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In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer.
The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal.
- a)to whom I selled
- b)to whom I sell
- c)to whom I sold
- d)No correction required
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make th...
The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal is the correct form of the sentence.
The word 'who' is used if it is answered for him.
The word 'whom' is used as a direct or indirect object of a verb or preposition. 'Whom' is used if it is answered for him.
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Community Answer
In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make th...
Correction of the Underlined Phrase
The correct answer is option 'c' - "to whom I sold."
Explanation:
The original sentence is:
"The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal."
Here, the underlined phrase is "to whom I sold." This phrase is in the past tense and correctly conveys the action of selling the house to the woman. Therefore, the sentence is grammatically correct, and no correction is required.
Reasoning:
To determine the correct answer, we need to analyze the verb tense and the context of the sentence.
The sentence describes an action that happened in the past, as indicated by the use of the past tense verb "sold." The phrase "to whom" is used to indicate the recipient of the action, which is the woman in this case.
Considering the context, there is no indication that the action of selling the house is ongoing or future-oriented. Therefore, the correct verb tense to use is the past tense, as it accurately reflects the completed action.
Summary:
In summary, the sentence "The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal" is grammatically correct as it is. The phrase "to whom I sold" correctly conveys the past tense action of selling the house, and no correction is required.
The correct answer is option 'c' - "to whom I sold."
Explanation:
The original sentence is:
"The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal."
Here, the underlined phrase is "to whom I sold." This phrase is in the past tense and correctly conveys the action of selling the house to the woman. Therefore, the sentence is grammatically correct, and no correction is required.
Reasoning:
To determine the correct answer, we need to analyze the verb tense and the context of the sentence.
The sentence describes an action that happened in the past, as indicated by the use of the past tense verb "sold." The phrase "to whom" is used to indicate the recipient of the action, which is the woman in this case.
Considering the context, there is no indication that the action of selling the house is ongoing or future-oriented. Therefore, the correct verb tense to use is the past tense, as it accurately reflects the completed action.
Summary:
In summary, the sentence "The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal" is grammatically correct as it is. The phrase "to whom I sold" correctly conveys the past tense action of selling the house, and no correction is required.
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In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer.The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal.a)to whom I selledb)to whom I sellc)to whom I soldd)No correction requiredCorrect answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
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