All questions of April 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  1. The IMF was set up with the aim to bring about international economic coordination to prevent competing currency devaluation by countries trying to promote their own exports.
  2. It is considered as the last resort lender for countries facing severe economic crises.
  3. Quotas are the IMF’s main source of financing, wherein each member of the IMF is assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative position in the world economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • The IMF was set up in 1945 with the aim to bring about international economic coordination to prevent competing currency devaluation by countries trying to promote their own exports. It later went on to become a last resort lender for countries facing severe economic crises.
  • IMF funds come from three sources: member quotas, multilateral and bilateral borrowing agreements. Quotas are the IMF’s main source of financing, wherein each member of the IMF is assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative position in the world economy.

Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission.
  1. Jal Jeevan Mission, aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through tap connections to all households in India by 2024.
  2. The Jal Jeevan Mission is based on a community approach to water and include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.
  3. It also includes elements such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation and rain water harvesting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting. The Jal Jeevan Mission is based on a community approach to water and include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission. JJM looks to create a jan andolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s priority.

Which of the following is/are classified as macronutrients that are essential for plant growth?
  1. Manganese
  2. Iron
  3. Zinc
  4. Copper
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 4 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
There are 16 elements essential to growth of crop plants:
  • Supplied by air and water: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
  • Macronutrients: nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium
  • Secondary Nutrients: calcium, magnesium, sulfur
  • Micronutrients: boron (B), chlorine (Cl), copper (Cu), iron (Fe), manganese (Mn), molybdenum (Mo), and zinc (Zn).

The Constitution of India confers which of the following rights to the Attorney General of India?
  1. He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
  2. He can take part in the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
  3. He is entitled to vote in both the Houses of Parliament.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Under Article 88, the “Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member”. However, he “shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote” in the House.

Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary Committees in India.
  1. All the Parliamentary Committees were constituted soon after the adoption of the Constitution of India.
  2. The Departmentally Related Standing Committees examine budgetary proposals and crucial government policies.
  3. Railway Convention Committee and Committee on Food Management and Security in Parliament House Complex come under the category of Ad hoc Committees.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Broadly, Parliamentary Committees can be classified into Financial Committees, Departmentally Related Standing Committees, Other Parliamentary Standing Committees, and Ad hoc Committees.
  • The Financial Committees include the Estimates Committee, Public Accounts Committee, and the Committee on Public Undertakings. These committees were constituted in 1950.
  • Seventeen Departmentally Related Standing Committees came into being in 1993 to examine budgetary proposals and crucial government policies. The aim was to increase Parliamentary scrutiny, and to give members more time and a wider role in examining important legislation.
  • The number of Committees was subsequently increased to 24. Each of these Committees has 31 members — 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
  • Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose. They cease to exist after they have completed the task assigned to them, and have submitted a report to the House. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills. Committees like the Railway Convention Committee, Committee on Food Management and Security in Parliament House Complex, etc. also come under the category of Ad hoc Committees.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 (SRA) allows for surrogacy to married couples, live-in partners, single women, and also foreigners.
  2. The laws in India does not allow for altruistic surrogacy.
  3. Assisted Reproductive Technology include gamete donation, intrauterine insemination, and in-vitro fertilisation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Surrogacy is defined by law as “a practice whereby one woman bears and gives birth to a child for an intending couple” and intends to hand over the child to them after the birth, as per The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 (SRA). It further allows for surrogacy to be available only to infertile Indian married couples.
  • The other legislation on this matter, the Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) (Regulation) Act, 2021. This is open to married couples, live-in partners, single women, and also foreigners.
  • ART procedures include gamete donation, intrauterine insemination, and in-vitro fertilisation or IVF.
  • The SRA Act says the surrogate should be married and have a child of her own. Restricting altruistic surrogacy to legally wedded infertile Indian couples, the Act sets an age limitation for the couple where a husband must be between 26 and 55 years of age and a wife between 23 and 50 years. Further, Indian couples with biological or adopted children are prohibited to undertake surrogacy, save for some exceptions such as mentally or physically challenged children, or those sufferings from a life-threatening disorder or fatal illness.

Consider the following statements regarding Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  1. The Act provide protection for not only wild animals and birds, but also for plants to ensure the ecological and environmental security of the country.
  2. It aims to conserve protected species by prohibiting their hunting and by protecting their habitat through the creation of sanctuaries, national parks and reserves.
  3. The Act completely prohibits capturing or hunting any species of animals listed under Schedules I-IV.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • The Wildlife Protection Act came into force on September 9, 1972, to “provide for the protection” of wild animals, birds and plants to ensure the “ecological and environmental security of the country.” It aims to conserve protected species in two main ways: firstly, by prohibiting their hunting and secondly by protecting their habitat through the creation and regulation of sanctuaries, national parks, reserves, etc.
  • Further, the Act prohibits capturing or hunting any species of animals listed under Schedules I-IV, barring a few exceptions such as hunting a diseased or dangerous animal or bird constituting a threat to human life or property or for scientific research or management.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The guidelines for registration of political parties are issued under Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  2. The Election Commission of India (ECI) has statutory power to enforce internal democracy in political parties and to remind parties to conduct elections and to ensure that their leadership is renewed, changed or re-elected every five years.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
The ECI has periodically used guidelines issued for registration of parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to remind parties to conduct elections and to ensure that their leadership is renewed, changed or re-elected every five years. But the commission does not have any statutory power to enforce internal democracy in parties or to mandate elections.

The Supreme Court’s ruling in Lily Thomas v Union of India case is related to 
  • a)
    Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition 
  • b)
    National Judicial Appointments Commission 
  • c)
    Disqualification of Member of Parliament 
  • d)
    Right to life under Article 21
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • As per Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, conviction of a lawmaker for an offence with a two-year sentence or more leads to disqualification from the House.
  • Section 8(4) of the RPA said that the disqualification takes effect only “after three months have elapsed” from the date of conviction. Within that period, the convicted lawmaker could have filed an appeal against the sentence before a higher court.
  • However, this provision was struck down as “unconstitutional” in the Supreme Court’s landmark 2013 ruling in ‘Lily Thomas v Union of India’.

Consider the following statements regarding Concessional finance.
  1. Concessional finance is below-market-rate finance provided by major financial institutions, such as development banks and multilateral funds, to developing countries to accelerate development objectives.
  2. Concessional finance cannot be in the form of grants or equity investments.
  3. Concessional finance targets high-impact projects responding to globally significant development challenges.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Concessional finance is below market rate finance provided by major financial institutions, such as development banks and multilateral funds, to developing countries to accelerate development objectives. The term concessional finance does not represent a single mechanism or type of financial support but comprises a range of below market rate products used to accelerate a climate or development objective.
  • Concessional finance targets high-impact projects responding to globally significant development challenges – from climate change mitigation and resilience to vaccine deployment, water sanitation and education – that otherwise could not go ahead without specialised financial support.
  • The most common financial products used to deliver concessional finance come in the form of loans, grants and, to some extent, equity investments.

Auxins play which of the following role in plants?
  1. Cell divisionand differentiation
  2. Formation of roots from cuttings
  3. Fruit development
  4. Inhibition of lateral branching
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Auxin, any of a group of plant hormones that regulate growth, particularly by stimulating cell elongation in stems. Auxins also play a role in cell division and differentiation, in fruit development, in the formation of roots from cuttings, in the inhibition of lateral branching (apical dominance), and in leaf fall (abscission).

Consider the following statements.
  1. Hominins are extinct members of the human lineage.
  2. Mitochondria, popularly called the powerhouse of the cell, is an organelle inside the cell that has its own DNA.
  3. Mitochondrial DNA contains the entire genetic information in the cell.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Hominins are extinct members of the human lineage.
Mitochondria, popularly called the powerhouse of the cell, is an organelle inside the cell that has its own DNA. Although the mitochondrial genome is small and only contains a fraction of genetic information in the cell, it is present in thousands of copies. 

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees in India.
  1. Presiding Officers of the House cannot refer a matter to a Parliamentary Committee, without consulting the leaders of parties in the House.
  2. An invitation to appear before a Parliamentary Committee is equivalent to a summons from a court.
  3. Reports of Departmentally Related Standing Committees are recommendatory in nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    3 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • Presiding Officers use their discretion to refer a matter to a Parliamentary Committee, but this is usually done in consultation with leaders of parties in the House.
  • An invitation to appear before a Parliamentary Committee is equivalent to a summons from a court: If one cannot come, he or she has to give reasons, which the panel may or may not accept. However, the chairman should have the support of the majority of the members to summon a witness.
  • Reports of Departmentally Related Standing Committees are recommendatory in nature. They are not binding on the government, but they do carry significant weight. In the past, governments have accepted suggestions given by the Committees and incorporated them into the Bill after it has come back to the House for consideration and passage. These panels also examine policy issues in their respective Ministries and make suggestions to the government. The government has to report back on whether these recommendations have been accepted. Based on this, the Committees table Action Taken Reports, detailing the status of the government’s action on each recommendation.

Consider the following statements regarding Negotiable Warehouse Receipts.
  1. It allows transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity.
  2. They are issued by registered warehouses and enables farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs.
  3. It is regulated by APEDA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    2 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Negotiable warehouse receipt, which was launched in 2011, allows transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral for loans.
  • Warehouse receipts are made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, and regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
  • NWR are issued by registered warehouses enables farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs
  • The government has rolled out negotiable warehousing receipts in electronic format that farmers can use to avail of bank credit easily and without fear of losing or misusing it.

Consider the following statements regarding Solicitor General of India (SGI).
  1. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is the second-highest law officer of the country.
  2. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India.
  3. The post of Solicitor General of India (SGI) is a constitutional post.
  4. The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. They are the second-highest law officer of the country. However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory.
  • Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) recommends the appointment and officially appoints the Solicitor General.

Food Price Index (FPI) is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities. FPI is released by
  • a)
    World Bank 
  • b)
    International Food Policy Research Institute 
  • c)
    World Trade Organisation 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Chavan answered
The correct answer is D) None of the above.

Explanation:
The Food Price Index (FPI) is not released by the World Bank, International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), or the World Trade Organization (WTO). The FPI is actually released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.

The FAO is an international organization that aims to ensure food security and eliminate hunger. It collects and analyzes data on food and agriculture to inform policies and programs that address global food challenges.

The Food Price Index (FPI) is one of the key indicators produced by the FAO. It measures the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities. The basket includes cereals, vegetable oils, dairy products, meat, and sugar.

The FPI is calculated based on the average prices of the selected commodities in international markets. It provides a snapshot of global food price trends, which can have significant implications for food security and the cost of living, especially in developing countries.

The FPI is useful for policymakers, analysts, and researchers to understand and monitor global food price movements. It can help in identifying potential food price shocks, analyzing the drivers of price volatility, and informing policy responses to ensure stability and affordability of food.

In conclusion, the Food Price Index (FPI) is released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. It is an important indicator that tracks the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities.

Which country has won the FIFA World cup (Men) for maximum number of times?
  • a)
    Argentina 
  • b)
    Spain 
  • c)
    Brazil 
  • d)
    France
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Brazil, the only team that has participated in every World Cup, is also the most successful team in the competition, having won five titles and finished second twice.

Which of the following is/are examples of traditional water harvesting systems practised in India?
  1. Dongs water channel system in Assam.
  2. Wet rice cum fish cultivation’ system in Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ system in Mizoram
  4. Bamboo drip irrigation system can be seen in Meghalaya
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Many traditional water harvesting systems are practised in the Northeast, Among them are
  • ‘dongs’ (water channels that originate in rivers) in Assam,
  • the ‘wet rice cum fish cultivation’ system (where water is allowed to stay on in the fields, leading to fish farming along with paddy cultivation), followed in Ziro Valley of Arunachal Pradesh,
  • the ‘zabo’ system (a method of preventing rainwater from rolling off the mountains) of Kikruma village in Nagaland’s Phek district
  • the ‘rooftop rainwater harvesting’ system of Mizoram and Meghalaya.
  • bamboo drip irrigation system can be seen in Meghalaya and other hilly areas of the Northeast, in parts of the northern plains and the Bhutan border area.

Consider the following statements regarding Kanaganahalli Archaeological Site.
  1. It is situated on the bank of Kaveri River.
  2. Emperor Ashoka’s image was found at the site.
  3. The remains of the Kanaganahalli stupa can be dated between 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Left almost unattended to for 20 years after it came to light through the excavation by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) between 1994 and 2001, the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima river near Kanaganahalli (forming part of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district, has finally got some attention.
  • The Kanaganahalli excavation opened up many marvels. For example, an ‘abandoned well’ in the eyes of local villagers turned out to be the magnificent Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions and, more significantly, the stone-portrait of Emperor Ashoka, surrounded by his queens and female attendants.
  • The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D. The Stupa is believed to have been destroyed in an earthquake.

Consider the following statements regarding Self-Reliant India (SRI) fund.
  1. Self-Reliant India (SRI) fund provides equity funding to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in India.
  2. It is a SEBI-registered category-II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF).
  3. The SRI fund is operated by a consortium of private agencies approved by the SEBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    1 and 3 only 
  • c)
    2 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • The government Self-Reliant India (SRI) fund provides equity funding to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in the country.
  • SRI fund is a SEBI-registered category-II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) announced in May 2020 that operates through a mother-fund and daughter-fund structure and aims to invest Rs 50,000 crore into MSMEs.
  • SRI fund is implemented by NSIC Venture Capital Fund Limited (NVCFL), a wholly-owned subsidiary of the government’s MSME growth agency National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC). The government is the sole anchor investor in the SRI fund with the initial support of Rs 10,000 as the mother fund. The rest 80 per cent of the Rs 50,000 crore fund will be raised by daughter funds from banks, financial institutions, HNIs, and others.

Consider the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
  1. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has been an observer in the United Nations General Assembly.
  2. Varanasi is the first tourism and cultural capital of SCO.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaideep Sen answered
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) - Incorrect Statements

• Observer in the United Nations General Assembly: The given statement is correct. SCO is a permanent observer at the United Nations General Assembly.

• Varanasi as the first tourism and cultural capital of SCO: The given statement is incorrect. In 2018, India hosted the first-ever tourism ministers' conference of SCO in which Varanasi was declared as the first 'cultural capital' of SCO. However, there is no mention of Varanasi being the first "tourism capital" of SCO.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Canisterisation of missiles.
  1. “Canisterising” refers to storing missiles inside a sealed, climate-controlled tube to protect them from the outside elements during transportation.
  2. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile.
  3. India does not possess any canisterized missile.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • “Canisterising” refers to storing missiles inside a sealed, climate-controlled tube to protect them from the outside elements during transportation. In this configuration, the warhead can be permanently mated with the missile instead of having to be installed prior to launch, which would significantly reduce the amount of time needed to launch.
  • India’s hypersonic and canisterized Agni Short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) and intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM) capabilities are equally about preserving strategic deterrence and enhancing regional strategic stability.

Which of the following products/processes has the application of bioprocessing?
  1. Control or remediate toxic wastes.
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Therapeutic proteins
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • Bioprocess engineering is concerned with translating biological science into biologically based manufacturing.
  • Products and services that depend on bioprocessing can be grouped broadly into
  • Biopharmaceuticals: Therapeutic proteins, polysaccharides, vaccines, and diagnostics.
  • Specialty products and industrial chemicals: Antibiotics, value-added food and agricultural products, and fuels, chemicals, and fiber from renewable resources.
  • Environmental-management aids: Bioprocessing products and services used to control or remediate toxic wastes.

Consider the following statements regarding Kanaganahalli Archaeological Site.
  • It is situated on the bank of Kaveri River.
  • Emperor Ashoka’s image was found at the site.
  • The remains of the Kanaganahalli stupa can be dated between 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Left almost unattended to for 20 years after it came to light through the excavation by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) between 1994 and 2001, the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima river near Kanaganahalli (forming part of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district, has finally got some attention.
  • The Kanaganahalli excavation opened up many marvels. For example, an ‘abandoned well’ in the eyes of local villagers turned out to be the magnificent Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions and, more significantly, the stone-portrait of Emperor Ashoka, surrounded by his queens and female attendants.
  • The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D. The Stupa is believed to have been destroyed in an earthquake.

Apart from bacteria, which of the following living species may be involved in the nitrogen cycle in our atmosphere?
  1. Animals
  2. Humans
  3. Green plants
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    3 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Yadav answered
The correct answer is option 'D', which means that all three options (animals, humans, and green plants) may be involved in the nitrogen cycle in our atmosphere.

The nitrogen cycle is a natural process where nitrogen is converted into various forms and moves between different reservoirs within the earth's system. It is an essential cycle for maintaining the balance of nitrogen in the atmosphere and the availability of nitrogen for living organisms.

1. Animals: Animals play a role in the nitrogen cycle through their excretory system. They consume plants or other animals as a food source, which contains nitrogen compounds. During digestion, animals break down proteins and release nitrogen-containing waste products such as urea or uric acid. These waste products are eventually excreted as urine or feces, returning nitrogen back to the environment.

2. Humans: Humans are also involved in the nitrogen cycle. Like animals, humans consume nitrogen-rich foods and excrete nitrogen-containing waste products. Additionally, human activities such as agriculture and industrial processes contribute to the nitrogen cycle. For example, fertilizer application in agriculture introduces nitrogen compounds into the soil, which can eventually enter the atmosphere through various pathways.

3. Green plants: Green plants are essential in the nitrogen cycle as they are capable of taking up nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrates or ammonium ions. They use this nitrogen to synthesize proteins and other important molecules. Some plants, called legumes, have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants through a process called nitrogen fixation. The plants provide carbohydrates to the bacteria, while the bacteria provide nitrogen to the plants. When plants die or shed leaves, nitrogen is returned to the soil through decomposition.

All three living species mentioned in the options - animals, humans, and green plants - have a role in the nitrogen cycle. They contribute to the cycling of nitrogen compounds between the atmosphere, soil, and living organisms, ensuring the availability of this essential element for life on Earth.

Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
  1. The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for fighting tax evasion in India.
  2. Before the introduction of GST in 2017, the DGGI operated as Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Gupta answered
Explanation:

The given statements are as follows:

1. The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for fighting tax evasion in India.
2. Before the introduction of GST in 2017, the DGGI operated as Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI).

Statement 1: The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for fighting tax evasion in India.

The statement is correct. The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a part of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and is responsible for the enforcement of goods and services tax (GST) laws in India. It is mainly tasked with gathering intelligence on tax evaders, conducting investigations, and taking appropriate action to curb tax evasion. DGGI plays a crucial role in ensuring compliance with GST laws and maintaining the integrity of the tax system.

Statement 2: Before the introduction of GST in 2017, the DGGI operated as Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI).

The statement is correct. Prior to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in July 2017, the DGGI was known as the Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI). The DGCEI was responsible for combating excise duty evasion and enforcing the provisions of the Central Excise Act, 1944. With the introduction of GST, the DGCEI was restructured and reconstituted as the DGGI to align its functions and responsibilities with the new tax regime.

Conclusion:

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for fighting tax evasion in India. Before the introduction of GST in 2017, the DGGI operated as Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI). Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding e-kuber.
  1. E-kuber is the core banking solution of the RBI that gives high degree of access to commercial banks to their current account with the RBI.
  2. Sovereign Gold Bonds are available for subscription at the branches of scheduled commercial banks through e-kuber system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nambiar answered
E-kuber is the core banking solution of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides commercial banks with a high degree of access to their current accounts with the RBI. It is a centralized system that allows banks to manage their accounts and transactions seamlessly.

Explanation:

1. E-kuber is the core banking solution of the RBI that gives a high degree of access to commercial banks to their current account with the RBI.
- This statement is correct. E-kuber is a centralized core banking solution provided by the RBI to commercial banks. It enables them to have easy access to their current accounts with the RBI. This access allows banks to carry out various transactions and manage their accounts efficiently.

2. Sovereign Gold Bonds are available for subscription at the branches of scheduled commercial banks through the e-kuber system.
- This statement is also correct. The e-kuber system facilitates the subscription of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) at the branches of scheduled commercial banks. SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are an investment option for individuals who want to invest in gold without actually holding physical gold. The e-kuber system makes it convenient for investors to subscribe to these bonds through their preferred commercial bank branches.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

In conclusion, e-kuber is a core banking solution provided by the RBI that offers commercial banks easy access to their current accounts with the RBI. Additionally, the e-kuber system enables the subscription of Sovereign Gold Bonds at the branches of scheduled commercial banks.

Consider the following statements regarding Interpol Red Notice.
  1. A Red Notice is a request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action.
  2. Red Notice acts as an international arrest warrant.
  3. Red Notice also mention the crime(s) for which the person is wanted for.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Criminals or suspects often flee to other countries to evade facing justice. A Red Corner Notice, or Red Notice (RN) alerts police forces across the world about fugitives who are wanted internationally.
  • Interpol says “Red Notices are issued for fugitives wanted either for prosecution or to serve a sentence. A Red Notice is a request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action.”
  • RNs contain information that helps identify wanted persons, such as their names, dates of birth, nationality, and physical attributes such as the colour of their hair and eyes, as well as pictures and biometric data such as fingerprints, if they are available. RNs also mention the crime(s) they are wanted for.
  • An RN is only an international wanted persons’ notice; it is not an international arrest warrant.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A product is said to be dumped when the product has been exported at a price below normal value in Indian markets.
  2. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), imposes antidumping duties in India.
  3. Antidumping duty is imposed based on the recommendations of Union Finance Ministry’s investigation arm, the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Niti Basak answered
The first statement is incorrect. Dumping refers to the practice of exporting a product at a price lower than its normal value in the exporting country. It does not specifically refer to Indian markets.

The second statement is correct. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is responsible for implementing and enforcing various customs and indirect tax laws in India, including the imposition of antidumping duties.

The third statement is incorrect. Antidumping duties in India are imposed based on the recommendations of the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), which is an investigative arm of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Union Finance Ministry does not directly recommend antidumping duties.

Consider the following statements regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
  1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
  2. As we move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that animals at the top of the food chain tend to have the low concentrations of these chemicals.
  3. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of immune system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Bajaj answered
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

Statement 1: Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
This statement is correct. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are highly resistant to degradation and can travel long distances through air, water, and other natural processes. This characteristic enables them to be transported from their sources to regions far away from the original release site. They can be carried by wind, ocean currents, and migratory species, leading to their global distribution.

Statement 2: As we move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that animals at the top of the food chain tend to have low concentrations of these chemicals.
This statement is incorrect. As animals at the lower levels of the food chain consume plants or smaller organisms containing POPs, the concentration of these pollutants tends to increase as they accumulate in the tissues of these organisms. When animals higher in the food chain consume these contaminated organisms, the POPs are transferred and concentrated in their bodies. This phenomenon is known as biomagnification, and it results in higher concentrations of POPs in animals at the top of the food chain.

Statement 3: Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of the immune system.
This statement is correct. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are known to have adverse effects on human health. Prolonged exposure to POPs has been linked to various health problems, including cancer, reproductive disorders, developmental abnormalities, and diseases of the immune system. These chemicals can disrupt hormone function, impair the immune system, and cause DNA damage, increasing the risk of cancer and other diseases.

Conclusion: The correct statements regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are:
1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
3. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of the immune system.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A) 1, 3.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Core inflation is a measure of the total inflation within an economy, including commodities such as food and energy prices.
  2. Core inflation typically rises and falls more gradually than inflation in food and fuel.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshika Basak answered
Core inflation is a measure of the total inflation within an economy, including commodities such as food and energy prices. However, this statement is incorrect. Core inflation specifically excludes certain volatile components like food and energy prices. Let's analyze the statements in detail:

1. Core inflation is a measure of the total inflation within an economy, including commodities such as food and energy prices.
This statement is incorrect. Core inflation is actually a measure of inflation that excludes certain volatile components such as food and energy prices. The purpose of excluding these items is to focus on the underlying inflationary trends within an economy, as food and energy prices tend to be more volatile and can be influenced by factors such as weather conditions and geopolitical events. By excluding these items, core inflation provides a more stable and reliable indicator of inflationary pressures.

2. Core inflation typically rises and falls more gradually than inflation in food and fuel.
This statement is correct. As core inflation excludes the more volatile components of food and energy prices, it tends to rise and fall more gradually than inflation in these specific sectors. This is because core inflation is influenced by broader economic factors, such as changes in wages, productivity, and overall demand and supply conditions. On the other hand, inflation in food and fuel can be more influenced by short-term supply shocks or changes in global commodity prices, leading to more abrupt changes in prices.

In summary, the correct answer is option 'A' - only statement 1 is incorrect. Core inflation specifically excludes commodities such as food and energy prices, and it tends to rise and fall more gradually than inflation in these specific sectors.

Consider the following statements regarding Marburg virus disease.
  1. Marburg virus disease (MVD) is a severe, often fatal hemorrhagic fever.
  2. Marburg, like Ebola is a filovirus and both diseases are clinically similar.
  3. Rousettus fruit bats are considered the natural hosts for the Marburg virus.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • Marburg virus disease (MVD), earlier known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal hemorrhagic fever, according to the WHO.
  • Marburg, like Ebola, is a filovirus; and both diseases are clinically similar.
  • Rousettus fruit bats are considered the natural hosts for the Marburg virus. However, African green monkeys imported from Uganda were the source of the first human infection, the WHO points out. It was first detected in 1967 after simultaneous outbreaks in Marburg and Frankfurt in Germany; and in Belgrade, Serbia.
  • The disease has an average fatality rate of around 50%. However, it can be as low as 24% or as high as 88% depending on virus strain and case management, says the WHO.
  • It is difficult to clinically distinguish MVD from diseases such as malaria, typhoid fever and other viral haemorrhagic fevers. However, it is confirmed by lab testing of samples, which like Coronavirus and Ebola are extreme biohazard risks.
  • There is no approved antiviral treatment or vaccine for MVD as of now. It can be managed with supportive care. According to the WHO, rehydration with oral or intravenous fluids, and treatment of specific symptoms can help prevent death.

Consider the following statements.
  1. India is the largest contributor to global TB cases and accounts for more than 50% of all TB cases in the world.
  2. Elimination of Tuberculosis is one of the sustainable development goals.
  3. India has set the target of elimination of Tuberculosis by 2025.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    3 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Although India continues to be the largest contributor to global TB cases, there has been a decline in the number of cases in 2021. India accounts for 28% of all TB cases in the world, according to the Global TB Report 2022.
  • Although elimination of Tuberculosis is one of the sustainable development targets to be achieved by 2030 by the world, India has set the target of 2025.

What are the roles and powers of the State Government with respect to Wildlife Protection?
  1. Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds are included in the State list under seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 allows the State government to appoint a Chief Wildlife Warden.
  3. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 empowers the state to constitute a State Board for Wild Life with the Minister in charge of Forests and Wildlife as its chairperson.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • It was in 1976, with the advent of the 42nd Amendment Act, that the subject of “Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds” was transferred from State to Concurrent List. However, state governments still enjoy a host of powers under the WPA, 1972.
  • Section 4 allows the State government to appoint a Chief Wildlife Warden alongside wildlife wardens, honorary wildlife wardens, and other officers and employees. In addition, Section 6 empowers the state to constitute a State Board for Wild Life, consisting of the Chief Minister as chairperson, the Minister in charge of Forests and Wildlife as the vice chairperson, and at least three members of the State legislature, among others.
  • State governments can also add or delete any entry to or from any Schedule or transfer any entry from one part of a Schedule to another, provided that any such alteration made by the State Government is done with the previous consent of the Centre, under Section 61.
  • Besides this, under Section 64, state governments can notify certain rules, including the conditions subject to which any license or permit may be granted or under which the officers will be authorised to file cases in court.

Consider the following statements regarding Tibetan Buddhism.
  1. Buddhism in Tibet evolved from the Mahayana and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism.
  2. It incorporated many tantric and shamanic practices of post-Gupta period Buddhism in India.
  3. Nyingma, Kagyu, Sakya and Gelug are the major schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Buddhism became the predominant religion in Tibet by the 9th century AD. It evolved from the Mahayana and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism, incorporating many tantric and shamanic practices of both post-Gupta period Buddhism in India as well as the Bon religion which was spread across Tibet before Buddhism’s arrival.
  • Tibetan Buddhism has four major schools: Nyingma (8th century), Kagyu (11th century), Sakya (1073), and Gelug (1409). The Janang school (12th century) is one of the smaller schools that grew as an offshoot of the Sakya school. Since 1640, the Gelug school has been the predominant school of Tibetan Buddhism. The Dalai Lama belongs to this school.

The crop is sub-tropical in nature. Hard-frost is injurious to it and it requires at least 210 frost-free days. Only light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its growth. These conditions hold good for which of the following crops?
  • a)
    Cotton 
  • b)
    Sugarcane 
  • c)
    Tea 
  • d)
    Jute
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
Conditions for Cotton cultivation:
  • Hard-frost is injurious to cotton cultivation and it requires at least 210 frost-free days.
  • Only light-rainfall (50 to 100 centimetres) is preferred. Cotton can also be cultivated under irrigated conditions.
  • It requires high temperatures and bright sunshine for its growth.

Consider the following statements regarding Tibetan Buddhism.
  1. Buddhism in Tibet evolved from the Mahayana and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism.
  2. It incorporated many tantric and shamanic practices of post-Gupta period Buddhism in India.
  3. Nyingma, Kagyu, Sakya and Gelug are the major schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • Buddhism became the predominant religion in Tibet by the 9th century AD. It evolved from the Mahayana and Vajrayana traditions of Buddhism, incorporating many tantric and shamanic practices of both post-Gupta period Buddhism in India as well as the Bon religion which was spread across Tibet before Buddhism’s arrival.
  • Tibetan Buddhism has four major schools: Nyingma (8th century), Kagyu (11th century), Sakya (1073), and Gelug (1409). The Janang school (12th century) is one of the smaller schools that grew as an offshoot of the Sakya school. Since 1640, the Gelug school has been the predominant school of Tibetan Buddhism. The Dalai Lama belongs to this school.

Consider the following statements regarding Sattras of Assam.
  1. Sattras are monastic institutions created as part of the 16th century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement started by Vaishnavite saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva.
  2. Sattras were established as centres of religious, social and cultural reforms.
  3. During the Ahom reign, most of the Sattras across Assam were destroyed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Roy answered

Overview:
Sattras are monastic institutions that were established in Assam as part of the 16th-century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement initiated by Srimanta Sankaradeva, a Vaishnavite saint-reformer. These institutions played a crucial role in promoting religious, social, and cultural reforms in the region.

Correct Statements:
1. Sattras are monastic institutions created as part of the 16th-century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement started by Vaishnavite saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva.
This statement is correct as Sattras were indeed established by Srimanta Sankaradeva as part of his efforts to spread the teachings of Vaishnavism in Assam.

2. Sattras were established as centres of religious, social, and cultural reforms.
This statement is also accurate as Sattras served as hubs for promoting various reforms in Assam, including religious practices, social welfare activities, and cultural preservation.

3. During the Ahom reign, most of the Sattras across Assam were destroyed.
This statement is incorrect as the Ahom rulers were actually patrons of the Sattras and supported their growth and development. It was during the Burmese invasions in the early 19th century that many Sattras were destroyed.

Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making option 'c' the right choice.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A semiconductor is a material which has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor and an insulator.
  2. Quantum computing and enhanced wireless networks rely on semiconductors.
  3. The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) and Design Linked Incentive (DLI) schemes encourage building a semiconductor ecosystem in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Varun Sharma answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: A semiconductor is a material which has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor and an insulator.

A semiconductor is a type of material that has properties between those of a conductor (material that allows the flow of electric current) and an insulator (material that does not allow the flow of electric current). Semiconductors have moderate electrical conductivity, which means they can conduct electricity to some extent but not as well as conductors. The conductivity of a semiconductor can be altered by adding impurities or by applying an external electric field. This property makes semiconductors highly useful in electronic devices.

Statement 2: Quantum computing and enhanced wireless networks rely on semiconductors.

Both quantum computing and enhanced wireless networks heavily rely on semiconductors. In quantum computing, semiconductors are used to create qubits, the basic units of information in quantum computers. Semiconductors are used to control and manipulate the quantum states of these qubits, allowing for complex calculations and data processing.

Similarly, enhanced wireless networks, such as 5G networks, rely on semiconductors for various purposes. Semiconductors are used in the design and production of advanced wireless communication devices, such as smartphones, routers, and base stations. These devices require semiconductors to process and transmit data at high speeds, ensuring efficient and reliable wireless communication.

Statement 3: The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) and Design Linked Incentive (DLI) schemes encourage building a semiconductor ecosystem in India.

The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme are initiatives launched by the Indian government to promote domestic manufacturing and design capabilities in various sectors, including the semiconductor industry. These schemes provide financial incentives and support to companies involved in manufacturing and designing semiconductors in India.

The PLI scheme aims to boost the production of goods in India, including semiconductors, by providing financial incentives to eligible companies based on their incremental sales. The DLI scheme focuses on promoting the design capabilities of Indian companies in the semiconductor and electronics sectors by providing financial support for research and development activities.

Therefore, all three statements are correct:

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

Space internet companies prefer low-earth-orbit (LEO) satellites over geostationary-orbit satellites (GOS) because 
  • a)
    GOS satellites cannot provide internet to remote areas unlike LEO satellites. 
  • b)
    signal from one GOS does not cover as much area as covered by one LEO satellite. 
  • c)
    the latency of signal from GOS satellites is much higher than that from LEO satellites. 
  • d)
    None of the above are correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Introduction:
Space internet companies provide internet services to remote areas through satellites. There are two types of satellites commonly used for this purpose - geostationary-orbit satellites (GOS) and low-earth-orbit satellites (LEO). However, space internet companies prefer LEO satellites over GOS satellites for several reasons.

Reasons why space internet companies prefer LEO satellites over GOS satellites:

1. Higher coverage: One of the main reasons why space internet companies prefer LEO satellites is that the signal from one LEO satellite can cover a larger area compared to the signal from one GOS satellite. LEO satellites orbit much closer to the Earth's surface, typically at altitudes ranging from 500 to 2,000 kilometers. This proximity allows LEO satellites to provide wider coverage and reach remote areas that are not easily accessible by terrestrial networks. On the other hand, GOS satellites orbit at much higher altitudes, around 35,786 kilometers, and their signals cover a smaller area.

2. Lower latency: Latency refers to the time delay between sending a signal from the source (satellite) to the destination (ground station) and receiving a response. LEO satellites have significantly lower latency compared to GOS satellites. This is because the shorter distance between LEO satellites and ground stations reduces the time it takes for the signal to travel back and forth. Lower latency is crucial for applications that require real-time communication, such as video conferencing, online gaming, and financial transactions. GOS satellites, due to their higher orbit, have a longer signal travel time, resulting in higher latency.

3. Improved signal strength: LEO satellites are closer to the Earth's surface, which means the signal from these satellites experiences less attenuation (weakening) as it travels through the Earth's atmosphere. This results in improved signal strength and better quality of service for users. GOS satellites, being much farther away, have to transmit their signals through a larger portion of the Earth's atmosphere, leading to greater signal attenuation.

4. Flexibility: LEO satellites offer greater flexibility in terms of deployment and scalability. Since they orbit at lower altitudes, it is easier to launch and replace LEO satellites as needed. Additionally, space internet companies can deploy constellations of LEO satellites, with each satellite covering a specific area. This allows for better redundancy, load balancing, and overall system reliability.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, space internet companies prefer low-earth-orbit (LEO) satellites over geostationary-orbit satellites (GOS) because LEO satellites provide higher coverage, lower latency, improved signal strength, and greater flexibility. These factors make LEO satellites more suitable for providing internet services to remote areas and meeting the demands of real-time applications.

Aedes aegypti mosquito mainly spreads which of the following diseases
  1. Chikungunya
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Malaria
  4. Japanese Encephalitis
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
  • Aedes aegypti, the yellow fever mosquito, is a mosquito that can spread dengue fever, chikungunya, Zika fever, Mayaro and yellow fever viruses, and other disease agents.
  • Malaria is transmitted by Anopheles mosquito.
  • Japanese Encephalitis is generally spread by mosquitoes, specifically those of the Culex type.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Ministry of Defence unveiled the Agnipath scheme, a pan-India merit-based recruitment scheme for soldiers, airmen and sailors.
  2. Under the Agnipath scheme, candidates in the age group of 17.5 to 21 years would be provided an opportunity to serve in the armed forces for a period of 4-years.
  3. The enrolment in the armed forces, Central Armed Police Force (CAPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and the Border Security Force (BSF) are done adhering to the caste-based formula and cannot exceed the 50% cap fixed by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Gupta answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
The statement is correct. The Ministry of Defence unveiled the Agnipath scheme, a pan-India merit-based recruitment scheme for soldiers, airmen, and sailors.

Statement 2:
The statement is correct. Under the Agnipath scheme, candidates in the age group of 17.5 to 21 years would be provided an opportunity to serve in the armed forces for a period of 4 years.

Statement 3:
The statement is incorrect. The enrolment in the armed forces, Central Armed Police Force (CAPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and the Border Security Force (BSF) is not done adhering to a caste-based formula. Instead, the recruitment process is merit-based, and candidates are selected based on their qualifications, skills, and performance in the selection process. There is no fixed cap of 50% on the recruitment based on caste imposed by the Supreme Court.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'b) 1, 2'.

Chapter doubts & questions for April 2023 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of April 2023 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev