.
- During urination, urine passes through the urethra and gets expelled from the body.
- During ejaculation, semen, which contains sperm, is released through the urethra.

Urethra and Sperm Transport:
- The assertion states that the urethra carries both urine and sperm, while the reason states that sperms are carried by vasa deferentia only.
- This reason is incorrect because it overlooks the fact that the urethra in males also carries sperm during ejaculation.
- The vasa deferentia are tubes that transport sperm from the testes to the urethra, but they are not the exclusive carriers of sperm.
- The vasa deferentia join the urethra near the base of the urinary bladder, and during ejaculation, sperm from the vasa deferentia mix with seminal fluid from the accessory glands to form semen.
- This semen is then released through the urethra during ejaculation.

Conclusion:
- The assertion is true as the urethra in human males acts as a urinogenital canal, serving as a passage for both urine and semen.
- However, the reason is false as the urethra carries not only urine but also sperm during ejaculation.

Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
Gynoecium, is the female reproductive part of the flower. It may consist of a single or more than one pistil. These pistil may be free or fuse. Each pistils has three parts, stigma, style and ovary. Ovary has an ovarian cavity, which has one or many chambers or locules. The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity. Megasporangia or ovules arise from the placenta.
In which of the following plants the number of ovules in an ovary is one ?
  • a)
    Mango
  • b)
    Orchids
  • c)
    Water melon
  • d)
    Papaya
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Ahuja answered
Gynoecium and Number of Ovules in Ovary

The gynoecium is the female reproductive part of a flower, and it plays a crucial role in the formation of seeds. It consists of one or more pistils, which can be either free or fused together. Each pistil is composed of three main parts: stigma, style, and ovary. The ovary contains an ovarian cavity, which is further divided into one or multiple chambers or locules. The placenta, a tissue that supports the development of ovules, is located inside the ovarian cavity. Ovules, also known as megasporangia, arise from the placenta.

Identifying the Plant with One Ovule in the Ovary

To determine which plant among the given options has one ovule in the ovary, we need to examine the characteristics of each plant's gynoecium.

a) Mango: The gynoecium of mango flowers typically consists of a single pistil. The ovary of this pistil contains one ovule, making it the correct option.

b) Orchids: Orchids are unique flowers that exhibit a wide variety of gynoecium structures. While some orchids may have one ovule in the ovary, others may have multiple ovules. Therefore, this option does not guarantee a single ovule.

c) Watermelon: Watermelon flowers usually have a gynoecium with multiple pistils. Each pistil can contain numerous ovules, indicating that the number of ovules in the ovary is more than one.

d) Papaya: Papaya flowers also possess a gynoecium with multiple pistils. The number of ovules in each pistil can vary, but it is typically more than one, excluding this option as well.

Conclusion

Based on the information provided, the plant with one ovule in the ovary is the mango (option A). The gynoecium of mango flowers consists of a single pistil, and the ovary of this pistil contains one ovule. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option A, mango.

Assertion (A): The process of formation of mature female gametes is called oogenesis.
Reason (R): Only one ovum is released  in menstruation.
  • a)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • b)
    If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
  • c)
    If Assertion is true but Reason is false
  • d)
    If both Assertion and Reason are false
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Assertion is true The process of formation of mature female gametes is called oogenesis..
Reason is false cause  During ovulation only one ovum is released per menstrual cycle
Line in ncert : The process of formation of mature female gametes is called oogenesis. The reproductive cycle of female primates is called menstrual cycle. Menstrual cycle starts only after attaining sexual maturation (puberty). During ovulation only one ovum is released per menstrual cycle
 

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion: Zero population growth should be achieved as early as possible to control human population.
Reason: This as requires not two children per couple but a little more.
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Nair answered
Assertion: Zero population growth should be achieved as early as possible to control human population.

Reason: This as requires not two children per couple but a little more.

Explanation:

- Assertion (A) is true: Achieving zero population growth is important to control the human population and reduce strain on resources and the environment. It is a sustainable goal for the long-term well-being of the planet.

- Reason (R) is true: The reason states that achieving zero population growth does not necessarily mean limiting each couple to only two children. It may require a slightly higher number of children per couple to balance out factors like mortality rates and aging populations.

- Correct answer: Option 'A' is the correct choice because both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason logically explains why achieving zero population growth may not be as simple as limiting couples to just two children.

In conclusion, the assertion emphasizes the importance of zero population growth, while the reason clarifies that achieving this goal may involve more nuanced considerations than simply restricting the number of children per couple.

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion: Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR have lead to a staggering rise in population.
Reason: Such an alarming growth rate has lead to an absolute scarcity of even the most basic requirements, i.e. food and shelter.
  • a)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sameer Roy answered
Assertion and Reason:


Assertion: Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR have led to a staggering rise in population.


Reason: Such an alarming growth rate has led to an absolute scarcity of even the most basic requirements, i.e. food and shelter.

Explanation:


The assertion states that the rapid decline in death rate, Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR), and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) has led to a staggering rise in population. This assertion is true as a decline in death rate, MMR, and IMR implies that fewer people are dying, resulting in a higher population growth rate. When the death rate decreases, the number of individuals who survive and reproduce increases, leading to population growth.

The reason provided states that such an alarming growth rate has led to an absolute scarcity of even the most basic requirements, such as food and shelter. This reason is also true. With a rapid rise in population, the demand for resources like food and shelter increases significantly. If the supply of these basic requirements does not keep up with the growing population, scarcity can occur. The reason explains the consequences of the rapid population growth mentioned in the assertion.

Conclusion:


Both the assertion and the reason are true. The reason successfully explains the consequence of the rapid population growth mentioned in the assertion. Therefore, the correct choice is option 'B' - Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

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