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The following pie-chart shows the percentage of literate and illiterate males and females in a city having a population of 2,50,000. What is the difference between the number of literate males and literate females?
  • a)
    75,000
  • b)
    1,500
  • c)
    5,000
  • d)
    500
  • e)
    6000
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
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Most Upvoted Answer
The following pie-chart shows the percentage of literate and illitera...
Difference between the number of literate males and literate females =87500−82500=5000
Hence, the correct option is (c).
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Community Answer
The following pie-chart shows the percentage of literate and illitera...
100%=250000
2%=5000
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Passage 2How is Indias middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the communitys power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. Indias elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that Indias middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of Indias high culture, its classical inheritance.Q. Which of the following options would help one understand the authors argument that the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of Indias culture?

Passage 2How is Indias middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the communitys power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. Indias elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that Indias middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of Indias high culture, its classical inheritance.Q. Consider the following assumptions:1. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha overpowered communities in India2. Indian middle class is fluent in EnglishWith reference to the above passage, which of the following assumption is/are valid?

Passage 2How is Indias middle class culture being changed and affected? Let us have a look at what is happening. First the numbers, independent India did not count its population along the lines of caste, and it required special surveys, like that of the Mandal Commission, to identify the size of peasant groupings. The number was revealed to be over 50% of the population. The British census before independence told us that the Brahmin population was about 6%, though the communitys power and projection in urban India was disproportionate.Three small castes, all put together about 10% of the population, dominated the urban middle classes. Brahmin, Baniya and Kayastha. What most urban Indians know as middle class culture is actually the culture of these 3 communities.The second most important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only 5% literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue.This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. Indias elite occupy a minimal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that Indias middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. Even half literate Americans speak better, cleaner and more precise English than educated Indians. And on the mother-tongue side, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of Indias high culture, its classical inheritance.Q. The author makes a reference to regular reading of literature in the mother tongue. What does he imply by this?

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The following pie-chart shows the percentage of literate and illiterate males and females in a city having a population of 2,50,000. What is the difference between the number of literate males and literate females?a)75,000b)1,500c)5,000d)500e)6000Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
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