All questions of September 2022 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Carbon nanotubes (CNT).
  1. Carbon nanotubes (CNT) are cylindrical molecules consisting of rolled-up sheets of single-layer carbon atoms, namely, graphene.
  2. Carbon nanotubes are used in applications that require high strength, electrical conductivity and thermal conductivity as compared to the other conventional materials.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Carbon nanotubes (CNT) are cylindrical molecules consisting of rolled-up sheets of single-layer carbon atoms, namely, graphene. Carbon nanotubes are used in applications that require high strength, electrical conductivity, durability, lightweight properties, and thermal conductivity as compared to the other conventional materials. Rapid demand for CNT in integrated circuits, lithium batteries, fuel cells, drug delivery, solar PV cells, hydrogen storage, and field emission displays is contributing to market growth.

Dvorak technique, recently seen in news is related to 
  • a)
    New technique of post-mortem that does not include dissections. 
  • b)
    Quick transplantation of human organs 
  • c)
    Ultrasound-assisted fermentation method 
  • d)
    Tropical storm forecasting
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option D: Tropical storm forecasting.

Tropical storm forecasting is the subject matter of the Dvorak technique. This technique is used to estimate the intensity of tropical cyclones by analyzing satellite images. It was developed by Vernon Dvorak in the early 1970s and has since become a widely used method in tropical meteorology.

The Dvorak technique is based on the observation of cloud patterns and their changes over time in satellite imagery. It takes into account various parameters such as cloud temperature, cloud shape, and the presence of an eye or central dense overcast. These parameters are used to determine the storm's current intensity and its potential for further development.

Key Points:
- Development: The Dvorak technique was developed by Vernon Dvorak in the early 1970s.
- Estimating Intensity: The technique is used to estimate the intensity of tropical cyclones.
- Satellite Imagery: The technique relies on analyzing satellite images of the storm.
- Parameters: Various parameters such as cloud temperature, cloud shape, and the presence of an eye or central dense overcast are considered in the analysis.
- Current Intensity: The technique provides information about the storm's current intensity.
- Potential Development: It also helps in assessing the storm's potential for further development.
- Widely Used: The Dvorak technique has become a widely used method in tropical meteorology.

By using the Dvorak technique, meteorologists can track the development and intensity of tropical storms, which is crucial for issuing timely warnings and taking necessary precautions. This helps in minimizing the potential damage caused by these storms and in ensuring the safety of the affected regions.

Tropical storm forecasting is an important aspect of meteorology, especially in regions prone to tropical cyclones. The Dvorak technique has significantly contributed to the accuracy and effectiveness of such forecasts and has become an integral part of tropical meteorology.

Overheating of an economy can occur when
  1. there is high consumption and low savings
  2. its productive capacity is unable to keep pace with growing aggregate demand
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Explanation:
1. High consumption and low savings:
When there is high consumption and low savings in an economy, it means that people are spending a significant portion of their income on goods and services and not saving enough. This can lead to an increase in aggregate demand, as more money is being spent on consumption. However, if the productive capacity of the economy is unable to keep pace with this growing demand, it can result in overheating of the economy.

- High consumption: High consumption indicates that people are spending a large portion of their income on goods and services. This leads to an increase in aggregate demand as more money is being spent in the economy.

- Low savings: Low savings means that people are not saving enough of their income. This can be due to various reasons such as high levels of debt or lack of financial literacy. When people save less, it results in more money being spent on consumption, further increasing aggregate demand.

2. Productive capacity unable to keep pace with growing aggregate demand:
The productive capacity of an economy refers to its ability to produce goods and services. It depends on factors such as labor, capital, technology, and infrastructure. When the productive capacity is unable to keep pace with the growing aggregate demand, it can lead to overheating of the economy.

- Overheating of the economy: Overheating of the economy occurs when there is excessive demand for goods and services, which cannot be met by the available supply. This leads to inflationary pressures as prices start to rise due to the shortage of goods and services.

- Impact of overheating: Overheating of an economy can have several negative consequences. It can lead to inflation, as prices increase due to excess demand. It can also result in a decline in the quality of goods and services, as producers may rush to meet the demand without maintaining the necessary standards. Additionally, it can lead to imbalances in the economy, such as a current account deficit or a housing bubble.

Therefore, both high consumption and low savings, as well as the inability of the productive capacity to keep pace with growing aggregate demand, can contribute to the overheating of an economy. It is important for policymakers to monitor these factors and take appropriate measures to ensure that the economy remains stable and sustainable.

Consider the following statements regarding National Health Accounts (NHA).
  1. The National Health Accounts (NHA) Estimates describe India’s total expenditure on healthcare by the government, the private sector, individuals and NGOs.
  2. It provides information on the sources of healthcare spending, who manages this spending and who provides healthcare services.
  3. As per the latest NHA Estimates, the government spending on healthcare as percentage of GDP has increased year on year from 2014-15.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Sarkar answered
's health spending patterns and trends.

1. This statement is true. National Health Accounts (NHA) Estimates provide a systematic and comprehensive framework for tracking health expenditures in a country, including public and private spending on health goods and services. The NHA estimates describe India's health spending patterns and trends, including the sources of funding for health care, the types of health services consumed, and the distribution of health expenditures across different population groups.

2. There is no second statement provided.

Consider the following statements.
  1. El Niño years in India have witnessed extreme heat and below normal rainfall levels during monsoon.
  2. Intense hurricanes and cyclones have frequently occurred in the Atlantic Ocean and the Bay of Bengal during La Nina years.
  3. La Nina years are known to favour India’s Northeast monsoon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Ño is a natural climate phenomenon that occurs every few years in the Pacific Ocean. It is characterized by the warming of sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific, which can have significant impacts on weather patterns around the world. During an El Niño event, there is often increased rainfall in the western Pacific and drought conditions in the eastern Pacific, including areas such as Peru and Ecuador. El Niño can also affect the strength and frequency of tropical cyclones, and can lead to disruptions in fisheries and agriculture. Overall, El Niño is an important climate phenomenon that can have wide-ranging effects on global weather patterns and ecosystems.

Right to free legal aid, Right to fair trial, Right to hearing and Right to speedy trial and are provided to citizens under which of the following fundamental rights? 
  • a)
    Right against exploitation 
  • b)
    Protection of Life and Personal Liberty 
  • c)
    Equality before law and equal protection of laws 
  • d)
    Right against arbitrary arrest and detention
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent cases. It has declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
(1) Right to live with human dignity.
(2) Right to decent environment including pollution free water and air and protection against hazardous industries.
(3) Right to livelihood.
(4) Right to privacy.
(5) Right to shelter.
(6) Right to health.
(7) Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
(8) Right to free legal aid.
(9) Right against solitary confinement.
(10) Right to speedy trial.
(11) Right against handcuffing.
(12) Right against inhuman treatment.
(13) Right against delayed execution.
(14) Right to travel abroad.
(15) Right against bonded labour.
(16) Right against custodial harassment.
(17) Right to emergency medical aid.
(18) Right to timely medical treatment in government hospital.
(19) Right not to be driven out of a state.
(20) Right to fair trial.
(21) Right of prisoner to have necessities of life.
(22) Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
(23) Right against public hanging.
(24) Right to hearing.
(25) Right to information.
(26) Right to reputation.
(27) Right of appeal from a judgement of conviction
(28) Right to social security and protection of the family
(29) Right to social and economic justice and empowerment
(30) Right against bar fetters
(31) Right to appropriate life insurance policy
(32) Right to sleep
(33) Right to freedom from noise pollution
(34) Right to electricity

Consider the following statements regarding National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
  1. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a constitutional body that provides free legal services to weaker sections of society.
  2. Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief.
  3. In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    3 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
NALSA has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society.
The aim is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities.
Composition:
  • As per section 3(2) of Legal Service Authorities Act, the Chief Justice of India shall be the Patron-in-Chief.
  • Second senior-most judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
State legal services authorities:
  • In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble the Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A company or business is said to be “over leveraged” if it has unsustainably high debt against its operating cash flows and equity.
  2. An over leveraged company would find it difficult to make interest and principal repayments to its creditors.
  3. An over leveraged company will always become bankrupt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
A company or business is said to be “over leveraged” if it has unsustainably high debt against its operating cash flows and equity. Such a company would find it difficult to make interest and principal repayments to its creditors, and may struggle to meet its operating expenses as well. In the latter case, the company may be forced to borrow even more just to keep going, and thus enter a vicious cycle. This situation can ultimately lead to the company going bankrupt.

Consider the following statements regarding Certificates of Deposits (CD).
  1. CD is a negotiable, unsecured money market instrument issued by a bank as a usance promissory note against funds deposited with it.
  2. CDs are issued to all persons resident in India.
  3. CDs are issued only in dematerialised form and held with a depository registered with SEBI.
  4. Banks can grant loans against Certificates of Deposits without the approval of RBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Bajaj answered
Explanation:

The correct statements regarding Certificates of Deposits (CD) are as follows:

CD is a negotiable, unsecured money market instrument issued by a bank as a usance promissory note against funds deposited with it.
- This statement is correct. A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a financial instrument issued by banks and financial institutions for a specific period of time, usually ranging from a few months to a few years. It is a promissory note issued by the bank, promising to pay back the principal amount along with interest at the end of the specified period.

CDs are issued to all persons resident in India.
- This statement is correct. Certificates of Deposits (CDs) can be issued to all persons resident in India, including individuals, corporations, and other entities. It is not limited to a specific category of individuals or entities.

CDs are issued only in dematerialised form and held with a depository registered with SEBI.
- This statement is correct. Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are issued only in dematerialized form, which means they are held in electronic form rather than physical certificates. These dematerialized CDs are held with a depository registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Banks can grant loans against Certificates of Deposits without the approval of RBI.
- This statement is incorrect. Banks are required to seek the approval of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before granting loans against Certificates of Deposits (CDs). The RBI regulates and supervises the banking sector in India and has certain guidelines and regulations in place for lending against CDs.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
1. CD is a negotiable, unsecured money market instrument issued by a bank as a usance promissory note against funds deposited with it.
2. CDs are issued to all persons resident in India.
3. CDs are issued only in dematerialized form and held with a depository registered with SEBI.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'B' (1, 2, 3).

Consider the following statements.
  1. There is a direct correlation between El Niño Southern Oscillations (ENSO) condition and the amount of monsoon rainfall in India.
  2. While La Niña is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season in India, El Niño is known to suppress monsoon rainfall.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • In the Indian context, La Niña is associated with good rainfall during the monsoon season. This is the opposite of El Niño which is known to suppress monsoon rainfall. Thus, a continued spell of La Niña could lead to expectation of another year of good, or normal, rainfall during the monsoon.
  • But, even though powerful, ENSO condition is only one of the several factors affecting monsoon rainfall in India. There is no one-on-one correlation between the ENSO condition and the amount of rainfall. Also, the influence of ENSO is at a macro level. There are wide variations in rainfall at the local level, which are getting exacerbated by climate change.

Which of the following are the applications of Remote Sensing?
  1. Monitoring of ocean circulation
  2. Measuring the temperature and wave height of ocean
  3. Map wetlands
  4. Chart wildlife habitats
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Remote Sensing has wide range of application such as monitoring of ocean circulation and current systems; measuring the temperature and wave height of ocean; track hurricanes, earthquakes, erosion, and flooding; monitor land use, map wetlands, and chart wildlife habitats.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Under Article 341 of the Constitution, the President of India may specify the castes, races or tribes that shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes.
  2. No person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, the Sikh or the Buddhist religion shall be deemed to be a member of Scheduled Caste.
  3. The rights of a person belonging to a Scheduled Tribe are dependent of his/her religious faith.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
  • Under Article 341 of the Constitution, the President may “specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall…be deemed to be Scheduled Castes”.
  • The first order under this provision was issued in 1950, and covered only Hindus. Following demands from the Sikh community, an order was issued in 1956, including Sikhs of Dalit origin among the beneficiaries of the SC quota. In 1990, the government acceded to a similar demand from Buddhists of Dalit origin, and the order was revised to state: “No person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, the Sikh or the Buddhist religion shall be deemed to be a member of Scheduled Caste.”
  • The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) website states, “The rights of a person belonging to a Scheduled Tribe are independent of his/her religious faith.” Following the implementation of the Mandal Commission report, several Christian and Muslim communities have found place in the Central and state lists of OBCs.

Which of the following measures are used by the Government and RBI to control inflation?
  1. Reducing public expenditure by the Government
  2. Decreasing Reverse Repo rate by the RBI
  3. Increasing personal or corporate taxes by the Government.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divyansh Yadav answered
Measures to Control Inflation

The Government and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) take various measures to control inflation. Some of them are:

1. Reducing Public Expenditure by the Government:
The government can reduce its expenditure on non-essential items to control inflation. This will reduce the demand for goods and services, leading to lower prices.

2. Decreasing Reverse Repo Rate by the RBI:
The Reserve Bank of India can decrease the reverse repo rate to increase liquidity in the market. This will encourage banks to lend more money to businesses and consumers, leading to increased economic activity and lower prices.

3. Increasing Personal or Corporate Taxes by the Government:
The government can increase taxes on personal or corporate income to reduce the disposable income of individuals and businesses. This will reduce the demand for goods and services, leading to lower prices.

Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option B (1, 3). The measures of reducing public expenditure by the government and increasing personal or corporate taxes by the government are used to control inflation in the economy. The decrease in the reverse repo rate by the RBI is not directly related to the control of inflation.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Panthera is the genus of large wild cats that include lion, leopard, and jaguar.
  2. Tiger is the largest of all wild cats.
  3. India is the only country having Tiger as its national animal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pritam Desai answered
Explanation:

Panthera is the genus of large wild cats that include lion, leopard, and jaguar: True

- Panthera is a genus of the Felidae family that includes the big cats - lion, leopard, jaguar, tiger, and snow leopard.
- These cats are defined by their ability to roar, which is due to a modification in their larynx.

Tiger is the largest of all wild cats: True

- The tiger is the largest of all wild cats and is a member of the Panthera genus.
- Tigers can weigh up to 660 pounds and can grow up to 11 feet in length.
- They are found in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and swamps.

India is the only country having Tiger as its national animal: True

- India is the only country in the world that has a tiger as its national animal.
- The Bengal tiger is found exclusively in India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
- The tiger is considered a symbol of strength and power in India and is an important cultural icon.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B', which states that both statements 1 and 2 are true.

Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.
  1. Aerosols influence climate by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the atmosphere, and by affecting the way clouds form.
  2. Examples of aerosols are fog, forest exudates, particulate air pollutants and smoke.
  3. Some aerosols reflect the sun’s rays that beam on them and bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas. Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aerosols are fog, mist, dust, forest exudates and geyser steam. Examples of anthropogenic aerosols are particulate air pollutants and smoke.
  • Aerosols influence climate in two primary ways: by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the atmosphere, or by affecting the way clouds form.
  • Some aerosols, like many kinds of dust from ground-up rocks, are light-colored and even a little bit reflective. When the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere, preventing that heat from ever reaching Earth’s surface.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The recent relocation of Cheetahs from Namibia to India was the first in the world where a large carnivore was relocated from one continent to another.
  2. The conservation of the cheetah will revive grassland-forests and its biome and habitat.
  3. Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary, which was previously assessed for the translocation of the Asiatic Lion is located in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Singh answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The recent relocation of Cheetahs from Namibia to India was indeed the first in the world where a large carnivore was relocated from one continent to another. This statement is correct.

Statement 2:
- The conservation of the cheetah will indeed revive grassland-forests and its biome and habitat. Cheetahs play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of ecosystems, and their conservation efforts can have positive impacts on various aspects of the environment. This statement is correct.

Statement 3:
- Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary, which was previously assessed for the translocation of the Asiatic Lion, is actually located in Madhya Pradesh. This statement is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1, 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Yarlung Tsangpo River.
  1. It originates at Rongbuk Glacier in southern Tibet.
  2. The River forms the world’s deepest canyon, Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon.
  3. The River passes into the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
  • The Yarlung Tsangpo is the upper stream of the Brahmaputra River located in the Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is the longest river of Tibet.
  • Originating at Angsi Glacier in western Tibet, southeast of Mount Kailash and Lake Manasarovar, it later forms the South Tibet Valley and Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon before passing into the state of Arunachal Pradesh, India.
  • Downstream from Arunachal Pradesh the river becomes far wider and is called the Siang. After reaching Assam, the river is known as Brahmaputra. From Assam, the river enters Bangladesh.
  • When leaving the Tibetan Plateau, the River forms the world’s largest and deepest canyon, Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon.

Consider the following statements regarding Solid wastes to energy plants.
  1. The Processing of waste into biofuel is carbon-negative.
  2. Waste-to-energy plants can convert salt water to potable fresh water.
  3. The residue ash can be used in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Benefits of wastes to energy plants:
  • In terms of volume, usually waste-to-energy plants incinerate 80 to 90 percent of waste, thus helping large cities from choking due to unmanageable waste.
  • Waste to energy generates clean, reliable energy from a renewable fuel source, thus reducing dependence on fossil fuels, the combustion of which is a major contributor to Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions.
  • Sometimes, the residue ash is clean enough to be used for some purposes such as raw materials for use in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction.
  • Some waste-to-energy plants convert salt water to potable fresh water as a by-product of cooling processes.
  • Waste-to-energy plants cause less air pollution than coal plants.
  • It is carbon-negative – processing waste into biofuel releases considerably less carbon and methane into the air than having waste decay away in landfills or the lake.

Mamangam was a 28-day-long medieval trade festival celebrated in 
  • a)
    Tamil Nadu 
  • b)
    Telangana 
  • c)
    Kerala 
  • d)
    Goa
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Mamangam was a 28-day-long trade festival celebrated once every 12 years in Kerala on the banks of the Bharathappuzha, also known as Nila.

Consider the following statements regarding Global compact for migration.
  1. The global compact for migration is the first, inter-governmentally negotiated agreement to cover all dimensions of international migration.
  2. It was prepared under the auspices of the United Nations.
  3. The global compact is a legally binding agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Chopra answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1, 2.

Explanation:
1. The global compact for migration is the first, inter-governmentally negotiated agreement to cover all dimensions of international migration.
- This statement is correct. The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) is a comprehensive agreement that covers all aspects of international migration. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in December 2018.

2. It was prepared under the auspices of the United Nations.
- This statement is also correct. The Global Compact for Migration was prepared and negotiated under the auspices of the United Nations. It was a result of a two-year-long process of consultations and negotiations among member states, civil society, and other stakeholders.

3. The global compact is a legally binding agreement.
- This statement is incorrect. The Global Compact for Migration is not a legally binding agreement. It is a non-binding agreement, which means that it does not create any new legal obligations for member states. Instead, it provides a framework for cooperation and dialogue on migration issues.

The Global Compact for Migration aims to improve cooperation and governance of migration at the global level. It recognizes the benefits of migration and seeks to address the challenges and risks associated with it. The compact is based on a set of guiding principles, including human rights, non-discrimination, and the best interests of the child.

The compact covers various areas related to migration, including the protection of migrants' rights, the facilitation of safe and orderly migration, and the reduction of irregular migration. It also emphasizes the importance of international cooperation and collaboration in addressing migration issues.

In summary, the global compact for migration is the first comprehensive agreement on international migration, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations. While it is not a legally binding agreement, it provides a framework for international cooperation and dialogue on migration issues.

Consider the following statements regarding Dark Sky Reserve.
  1. A Dark Sky Reserve has distinguished nocturnal environment that has been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution.
  2. India will establish its first Dark Sky Reserve in the cold desert regions of Ladakh.
  3. The International Dark-Sky Association (IDA) is the recognized authority on light pollution and is the leading organization combating light pollution worldwide.
  4. United States has the maximum number of Dark Sky Reserves in the World.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • By the end of 2022, India will establish the country’s first Dark Sky Reserve in the cold desert regions of Ladakh.
  • The Ladakh Union Territory administration is leading the efforts in establishing the country’s first Dark Sky Reserve.
  • A Dark Sky Reserve is public or private land with a distinguished nocturnal environment and starry nights that has been developed responsibly to prevent light pollution.
  • Individuals or groups can nominate a site for certification to the International Dark Sky Association (IDSA). There are five designated categories, namely International Dark Sky parks, communities, reserves, sanctuaries and Urban Night Sky Places.
  • The certification process is similar to that of a site being awarded the UNESCO World Heritage Site tag or getting recognised as a Biosphere Reserve. Between 2001 and January 2022, there have been 195 sites recognised as International Dark Sky Places globally, the IDSA said.
  • The IDSA considers a piece of land suitable for dark sky place only if it is either publicly or privately owned; is accessible to the public partially or entirely during the year; the land is legally protected for scientific, natural, educational, cultural, heritage and/or public enjoyment purposes; the core area of the land provides an exceptional dark sky resource relative to the communities and cities that surround it and the land offers prescribed night sky brightness either for a reserve, park or sanctuary.

For India, a rise in international crude oil prices leads to which of the following?
  1. It leads to inflation
  2. Rise in current account deficit and fiscal deficit
  3. Weakens the rupee against the dollar
  4. Rise in edible oil prices
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • India imports nearly 85% of its crude requirement and in the year ended March 2022, the oil import bill doubled to $119 billion on account of rise in prices. The rise in import bill not only leads to inflation and rise in current account deficit and fiscal deficit, but also weakens the rupee against the dollar and hurts stock market sentiment.
  • A rise in crude oil price also has an indirect impact on India as it leads to a rise in edible oil prices, coal prices and also that of fertiliser as they use gas as the feedstock. Gas accounts for 80% of all fertiliser production costs.
  • So if a rise in crude oil prices could lead to a much enhanced import burden, it also leads to reduction in demand in the economy which hurts growth. It could also lead to higher fiscal deficit if the government chooses to bear the burden by way of subsidies.

Consider the following statements regarding PM SHRI Schools (PM ScHools for Rising India).
  1. Under the scheme, selected schools across India’s states and Union Territories will be redeveloped to reflect the key features of the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020.
  2. PM SHRI school will be an upgraded Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs), or even a school that is run by a state government or a municipal corporation.
  3. States and UTs interested in getting included under the scheme will have to first agree to implement the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 in its entirety.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Will receive financial support from the government to improve infrastructure and quality of education.

The scheme is aimed at providing quality education to students in rural and underprivileged areas.

The schools will be required to meet certain criteria, such as having a certain number of classrooms, toilets, and clean drinking water facilities.

The scheme also focuses on training teachers and providing them with resources to enhance their teaching skills.

The PM SHRI Schools scheme aims to bridge the gap between urban and rural education and improve the overall educational standards in the country.

The schools will be selected based on their performance and potential for improvement.

The scheme is part of the government's efforts to achieve the goal of universal education and ensure equal opportunities for all children.

The PM SHRI Schools scheme is a flagship program of the government and has been allocated a significant budget for its implementation.

The scheme also encourages the participation of local communities and stakeholders in the development of the schools.

The government will monitor the progress of the schools and provide necessary support and guidance to ensure their success.

Consider the following statements regarding CRISPR technology.
  1. CRISPR technology does not involve the introduction of any new gene from the outside.
  2. The technology replicates a natural defence mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
  3. A special protein called Cas9 is used to break the DNA strand at specific points, and remove the bad sequence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

CRISPR technology is a revolutionary tool for editing the genetic material of organisms. It is based on a natural defence mechanism found in some bacteria that helps protect them from viral attacks. The technology does not involve the introduction of any new gene from the outside, but rather utilizes the bacteria's own genetic machinery to make targeted changes.

1. CRISPR technology does not involve the introduction of any new gene from the outside.
- This statement is correct. CRISPR technology does not require the introduction of foreign genes into an organism. It utilizes the organism's own genetic material and machinery to make changes.

2. The technology replicates a natural defence mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks.
- This statement is correct. CRISPR technology is inspired by the natural defence mechanism found in bacteria. Bacteria use a system called CRISPR-Cas9 to defend against viral attacks by targeting and destroying the viral DNA.

3. A special protein called Cas9 is used to break the DNA strand at specific points and remove the bad sequence.
- This statement is correct. In CRISPR technology, a protein called Cas9 is used as a molecular scissor to cut the DNA at specific locations. Once the DNA is cut, the cell's own repair machinery can be used to remove or replace the targeted sequence.

Overall, all three statements are correct. CRISPR technology is a powerful tool that harnesses the natural defence mechanism found in bacteria to edit the genetic material of organisms. It does not involve the introduction of new genes, but rather uses the organism's own genetic machinery. The process involves the use of a protein called Cas9 to break the DNA at specific points, allowing for targeted modifications.

Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news is located in 
  • a)
    Chhattisgarh 
  • b)
    West Bengal 
  • c)
    Ladakh 
  • d)
    Meghalaya
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir.

About Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary:
- Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is spread across an area of 4,000 sq. km.
- It is home to a number of rare and endangered species such as Tibetan antelope, Tibetan wild ass, Tibetan argali sheep, snow leopard, etc.
- The sanctuary is situated at an altitude of 4,500 to 5,500 meters above sea level and is one of the highest altitude wildlife reserves in the world.
- It is an important breeding ground for migratory birds such as bar-headed geese, Brahminy ducks, etc.
- The sanctuary is also an important source of livelihood for the local communities who depend on its resources for their survival.

Conservation efforts:
- The Government of India has taken several steps to conserve and protect the wildlife in the sanctuary. It has declared the area as a protected area under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- The local communities have been involved in conservation efforts through various programs such as eco-tourism, community-based conservation, etc.
- The government has also set up a number of research and monitoring programs to study the wildlife and their habitat in the sanctuary.

Importance:
- The Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is an important biodiversity hotspot in the region and is home to a number of endemic and rare species.
- It is also an important source of livelihood for the local communities who depend on its resources for their survival.
- The sanctuary attracts a large number of tourists and researchers who come to study the unique wildlife and their habitat in the region.

As per The Patents Act, 1970, at any time after the expiration of three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person interested may make an application for grant of compulsory licence on patent on which of the following grounds?
  1. The patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price.
  2. The requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been satisfied.
  3. The patented invention is worked in the territory of India by a non-Indian pharmaceutical company.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
At any time after the expiration of three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person interested may make an application to the Controller for grant of compulsory licence on patent on any of the following grounds, namely:—
(a) that the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been satisfied, or
(b) that the patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price, or
(c) that the patented invention is not worked in the territory of India.

India presently has which of the following research stations at Antarctica?
  1. Maitri
  2. Himadri
  3. Bharati
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Uday Roy answered
Research stations at Antarctica:

India presently has the following research stations at Antarctica:

- Maitri: Maitri is India's first permanent research station in Antarctica, established in 1989. It is located at Schirmacher Oasis in East Antarctica.

- Bharati: Bharati is India's second research station in Antarctica, inaugurated in 2012. It is located at Larsemann Hills, East Antarctica.

Correct Answer: c) 1, 3

Explanation:
India currently has Maitri and Bharati research stations at Antarctica. Himadri is not a research station in Antarctica, so the correct answer is option 'C' - 1, 3. These research stations play a crucial role in conducting scientific research, studying the environment, climate change, and exploring the Antarctic region. India's presence in Antarctica signifies its commitment to scientific exploration and cooperation in the international scientific community.

Operation Octopus, Operation Double Bull and Operation Thunderstorm are related to 
  • a)
    Protection of Critically endangered species 
  • b)
    Promoting handcrafted products from the tribal people 
  • c)
    Operations carried out by Border Security Force (BSF) along the international boundary. 
  • d)
    Anti-Naxal operation by CRPF
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Considerable success was achieved in 2022 in Bihar, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh as the CRPF launched Operation Octopus, Operation Double Bull, Operation Thunderstorm and Operation Chakarbandha in the three States. The operations led to the arrest or surrender of 592 Maoists.

Consider the following statements regarding the Provisions in Indian Constitution.
  1. The principle of Equality prohibits the State from discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth.
  2. Constitution empowers the State to “make any provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  3. Constitution provides for reservation of posts in favour of any backward class of citizens, which in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivani Dey answered
Impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of citizens in the interest of public order, morality, and national security.

Both statements are true. The principle of equality is enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Article 19 of the Constitution guarantees certain fundamental rights to citizens, including the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to assemble peacefully, and the right to form associations or unions. However, these rights are not absolute, and the State is empowered to impose reasonable restrictions on them in the interest of public order, morality, and national security under Article 19(2) to (6) of the Constitution.

The “doctrine of essentiality” is often used by the courts in relation to which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution? 
  • a)
    Article 14 
  • b)
    Article 19 
  • c)
    Article 21 
  • d)
    Article 25
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
The doctrine of “essentiality” was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The court held that the term “religion” will cover all rituals and practices “integral” to a religion, and took upon itself the responsibility of determining the essential and non-essential practices of a religion.
The “doctrine of essentiality” is often used in relation to Article 25.

Which of the following technologies is/are considered as part of Fourth Industrial Revolution, Industry 4.0:
  1. Advent of mechanisation
  2. Cognitive Computing
  3. Cyber-physical Systems (CPS)
  4. Internet of Things (IoT)
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mainak Mehra answered
The correct answer is option 'C' (2, 3, 4) - Cognitive Computing, Cyber-physical Systems (CPS), and Internet of Things (IoT) are all considered part of the Fourth Industrial Revolution, or Industry 4.0.

Industry 4.0 refers to the ongoing transformation of traditional industries through the integration of digital technologies. It is characterized by the fusion of physical and digital systems, resulting in enhanced connectivity, automation, and data exchange. This revolution is driven by several key technologies, some of which are:

1. Advent of Mechanization:
While the advent of mechanization marked the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, it is not specifically associated with the Fourth Industrial Revolution, or Industry 4.0. Mechanization involves the use of machines to perform tasks that were previously done by humans, leading to increased productivity and efficiency. However, Industry 4.0 goes beyond mechanization and incorporates advanced technologies that enable machines to communicate and collaborate with each other.

2. Cognitive Computing:
Cognitive computing refers to the development of computer systems that can simulate human intelligence and perform tasks such as natural language processing, pattern recognition, and problem-solving. These systems are designed to learn and adapt, enabling them to provide valuable insights and make informed decisions. Cognitive computing plays a crucial role in Industry 4.0 by enabling machines to process and analyze vast amounts of data, leading to improved efficiency and decision-making.

3. Cyber-physical Systems (CPS):
Cyber-physical systems are physical objects or systems that are interconnected with computer networks, allowing them to interact and communicate with each other. CPS integrate the physical and virtual worlds, enabling real-time monitoring, control, and optimization of processes. In Industry 4.0, CPS play a key role in creating smart factories where machines, equipment, and products are interconnected, leading to increased productivity, flexibility, and customization.

4. Internet of Things (IoT):
The Internet of Things refers to the network of physical devices, vehicles, appliances, and other objects embedded with sensors, software, and connectivity that enables them to collect and exchange data. IoT enables the seamless integration of physical and digital systems, allowing for efficient data collection, analysis, and decision-making. In Industry 4.0, the IoT is used to connect and monitor various devices and systems in factories, supply chains, and other industrial settings, leading to improved efficiency, productivity, and safety.

In summary, the technologies considered as part of the Fourth Industrial Revolution, or Industry 4.0, are Cognitive Computing, Cyber-physical Systems (CPS), and Internet of Things (IoT). These technologies play a crucial role in transforming traditional industries by enhancing connectivity, automation, and data exchange.

Consider the following statements.
  1. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) does not explicitly acknowledge the differentiated responsibility of nations to fight climate change.
  2. The Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) for Loss and Damages, was the first formal acknowledgment of the need to compensate developing countries struck by climate disasters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maulik Ghoshal answered
Statement 1: UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) does not explicitly acknowledge the differentiated responsibility of nations to fight climate change.

The statement is incorrect.

The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) does explicitly acknowledge the differentiated responsibility of nations to fight climate change. The principle of "common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities" is one of the fundamental principles of the UNFCCC. This principle recognizes that all countries have a common responsibility to combat climate change, but acknowledges that developed countries should take the lead due to their historical responsibility for causing climate change and their greater financial and technological capabilities.

The principle of common but differentiated responsibilities is reflected in various provisions of the UNFCCC, including:

1. Article 3.1: This article states that countries should protect the climate system for the benefit of present and future generations, and acknowledges that developed countries should take the lead in combating climate change.

2. Article 4.1: This article emphasizes that developed countries should take the lead in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and supporting developing countries in their efforts.

3. Article 4.7: This article highlights the importance of providing financial resources and technology transfer to developing countries to support their efforts in addressing climate change.

Statement 2: The Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) for Loss and Damages was the first formal acknowledgment of the need to compensate developing countries struck by climate disasters.

The statement is correct.

The Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage (WIM) was established at the 19th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC in 2013. It was indeed the first formal acknowledgment of the need to compensate developing countries struck by climate disasters. The WIM recognizes that some impacts of climate change are beyond the capacity of vulnerable countries to adapt to or recover from, and therefore, calls for international support to address loss and damage associated with the impacts of climate change, including the provision of financial support and technology transfer.

The establishment of the WIM was a significant step in recognizing the need to address the impacts of climate change that go beyond adaptation and mitigation efforts. It acknowledges the disproportionate impacts faced by developing countries and the need for international solidarity and support to help them recover from climate disasters and address the associated loss and damage.

In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as the UNFCCC does acknowledge the differentiated responsibility of nations, and statement 2 is correct as the WIM was the first formal acknowledgment of the need to compensate developing countries struck by climate disasters. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

The Earth Observation Satellites have applications in which of the following areas?
  1. Disaster management
  2. Mineral prospecting
  3. Ocean resource management
  4. Urban planning
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Earth observation satellites are important tools for gathering data and monitoring various aspects of the Earth's surface. They have a wide range of applications in several areas, including disaster management, mineral prospecting, ocean resource management, and urban planning. The correct answer is option D (1, 2, 3, 4), as all of these areas benefit from the use of Earth observation satellites.

1. Disaster Management:
Earth observation satellites play a crucial role in disaster management. They can provide real-time data and imagery that help in assessing the extent of damage caused by natural disasters such as earthquakes, floods, and wildfires. This information is vital for emergency response teams to plan and coordinate relief efforts effectively.

2. Mineral Prospecting:
Satellite imagery is valuable in mineral prospecting and exploration. By capturing high-resolution images of the Earth's surface, satellites can help identify potential mineral deposits and map out geological features. This information is useful for companies involved in mining and mineral extraction, as it helps them optimize their exploration efforts and locate valuable resources.

3. Ocean Resource Management:
Earth observation satellites are used for monitoring and managing ocean resources. They can track ocean currents, measure sea surface temperatures, and detect changes in water quality. This data is essential for fisheries management, studying marine ecosystems, and monitoring the impact of climate change on the oceans. Satellites also aid in identifying potential sites for offshore renewable energy projects such as wind farms.

4. Urban Planning:
Satellite imagery provides an invaluable tool for urban planning and development. It can help in mapping urban areas, monitoring population growth, and identifying areas of infrastructure development. By analyzing satellite images, planners can make informed decisions about land use, transportation networks, and resource allocation. This improves the efficiency and sustainability of urban areas.

In conclusion, Earth observation satellites have applications in disaster management, mineral prospecting, ocean resource management, and urban planning. These satellites provide valuable data and imagery that aid in decision-making, resource management, and monitoring various aspects of the Earth's surface.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Nikshay Mitra is a government project that enables people to adopt tuberculosis patients and take care of their nutritional and medical requirements.
  2. Under Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, India aims at eliminating TB by 2025.
  3. National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) covers TB patients from both the public and the private sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The Health Ministry’s unique “adopt a TB-patient” (Ni-kshay Mitras) initiative — probably the only one-of-its-kind in the world.
  • The programme was brought in to fill the critical “community’’ elements into India’s fight towards the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan aimed at eliminating TB by 2025.
  • Ni-kshay Mitra (Donor) for this programme includes co-operative societies, corporates, elected representatives, individuals, institutions, non-governmental organisations, political parties and partners who can support by adopting the health facilities (for individual donor), blocks/urban wards/districts/States for accelerating the response against TB to complement the government efforts, as per the district-specific requirements in coordination with the district administration.
  • Free diagnostics, free drugs and Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana provided by the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) to all the TB patients notified from both the public and the private sector.

Consider the following statements regarding Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs).
  1. Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs) come entirely under the Centre’s Ministry of Education.
  2. They are fully funded by the Union government under central sector schemes.
  3. While Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) were set up to nurture talented students in rural parts of the country, the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs) mainly cater to children of central government employees posted in states and UTs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagnik Shah answered
Overview of Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs)
Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) are a system of central government schools in India that aim to provide a common platform for the education of children of central government employees.
Key Points about KVs:
- Fully funded by the Union Government.
- Established primarily to serve the needs of central government employees.
- Focuses on providing quality education irrespective of the geographical location.
Overview of Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs)
Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs) are a network of co-educational residential schools aimed at providing quality education to talented students, particularly from rural areas.
Key Points about JNVs:
- Also funded by the Union Government.
- Created to nurture talented students from rural regions.
- Designed to provide education to underprivileged students and promote national integration.
Correctness of Statements
1. KVs and JNVs under the Ministry of Education:
This statement is correct. Both KVs and JNVs are established and operated under the Ministry of Education of the Government of India.
2. Fully funded by the Union Government:
This statement is also correct. Both types of schools receive funding from the central government.
3. Purpose of KVs and JNVs:
This statement contains inaccuracies. KVs primarily serve children of central government employees, while JNVs focus on nurturing talented students from rural areas.
Conclusion
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B' (1, 2), as statements 1 and 2 are accurate, while statement 3 misrepresents the primary objectives of KVs and JNVs.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  2. Article 14 forbids class legislation and reasonable classification of persons.
  3. The equal protection of law concept originated from the United States Constitution, which means the law should be applied equally and fairly to all people.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Gupta answered
Article 14 and its provisions:
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. This means that every individual, irrespective of their background, should be treated equally under the law.

Class legislation and reasonable classification:
Article 14 forbids class legislation, which means that laws cannot discriminate against individuals based on factors such as religion, caste, gender, etc. However, it does allow for reasonable classification of persons based on intelligible differentia, which must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the law.

Origin of the equal protection of law concept:
The concept of equal protection of law originated from the United States Constitution. It implies that the law should be applied equally and fairly to all individuals, without any discrimination or bias.

Therefore, the correct statements are:
- Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
- The equal protection of law concept originated from the United States Constitution, which means the law should be applied equally and fairly to all people.

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC).
  1. United Nations Alliance of Civilization (UNAOC) aims to improve understanding and cooperative relations among nations and peoples across cultures and religions.
  2. It helps to counter the forces that fuel polarization and extremism.
  3. UNAOC was established at the initiative of the Governments of India and USA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC) is an initiative of the United Nations to promote intercultural dialogue and understanding among nations and peoples across cultures and religions. The aim of UNAOC is to counter the forces that fuel polarization and extremism by promoting mutual respect, understanding, and cooperation among different cultures and religions.

Statements regarding UNAOC:

1. UNAOC aims to improve understanding and cooperative relations among nations and peoples across cultures and religions.
This statement is correct. The main objective of UNAOC is to promote intercultural dialogue and understanding among different cultures and religions. It aims to create a platform for people from different cultural and religious backgrounds to come together and exchange ideas, perspectives, and experiences.

2. It helps to counter the forces that fuel polarization and extremism.
This statement is also correct. UNAOC recognizes that polarization and extremism are among the biggest challenges facing the world today. By promoting intercultural dialogue and understanding, UNAOC aims to counter the forces that fuel polarization and extremism and promote peaceful coexistence among different cultures and religions.

3. UNAOC was established at the initiative of the Governments of India and USA.
This statement is incorrect. UNAOC was established in 2005 at the initiative of the Governments of Spain and Turkey with the support of the United Nations. India and the USA joined as co-sponsors later.

In conclusion, the correct statements regarding UNAOC are 1 and 2. UNAOC aims to improve understanding and cooperative relations among nations and peoples across cultures and religions, and it helps to counter the forces that fuel polarization and extremism.

Which of the following ideally should not be features of a democratic polity?
  1. Military can take over civilian institutions if they fail to deliver on democratic hopes
  2. Censorship of the press
  3. The Government should not be run by non-elected individuals.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Yash Sen answered
Features that should not be present in a democratic polity:

1. Military taking over civilian institutions:
In a democratic polity, it is essential to maintain a clear separation between the military and civilian institutions. The military's role should be limited to national defense and security, and it should not have the power to intervene in civilian matters. Allowing the military to take over civilian institutions undermines the principles of democracy and can lead to authoritarian rule.

2. Censorship of the press:
Freedom of the press is a fundamental pillar of democracy. A democratic polity should guarantee the freedom of expression and the right to access information. Censorship of the press restricts the flow of information and stifles public discourse, preventing citizens from making informed decisions. It also hampers transparency and accountability, which are vital in a democratic system.

3. Non-elected individuals running the government:
Democracy is based on the principle of popular sovereignty, where the power to govern rests with the people. Therefore, the government should be run by elected representatives who are accountable to the citizens. Allowing non-elected individuals to hold positions of power undermines the democratic process and can lead to a lack of transparency, legitimacy, and public trust in the government.

Explanation of the correct answer:
The correct answer is option 'A' because all the mentioned features should ideally not be present in a democratic polity. A democratic polity should uphold the principles of civilian control over the military, freedom of the press, and government by elected individuals. These features are essential for ensuring the functioning of a democratic system and protecting the rights and interests of the citizens.

By ensuring that the military does not have the power to take over civilian institutions, democratic societies can preserve the civilian control and prevent the consolidation of power in the hands of the military. This helps maintain a balance of power and prevents the abuse of authority.

Censorship of the press goes against the principles of transparency, free speech, and the right to information. A free press plays a crucial role in holding the government accountable, promoting public debate, and facilitating the flow of information in society.

Government by non-elected individuals undermines the democratic process and can lead to the concentration of power in the hands of a few. Elected representatives are accountable to the people and are chosen through a fair electoral process, ensuring that the government represents the will and interests of the citizens.

In conclusion, a democratic polity should not have features such as military takeovers, censorship of the press, or non-elected individuals running the government. These features are detrimental to the functioning of a democratic system and can lead to the erosion of democratic values, transparency, and accountability.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The periodic warming and cooling of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean is described as El Niño Southern Oscillations (ENSO).
  2. El Niño refers to the ENSO phase in which sea-surface temperatures are cooler than normal.
  3. La Niña refers to the ENSO phase in which sea-surface temperatures are warmer than normal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Mehta answered
Ño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
2. El Niño is characterized by the warming of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean, leading to changes in weather patterns around the world.
3. El Niño events typically occur every 2 to 7 years and can last for several months to over a year.
4. El Niño is often associated with increased rainfall and flooding in some regions, as well as drought conditions in others.
5. The Southern Oscillation refers to the atmospheric component of the ENSO system, involving changes in air pressure patterns between the eastern and western Pacific Ocean.
6. La Niña is the opposite phase of ENSO, characterized by the cooling of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
7. La Niña events typically follow El Niño events and can also have significant impacts on global weather patterns.
8. During La Niña, there is often a higher likelihood of drought conditions in some regions and increased hurricane activity in the Atlantic Ocean.
9. The ENSO phenomenon has important implications for agriculture, fisheries, and natural ecosystems around the world.
10. Scientists monitor and study ENSO to improve climate predictions and better understand its impacts on global weather patterns.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 allows the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) to take cognizance of any offence under its schedule across the country.
  2. The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) cannot take cognizance of any offence in a state unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments.
  • It has, therefore, been able to register money laundering cases against politicians or activists based on FIRs filed by state police forces — something the CBI is unable to do unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

Which of the following conditions precedent for the successful working of Democracy?
  1. Equality of law and administration
  2. Avoidance of tyranny of majority over minority
  3. Presence of an opposition
  4. Functioning of moral order in society
  5. Public conscience
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4, 5 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Equality of law and administration:
- Ensures that all citizens are treated equally under the law, regardless of their background or status.
- Prevents discrimination and ensures fairness in the legal system.

Avoidance of tyranny of majority over minority:
- Protects the rights of minorities from being overshadowed by the majority.
- Upholds the principle of inclusivity and ensures that all voices are heard in a democratic society.

Presence of an opposition:
- Provides checks and balances on the ruling party, preventing abuse of power.
- Encourages debate and discussion, leading to better decision-making in a democracy.

Functioning of moral order in society:
- Upholds ethical values and principles that guide the behavior of individuals in society.
- Promotes social cohesion and harmony, essential for the successful functioning of a democracy.

Public conscience:
- Reflects the collective moral values and beliefs of the society.
- Acts as a moral compass, guiding individuals and policymakers towards ethical decision-making in a democracy.

In conclusion, all these conditions are essential for the successful working of democracy as they ensure fairness, inclusivity, accountability, and ethical behavior in society. Each condition plays a crucial role in upholding the principles of democracy and promoting the well-being of all citizens.

In what ways do naturally-occurring wildfires play an integral role in nature?
  1. They help return nutrients to the soil
  2. They act as a disinfectant
  3. They allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of seedlings to grow
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
“Although often harmful and destructive to humans, naturally occurring wildfires play an integral role in nature. They return nutrients to the soil by burning dead or decaying matter. They also act as a disinfectant, removing disease-ridden plants and harmful insects from a forest ecosystem. And by burning through thick canopies and brushy undergrowth, wildfires allow sunlight to reach the forest floor, enabling a new generation of seedlings to grow.”

Consider the following statements.
  1. All food grain procurement operations in India are undertaken by the Food Corporation of India (FCI).
  2. Food Corporation of India (FCI) decides the issue prices of food grains.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prerna Das answered
Incorrect Statements:
1) All food grain procurement operations in India are undertaken by the Food Corporation of India (FCI).
2) Food Corporation of India (FCI) decides the issue prices of food grains.

Explanation:

1. Food Grain Procurement Operations in India:
The statement that all food grain procurement operations in India are undertaken by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is incorrect. While the FCI is a major agency involved in food grain procurement, it is not the sole agency responsible for all procurement operations in the country. State government agencies and cooperative societies also play a significant role in the procurement of food grains. These agencies, along with the FCI, participate in the Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations to procure food grains from farmers.

2. Determination of Issue Prices:
The statement that the Food Corporation of India (FCI) decides the issue prices of food grains is incorrect. The FCI does not have the authority to independently determine the issue prices of food grains. The issue prices are determined by the Government of India based on various factors such as procurement costs, storage costs, transportation costs, and other related expenses. The government takes into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) while deciding the issue prices. The CACP is an autonomous body that advises the government on MSPs and other related agricultural issues.

Correct Statements:
None of the statements provided are correct. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. While the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a major agency involved in food grain procurement in India, it is not the sole agency responsible for all procurement operations. Additionally, the FCI does not independently decide the issue prices of food grains. The issue prices are determined by the Government of India based on various factors and the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.

Which of the following are the sources of arsenic contamination.
  1. Weathering of rocks and minerals followed by leaching and runoff.
  2. Intense exploitation of groundwater
  3. Iron coprecipitation
  4. Burning of coal
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The sources of arsenic are natural or may partly stem from anthropogenic activities like intense exploitation of groundwater, application of fertilizers, burning of coal and leaching of metals from coal-ash tailings.
  • Arseni is introduced into soil and groundwater during weathering of rocks and minerals followed by subsequent leaching and runoff.
  • Among the various arsenic removal technologies, lime softening and iron coprecipitation have been reported to be the most effective.

Consider the following statements regarding Majuli Island.
  1. Majuli Island is the world’s largest fully habituated river island located in the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It became the first island to be made a district in India.
  3. Majuli is the abode of the Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The world’s largest, fully habituated river island Majuli is situated in the middle of Brahamputra, with the Kaziranga National Park touching Jorhat and Nagaon.
  • Mājuli is the abode of the Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture.
  • In 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India.

Vostro account, sometimes seen in news is used in the context of 
  • a)
    Zero balance Account 
  • b)
    Foreign exchange transactions 
  • c)
    Providing Subsidies to the Targeted Beneficiaries 
  • d)
    Bank account without any expiry
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
A vostro account is an essential part of correspondent banking in which a foreign bank acts as an agent providing financial services on behalf of a domestic bank.
Vostro accounts enable domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs.
Vostro account services include executing wire transfers, performing foreign exchange transactions, enabling deposits and withdrawals, and expediting international trade.

Consider the following statements regarding Scramjet Engine.
  1. It works based on the technology of Air Breathing Propulsion System.
  2. The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The first experimental mission of ISRO’s Scramjet Engine towards the realization of an Air Breathing Propulsion System was successfully conducted on August 28, 2016 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota.
  • The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and the Oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer. 

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