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With reference to the AT1 Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds.
2. These are secured bonds which have a maturity date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
With reference to the AT1 Bonds, consider the following statements:1. ...
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) has slapped restrictions on mutual fund (MF) investments in additional tier-1 (AT1) bonds.
  • AT1 Bonds stand for additional tier-1 bonds.
  • These are unsecured bonds which have perpetual tenure. In other words, the bonds have no maturity date.
  • They have call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors.
  • These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.
  • AT1 bonds are subordinate to all other debt and only senior to common equity.
  • Mutual funds (MFs) are among the largest investors in perpetual debt instruments, and hold over Rs 35,000 crore of the outstanding additional tier-I bond issuances of Rs 90,000 crore.
  • In a recent circular, the Sebi told mutual funds to value these perpetual bonds as a 100-year instrument. This essentially means MFs have to make the assumption that these bonds would be redeemed in 100 years.
  • The regulator also asked MFs to limit the ownership of the bonds at 10 per cent of the assets of a scheme.
Reason for SEBI action
  • According to the Sebi, these instruments could be riskier than other debt instruments.
  • The Sebi has probably made this decision after the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed a write-off of Rs 8,400 crore on AT1 bonds issued by Yes Bank Ltd after it was rescued by State Bank of India (SBI).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
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