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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following statements regarding the Pamban Bridge and the Ottawa Convention:1. The new Pamban Bridge is the first vertical lift railway sea bridge in India, designed to support both heavy freight trains and semi-high-speed trains.2. The Ottawa Convention was adopted in 1997 and has significantly reduced the global stockpile of anti-personnel landmines.3. The 1964 restoration of the old Pamban Bridge was completed under the supervision of engineer E. Sreedharan in a record time of 46 days.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Pamban Bridge and the Ottawa Convention:
1. The new Pamban Bridge is the first vertical lift railway sea bridge in India, designed to support both heavy freight trains and semi-high-speed trains.
2. The Ottawa Convention was adopted in 1997 and has significantly reduced the global stockpile of anti-personnel landmines.
3. The 1964 restoration of the old Pamban Bridge was completed under the supervision of engineer E. Sreedharan in a record time of 46 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
1. Statement 1: The new Pamban Bridge is indeed the first vertical lift railway sea bridge in India. It is engineered to support the passage of both heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains, such as the Vande Bharat. This statement is correct.
2. Statement 2: The Ottawa Convention, also known as the Mine Ban Treaty, was adopted in 1997. It has significantly contributed to the reduction of the global stockpile of anti-personnel landmines, with over 40 million stockpiled mines being destroyed as a result of the treaty. This statement is correct.
3. Statement 3: The restoration of the old Pamban Bridge in 1964 was indeed a remarkable engineering feat led by E. Sreedharan. The repair work, which was necessitated by the damage from the 1964 tsunami, was completed in just 46 days, highlighting Sreedharan's notable engineering prowess. This statement is correct.
Therefore, all three statements are accurate, making Option D the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs related to recent developments in science and technology:1. Genome India Project - Sequencing genomes of 10,000 individuals from India2. Bullet Curtain - A close-in anti-drone system developed by India3. Carbon Tax - A tax on carbon emissions, recently adopted globally for the shipping industry4. International Maritime Organization (IMO) - Specialized agency of the United Nations for shipping safetyHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to recent developments in science and technology:
1. Genome India Project - Sequencing genomes of 10,000 individuals from India
2. Bullet Curtain - A close-in anti-drone system developed by India
3. Carbon Tax - A tax on carbon emissions, recently adopted globally for the shipping industry
4. International Maritime Organization (IMO) - Specialized agency of the United Nations for shipping safety
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Ruchi Sarkar answered |
Analysis of the Pairs
The pairs provided relate to significant developments in science and technology. Let's examine each one for accuracy.
1. Genome India Project
- Description: This project aims to sequence the genomes of 10,000 individuals from diverse populations across India.
- Status: Correctly matched. It is indeed focused on sequencing Indian genomes to enhance research in genetics and health.
2. Bullet Curtain
- Description: This is a close-in anti-drone system developed to protect sensitive installations from drone attacks.
- Status: Correctly matched. India has been developing systems like this to counter increasing drone threats.
3. Carbon Tax
- Description: A tax imposed on carbon emissions, which is gaining traction globally, including in the shipping industry.
- Status: Partially correct. While carbon taxes are being discussed for shipping, there is no universal adoption yet, making this a misleading statement.
4. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- Description: A specialized agency of the United Nations focused on maritime safety, security, and environmental performance.
- Status: Correctly matched. The IMO does function as a global standard-setting authority for shipping safety.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Genome India Project
- Bullet Curtain
- International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- Incorrectly Matched Pair:
- Carbon Tax (due to the lack of global adoption).
Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched, making the correct answer option 'C'.
The pairs provided relate to significant developments in science and technology. Let's examine each one for accuracy.
1. Genome India Project
- Description: This project aims to sequence the genomes of 10,000 individuals from diverse populations across India.
- Status: Correctly matched. It is indeed focused on sequencing Indian genomes to enhance research in genetics and health.
2. Bullet Curtain
- Description: This is a close-in anti-drone system developed to protect sensitive installations from drone attacks.
- Status: Correctly matched. India has been developing systems like this to counter increasing drone threats.
3. Carbon Tax
- Description: A tax imposed on carbon emissions, which is gaining traction globally, including in the shipping industry.
- Status: Partially correct. While carbon taxes are being discussed for shipping, there is no universal adoption yet, making this a misleading statement.
4. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- Description: A specialized agency of the United Nations focused on maritime safety, security, and environmental performance.
- Status: Correctly matched. The IMO does function as a global standard-setting authority for shipping safety.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correctly Matched Pairs:
- Genome India Project
- Bullet Curtain
- International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- Incorrectly Matched Pair:
- Carbon Tax (due to the lack of global adoption).
Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched, making the correct answer option 'C'.
Consider the following statements:1. The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) advocates for the inclusion of the yak in sustainable development agendas, particularly in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.2. Domesticated yaks have a lung capacity nearly three times that of cattle, which helps them adapt to low-oxygen environments.3. The emissions trading system (ETS) in Gujarat's Surat industrial cluster failed to outperform traditional regulatory measures in reducing pollution.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) advocates for the inclusion of the yak in sustainable development agendas, particularly in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.
2. Domesticated yaks have a lung capacity nearly three times that of cattle, which helps them adapt to low-oxygen environments.
3. The emissions trading system (ETS) in Gujarat's Surat industrial cluster failed to outperform traditional regulatory measures in reducing pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Milan Jain answered |
Analysis of Statements
To determine the correctness of the statements provided, let’s analyze each one:
Statement 1: ICIMOD and the Yak
- The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) indeed advocates for the inclusion of traditional livestock, including yaks, in sustainable development agendas, particularly in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.
- This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Yak Lung Capacity
- Domesticated yaks are known for their remarkable adaptation to high-altitude environments, which includes having a lung capacity that is significantly greater than that of cattle.
- The claim that their lung capacity is nearly three times that of cattle is a well-supported fact.
- Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Statement 3: ETS in Surat
- The emissions trading system (ETS) in the Surat industrial cluster did face challenges and was reported to not outperform traditional regulatory measures in terms of pollution reduction efficiency.
- However, the specific outcomes may vary based on various analyses and interpretations, leading to some debate about its effectiveness. Given the context, this statement is incorrect as it suggests a definitive failure without nuance.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only.
To determine the correctness of the statements provided, let’s analyze each one:
Statement 1: ICIMOD and the Yak
- The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) indeed advocates for the inclusion of traditional livestock, including yaks, in sustainable development agendas, particularly in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.
- This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Yak Lung Capacity
- Domesticated yaks are known for their remarkable adaptation to high-altitude environments, which includes having a lung capacity that is significantly greater than that of cattle.
- The claim that their lung capacity is nearly three times that of cattle is a well-supported fact.
- Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Statement 3: ETS in Surat
- The emissions trading system (ETS) in the Surat industrial cluster did face challenges and was reported to not outperform traditional regulatory measures in terms of pollution reduction efficiency.
- However, the specific outcomes may vary based on various analyses and interpretations, leading to some debate about its effectiveness. Given the context, this statement is incorrect as it suggests a definitive failure without nuance.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option B: 1 and 2 only.
What is the primary purpose of the newly introduced 'Blue Category' by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?- a)To categorize industries based on their financial performance
- b)To recognize industries providing Essential Environmental Services
- c)To rank industries based on their size and workforce
- d)To identify industries with the highest profit margins
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the newly introduced 'Blue Category' by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
a)
To categorize industries based on their financial performance
b)
To recognize industries providing Essential Environmental Services
c)
To rank industries based on their size and workforce
d)
To identify industries with the highest profit margins
|
Rohit Datta answered |
Introduction to the Blue Category
The 'Blue Category' introduced by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) serves a significant role in environmental governance by categorizing industries based on their contribution to essential environmental services.
Purpose of the Blue Category
- The primary purpose of the Blue Category is:
- To recognize industries providing Essential Environmental Services.
- These industries play a vital role in maintaining environmental sustainability and public health through effective waste management, pollution control, and resource conservation.
Importance of Recognition
- By identifying industries that deliver essential environmental services, the CPCB aims to:
- Encourage Best Practices: Industries will be motivated to adopt environmentally friendly practices as they gain recognition for their contributions.
- Incentivize Compliance: Recognized industries may receive certain incentives, promoting adherence to environmental regulations.
Impact on Policy and Regulation
- The introduction of the Blue Category can lead to:
- Enhanced Monitoring: It allows for better tracking and monitoring of industries that significantly impact the environment positively.
- Strategic Planning: Policymakers can develop targeted strategies to support and expand the operations of these essential services, thereby improving overall environmental health.
Conclusion
In summary, the Blue Category is an initiative by the CPCB to highlight and support industries that provide crucial environmental services, fostering a culture of sustainability and compliance within the industrial sector. This recognition not only benefits the environment but also promotes responsible business practices.
The 'Blue Category' introduced by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) serves a significant role in environmental governance by categorizing industries based on their contribution to essential environmental services.
Purpose of the Blue Category
- The primary purpose of the Blue Category is:
- To recognize industries providing Essential Environmental Services.
- These industries play a vital role in maintaining environmental sustainability and public health through effective waste management, pollution control, and resource conservation.
Importance of Recognition
- By identifying industries that deliver essential environmental services, the CPCB aims to:
- Encourage Best Practices: Industries will be motivated to adopt environmentally friendly practices as they gain recognition for their contributions.
- Incentivize Compliance: Recognized industries may receive certain incentives, promoting adherence to environmental regulations.
Impact on Policy and Regulation
- The introduction of the Blue Category can lead to:
- Enhanced Monitoring: It allows for better tracking and monitoring of industries that significantly impact the environment positively.
- Strategic Planning: Policymakers can develop targeted strategies to support and expand the operations of these essential services, thereby improving overall environmental health.
Conclusion
In summary, the Blue Category is an initiative by the CPCB to highlight and support industries that provide crucial environmental services, fostering a culture of sustainability and compliance within the industrial sector. This recognition not only benefits the environment but also promotes responsible business practices.
What is the primary purpose of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 that was recently passed by the Parliament in India?- a)To restrict donations to Waqf properties from non-Muslim individuals
- b)To modernize Waqf governance by repealing outdated laws
- c)To limit the definition of Waqf properties to only those donated by Muslims
- d)To reduce the autonomy of Waqf boards in managing religious institutions
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 that was recently passed by the Parliament in India?
a)
To restrict donations to Waqf properties from non-Muslim individuals
b)
To modernize Waqf governance by repealing outdated laws
c)
To limit the definition of Waqf properties to only those donated by Muslims
d)
To reduce the autonomy of Waqf boards in managing religious institutions
|
Ias Masters answered |
The primary purpose of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 is to modernize Waqf governance by repealing outdated laws and to broaden the scope of donations to Waqf properties. This includes allowing non-Muslim individuals to donate movable or immovable property to Waqf, expanding the donor base, and broadening the definition of Waqf to include properties donated for religious or charitable purposes, regardless of the donor's faith. The aim is to update and streamline Waqf governance in India.
Consider the following pairs:1. Mathikettan Shola National Park (MSNP) - Known for the Nilgiri Tahr.2. Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary (KWLS) - Protects the habitat of the Neelakurinji flower.3. Pambadum Shola National Park (PSNP) - Smallest national park in Kerala.4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (CWLS) - Located in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Mathikettan Shola National Park (MSNP) - Known for the Nilgiri Tahr.
2. Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary (KWLS) - Protects the habitat of the Neelakurinji flower.
3. Pambadum Shola National Park (PSNP) - Smallest national park in Kerala.
4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (CWLS) - Located in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Prisha Tiwari answered |
Overview of the Parks and Sanctuaries
The pairs listed relate to significant protected areas in Kerala, each with unique ecological significance. Let’s analyze each match.
1. Mathikettan Shola National Park (MSNP)
- Known for the Nilgiri Tahr, a mountain goat species found in the Western Ghats.
- This pairing is correct.
2. Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary (KWLS)
- This sanctuary is indeed famous for protecting the habitat of the Neelakurinji flower, which blooms once every 12 years.
- This pairing is correct.
3. Pambadum Shola National Park (PSNP)
- It is the smallest national park in Kerala, located in the Western Ghats and known for its rich biodiversity.
- This pairing is correct.
4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (CWLS)
- This sanctuary is located in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats, characterized by dry deciduous forests.
- This pairing is correct.
Conclusion
- All four pairs are correctly matched based on the characteristics of the respective parks and sanctuaries.
- Therefore, the correct answer to the question is indeed option 'C': Only three pairs.
Final Note
It's important to ensure accuracy in ecological information, as it is crucial for conservation efforts and awareness.
The pairs listed relate to significant protected areas in Kerala, each with unique ecological significance. Let’s analyze each match.
1. Mathikettan Shola National Park (MSNP)
- Known for the Nilgiri Tahr, a mountain goat species found in the Western Ghats.
- This pairing is correct.
2. Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary (KWLS)
- This sanctuary is indeed famous for protecting the habitat of the Neelakurinji flower, which blooms once every 12 years.
- This pairing is correct.
3. Pambadum Shola National Park (PSNP)
- It is the smallest national park in Kerala, located in the Western Ghats and known for its rich biodiversity.
- This pairing is correct.
4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary (CWLS)
- This sanctuary is located in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats, characterized by dry deciduous forests.
- This pairing is correct.
Conclusion
- All four pairs are correctly matched based on the characteristics of the respective parks and sanctuaries.
- Therefore, the correct answer to the question is indeed option 'C': Only three pairs.
Final Note
It's important to ensure accuracy in ecological information, as it is crucial for conservation efforts and awareness.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.Statement-II:
The Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) was negotiated in Geneva from 1969 to 1971, opened for signature on April 10, 1972, and entered into force on March 26, 1975.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.
The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.
Statement-II:
The Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) was negotiated in Geneva from 1969 to 1971, opened for signature on April 10, 1972, and entered into force on March 26, 1975.
The Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC) was negotiated in Geneva from 1969 to 1971, opened for signature on April 10, 1972, and entered into force on March 26, 1975.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Garima Menon answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
Statement-I asserts that the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits various activities related to biological and toxin weapons.
- The BWC indeed prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.
- This statement is accurate and encapsulates the fundamental purpose of the convention.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II provides historical context regarding the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC):
- It states that the BTWC was negotiated in Geneva from 1969 to 1971.
- It also mentions that the convention opened for signature on April 10, 1972, and entered into force on March 26, 1975.
- This information is factually correct, detailing the timeline of the convention's negotiation, signature, and enforcement.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct.
- However, Statement-II does not provide an explanatory link to Statement-I; it simply offers historical background.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Statement-I asserts that the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits various activities related to biological and toxin weapons.
- The BWC indeed prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.
- This statement is accurate and encapsulates the fundamental purpose of the convention.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II provides historical context regarding the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention (BTWC):
- It states that the BTWC was negotiated in Geneva from 1969 to 1971.
- It also mentions that the convention opened for signature on April 10, 1972, and entered into force on March 26, 1975.
- This information is factually correct, detailing the timeline of the convention's negotiation, signature, and enforcement.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct.
- However, Statement-II does not provide an explanatory link to Statement-I; it simply offers historical background.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Green Credit Programme:1. Green Credit Programme (GCP) Launch Year - 20232. Implementing Body for GCP - Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)3. Alignment with - Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment)4. Criticism Related to - Promoting Sustainable Urban DevelopmentHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Green Credit Programme:
1. Green Credit Programme (GCP) Launch Year - 2023
2. Implementing Body for GCP - Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
3. Alignment with - Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment)
4. Criticism Related to - Promoting Sustainable Urban Development
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Saikat Datta answered |
Green Credit Programme (GCP) Overview
The Green Credit Programme (GCP) is a significant initiative aimed at promoting sustainable practices in India. To determine how many of the pairs listed are correctly matched, let’s analyze each one.
1. Green Credit Programme (GCP) Launch Year - 2023
- The GCP was officially launched in the year 2023, making this pair correctly matched.
2. Implementing Body for GCP - Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
- The ICFRE is indeed the implementing body for the GCP, confirming that this pair is also correctly matched.
3. Alignment with - Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment)
- The GCP aligns with Mission LiFE, which focuses on encouraging sustainable living practices among citizens. This pair is correctly matched.
4. Criticism Related to - Promoting Sustainable Urban Development
- The criticism regarding the GCP is not primarily about promoting sustainable urban development. Instead, it has faced concerns over its implementation and effectiveness, making this pair incorrectly matched.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched, leading to the answer being option 'C'.
The Green Credit Programme (GCP) is a significant initiative aimed at promoting sustainable practices in India. To determine how many of the pairs listed are correctly matched, let’s analyze each one.
1. Green Credit Programme (GCP) Launch Year - 2023
- The GCP was officially launched in the year 2023, making this pair correctly matched.
2. Implementing Body for GCP - Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
- The ICFRE is indeed the implementing body for the GCP, confirming that this pair is also correctly matched.
3. Alignment with - Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment)
- The GCP aligns with Mission LiFE, which focuses on encouraging sustainable living practices among citizens. This pair is correctly matched.
4. Criticism Related to - Promoting Sustainable Urban Development
- The criticism regarding the GCP is not primarily about promoting sustainable urban development. Instead, it has faced concerns over its implementation and effectiveness, making this pair incorrectly matched.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.
- Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched, leading to the answer being option 'C'.
What is the primary objective of the Green Credit Programme launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2023?- a)Encouraging industrial activities in forest areas
- b)Promoting market-driven incentives for environmental action
- c)Facilitating international trade of green credits
- d)Supporting the construction of new industrial zones
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Green Credit Programme launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2023?
a)
Encouraging industrial activities in forest areas
b)
Promoting market-driven incentives for environmental action
c)
Facilitating international trade of green credits
d)
Supporting the construction of new industrial zones
|
BT Educators answered |
The main goal of the Green Credit Programme (GCP) is to promote environmental sustainability through market-driven incentives. By allowing participants to earn green credits through activities like tree plantation and waste management, the program aims to encourage voluntary environmental actions and help participants meet sustainability targets. This approach aligns with the broader objective of fostering a market-based approach to environmental conservation and sustainability initiatives.
Consider the following statements regarding the Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge:1. The Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge, located in Guizhou Province, China, is set to become the world's highest bridge upon completion.2. The bridge will surpass the height of the Millau Viaduct in France by 200 meters.3. The construction of the bridge is part of the Shantou–Kunming Expressway, aimed at significantly reducing travel time across the canyon to two minutes.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge:
1. The Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge, located in Guizhou Province, China, is set to become the world's highest bridge upon completion.
2. The bridge will surpass the height of the Millau Viaduct in France by 200 meters.
3. The construction of the bridge is part of the Shantou–Kunming Expressway, aimed at significantly reducing travel time across the canyon to two minutes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Divey Sethi answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge is indeed located in Guizhou Province, China, and is poised to become the world's highest bridge upon completion. It highlights China's engineering prowess and commitment to infrastructure development.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bridge surpasses the height of the Millau Viaduct, the text specifies that it exceeds the height of the Eiffel Tower by 200 meters, not the Millau Viaduct.
3. Statement 3 is correct. The bridge will be part of the Shantou–Kunming Expressway, and its completion will significantly reduce travel time across the canyon from about one hour to just two minutes.
Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the right choice.
Consider the following pairs related to India's 5-Point Action Against Pakistan After Pahalgam Terror Attack:1. Indus Waters Treaty Suspension - Until Pakistan ceases support for cross-border terrorism2. Closure of Attari-Wagah Border - Permanent closure affecting all cross-border traffic3. Cancellation of SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme - Only for Pakistani nationals4. Expulsion of Military Advisors - Only Pakistani military advisors declared Persona Non GrataHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to India's 5-Point Action Against Pakistan After Pahalgam Terror Attack:
1. Indus Waters Treaty Suspension - Until Pakistan ceases support for cross-border terrorism
2. Closure of Attari-Wagah Border - Permanent closure affecting all cross-border traffic
3. Cancellation of SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme - Only for Pakistani nationals
4. Expulsion of Military Advisors - Only Pakistani military advisors declared Persona Non Grata
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Pritam Desai answered |
Analysis of India's 5-Point Action Against Pakistan
In the wake of the Pahalgam terror attack, India proposed several actions against Pakistan. Let's examine the provided pairs for correctness:
1. Indus Waters Treaty Suspension
- Description: India has indicated the possibility of suspending the Indus Waters Treaty until Pakistan stops supporting cross-border terrorism.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has made statements regarding utilizing water resources as leverage against Pakistan.
2. Closure of Attari-Wagah Border
- Description: This suggests a permanent closure impacting all cross-border traffic.
- Correctness: Incorrectly matched. While there may be heightened security and restrictions, a permanent closure has not been confirmed.
3. Cancellation of SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme
- Description: This would imply that the cancellation affects only Pakistani nationals.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has expressed intentions to reconsider such agreements primarily with Pakistan due to ongoing tensions.
4. Expulsion of Military Advisors
- Description: This implies that only Pakistani military advisors would be declared Persona Non Grata.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has targeted specific individuals deemed a threat to national security.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making a total of three pairs. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', as it accurately reflects the actions taken by India in response to the situation.
In the wake of the Pahalgam terror attack, India proposed several actions against Pakistan. Let's examine the provided pairs for correctness:
1. Indus Waters Treaty Suspension
- Description: India has indicated the possibility of suspending the Indus Waters Treaty until Pakistan stops supporting cross-border terrorism.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has made statements regarding utilizing water resources as leverage against Pakistan.
2. Closure of Attari-Wagah Border
- Description: This suggests a permanent closure impacting all cross-border traffic.
- Correctness: Incorrectly matched. While there may be heightened security and restrictions, a permanent closure has not been confirmed.
3. Cancellation of SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme
- Description: This would imply that the cancellation affects only Pakistani nationals.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has expressed intentions to reconsider such agreements primarily with Pakistan due to ongoing tensions.
4. Expulsion of Military Advisors
- Description: This implies that only Pakistani military advisors would be declared Persona Non Grata.
- Correctness: Correctly matched. India has targeted specific individuals deemed a threat to national security.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis, only pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, making a total of three pairs. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C', as it accurately reflects the actions taken by India in response to the situation.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
BluSmart, a prominent electric cab service, has suspended its operations due to regulatory scrutiny of its associated firm, raising concerns regarding the future of its fleet of 8,000 electric vehicles (EVs).Statement-II:
The Karnataka High Court has mandated the shutdown of bike taxi services by mid-May, which may influence regulations in other states.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
BluSmart, a prominent electric cab service, has suspended its operations due to regulatory scrutiny of its associated firm, raising concerns regarding the future of its fleet of 8,000 electric vehicles (EVs).
BluSmart, a prominent electric cab service, has suspended its operations due to regulatory scrutiny of its associated firm, raising concerns regarding the future of its fleet of 8,000 electric vehicles (EVs).
Statement-II:
The Karnataka High Court has mandated the shutdown of bike taxi services by mid-May, which may influence regulations in other states.
The Karnataka High Court has mandated the shutdown of bike taxi services by mid-May, which may influence regulations in other states.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Saanvi Reddy answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
- BluSmart, a well-known electric cab service, has halted operations.
- This suspension is linked to regulatory scrutiny concerning its associated firm.
- Concerns have been raised about the future of its fleet, which consists of 8,000 electric vehicles (EVs).
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Karnataka High Court has ordered the shutdown of bike taxi services by mid-May.
- This decision may set a precedent for regulatory changes in other states, influencing similar services.
Relationship Between Both Statements
- Both statements are accurate and reflect ongoing regulatory challenges within the transport sector.
- The shutdown of bike taxi services can lead to increased scrutiny and regulatory action against other services, including electric cab operations like BluSmart.
- Thus, the regulatory environment affecting bike taxis likely influences the regulatory scrutiny faced by BluSmart.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct interpretation is that both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Additionally, Statement-II provides context that helps explain the circumstances surrounding Statement-I.
- Hence, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- BluSmart, a well-known electric cab service, has halted operations.
- This suspension is linked to regulatory scrutiny concerning its associated firm.
- Concerns have been raised about the future of its fleet, which consists of 8,000 electric vehicles (EVs).
Analysis of Statement-II
- The Karnataka High Court has ordered the shutdown of bike taxi services by mid-May.
- This decision may set a precedent for regulatory changes in other states, influencing similar services.
Relationship Between Both Statements
- Both statements are accurate and reflect ongoing regulatory challenges within the transport sector.
- The shutdown of bike taxi services can lead to increased scrutiny and regulatory action against other services, including electric cab operations like BluSmart.
- Thus, the regulatory environment affecting bike taxis likely influences the regulatory scrutiny faced by BluSmart.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the correct interpretation is that both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Additionally, Statement-II provides context that helps explain the circumstances surrounding Statement-I.
- Hence, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
Consider the following statements regarding the measurement of Helium abundance in the Sun's photosphere:1. The abundance of Helium in the Sun's photosphere was previously estimated using direct observations of Helium spectral lines in visible light.2. Researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics introduced a novel method utilizing spectral features from Magnesium and Carbon to estimate Helium abundance.3. The Helium-to-Hydrogen ratio in the Sun's photosphere was determined to be 0.1, validating previous studies.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the measurement of Helium abundance in the Sun's photosphere:
1. The abundance of Helium in the Sun's photosphere was previously estimated using direct observations of Helium spectral lines in visible light.
2. Researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics introduced a novel method utilizing spectral features from Magnesium and Carbon to estimate Helium abundance.
3. The Helium-to-Hydrogen ratio in the Sun's photosphere was determined to be 0.1, validating previous studies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The abundance of Helium in the Sun's photosphere could not be directly measured using Helium spectral lines in visible light, as there are no observable Helium spectral lines in this range. Previous estimates relied on indirect methods, such as data from hotter stars, solar wind observations, and seismological studies.
- Statement 2 is correct. Researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics developed a novel method that uses spectral features from Magnesium (Mg) and Carbon (C) to directly estimate the Helium abundance in the Sun's photosphere.
- Statement 3 is correct. The Helium-to-Hydrogen ratio in the Sun's photosphere was determined to be 0.1, which corroborates previous studies and validates the effectiveness of the new method introduced by the researchers.
Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3, making Option D the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Pamban Bridge, originally built in 1914, was severely damaged by the 1964 tsunami but was later repaired by engineer E. Sreedharan with the help of local fishermen.
Statement-II:
The new Pamban Bridge, constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), is 3 meters higher than the old bridge and is designed to support heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains like Vande Bharat.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Pamban Bridge, originally built in 1914, was severely damaged by the 1964 tsunami but was later repaired by engineer E. Sreedharan with the help of local fishermen.
Statement-II:
The new Pamban Bridge, constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), is 3 meters higher than the old bridge and is designed to support heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains like Vande Bharat.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Pamban Bridge, originally built in 1914, was severely damaged by the 1964 tsunami but was later repaired by engineer E. Sreedharan with the help of local fishermen.
Statement-II:
The new Pamban Bridge, constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), is 3 meters higher than the old bridge and is designed to support heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains like Vande Bharat.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Ameya Chawla answered |
Understanding the Statements
The question revolves around two statements regarding the Pamban Bridge, its history, and its current status. Let's analyze both statements to understand why option 'A' is correct.
Statement-I Analysis
- The Pamban Bridge was indeed constructed in 1914.
- It suffered significant damage during the 1964 tsunami.
- Engineer E. Sreedharan played a crucial role in its repair, utilizing the knowledge and assistance of local fishermen.
This statement is correct as it accurately reflects historical facts and contributions related to the bridge.
Statement-II Analysis
- The new Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL).
- It is 3 meters higher than the original bridge, enhancing its resilience against sea conditions and allowing for increased clearance.
- The new design supports heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains, including the Vande Bharat.
This statement is also correct as it describes the improvements made in the new bridge.
Relationship Between Statements
- Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. Instead, Statement-II provides information about the new bridge and its capabilities following the historical context described in Statement-I.
Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The historical context provided in Statement-I sets the foundation for understanding the advancements made in Statement-II.
The question revolves around two statements regarding the Pamban Bridge, its history, and its current status. Let's analyze both statements to understand why option 'A' is correct.
Statement-I Analysis
- The Pamban Bridge was indeed constructed in 1914.
- It suffered significant damage during the 1964 tsunami.
- Engineer E. Sreedharan played a crucial role in its repair, utilizing the knowledge and assistance of local fishermen.
This statement is correct as it accurately reflects historical facts and contributions related to the bridge.
Statement-II Analysis
- The new Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL).
- It is 3 meters higher than the original bridge, enhancing its resilience against sea conditions and allowing for increased clearance.
- The new design supports heavy freight trains and advanced semi-high-speed trains, including the Vande Bharat.
This statement is also correct as it describes the improvements made in the new bridge.
Relationship Between Statements
- Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. Instead, Statement-II provides information about the new bridge and its capabilities following the historical context described in Statement-I.
Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. The historical context provided in Statement-I sets the foundation for understanding the advancements made in Statement-II.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Abel Prize is often likened to a Nobel Prize in mathematics and was established to honor mathematicians for their pioneering work.Statement-II:
Masaki Kashiwara, the 2025 Abel Prize awardee, made significant advancements in algebraic analysis and representation theory, particularly through his development of D-modules and the discovery of crystal bases.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Abel Prize is often likened to a Nobel Prize in mathematics and was established to honor mathematicians for their pioneering work.
The Abel Prize is often likened to a Nobel Prize in mathematics and was established to honor mathematicians for their pioneering work.
Statement-II:
Masaki Kashiwara, the 2025 Abel Prize awardee, made significant advancements in algebraic analysis and representation theory, particularly through his development of D-modules and the discovery of crystal bases.
Masaki Kashiwara, the 2025 Abel Prize awardee, made significant advancements in algebraic analysis and representation theory, particularly through his development of D-modules and the discovery of crystal bases.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Innovative Classes answered |
Both statements are correct. Statement-I establishes the purpose and significance of the Abel Prize, likening it to the Nobel Prize in mathematics and highlighting its role in honoring mathematicians for their groundbreaking work. Statement-II provides specific details about Masaki Kashiwara's contributions, showcasing his significant advancements in algebraic analysis and representation theory through the development of D-modules and the discovery of crystal bases. Statement-II further explains how Masaki Kashiwara's work aligns with the criteria for receiving the Abel Prize, thereby complementing and elaborating on Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.Statement-II:
The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
Statement-II:
The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Shounak Kapoor answered |
Analysis of Statements
In evaluating the two statements regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report and the debt to GDP ratios, we need to assess their correctness and interrelation.
Statement-I
- The FRBM Review Committee indeed recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the combined government by 2023.
- This ratio is intended to be split into 40% for the Central Government and 20% for State Governments.
Statement-II
- The assertion that the Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP and State Governments have 49% of GDP is incorrect.
- Generally, the domestic liabilities of the Central Government are lower than those of the State Governments, as the latter tend to accumulate higher debts due to various fiscal challenges.
Conclusion
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct as per the FRBM recommendations.
- Statement-II is incorrect regarding the comparison of domestic liabilities between the Central and State Governments.
Correct Answer
- The correct option is (c): Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
This analysis reveals the importance of understanding fiscal policies and the implications of government debt, crucial for UPSC aspirants.
In evaluating the two statements regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report and the debt to GDP ratios, we need to assess their correctness and interrelation.
Statement-I
- The FRBM Review Committee indeed recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the combined government by 2023.
- This ratio is intended to be split into 40% for the Central Government and 20% for State Governments.
Statement-II
- The assertion that the Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP and State Governments have 49% of GDP is incorrect.
- Generally, the domestic liabilities of the Central Government are lower than those of the State Governments, as the latter tend to accumulate higher debts due to various fiscal challenges.
Conclusion
- Therefore, Statement-I is correct as per the FRBM recommendations.
- Statement-II is incorrect regarding the comparison of domestic liabilities between the Central and State Governments.
Correct Answer
- The correct option is (c): Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
This analysis reveals the importance of understanding fiscal policies and the implications of government debt, crucial for UPSC aspirants.
Consider the following pairs regarding Indian rivers and their places of origin:1. Brahmaputra - Mansarovar Lake2. Godavari - Trimbakeshwar3. Krishna - Mahabaleshwar4. Kaveri - AmarkantakHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding Indian rivers and their places of origin:
1. Brahmaputra - Mansarovar Lake
2. Godavari - Trimbakeshwar
3. Krishna - Mahabaleshwar
4. Kaveri - Amarkantak
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Valor Academy answered |
1. Brahmaputra - Mansarovar Lake: Correctly matched. The Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet.
2. Godavari - Trimbakeshwar: Correctly matched. The Godavari River originates from Trimbakeshwar, near Nasik in Maharashtra.
3. Krishna - Mahabaleshwar: Correctly matched. The Krishna River originates from the Mahabaleshwar region in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
4. Kaveri - Amarkantak: Incorrectly matched. The Kaveri River originates from Talakaveri in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, not from Amarkantak. Amarkantak is the origin of the Narmada River.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs related to Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG) and its applications:
1. QGG Technology - Measures differences in gravitational acceleration with precision up to 10^-15 m/s² over 1 meter.
2. Application - Useful in detecting hydrocarbon deposits.
3. Instrument Function - Manipulates atoms at room temperature to measure gravitational forces.
4. Deployment - Designed for use in high Earth orbit.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs related to Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG) and its applications:
1. QGG Technology - Measures differences in gravitational acceleration with precision up to 10^-15 m/s² over 1 meter.
2. Application - Useful in detecting hydrocarbon deposits.
3. Instrument Function - Manipulates atoms at room temperature to measure gravitational forces.
4. Deployment - Designed for use in high Earth orbit.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. QGG Technology - Measures differences in gravitational acceleration with precision up to 10^-15 m/s² over 1 meter.
2. Application - Useful in detecting hydrocarbon deposits.
3. Instrument Function - Manipulates atoms at room temperature to measure gravitational forces.
4. Deployment - Designed for use in high Earth orbit.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
1. QGG Technology - Measures differences in gravitational acceleration with precision up to 10^-15 m/s² over 1 meter.
This is correctly matched. Quantum Gravity Gradiometers are indeed capable of measuring very subtle variations in gravitational acceleration with high precision, such as 10^-15 m/s².
2. Application - Useful in detecting hydrocarbon deposits.
This is correctly matched. QGGs are sensitive instruments that can measure gravitational changes across locations, which can be applied in resource exploration, including detecting hydrocarbon deposits.
3. Instrument Function - Manipulates atoms at room temperature to measure gravitational forces.
This is incorrectly matched. QGGs use atoms cooled to near absolute zero, not at room temperature, to enter wave-like states and measure gravitational forces.
4. Deployment - Designed for use in high Earth orbit.
This is incorrectly matched. The QGG is intended for deployment in low Earth orbit, where it can effectively monitor changes in the Earth's mass distribution.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, making the correct answer Option B: Only two pairs.
Which of the following articles of the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits the transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons?- a)Article I
- b)Article II
- c)Article III
- d)Article VI
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following articles of the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) prohibits the transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons?
a)
Article I
b)
Article II
c)
Article III
d)
Article VI
|
|
Saikat Datta answered |
Understanding the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)
The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), adopted in 1972, is a key international treaty that aims to prevent the development, production, and stockpiling of biological and toxin weapons.
Article III: Prohibition of Transfer and Assistance
- Key Provision: Article III specifically addresses the prohibition of transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons.
- Scope: It mandates that state parties are not to transfer biological agents or toxins for weaponization purposes and prevents any form of support that could enable another state to develop biological weapons.
Importance of Article III
- Global Security: This article is crucial for maintaining international peace and security by ensuring that biological weapons do not proliferate.
- Accountability: It holds signatory nations accountable for their actions and reinforces the commitment to disarmament in the biological realm.
Other Articles for Context
- Article I: Focuses on the prohibition of the development and stockpiling of biological weapons.
- Article II: Defines biological weapons and sets the terms for what constitutes a violation.
- Article VI: Addresses the enforcement measures and the role of the United Nations.
Conclusion
In summary, Article III of the BWC is pivotal in prohibiting the transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons, thereby reinforcing global efforts to prevent biological warfare and promote disarmament. Understanding this article is essential for comprehending the overall framework of international biological security measures.
The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC), adopted in 1972, is a key international treaty that aims to prevent the development, production, and stockpiling of biological and toxin weapons.
Article III: Prohibition of Transfer and Assistance
- Key Provision: Article III specifically addresses the prohibition of transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons.
- Scope: It mandates that state parties are not to transfer biological agents or toxins for weaponization purposes and prevents any form of support that could enable another state to develop biological weapons.
Importance of Article III
- Global Security: This article is crucial for maintaining international peace and security by ensuring that biological weapons do not proliferate.
- Accountability: It holds signatory nations accountable for their actions and reinforces the commitment to disarmament in the biological realm.
Other Articles for Context
- Article I: Focuses on the prohibition of the development and stockpiling of biological weapons.
- Article II: Defines biological weapons and sets the terms for what constitutes a violation.
- Article VI: Addresses the enforcement measures and the role of the United Nations.
Conclusion
In summary, Article III of the BWC is pivotal in prohibiting the transfer or assistance in acquiring biological weapons, thereby reinforcing global efforts to prevent biological warfare and promote disarmament. Understanding this article is essential for comprehending the overall framework of international biological security measures.
Consider the following pairs:1. Voter ID - Biometric Identifier2. Aadhaar - Unique Identifier3. CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism4. INS Varsha - Western Coast of IndiaHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Voter ID - Biometric Identifier
2. Aadhaar - Unique Identifier
3. CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism
4. INS Varsha - Western Coast of India
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Gauri Shah answered |
Understanding the Pairs
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let’s analyze each one:
1. Voter ID - Biometric Identifier
- Voter ID is primarily an identification document used in elections, but it does not inherently contain biometric data. Hence, this pair is incorrect.
2. Aadhaar - Unique Identifier
- Aadhaar is indeed a unique identifier assigned to residents of India, containing biometric and demographic data. This pair is correct.
3. CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism
- CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart) is designed to differentiate between human users and bots, making it a valid online security mechanism. Therefore, this pair is correct.
4. INS Varsha - Western Coast of India
- INS Varsha is a vessel of the Indian Navy, and while it may operate along the western coast, it is not exclusively tied to this region. Thus, this pair is incorrect.
Summary of Correct Matches
- Correct pairs:
- Aadhaar - Unique Identifier
- CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism
- Incorrect pairs:
- Voter ID - Biometric Identifier
- INS Varsha - Western Coast of India
Conclusion
In total, two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that only two pairs are correctly matched.
To determine how many pairs are correctly matched, let’s analyze each one:
1. Voter ID - Biometric Identifier
- Voter ID is primarily an identification document used in elections, but it does not inherently contain biometric data. Hence, this pair is incorrect.
2. Aadhaar - Unique Identifier
- Aadhaar is indeed a unique identifier assigned to residents of India, containing biometric and demographic data. This pair is correct.
3. CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism
- CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart) is designed to differentiate between human users and bots, making it a valid online security mechanism. Therefore, this pair is correct.
4. INS Varsha - Western Coast of India
- INS Varsha is a vessel of the Indian Navy, and while it may operate along the western coast, it is not exclusively tied to this region. Thus, this pair is incorrect.
Summary of Correct Matches
- Correct pairs:
- Aadhaar - Unique Identifier
- CAPTCHA - Online Security Mechanism
- Incorrect pairs:
- Voter ID - Biometric Identifier
- INS Varsha - Western Coast of India
Conclusion
In total, two pairs are correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that only two pairs are correctly matched.
What shift has occurred in the Ministry of Home Affairs’ (MHA) approach to internal security?- a)From proactive reform to crisis management Option
- b)From crisis management to proactive reform Option
- c)From national security to international relations Option
- d)From law enforcement to social development
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What shift has occurred in the Ministry of Home Affairs’ (MHA) approach to internal security?
a)
From proactive reform to crisis management Option
b)
From crisis management to proactive reform Option
c)
From national security to international relations Option
d)
From law enforcement to social development
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in India has traditionally been reactive, focusing on managing crises such as riots, insurgencies, and emergencies. This approach often led to short-term measures rather than addressing the root causes of such crises. However, under Prime Minister Narendra Modi's leadership, the MHA has shifted to a more proactive approach.
- This shift focuses on long-term reforms, strengthening internal security frameworks, and preparing the country to handle emerging threats effectively. Over 27 reforms have been introduced since 2019, including amendments to the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), to provide a clearer and more robust response to internal security challenges.
- This proactive approach also includes enhancing coordination between the Centre and States, improving security infrastructure, and preparing the security apparatus for future challenges. The increased budget for the MHA further supports this proactive stance by improving operational capabilities.
Thus, the MHA's approach has moved from crisis management to proactive reform.
What is the primary focus of the comprehensive campaign being launched in Ranchi, making it the first district in Jharkhand to undertake such an initiative?- a)Screening and managing cardiovascular diseases
- b)Screening and managing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFL
- c)Providing free healthcare services to all residents
- d)Promoting awareness about mental health issues
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary focus of the comprehensive campaign being launched in Ranchi, making it the first district in Jharkhand to undertake such an initiative?
a)
Screening and managing cardiovascular diseases
b)
Screening and managing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFL
c)
Providing free healthcare services to all residents
d)
Promoting awareness about mental health issues
|
|
Shanaya Bajaj answered |
Overview of the Campaign in Ranchi
The comprehensive campaign launched in Ranchi is a pioneering initiative in Jharkhand, focusing primarily on the screening and management of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). This condition is increasingly recognized as a significant health issue, and the campaign aims to address it through a structured approach.
Importance of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
- NAFLD is a common condition characterized by excess fat accumulation in the liver, not caused by alcohol consumption.
- It can lead to serious health complications, including liver cirrhosis and liver cancer, making early detection and management crucial.
Objectives of the Campaign
- Screening: The campaign will focus on identifying individuals at risk of NAFLD through targeted screening programs.
- Management: It aims to provide guidelines for managing the disease, including lifestyle modifications and medical interventions.
Reasons for Choosing Ranchi
- Being the first district in Jharkhand to undertake this initiative highlights the need for focused healthcare efforts in the region.
- It serves as a model for other districts to follow, promoting better health outcomes statewide.
Community Engagement and Awareness
- The campaign will also focus on educating the community about NAFLD, its risk factors, and preventive measures.
- Engaging local healthcare providers will be crucial to ensure that residents receive comprehensive care.
This initiative represents a significant step towards improving liver health and overall wellness in Ranchi, setting a precedent for future health campaigns in Jharkhand.
The comprehensive campaign launched in Ranchi is a pioneering initiative in Jharkhand, focusing primarily on the screening and management of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). This condition is increasingly recognized as a significant health issue, and the campaign aims to address it through a structured approach.
Importance of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
- NAFLD is a common condition characterized by excess fat accumulation in the liver, not caused by alcohol consumption.
- It can lead to serious health complications, including liver cirrhosis and liver cancer, making early detection and management crucial.
Objectives of the Campaign
- Screening: The campaign will focus on identifying individuals at risk of NAFLD through targeted screening programs.
- Management: It aims to provide guidelines for managing the disease, including lifestyle modifications and medical interventions.
Reasons for Choosing Ranchi
- Being the first district in Jharkhand to undertake this initiative highlights the need for focused healthcare efforts in the region.
- It serves as a model for other districts to follow, promoting better health outcomes statewide.
Community Engagement and Awareness
- The campaign will also focus on educating the community about NAFLD, its risk factors, and preventive measures.
- Engaging local healthcare providers will be crucial to ensure that residents receive comprehensive care.
This initiative represents a significant step towards improving liver health and overall wellness in Ranchi, setting a precedent for future health campaigns in Jharkhand.
Consider the following statements:1. K2-18b is an exoplanet located in the Leo constellation, approximately 124 light-years away from Earth.2. The James Webb Space Telescope has detected carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere of K2-18b, suggesting the presence of liquid water oceans.3. The Hycean World Hypothesis proposes that planets with a hydrogen-rich atmosphere and potential liquid water oceans may support moderate greenhouse conditions.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. K2-18b is an exoplanet located in the Leo constellation, approximately 124 light-years away from Earth.
2. The James Webb Space Telescope has detected carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere of K2-18b, suggesting the presence of liquid water oceans.
3. The Hycean World Hypothesis proposes that planets with a hydrogen-rich atmosphere and potential liquid water oceans may support moderate greenhouse conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Niti Mehta answered |
Understanding K2-18b and Its Significance
K2-18b is an intriguing exoplanet that has captured the interest of astronomers. Let's evaluate the statements regarding this celestial body.
Statement 1: K2-18b Location and Distance
- K2-18b is indeed located in the Leo constellation.
- It is approximately 124 light-years away from Earth.
This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Detection of Carbon Dioxide and Methane
- The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has successfully detected carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere of K2-18b.
- These findings suggest the possibility of liquid water oceans, which is crucial for the potential habitability of the planet.
This statement is also correct.
Statement 3: The Hycean World Hypothesis
- The Hycean World Hypothesis posits that exoplanets with hydrogen-rich atmospheres and potential liquid water could support moderate greenhouse conditions.
- This hypothesis is particularly relevant for K2-18b, as its atmospheric composition aligns with the criteria outlined in the hypothesis.
This statement is correct as well.
Conclusion
Given the evaluation of all three statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'd' (1, 2, and 3).
In conclusion, all statements about K2-18b highlight its significance in the search for potentially habitable worlds beyond our solar system.
K2-18b is an intriguing exoplanet that has captured the interest of astronomers. Let's evaluate the statements regarding this celestial body.
Statement 1: K2-18b Location and Distance
- K2-18b is indeed located in the Leo constellation.
- It is approximately 124 light-years away from Earth.
This statement is correct.
Statement 2: Detection of Carbon Dioxide and Methane
- The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has successfully detected carbon dioxide and methane in the atmosphere of K2-18b.
- These findings suggest the possibility of liquid water oceans, which is crucial for the potential habitability of the planet.
This statement is also correct.
Statement 3: The Hycean World Hypothesis
- The Hycean World Hypothesis posits that exoplanets with hydrogen-rich atmospheres and potential liquid water could support moderate greenhouse conditions.
- This hypothesis is particularly relevant for K2-18b, as its atmospheric composition aligns with the criteria outlined in the hypothesis.
This statement is correct as well.
Conclusion
Given the evaluation of all three statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'd' (1, 2, and 3).
In conclusion, all statements about K2-18b highlight its significance in the search for potentially habitable worlds beyond our solar system.
Consider the following statements regarding the KATRIN Experiment:1. The KATRIN experiment aims to measure the mass of the electron antineutrino with a precision of less than 0.45 eV/c².2. The KATRIN experiment is based at the Karlsruhe Institute of Technology in Germany and uses alpha decay of tritium to infer the neutrino mass.3. Neutrinos are extremely light subatomic particles that rarely interact with matter, and they play a crucial role in cosmic structure formation.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the KATRIN Experiment:
1. The KATRIN experiment aims to measure the mass of the electron antineutrino with a precision of less than 0.45 eV/c².
2. The KATRIN experiment is based at the Karlsruhe Institute of Technology in Germany and uses alpha decay of tritium to infer the neutrino mass.
3. Neutrinos are extremely light subatomic particles that rarely interact with matter, and they play a crucial role in cosmic structure formation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The KATRIN experiment indeed aims to measure the mass of the electron antineutrino with a precision of less than 0.45 eV/c², which is a significant improvement over prior measurements.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The experiment uses the beta decay of tritium, not alpha decay, to infer the neutrino mass by analyzing the energy of emitted electrons. Tritium beta decay is a well-known method for such measurements due to its simplicity and the low energy of the neutrinos produced.
- Statement 3 is correct. Neutrinos are indeed extremely light and rarely interact with matter, which makes detecting them challenging. Their properties and behavior are crucial in understanding cosmic structure formation, such as the development of galaxies and clusters.
The correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only, as statements 1 and 3 are accurate descriptions of the KATRIN Experiment and its scientific context.
What is the primary purpose of the Ottawa Convention?- a)To promote the production and use of anti-personnel landmines
- b)To encourage the transfer of anti-personnel landmines
- c)To ban the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines
- d)To support countries in enhancing their military capabilities
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Ottawa Convention?
a)
To promote the production and use of anti-personnel landmines
b)
To encourage the transfer of anti-personnel landmines
c)
To ban the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines
d)
To support countries in enhancing their military capabilities
|
|
Anushka Sharma answered |
Overview of the Ottawa Convention
The Ottawa Convention, officially known as the Mine Ban Treaty, was established to address the humanitarian issues caused by anti-personnel landmines. Its primary focus is to mitigate the suffering inflicted on civilians by these weapons.
Key Objectives of the Ottawa Convention
- Ban on Anti-Personnel Landmines: The convention aims to prohibit the use of anti-personnel landmines. This includes a comprehensive ban on their production, stockpiling, and transfer.
- Humanitarian Impact: The treaty recognizes the devastating effects landmines have on civilian populations, often leading to injuries, fatalities, and long-term socio-economic challenges.
- Support for Victims: The Ottawa Convention emphasizes the need for assistance to landmine victims, including rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
Significance of the Treaty
- Global Cooperation: The convention fosters international collaboration, encouraging countries to work together to eliminate the threat posed by landmines.
- Legal Framework: By establishing a legal prohibition, the Ottawa Convention creates accountability and encourages states to adhere to international humanitarian norms.
- Promotion of Peace: The treaty contributes to the broader goal of promoting peace and security by reducing the military utility of landmines.
Conclusion
In summary, the Ottawa Convention's primary purpose is to ban the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines. Its commitment to humanitarian principles and victim support underlines its significance in international law and global peace efforts.
The Ottawa Convention, officially known as the Mine Ban Treaty, was established to address the humanitarian issues caused by anti-personnel landmines. Its primary focus is to mitigate the suffering inflicted on civilians by these weapons.
Key Objectives of the Ottawa Convention
- Ban on Anti-Personnel Landmines: The convention aims to prohibit the use of anti-personnel landmines. This includes a comprehensive ban on their production, stockpiling, and transfer.
- Humanitarian Impact: The treaty recognizes the devastating effects landmines have on civilian populations, often leading to injuries, fatalities, and long-term socio-economic challenges.
- Support for Victims: The Ottawa Convention emphasizes the need for assistance to landmine victims, including rehabilitation and reintegration into society.
Significance of the Treaty
- Global Cooperation: The convention fosters international collaboration, encouraging countries to work together to eliminate the threat posed by landmines.
- Legal Framework: By establishing a legal prohibition, the Ottawa Convention creates accountability and encourages states to adhere to international humanitarian norms.
- Promotion of Peace: The treaty contributes to the broader goal of promoting peace and security by reducing the military utility of landmines.
Conclusion
In summary, the Ottawa Convention's primary purpose is to ban the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines. Its commitment to humanitarian principles and victim support underlines its significance in international law and global peace efforts.
Consider the following pairs:1. ChaSTE - First instrument to penetrate lunar soil near the Moon's south pole2. ESA’s Philae lander - Successfully deployed its MUPUS instrument on Comet 67P3. NASA’s InSight lander - Utilized a self-hammering device called "The Mole" on the Moon4. Roman aqueduct - Used extensively during the Roman Empire to supply cities with waterHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. ChaSTE - First instrument to penetrate lunar soil near the Moon's south pole
2. ESA’s Philae lander - Successfully deployed its MUPUS instrument on Comet 67P
3. NASA’s InSight lander - Utilized a self-hammering device called "The Mole" on the Moon
4. Roman aqueduct - Used extensively during the Roman Empire to supply cities with water
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. ChaSTE - First instrument to penetrate lunar soil near the Moon's south pole: This pair is correctly matched. ChaSTE, a part of India's Chandrayaan-3 mission, successfully penetrated the lunar soil near the Moon's south pole, providing significant data on lunar surface temperatures.
2. ESA’s Philae lander - Successfully deployed its MUPUS instrument on Comet 67P: This pair is incorrectly matched. The ESA's Philae lander attempted to deploy its MUPUS instrument on Comet 67P, but due to an awkward landing, it failed to deploy correctly.
3. NASA’s InSight lander - Utilized a self-hammering device called "The Mole" on the Moon: This pair is incorrectly matched. NASA’s InSight lander was deployed on Mars, not the Moon. It included a self-hammering device known as "The Mole," which faced issues due to low friction, preventing it from collecting meaningful data.
4. Roman aqueduct - Used extensively during the Roman Empire to supply cities with water: This pair is correctly matched. Roman aqueducts were indeed used extensively during the Roman Empire to transport water from sources to cities, showcasing advanced engineering skills.
Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1 and 4.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Katchatheevu island is strategically significant due to its location in the Palk Strait and its importance for the fishing economy of Tamil Nadu.Statement-II:
The ownership of Katchatheevu was settled in favor of Sri Lanka through a 1974 agreement, based on the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Katchatheevu island is strategically significant due to its location in the Palk Strait and its importance for the fishing economy of Tamil Nadu.
The Katchatheevu island is strategically significant due to its location in the Palk Strait and its importance for the fishing economy of Tamil Nadu.
Statement-II:
The ownership of Katchatheevu was settled in favor of Sri Lanka through a 1974 agreement, based on the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
The ownership of Katchatheevu was settled in favor of Sri Lanka through a 1974 agreement, based on the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Kiran Sarkar answered |
Overview of Katchatheevu Island
Katchatheevu is a small island located in the Palk Strait, strategically important for both India and Sri Lanka. The island's significance stems from its impact on fishing activities, particularly for the fishermen of Tamil Nadu.
Statement-I: Strategic Importance
- Katchatheevu's location is indeed strategic due to its position in the Palk Strait.
- It plays a crucial role in the fishing economy of Tamil Nadu, as many fishermen depend on the waters surrounding the island for their livelihood.
Statement-II: Ownership and Agreement
- The ownership of Katchatheevu was settled in favor of Sri Lanka through an agreement signed in 1974.
- This agreement was influenced by the principles outlined in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which governs maritime disputes and territorial waters.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II explains Statement-I as it addresses the legal and historical context behind the strategic significance of Katchatheevu, highlighting why this island matters for Tamil Nadu's fishing economy.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': "Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I." This reflects the interconnected nature of the island's significance and the legal framework that governs its ownership.
Katchatheevu is a small island located in the Palk Strait, strategically important for both India and Sri Lanka. The island's significance stems from its impact on fishing activities, particularly for the fishermen of Tamil Nadu.
Statement-I: Strategic Importance
- Katchatheevu's location is indeed strategic due to its position in the Palk Strait.
- It plays a crucial role in the fishing economy of Tamil Nadu, as many fishermen depend on the waters surrounding the island for their livelihood.
Statement-II: Ownership and Agreement
- The ownership of Katchatheevu was settled in favor of Sri Lanka through an agreement signed in 1974.
- This agreement was influenced by the principles outlined in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which governs maritime disputes and territorial waters.
Correctness of the Statements
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II explains Statement-I as it addresses the legal and historical context behind the strategic significance of Katchatheevu, highlighting why this island matters for Tamil Nadu's fishing economy.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct answer is option 'A': "Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I." This reflects the interconnected nature of the island's significance and the legal framework that governs its ownership.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Lokpal and Lokayukta:1. Lokpal : Investigates corruption cases involving state public servants.2. Jan Lokpal Andolan : Movement that led to the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.3. Selection Committee for Lokpal : Includes the President of India.4. State Lokayukta : Handles corruption cases involving central public servants.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Lokpal and Lokayukta:
1. Lokpal : Investigates corruption cases involving state public servants.
2. Jan Lokpal Andolan : Movement that led to the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
3. Selection Committee for Lokpal : Includes the President of India.
4. State Lokayukta : Handles corruption cases involving central public servants.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
1. Lokpal : Investigates corruption cases involving state public servants. - Incorrect. The Lokpal investigates corruption cases involving public servants at the central level, not state public servants. State public servants are handled by the Lokayukta.
2. Jan Lokpal Andolan : Movement that led to the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. - Correct. The Jan Lokpal Andolan, led by Anna Hazare, was a significant movement that mobilized public demand for a strong anti-corruption ombudsman, resulting in the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
3. Selection Committee for Lokpal : Includes the President of India. - Incorrect. The Selection Committee for Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist. The President appoints the Lokpal based on the Committee's recommendations but is not part of the Committee.
4. State Lokayukta : Handles corruption cases involving central public servants. - Incorrect. The State Lokayukta deals with corruption cases involving state public servants, such as Chief Ministers and MLAs, not central public servants.
Only the second pair is correctly matched, aligning with Option A: Only one pair.
Consider the following statements regarding the Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) conducted by Chandrayaan-3:1. The ChaSTE probe successfully penetrated the lunar soil to a depth of 10 cm and continuously monitored temperature variations.2. ChaSTE was the first ever instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the Moon’s north pole, providing valuable insights into the lunar environment.3. The probe features a rotation-based deployment mechanism that allows it to penetrate the Moon's surface.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) conducted by Chandrayaan-3:
1. The ChaSTE probe successfully penetrated the lunar soil to a depth of 10 cm and continuously monitored temperature variations.
2. ChaSTE was the first ever instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the Moon’s north pole, providing valuable insights into the lunar environment.
3. The probe features a rotation-based deployment mechanism that allows it to penetrate the Moon's surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Kiran Sarkar answered |
Overview of ChaSTE
The Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) is a critical component of India's Chandrayaan-3 mission aimed at studying the lunar surface. It provides essential data regarding the thermal properties of the Moon's soil, particularly around its north pole.
Analysis of Statements
1. Depth of Penetration and Monitoring
- The ChaSTE probe successfully penetrated the lunar soil to a depth of 10 cm.
- It continuously monitored temperature variations at different depths, providing insights into thermal behavior.
2. First Instrument to Measure Near the North Pole
- ChaSTE is indeed the first instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the Moon’s north pole.
- This unique position allows it to gather valuable data about the environmental conditions in this relatively unexplored region.
3. Deployment Mechanism
- The statement regarding the probe featuring a rotation-based deployment mechanism is incorrect.
- ChaSTE utilizes a different method for penetration and measurement, which does not rely on a rotation-based mechanism.
Conclusion
Considering the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 2 Only. This selection highlights the importance of precise instrumentation and the innovative approaches taken in lunar exploration.
The Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) is a critical component of India's Chandrayaan-3 mission aimed at studying the lunar surface. It provides essential data regarding the thermal properties of the Moon's soil, particularly around its north pole.
Analysis of Statements
1. Depth of Penetration and Monitoring
- The ChaSTE probe successfully penetrated the lunar soil to a depth of 10 cm.
- It continuously monitored temperature variations at different depths, providing insights into thermal behavior.
2. First Instrument to Measure Near the North Pole
- ChaSTE is indeed the first instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the Moon’s north pole.
- This unique position allows it to gather valuable data about the environmental conditions in this relatively unexplored region.
3. Deployment Mechanism
- The statement regarding the probe featuring a rotation-based deployment mechanism is incorrect.
- ChaSTE utilizes a different method for penetration and measurement, which does not rely on a rotation-based mechanism.
Conclusion
Considering the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is correct.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 and 2 Only. This selection highlights the importance of precise instrumentation and the innovative approaches taken in lunar exploration.
Consider the following statements regarding quantum computing and Majorana particles:1. Majorana particles are unique in that they are their own anti-particles, unlike electrons which have distinct anti-particles.2. The Majorana 1 chip, developed by Microsoft, utilizes Majorana particles to enhance the reliability and stability of quantum bits (qubits).3. Neutrinoless double beta decay has been definitively observed and confirms that neutrinos are Majorana particles.- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding quantum computing and Majorana particles:
1. Majorana particles are unique in that they are their own anti-particles, unlike electrons which have distinct anti-particles.
2. The Majorana 1 chip, developed by Microsoft, utilizes Majorana particles to enhance the reliability and stability of quantum bits (qubits).
3. Neutrinoless double beta decay has been definitively observed and confirms that neutrinos are Majorana particles.
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
- Statement 1: This statement is correct. Majorana particles are indeed unique because they are their own anti-particles, which distinguishes them from many other particles like electrons, which have separate anti-particles known as positrons.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. Microsoft's Majorana 1 chip leverages Majorana particles to improve the stability and reliability of quantum bits (qubits), making them less susceptible to external disturbances, which is a significant challenge in quantum computing.
- Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. Neutrinoless double beta decay has not been definitively observed yet. It remains a theoretical concept that, if observed, would suggest that neutrinos are indeed Majorana particles. However, current experiments, such as the AMoRE experiment, are still attempting to detect this phenomenon and have not yet provided conclusive evidence.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the right answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Green Credit Programme (GCP):1. The Green Credit Programme was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2023 during the UN climate conference in Dubai.2. The programme aims to promote environmental sustainability through mandatory participation in activities like tree plantation and waste management.3. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education manages the initiative, which aligns with the Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment).Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Green Credit Programme (GCP):
1. The Green Credit Programme was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2023 during the UN climate conference in Dubai.
2. The programme aims to promote environmental sustainability through mandatory participation in activities like tree plantation and waste management.
3. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education manages the initiative, which aligns with the Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Sustainable Environment).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
BT Educators answered |
1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Green Credit Programme was indeed launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2023 during the UN climate conference in Dubai. This aligns with the information provided about the programme's initiation and launch details.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The programme encourages voluntary, not mandatory, participation in activities such as tree plantation, water conservation, and waste management. The emphasis is on incentivizing voluntary environmental actions to earn green credits that can be traded.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, an autonomous body under the Ministry, manages the initiative. The programme also aligns with the Mission LiFE, which advocates for a market-based approach to environmental action, supporting sustainable lifestyles.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Option C: 1 and 3 Only," as only statements 1 and 3 are accurate based on the provided information.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The revision of history may correct perceived inaccuracies but risks deepening social divisions.Statement-II:
Revisionism often serves political agendas and distorts historical truths.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The revision of history may correct perceived inaccuracies but risks deepening social divisions.
The revision of history may correct perceived inaccuracies but risks deepening social divisions.
Statement-II:
Revisionism often serves political agendas and distorts historical truths.
Revisionism often serves political agendas and distorts historical truths.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
BT Educators answered |
Statement-I highlights the potential consequence of revising history, emphasizing the risk of deepening social divisions despite attempts to correct inaccuracies. Statement-II complements this by explaining how revisionism, often driven by political motives, can indeed distort historical truths, providing a nuanced understanding that supports Statement-I's concern. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II logically explains the implications mentioned in Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs:1. Aryabhata: Launched with the assistance of the United States2. INS Sunayna: Second vessel of the Saryu-class offshore patrol ships3. Aryabhata's Mission: Conducted solar physics and X-ray astronomy experiments4. IOS SAGAR: An initiative for uniting navies of the Indian Ocean RegionHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Aryabhata: Launched with the assistance of the United States
2. INS Sunayna: Second vessel of the Saryu-class offshore patrol ships
3. Aryabhata's Mission: Conducted solar physics and X-ray astronomy experiments
4. IOS SAGAR: An initiative for uniting navies of the Indian Ocean Region
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
1. Aryabhata: Launched with the assistance of the United States - Incorrect. Aryabhata, India’s first satellite, was launched with the help of the Soviet Union, not the United States.
2. INS Sunayna: Second vessel of the Saryu-class offshore patrol ships - Correct. INS Sunayna is indeed the second vessel of the Saryu-class offshore patrol ships in the Indian Navy.
3. Aryabhata's Mission: Conducted solar physics and X-ray astronomy experiments - Correct. Aryabhata was designed to conduct experiments in solar physics and X-ray astronomy.
4. IOS SAGAR: An initiative for uniting navies of the Indian Ocean Region - Correct. IOS SAGAR is an initiative aimed at uniting the navies and maritime agencies of the Southwest Indian Ocean Region on an Indian Naval platform.
Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
Farm mechanization in India is primarily associated with tractors, which provide higher power output compared to bullocks.Statement-II:
The market for farm machinery in India, such as rotavators, is not as extensive as tractor sales.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Farm mechanization in India is primarily associated with tractors, which provide higher power output compared to bullocks.
Farm mechanization in India is primarily associated with tractors, which provide higher power output compared to bullocks.
Statement-II:
The market for farm machinery in India, such as rotavators, is not as extensive as tractor sales.
The market for farm machinery in India, such as rotavators, is not as extensive as tractor sales.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Shraddha Mukherjee answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
- Farm mechanization in India has indeed seen a significant increase in the use of tractors.
- Tractors are favored due to their ability to provide higher power output compared to traditional methods, such as using bullocks.
- This mechanization is crucial for enhancing productivity and efficiency in agriculture.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The market for farm machinery, which includes implements like rotavators, is less extensive in comparison to the sales of tractors.
- While tractors dominate the market, other farm machinery does exist but has not gained the same level of widespread adoption.
- This indicates a limitation in the diversification of farm mechanization beyond tractors.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct: Statement-I accurately describes the role of tractors in farm mechanization, while Statement-II highlights the comparative lack of market penetration for other farm machinery like rotavators.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; rather, it presents a separate observation about the market dynamics of farm machinery.
Correct Option
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Farm mechanization in India has indeed seen a significant increase in the use of tractors.
- Tractors are favored due to their ability to provide higher power output compared to traditional methods, such as using bullocks.
- This mechanization is crucial for enhancing productivity and efficiency in agriculture.
Analysis of Statement-II
- The market for farm machinery, which includes implements like rotavators, is less extensive in comparison to the sales of tractors.
- While tractors dominate the market, other farm machinery does exist but has not gained the same level of widespread adoption.
- This indicates a limitation in the diversification of farm mechanization beyond tractors.
Conclusion
- Both statements are correct: Statement-I accurately describes the role of tractors in farm mechanization, while Statement-II highlights the comparative lack of market penetration for other farm machinery like rotavators.
- However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; rather, it presents a separate observation about the market dynamics of farm machinery.
Correct Option
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following statements regarding microplastics and their impact on plants and ecosystems:1. Microplastics are capable of penetrating plant leaves through stomata and the cuticle, and they can accumulate in leaf trichomes.2. The study of microplastics in plants indicates that these particles can be transported through the plant's water and nutrient systems, potentially reaching roots.3. The ecological impact of microplastics is limited to marine environments, with no significant effects on terrestrial ecosystems.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding microplastics and their impact on plants and ecosystems:
1. Microplastics are capable of penetrating plant leaves through stomata and the cuticle, and they can accumulate in leaf trichomes.
2. The study of microplastics in plants indicates that these particles can be transported through the plant's water and nutrient systems, potentially reaching roots.
3. The ecological impact of microplastics is limited to marine environments, with no significant effects on terrestrial ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Statement 1 is correct. Microplastics can penetrate plant leaves through stomata (tiny pores on the leaf surface that facilitate gas exchange) and the cuticle (a protective waxy layer). Once inside, microplastics have the potential to accumulate in trichomes, which are small hair-like structures on leaves.
Statement 2 is also correct. The study reveals that microplastics, once inside the plant, can move through its water and nutrient transport systems. This suggests that microplastics are capable of reaching various tissues, although the role of trichomes in limiting their movement to roots is highlighted as they act as "sinks."
Statement 3 is incorrect. The ecological impact of microplastics is not limited to marine environments. The text emphasizes that microplastics pose significant ecological risks in both marine and terrestrial ecosystems, with the potential to bioaccumulate throughout the food chain. Therefore, their impact is widespread and significant across different environments, including terrestrial ecosystems.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court's order regarding a Wikipedia page removal due to a defamation lawsuit filed by ANI.Statement-II:
The Delhi High Court's request to remove "all false, misleading, and defamatory content" was criticized by the Supreme Court as overly broad.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court's order regarding a Wikipedia page removal due to a defamation lawsuit filed by ANI.
The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court's order regarding a Wikipedia page removal due to a defamation lawsuit filed by ANI.
Statement-II:
The Delhi High Court's request to remove "all false, misleading, and defamatory content" was criticized by the Supreme Court as overly broad.
The Delhi High Court's request to remove "all false, misleading, and defamatory content" was criticized by the Supreme Court as overly broad.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Statement-I correctly summarizes the event where the Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court's order related to a Wikipedia page removal due to a defamation lawsuit by ANI. Statement-II accurately reflects the Supreme Court's criticism of the High Court's broad takedown order as being excessively vague. However, Statement-II does not provide an explanation or elaboration of Statement-I; it merely provides additional context related to the court's criticism. Hence, both statements are correct but not interdependent in explanation, making option (b) the correct choice.
What is the primary objective of the Andhra SC Sub-Categorisation Ordinance?- a)To eliminate the reservation system
- b)To provide reservation benefits based on economic status
- c)To introduce reservation within Scheduled Castes based on relative levels of backwardness
- d)To allocate quotas according to educational qualifications
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Andhra SC Sub-Categorisation Ordinance?
a)
To eliminate the reservation system
b)
To provide reservation benefits based on economic status
c)
To introduce reservation within Scheduled Castes based on relative levels of backwardness
d)
To allocate quotas according to educational qualifications
|
Academic Studio answered |
The Andhra SC Sub-Categorisation Ordinance aims to implement reservation within Scheduled Castes based on the relative levels of backwardness among different SC communities. This initiative seeks to ensure a more equitable distribution of benefits among the most disadvantaged sections within the SC category. By categorizing SCs into different groups based on their level of backwardness, the ordinance aims to promote fair representation in various sectors and address historical imbalances effectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Middle-East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC):
1. The IMEEC is a part of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) and was endorsed during the 2023 G20 New Delhi summit.
2. The initiative aims to integrate Asia and the Middle East through infrastructure development, focusing on enhancing regional economic cooperation.
3. The IMEEC includes connecting key ports such as Mundra in India, Haifa in Israel, and Piraeus in Greece.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Middle-East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC):
1. The IMEEC is a part of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) and was endorsed during the 2023 G20 New Delhi summit.
2. The initiative aims to integrate Asia and the Middle East through infrastructure development, focusing on enhancing regional economic cooperation.
3. The IMEEC includes connecting key ports such as Mundra in India, Haifa in Israel, and Piraeus in Greece.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The IMEEC is a part of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) and was endorsed during the 2023 G20 New Delhi summit.
2. The initiative aims to integrate Asia and the Middle East through infrastructure development, focusing on enhancing regional economic cooperation.
3. The IMEEC includes connecting key ports such as Mundra in India, Haifa in Israel, and Piraeus in Greece.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The India-Middle-East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) is indeed part of the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII). This initiative was formally endorsed on September 10, 2023, during the 2023 G20 summit held in New Delhi, which highlights the international backing and collaboration involved in this project.
Statement 2 is correct. The primary objective of the IMEEC is to foster integration between Asia and the Middle East by focusing on infrastructure development that enhances economic cooperation and trade. This is aimed at improving regional connectivity, which is crucial for stimulating economic growth and facilitating trade routes.
Statement 3 is correct. The IMEEC plans to connect several key ports across different regions, thereby establishing a robust trade network. These include ports like Mundra in India, Haifa in Israel, and Piraeus in Greece. By connecting these strategic locations, the corridor aims to create a cost-efficient transit network that improves existing transport links.
All three statements accurately describe the components and objectives of the IMEEC initiative. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.
Statement 2 is correct. The primary objective of the IMEEC is to foster integration between Asia and the Middle East by focusing on infrastructure development that enhances economic cooperation and trade. This is aimed at improving regional connectivity, which is crucial for stimulating economic growth and facilitating trade routes.
Statement 3 is correct. The IMEEC plans to connect several key ports across different regions, thereby establishing a robust trade network. These include ports like Mundra in India, Haifa in Israel, and Piraeus in Greece. By connecting these strategic locations, the corridor aims to create a cost-efficient transit network that improves existing transport links.
All three statements accurately describe the components and objectives of the IMEEC initiative. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.
Consider the following statements regarding the development of deep technology and innovation in India:1. Indian deep tech start-ups face significant funding difficulties due to their high-risk perception among investors.2. The scalability of Indian start-ups is limited by a domestic market with insufficient spending power, as 90% of the population cannot contribute significantly to growth.3. India relies heavily on its domestic electric mobility and battery technology for global competitiveness.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the development of deep technology and innovation in India:
1. Indian deep tech start-ups face significant funding difficulties due to their high-risk perception among investors.
2. The scalability of Indian start-ups is limited by a domestic market with insufficient spending power, as 90% of the population cannot contribute significantly to growth.
3. India relies heavily on its domestic electric mobility and battery technology for global competitiveness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. Indian deep tech start-ups do face significant funding challenges because they are perceived as high-risk by investors. This perception limits their potential for securing necessary funding to innovate and remain competitive.
2. Statement 2 is correct. The scalability of Indian start-ups is indeed constrained by a domestic market with limited spending power. It is noted that 90% of the population cannot significantly contribute to growth, which hampers the ability of start-ups to scale effectively within the country.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. India does not primarily rely on its domestic electric mobility and battery technology for global competitiveness. Instead, it is mentioned that India lags behind in these areas and heavily relies on advancements from countries like China.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only, as only statements 1 and 2 accurately reflect the challenges and limitations faced by the Indian start-up ecosystem in the context of deep technology and innovation.
What is the distinctive feature that separates the male Pale-Chinned Flycatcher's dull blue-grey head and breast?- a)Light olive wash on flanks
- b)Greyish throat and chin
- c)Pale chin or throat patch
- d)Fine black bill
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the distinctive feature that separates the male Pale-Chinned Flycatcher's dull blue-grey head and breast?
a)
Light olive wash on flanks
b)
Greyish throat and chin
c)
Pale chin or throat patch
d)
Fine black bill
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
The distinctive feature that separates the male Pale-Chinned Flycatcher's dull blue-grey head and breast is the pale chin or throat patch. This feature is particularly notable in distinguishing the male from the female of this species. The pale chin or throat patch is a key characteristic of the male's appearance, adding to the bird's unique and subtle beauty.
Consider the following pairs regarding the phases of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO):1. El Niño : Cooler-than-usual sea surface temperatures2. La Niña : Warmer-than-usual sea surface temperatures3. ENSO-Neutral : Transitional phase between El Niño and La Niña4. El Niño : Associated with unusual global warming patternsHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the phases of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO):
1. El Niño : Cooler-than-usual sea surface temperatures
2. La Niña : Warmer-than-usual sea surface temperatures
3. ENSO-Neutral : Transitional phase between El Niño and La Niña
4. El Niño : Associated with unusual global warming patterns
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
1. El Niño : Cooler-than-usual sea surface temperatures - Incorrect. El Niño is characterized by warmer-than-usual sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
2. La Niña : Warmer-than-usual sea surface temperatures - Incorrect. La Niña involves cooler-than-usual sea surface temperatures, often leading to colder atmospheric patterns and stronger trade winds.
3. ENSO-Neutral : Transitional phase between El Niño and La Niña - Correct. ENSO-Neutral is indeed the transitional phase where neither El Niño nor La Niña dominates, resulting in less certain weather forecasts.
4. El Niño : Associated with unusual global warming patterns - Correct. El Niño is associated with unusual global warming patterns due to the increased sea surface temperatures affecting global climate.
Thus, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched, making two pairs correctly matched in total.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Navkar Mahamantra Divas promotes peace, non-violence, and spiritual harmony through collective chanting of the Navkar Mantra.Statement-II:
The Jain philosophy emphasizes that the world is created and maintained by Universal Law, Universal Truth, Universal Faith, and Universal Soul.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Navkar Mahamantra Divas promotes peace, non-violence, and spiritual harmony through collective chanting of the Navkar Mantra.
The Navkar Mahamantra Divas promotes peace, non-violence, and spiritual harmony through collective chanting of the Navkar Mantra.
Statement-II:
The Jain philosophy emphasizes that the world is created and maintained by Universal Law, Universal Truth, Universal Faith, and Universal Soul.
The Jain philosophy emphasizes that the world is created and maintained by Universal Law, Universal Truth, Universal Faith, and Universal Soul.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Divey Sethi answered |
Statement-I is correct as the Navkar Mahamantra Divas indeed promotes peace, non-violence, and spiritual harmony through collective chanting of the Navkar Mantra, as mentioned in the provided information. Statement-II is also correct as the Jain philosophy does emphasize that the world is created and maintained by Universal Law, Universal Truth, Universal Faith, and Universal Soul, as outlined in the details provided. However, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to Statement-I. The two statements are correct independently but do not have a direct explanatory relationship.
What is the primary function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?- a)To decrease the activation energy of the reaction
- b)To increase the concentration of reactants
- c)To change the equilibrium constant of the reaction
- d)To alter the stoichiometry of the reaction
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
a)
To decrease the activation energy of the reaction
b)
To increase the concentration of reactants
c)
To change the equilibrium constant of the reaction
d)
To alter the stoichiometry of the reaction
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
A catalyst in a chemical reaction primarily functions to decrease the activation energy required for the reaction to occur without being consumed in the process. By providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, a catalyst speeds up the rate of the reaction. This allows the reaction to proceed faster and at lower temperatures, making it more efficient.
Consider the following statements regarding Type 5 Diabetes:1. Type 5 Diabetes primarily affects obese individuals in high-income countries.2. It is characterized by malnutrition-induced reduction in insulin production.3. Unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 Diabetes is often associated with autoimmunity.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Type 5 Diabetes:
1. Type 5 Diabetes primarily affects obese individuals in high-income countries.
2. It is characterized by malnutrition-induced reduction in insulin production.
3. Unlike Type 2 Diabetes, Type 5 Diabetes is often associated with autoimmunity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
Statement 1 is incorrect. Type 5 Diabetes primarily affects lean, undernourished teenagers and young adults in low- and middle-income countries, not obese individuals in high-income countries. This condition is distinct from Type 2 Diabetes, which is more commonly associated with obesity.
Statement 2 is correct. Type 5 Diabetes is indeed characterized by a malnutrition-induced reduction in insulin production. This is a key distinguishing feature of this form of diabetes and sets it apart from the more common Type 2 Diabetes, which is primarily related to insulin resistance.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Unlike Type 1 Diabetes, which is associated with autoimmunity, Type 5 Diabetes does not have an identified autoimmune or genetic basis. It is primarily linked to nutritional deficiencies rather than autoimmune processes.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct, making Option C the correct choice.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The suspension of the 1972 Simla Agreement by Pakistan may lead to increased hostilities along the Line of Control (LoC).Statement-II:
The lack of a formal agreement between India and Pakistan could potentially pave the way for third-party mediation in the Indo-Pak conflict.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The suspension of the 1972 Simla Agreement by Pakistan may lead to increased hostilities along the Line of Control (LoC).
The suspension of the 1972 Simla Agreement by Pakistan may lead to increased hostilities along the Line of Control (LoC).
Statement-II:
The lack of a formal agreement between India and Pakistan could potentially pave the way for third-party mediation in the Indo-Pak conflict.
The lack of a formal agreement between India and Pakistan could potentially pave the way for third-party mediation in the Indo-Pak conflict.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Statement-I correctly highlights the potential consequence of the suspension of the 1972 Simla Agreement by Pakistan, indicating the increased risk of hostilities along the Line of Control (LoC). This aligns with the information provided in the source material about heightened tensions and potential conflict escalation.
Statement-II correctly observes that the absence of a formal agreement between India and Pakistan might create opportunities for third-party mediation in the Indo-Pak conflict. While this statement is accurate in the context of the source material, it does not directly explain or elaborate on Statement-I. Instead, it presents a separate potential implication of the agreement's suspension.
Therefore, both statements are individually correct in accordance with the information provided, but Statement-II does not directly provide an explanation for Statement-I, making option (b) the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The rise of trans-exclusionary feminism mirrors far-right ideologies that frame trans women as threats.Statement-II:
The U.K. Supreme Court's decision undermines the Gender Recognition Act, 2004, raising questions about equality under the law.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The rise of trans-exclusionary feminism mirrors far-right ideologies that frame trans women as threats.
The rise of trans-exclusionary feminism mirrors far-right ideologies that frame trans women as threats.
Statement-II:
The U.K. Supreme Court's decision undermines the Gender Recognition Act, 2004, raising questions about equality under the law.
The U.K. Supreme Court's decision undermines the Gender Recognition Act, 2004, raising questions about equality under the law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct in the context of the provided information. Statement-I highlights the alignment between trans-exclusionary feminism and far-right ideologies, illustrating how trans women are often portrayed as threats. Statement-II correctly points out that the U.K. Supreme Court's decision has implications for the Gender Recognition Act, 2004, casting doubts on the equality provisions within the law. Furthermore, Statement-II explains the broader impact of the court ruling on the legal framework concerning transgender rights, thereby substantiating Statement-I. Hence, option (a) is the correct choice as both statements are accurate, and Statement-II indeed provides additional context that supports Statement-I.
What was the historical significance of the Bamiyan Buddhas located in Afghanistan?- a)They were symbols of military power in the region.
- b)They represented the blending of Buddhist and Hindu artistic styles.
- c)They served as a major Buddhist religious center along the Silk Road.
- d)They were constructed during the rule of the Byzantine Empire.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What was the historical significance of the Bamiyan Buddhas located in Afghanistan?
a)
They were symbols of military power in the region.
b)
They represented the blending of Buddhist and Hindu artistic styles.
c)
They served as a major Buddhist religious center along the Silk Road.
d)
They were constructed during the rule of the Byzantine Empire.
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
The Bamiyan Buddhas located in Afghanistan served as a major Buddhist religious center along the Silk Road. These monumental statues represented important figures in Buddhism and played a crucial role in the spread of religion, philosophy, and art across different regions. The destruction of these statues in 2001 was a significant loss to cultural heritage and history.
What was one of the key initiatives that Jyotiba Phule advocated for during his social reform efforts in 19th-century India?- a)Establishment of India's first boys' school
- b)Promotion of caste-based discrimination
- c)Push for compulsory primary education for all
- d)Advocacy for polygamy and gender inequality
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What was one of the key initiatives that Jyotiba Phule advocated for during his social reform efforts in 19th-century India?
a)
Establishment of India's first boys' school
b)
Promotion of caste-based discrimination
c)
Push for compulsory primary education for all
d)
Advocacy for polygamy and gender inequality
|
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
Jyotiba Phule, a significant social reformer in 19th-century India, advocated for compulsory primary education for all, particularly focusing on marginalized sections of society. He emphasized the importance of education, scholarships, and incentives, especially for rural children. This initiative was aimed at empowering the underprivileged and promoting social equality through education.
What is the primary purpose of the global carbon tax supported by India and 62 other countries?- a)To increase profits for the shipping industry
- b)To penalize smaller vessels for maritime emissions
- c)To reduce greenhouse gas emissions from commercial shipping
- d)To exempt large vessels from emission regulations
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the global carbon tax supported by India and 62 other countries?
a)
To increase profits for the shipping industry
b)
To penalize smaller vessels for maritime emissions
c)
To reduce greenhouse gas emissions from commercial shipping
d)
To exempt large vessels from emission regulations
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
The primary goal of the global carbon tax supported by India and other nations is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from commercial shipping. This initiative aims to address the environmental impact of the shipping industry by imposing a tax on large vessels, encouraging them to switch to cleaner fuel technologies or face penalties based on their emission levels. By implementing this tax, the international community seeks to significantly decrease maritime emissions and combat climate change.
Consider the following statements regarding India's subsea cable infrastructure:1. India hosts 17 international undersea cables, with the majority concentrated in a specific area in Mumbai.2. India contributes 5% to the global subsea cable systems.3. The deployment of undersea cables in India is hindered by extensive regulatory requirements, with a significant portion of project time spent on regulatory compliance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding India's subsea cable infrastructure:
1. India hosts 17 international undersea cables, with the majority concentrated in a specific area in Mumbai.
2. India contributes 5% to the global subsea cable systems.
3. The deployment of undersea cables in India is hindered by extensive regulatory requirements, with a significant portion of project time spent on regulatory compliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
1. Statement 1: This statement is correct. India has 17 international cables that land in the country, and a significant concentration of these cables is in a 6-km stretch in Versova, Mumbai. This highlights the major hubs for India's subsea cable infrastructure, which include Mumbai and Chennai.
2. Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. India contributes only 3% to the global subsea cable systems, not 5%, indicating its underrepresentation in the global network. This is a critical point as it reflects India's relatively small footprint in the global subsea cable ecosystem.
3. Statement 3: This statement is correct. The deployment of undersea cables in India indeed faces significant challenges due to the extensive regulatory requirements. It is reported that 80% of the project time is spent on dealing with regulatory compliance, which involves navigating about 51 permissions from various departments, including the Department of Telecom, Ministry of Environment, and Ministry of Home Affairs. This poses a considerable hindrance to the timely deployment of subsea cables.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is not. Thus, the correct answer is Option C: 1 and 3 Only.
Chapter doubts & questions for Daily Current Affairs MCQs - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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