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The value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. If a diamond worth Rs 10,000 is divided into 2 pieces in the ratio of 4:6, what is the loss in value?
  • a)
    52%
  • b)
    48%
  • c)
    36%
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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**Solution:**

Let's assume the original weight of the diamond is W grams and its original value is V rupees.

According to the given information, the value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. This can be expressed as:

V ∝ W^2

Now, let's consider the division of the diamond into two pieces in the ratio of 4:6. This means that the weight of the first piece is 4x and the weight of the second piece is 6x, where x is a common factor.

The total weight of the diamond is given by:

W = 4x + 6x = 10x

Now, let's calculate the value of each piece of the diamond.

According to the direct variation relationship, if the weight of the diamond is W grams, then its value is V rupees. So, if the weight of the first piece is 4x grams, then its value can be calculated as:

V1 ∝ (4x)^2 = 16x^2

Similarly, if the weight of the second piece is 6x grams, then its value can be calculated as:

V2 ∝ (6x)^2 = 36x^2

Since the total value of the diamond is Rs 10,000, we can write the equation as:

V1 + V2 = 10,000

Substituting the values of V1 and V2, we get:

16x^2 + 36x^2 = 10,000

52x^2 = 10,000

Dividing both sides of the equation by 52, we get:

x^2 = 192.3077

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

x ≈ 13.88

Now, let's calculate the weight of each piece:

Weight of the first piece = 4x ≈ 4 * 13.88 ≈ 55.52 grams
Weight of the second piece = 6x ≈ 6 * 13.88 ≈ 83.28 grams

Now, let's calculate the value of each piece:

Value of the first piece = 16x^2 ≈ 16 * (13.88)^2 ≈ 3169.14 rupees
Value of the second piece = 36x^2 ≈ 36 * (13.88)^2 ≈ 7130.86 rupees

The total value of the diamond after division is:

Value = Value of the first piece + Value of the second piece
= 3169.14 + 7130.86
≈ 10,300 rupees

The loss in value can be calculated as:

Loss in value = Original value - New value
= 10,000 - 10,300
= -300 rupees

The loss in value as a percentage of the original value can be calculated as:

Loss percentage = (Loss in value / Original value) * 100
= (-300 / 10,000) * 100
≈ -3%

Since the loss percentage is negative, we take the absolute value to get the positive loss percentage:

Loss percentage ≈ 3%

Therefore, the loss in value is approximately 3%, which is closest to option B (48%).
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The value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. If a diamond worth Rs 10,000 is divided into 2 pieces in the ratio of 4:6, what is the loss in value?a)52%b)48%c)36%d)None of theseCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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The value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. If a diamond worth Rs 10,000 is divided into 2 pieces in the ratio of 4:6, what is the loss in value?a)52%b)48%c)36%d)None of theseCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? for Quant 2024 is part of Quant preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the Quant exam syllabus. Information about The value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. If a diamond worth Rs 10,000 is divided into 2 pieces in the ratio of 4:6, what is the loss in value?a)52%b)48%c)36%d)None of theseCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for Quant 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for The value of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. If a diamond worth Rs 10,000 is divided into 2 pieces in the ratio of 4:6, what is the loss in value?a)52%b)48%c)36%d)None of theseCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?.
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