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Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?
  • a)
    The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.
  • b)
    The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.
  • c)
    The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.
  • d)
    The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance. 
  • e)
    If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
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Verified Answer
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes...
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?
Argument Analysis
 
Pre-Thinking
Conclusion Clarification
The author states that that (Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably,) there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not related to each other always.
Pre-Thinking Approach
In order to see what can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the passage, we need to observe all the given facts and see if the information in the passage is true, what must also be true.
Fact#1 – Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance.
Conclusion 1: Since the above fact talks about the circumstance the two conditions develop, we can conclude that:
  • The circumstances leading up to taste avoidance and taste aversion are not always the same.  
Fact#2 –   Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Conclusion 2:  The second facts talks about the impact of a kind of treatments on the two conditions. Such treatments fail to have any impact on either the development or expression of taste avoidance but do certainly impact both areas of taster aversion. Accordingly, we can conclude that:
  • Medications for the alleviation of nausea do not have the same impact on taste avoidance as they do on taste aversion.
With this pre-thinking in mind, let’s evaluate the answer choices.
Answer Choices
A
The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states when the consumption of a food is followed by nausea, taste aversion is developed. This information does not give us any basis to conclude that it is the food that leads to the nausea in such cases; for instance, it is possible that the nausea is due to a viral infection and it is a mere coincidence that the consumption of the food happened before it. 
B
The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these terms are used interchangeably sometimes. This statement does not indicate whether the usage is because of the confusion in the definitions or that the definitions are absolutely perfect but the understanding, and hence the usage, isn’t.
C
The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.
Incorrect - No information given
Firstly, we do not have any basis to conclude that it is the food item that causes an unpleasant reaction. Secondly, there is no information given to make an estimate about the rate of development of taste aversion in different situations.
D
The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance. 
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these two phenomena are probably not always related and that the conditions present at the time of their development are not necessarily the same but that does not mean that they cannot developed or expressed at the same time.
E
If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.
Correct
This choice can be derived on the basis of fact number 2 stated in the pre-thinking analysis. The fact that such medication “interferes” with the establishment of taste aversion gives us a basis to conclude this statement.
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Most Upvoted Answer
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes...
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?
Argument Analysis
 
Pre-Thinking
Conclusion Clarification
The author states that that (Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably,) there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not related to each other always.
Pre-Thinking Approach
In order to see what can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the passage, we need to observe all the given facts and see if the information in the passage is true, what must also be true.
Fact#1 – Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance.
Conclusion 1: Since the above fact talks about the circumstance the two conditions develop, we can conclude that:
  • The circumstances leading up to taste avoidance and taste aversion are not always the same.  
Fact#2 –   Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Conclusion 2:  The second facts talks about the impact of a kind of treatments on the two conditions. Such treatments fail to have any impact on either the development or expression of taste avoidance but do certainly impact both areas of taster aversion. Accordingly, we can conclude that:
  • Medications for the alleviation of nausea do not have the same impact on taste avoidance as they do on taste aversion.
With this pre-thinking in mind, let’s evaluate the answer choices.
Answer Choices
A
The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states when the consumption of a food is followed by nausea, taste aversion is developed. This information does not give us any basis to conclude that it is the food that leads to the nausea in such cases; for instance, it is possible that the nausea is due to a viral infection and it is a mere coincidence that the consumption of the food happened before it. 
B
The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these terms are used interchangeably sometimes. This statement does not indicate whether the usage is because of the confusion in the definitions or that the definitions are absolutely perfect but the understanding, and hence the usage, isn’t.
C
The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.
Incorrect - No information given
Firstly, we do not have any basis to conclude that it is the food item that causes an unpleasant reaction. Secondly, there is no information given to make an estimate about the rate of development of taste aversion in different situations.
D
The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance. 
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these two phenomena are probably not always related and that the conditions present at the time of their development are not necessarily the same but that does not mean that they cannot developed or expressed at the same time.
E
If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.
Correct
This choice can be derived on the basis of fact number 2 stated in the pre-thinking analysis. The fact that such medication “interferes” with the establishment of taste aversion gives us a basis to conclude this statement.
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Community Answer
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes...
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?
Argument Analysis
 
Pre-Thinking
Conclusion Clarification
The author states that that (Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably,) there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not related to each other always.
Pre-Thinking Approach
In order to see what can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the passage, we need to observe all the given facts and see if the information in the passage is true, what must also be true.
Fact#1 – Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance.
Conclusion 1: Since the above fact talks about the circumstance the two conditions develop, we can conclude that:
  • The circumstances leading up to taste avoidance and taste aversion are not always the same.  
Fact#2 –   Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.
Conclusion 2:  The second facts talks about the impact of a kind of treatments on the two conditions. Such treatments fail to have any impact on either the development or expression of taste avoidance but do certainly impact both areas of taster aversion. Accordingly, we can conclude that:
  • Medications for the alleviation of nausea do not have the same impact on taste avoidance as they do on taste aversion.
With this pre-thinking in mind, let’s evaluate the answer choices.
Answer Choices
A
The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states when the consumption of a food is followed by nausea, taste aversion is developed. This information does not give us any basis to conclude that it is the food that leads to the nausea in such cases; for instance, it is possible that the nausea is due to a viral infection and it is a mere coincidence that the consumption of the food happened before it. 
B
The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these terms are used interchangeably sometimes. This statement does not indicate whether the usage is because of the confusion in the definitions or that the definitions are absolutely perfect but the understanding, and hence the usage, isn’t.
C
The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.
Incorrect - No information given
Firstly, we do not have any basis to conclude that it is the food item that causes an unpleasant reaction. Secondly, there is no information given to make an estimate about the rate of development of taste aversion in different situations.
D
The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance. 
Incorrect - No information given
The passage states that these two phenomena are probably not always related and that the conditions present at the time of their development are not necessarily the same but that does not mean that they cannot developed or expressed at the same time.
E
If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.
Correct
This choice can be derived on the basis of fact number 2 stated in the pre-thinking analysis. The fact that such medication “interferes” with the establishment of taste aversion gives us a basis to conclude this statement.
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Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question as follow:It is not uncommon for close synonyms to be understood to share the same meaning. The difference between words like “hard” and “difficult”, for example, goes tragically unnoticed. One may employ one or the other with complete indifference, postulating no discrepancy between them. In general, this is well and good; most people lack the scrupulous pedanticalness to quibble over such trifles. Nevertheless, for those of us with ample compulsiveness (and tim e), it is of significant value to comprehend such nuances.Take for example the following sentences: 1) The test was hard. 2) The test was difficult. Is the difference between these synonyms readily apparent? Is there a noticeable difference between them at all? Indeed, these questions are valid and warrant answers. For, what would be the point to having multiple words with the exact same meaning? No, that would be superfluous; the English language being far too economical.While many close synonyms share similar, if not the same, dictionary definitions, the feeling, or mood, they convey is utterly singular. Although a dictionary can provide information about word meanings, pronunciations, etymologies, inflected forms, derived forms, etc., it cannot communicate how it feels to use a word.Granted, the notion that close synonyms can be used interchangeably is prevalent among English speakers. And alas, the dictionary—the text purported to be responsible for clarifying such issues—is of little assistance. In the end, it is left to us, the speakers of the language, those actively responsible for maintaining its sustenance and generation, to understand how these words make us feel and what mood we are inclined to attach to them. Using the examples and insights described above, one may come to recognize these subtle, yet crucial, differences.Q.Which of the following would the author of the passage most likely agreewith?.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question as follow:It is not uncommon for close synonyms to be understood to share the same meaning. The difference between words like “hard” and “difficult”, for example, goes tragically unnoticed. One may employ one or the other with complete indifference, postulating no discrepancy between them. In general, this is well and good; most people lack the scrupulous pedanticalness to quibble over such trifles. Nevertheless, for those of us with ample compulsiveness (and tim e), it is of significant value to comprehend such nuances.Take for example the following sentences: 1) The test was hard. 2) The test was difficult. Is the difference between these synonyms readily apparent? Is there a noticeable difference between them at all? Indeed, these questions are valid and warrant answers. For, what would be the point to having multiple words with the exact same meaning? No, that would be superfluous; the English language being far too economical.While many close synonyms share similar, if not the same, dictionary definitions, the feeling, or mood, they convey is utterly singular. Although a dictionary can provide information about word meanings, pronunciations, etymologies, inflected forms, derived forms, etc., it cannot communicate how it feels to use a word.Granted, the notion that close synonyms can be used interchangeably is prevalent among English speakers. And alas, the dictionary—the text purported to be responsible for clarifying such issues—is of little assistance. In the end, it is left to us, the speakers of the language, those actively responsible for maintaining its sustenance and generation, to understand how these words make us feel and what mood we are inclined to attach to them. Using the examples and insights described above, one may come to recognize these subtle, yet crucial, differences.Q.What is the primary purpose of the passage?

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Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Question Description
Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? for GMAT 2024 is part of GMAT preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the GMAT exam syllabus. Information about Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for GMAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?.
Solutions for Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? in English & in Hindi are available as part of our courses for GMAT. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for GMAT Exam by signing up for free.
Here you can find the meaning of Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? defined & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving the explanation of Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?, a detailed solution for Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? has been provided alongside types of Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? theory, EduRev gives you an ample number of questions to practice Even though the terms taste aversion and taste avoidance are sometimes used interchangeably, there exists enough evidence to conclude that these two phenomena are likely not always related to each other. Research shows that taste aversion occurs when the consumption of a substance is followed by an unpleasant physical experience, normally nausea, but that no following repulsive or discomforting experience is necessary for the establishment of taste avoidance. Moreover, treatments that alleviate or prevent nausea do not impact the development or expression of taste avoidance, but they interfere with both the establishment and expression of taste aversion.Which of the following statements can be concluded on the basis of the information given in the above passage?a)The consumption of the food item is the cause of the following nausea that leads to the development of taste aversion.b)The definitions of taste avoidance and taste aversion need to be revised to facilitate a clearer understanding of the concepts.c)The development of taste aversion is faster for new food items that generate an unpleasant reaction on their first-time consumption than for nausea- causing foods that have been previously consumed without any unpleasant physical response.d)The establishment or expression of taste aversion cannot be accompanied by the development of expression of taste avoidance.e)If a nausea-preventing medicine is administered in the time between the consumption of food and the following nausea, chances are that the development of taste aversion will be hindered.Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer? tests, examples and also practice GMAT tests.
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