All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Power Project:
  1. It is a run-of-river scheme on river Subansiri, the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
  2. It is located near the border of Assam and Meghalaya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Gupta answered
Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Power Project

Statement 1: It is a run-of-river scheme on river Subansiri, the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River.

The Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Power Project is a 2,000 MW hydropower project located on the Subansiri River in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is a run-of-the-river scheme that involves diverting water from the Subansiri River to a dam, which then passes through turbines to generate electricity. The Subansiri River is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River, and the hydropower project is expected to generate a significant amount of electricity to meet the growing energy needs of the region.

Statement 2: It is located near the border of Assam and Meghalaya.

This statement is incorrect. The Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Power Project is located in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh, which shares its border with Tibet and Bhutan. It is not near the border of Assam and Meghalaya.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A - 1 only.

With reference to Food Corporation of India (FCI), consider the following statements:
  1. FCI is a statutory body setup under the National Food Security Act, (NFSA) 2013
  2. FCI has its headquarters at New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:
Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a central government-owned agency that was established in 1965 to ensure adequate food grains supply to the country's population. It operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.

Statement 1: FCI is a statutory body setup under the National Food Security Act, (NFSA) 2013
This statement is incorrect. FCI was established in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act, 1964. The National Food Security Act, 2013, is a separate legislation that aims to provide food and nutritional security to the people of India.

Statement 2: FCI has its headquarters at New Delhi.
This statement is correct. The headquarters of FCI is located in New Delhi, and it has regional offices in various parts of the country.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding Chikungunya:
  1. It is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans through the bites of mosquitoes.
  2. There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Patel answered
Chikungunya is a viral disease that is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes, primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. It is caused by the chikungunya virus, an RNA virus of the family Togaviridae.

Correct Statement:
There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections.

Explanation:
As of now, there is no specific antiviral drug for the treatment of chikungunya. The treatment is mainly focused on relieving the symptoms such as fever and joint pain. Painkillers such as acetaminophen (paracetamol) can be used to reduce fever and relieve pain. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin and ibuprofen can also be used to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

Incorrect Statement:
It is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans through the bites of mosquitoes.

Explanation:
Chikungunya is a viral disease, not bacterial. It is caused by the chikungunya virus, not bacteria. The virus is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes, primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.

Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct statement is "There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections."

With reference to the Magha Bihu, consider the following statements:
  1. It is celebrated in the state of Assam.
  2. During this festival moon is worshipped.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Nair answered
Magha Bihu: A festival of Assam

Magha Bihu is one of the most important festivals of Assam. It is also known as Bhogali Bihu or Magh Bihu and is celebrated in the month of January-February, which is also the time of harvesting.

Correct statement:

• It is celebrated in the state of Assam.

Magha Bihu is mainly celebrated in Assam and is a community festival. People of all ages, irrespective of caste and creed, participate in this festival with great enthusiasm.

Incorrect statement:

• During this festival moon is worshipped.

Moon worship is not an integral part of Magha Bihu. The festival is mainly celebrated to mark the end of the harvesting season and thanksgiving to the Gods for a bountiful harvest.

Celebration of Magha Bihu:

The festival is celebrated with great pomp and show. People wear new clothes, prepare traditional dishes, and participate in various cultural programs. The main attraction of the festival is the community feast, which is known as ‘Bhogali Bihu'.

The festival also involves traditional sports like egg-fighting, buffalo-fighting, and cock-fighting. The night of Magha Bihu is celebrated with a bonfire, where people gather around the bonfire, sing traditional songs and dance.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, Magha Bihu is a festival of Assam, celebrated to mark the end of the harvesting season. It is a community festival and is celebrated with great enthusiasm by people of all ages. Moon worship is not an integral part of the festival.

With reference to Merchant Discount Rate (MDR), consider the following statements:
  1. MDR is a fee that a customer is charged by the merchant while accepting payments via credit and debit cards. ‌
  2. MDR charges are expressed as a percentage of the transaction amount.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Gupta answered
False.

MDR is a fee that a merchant is charged by the bank or payment processor for accepting payments via credit and debit cards. It is usually a percentage of the transaction value and covers the operational costs of the payment system. This fee is usually passed on to the customer in the form of a surcharge or higher prices.

Consider the following statements regarding iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence):
  1. It is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation in Defence and Aerospace sector.
  2. Under iDEX, financial support is provided only to Start-ups and MSMEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rithika Yadav answered
IDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence)

Overview:
iDEX is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation in the Defence and Aerospace sector. It was launched in 2018 and is managed by the Defence Innovation Organization (DIO).

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1: It is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation in Defence and Aerospace sector.
This statement is true. iDEX is the flagship initiative of MoD to promote innovation and self-reliance in the Defence and Aerospace sector.

Statement 2: Under iDEX, financial support is provided only to Start-ups and MSMEs.
This statement is false. Under iDEX, financial support is provided to start-ups, MSMEs, individual innovators, and academia. The aim is to support all stakeholders who can contribute to the innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector.

Conclusion:
Hence, the correct answer is option A, i.e., Statement 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET):
  1. NMET is a statutory body setup under the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, (MMRDA)
  2. Governing Body of NMET is chaired by the Union Minister of Mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Patel answered
And Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.

- NMET is mandated to conduct detailed exploration of minerals in India and promote exploration activities.

- The trust is funded through contributions made by mining lease holders in India.

- The funds collected by NMET are utilized for financing exploration projects, research and development activities, and capacity building.

- The trust is managed by a board of trustees, headed by the Secretary of the Ministry of Mines.

- The aim of NMET is to reduce India's dependence on imported minerals and increase the country's mineral production.

All of the above statements regarding National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) are correct.

With reference to the Indian Skimmers, consider the following statements:
  1. It is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India.
  2. It is categorized as critically endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhavan Mehta answered
Indian Skimmers: Critically Endangered Species

Introduction:
The Indian Skimmer is a bird species that belongs to the skimmer family. It is a unique bird species that is known for its distinctive bills that are used to skim the water surface for catching fish. They are found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India.

Statement Analysis:
1. It is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India.
This statement is correct. The Indian Skimmer is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. They are usually found in the estuaries of the rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Godavari, and Krishna.

2. It is categorized as critically endangered under the IUCN Red List.
This statement is incorrect. The Indian Skimmer is not categorized as critically endangered under the IUCN Red List. It is categorized as vulnerable under the IUCN Red List. The population of Indian Skimmers has declined significantly due to habitat loss, pollution, and disturbance from human activities.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Indian Skimmer is a unique bird species that is found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India. It is categorized as vulnerable under the IUCN Red List and is facing significant threats due to habitat loss and human activities. Conservation efforts are needed to protect this bird species and its habitat.

Consider the following statements regarding Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS):
  1. These are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure.
  2. The main function of the PACS is to provide long-term purpose loans to its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ipsita Mishra answered
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)

Overview:
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure. They are an important part of the rural credit system in India.

Statement Analysis:
1. These are village-level cooperative credit societies that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure.
This statement is correct. PACS are the primary units of the rural credit structure and operate at the village level. They serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit structure that includes State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) and District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs).

2. The main function of the PACS is to provide long-term purpose loans to its members.
This statement is incorrect. The main function of PACS is to provide short-term credit to its members. They provide credit for agricultural and allied activities, such as crop production, animal husbandry, fisheries, and small-scale industries. PACS also provide loans for consumption purposes, such as education, medical expenses, and household needs.

Conclusion:
Hence, the correct answer is option 'A', where statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the virus ,consider the following statements:
  1. It is a microbe consisting of a Deoxyribonucleic acid or Ribonucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat.
  2. It cannot replicate alone and require a host cell to make copies of itself. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anushka Patel answered
Explanation:
Viruses are a type of microbe that are quite different from bacteria, fungi or protists. They are much smaller than bacteria and are not considered living organisms as they cannot replicate without a host cell. Let us examine the given statements:

Statement 1: It is a microbe consisting of a Deoxyribonucleic acid or Ribonucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat.

Yes, this statement is correct. Viruses are composed of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid. Some viruses also have an outer envelope made of lipids.

Statement 2: It cannot replicate alone and require a host cell to make copies of itself.

This statement is also correct. Viruses do not have the machinery to replicate on their own. They must infect a host cell and hijack its cellular machinery to produce new copies of the virus. This process can cause harm to the host cell and can lead to disease.

Therefore, both statements are correct and the correct answer is option C (Both 1 and 2).

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC):
  1. It is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism.
  2. It relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of their work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Tiwari answered
UNODC: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime

UNODC or United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs, transnational organized crime, and terrorism. It was established in 1997 and has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria.

Statement 1: UNODC is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism.

This statement is correct. UNODC is responsible for implementing the United Nations Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy (GCTS). The GCTS was adopted by the General Assembly in 2006 to enhance international cooperation to prevent and combat terrorism. UNODC is also responsible for implementing the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and its protocols.

Statement 2: UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of their work.

This statement is also correct. UNODC relies on voluntary contributions from governments, private organizations, and individuals to carry out its work. These contributions are used to fund various projects, such as drug prevention and treatment, criminal justice reform, and anti-money laundering initiatives. UNODC also receives funding from the United Nations regular budget, but this accounts for only a small portion of its overall budget.

Conclusion

Both the statements given in the question are correct. UNODC is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism and relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of their work.

Consider the following statements regarding Curative Petition:
  1. Curative petition can be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed.
  2. A curative petition mandatorily requires an open-court hearing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Saini answered
Curative Petition

Statement 1: Curative petition can be filed after a review plea against the final conviction is dismissed.

- A curative petition is the last resort available for a person whose review petition has been dismissed by the Supreme Court.
- It can be filed only after the review plea against the final conviction is dismissed.
- The curative petition is not an appeal, but a remedy available for the correction of errors that have crept in the judgment of the Supreme Court.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: A curative petition mandatorily requires an open-court hearing.

- The Supreme Court has held that the curative petition should be decided by judges in chamber unless a judge who passed the judgment in the case is available.
- If a judge who passed the judgment is not available, then the curative petition may be heard by the judges who are next in seniority and one other senior judge.
- An open-court hearing is not mandatory for a curative petition.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:

- Statement 1 is correct as a curative petition can be filed only after the review plea against the final conviction is dismissed.
- Statement 2 is incorrect as an open-court hearing is not mandatory for a curative petition.

With reference to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority ,consider the following statements:
  1. It is an attached office under the union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  2. It enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country, under the cosmetics (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)

The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is an independent body that regulates the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India. It is an attached office under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Functions of NPPA

The primary function of the NPPA is to enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 (DPCO) and the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. It regulates the prices of drugs and medicines listed under the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM). The NPPA also monitors the availability of drugs and ensures that they are available to the public at reasonable prices.

It also monitors the prices of non-scheduled formulations and takes necessary steps to ensure that their prices are not unreasonably high. The NPPA also regulates the prices of medical devices under the Medical Devices Rules, 2017.

Cosmetics (Prices Control) Order, 1995

The Cosmetics (Prices Control) Order, 1995, is not under the purview of the NPPA. This order regulates the prices of cosmetics and toiletries. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is responsible for enforcing this order.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the correct statement regarding the NPPA and the Cosmetics (Prices Control) Order, 1995, is that the NPPA is an attached office under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers that regulates the prices of pharmaceutical drugs listed under the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) and medical devices. The Cosmetics (Prices Control) Order, 1995, is not under the purview of the NPPA.

With reference to the Gulabi meenakari handicrafts,consider the following statements:
  1. It is an art form which was brought to India during the period of Delhi sultanate .
  2. This art work is done by using tools like salai, kalam and takala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kaur answered
Explanation:

Introduction:
Gulabi Meenakari is a form of handicraft which is very popular in Rajasthan. It is a type of enameling which involves decorating metal surfaces with vibrant colors. The word Gulabi means pink in Hindi and this art form is known for its use of pink color.

Statement Analysis:
1. It is an art form which was brought to India during the period of Delhi sultanate.
This statement is incorrect. Gulabi Meenakari is an art form that originated in Rajasthan and has been practiced for centuries. It is not a form of art that was brought to India during the period of Delhi Sultanate.

2. This art work is done by using tools like salai, kalam and takala.
This statement is correct. Gulabi Meenakari involves using tools like salai (a thin needle), kalam (a pen-shaped tool), and takala (a small hammer) to create intricate designs on metal surfaces.

Conclusion:
Based on the above analysis, it can be concluded that option B, which states that only statement 2 is correct, is the correct answer.

With reference to the Polyethylene terephthalate, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
  2. This polymer is used in the manufacturing of Malleable plastic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shubham Ghosh answered
Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET)

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is a widely used plastic that is created by the polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid. It is a condensation polymer, which means it is formed by the removal of a small molecule (usually water) from two or more monomers. In the case of PET, ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid are combined to form the polymer.

Uses of PET

PET is a versatile plastic and has a wide range of applications. Some of the most common uses of PET include:

1. Bottles and containers: PET is commonly used to make bottles and containers for soft drinks, water, juice, and other beverages. It is also used to make containers for food, such as ketchup, salad dressing, and peanut butter.

2. Textiles: PET is used to make polyester fibers, which are used to make clothing, bedding, and other textiles.

3. Packaging: PET is used to make packaging for a wide range of products, including electronics, cosmetics, and pharmaceuticals.

4. Engineering plastics: PET is used to make engineering plastics that are used in a variety of applications, including automotive parts, electrical components, and mechanical parts.

Malleable Plastic

Malleable plastic is a type of plastic that can be molded and shaped by hand or by machine. It is a versatile material that is used in a variety of applications, including toys, packaging, and household items.

PET is not typically considered a malleable plastic. However, it can be molded and shaped under certain conditions, such as when it is heated or stretched. PET can also be combined with other materials to create malleable plastics with different properties.

Conclusion

In conclusion, PET is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid. It has a wide range of applications, including bottles and containers, textiles, packaging, and engineering plastics. While PET is not typically considered a malleable plastic, it can be molded and shaped under certain conditions.

Consider the following statements with reference to Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru:
  1. He became the Indian National Congress president on two occasions -in 1919 and 1928.
  2. He wrote books such as 'The Discovery of India’ and Glimpses of World History’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The first statement is incorrect. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru became the president of the Indian National Congress only once, in 1929.

The second statement is correct. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru wrote books such as "The Discovery of India," which is considered one of his most significant works.

With reference to the Diabetes ,consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Non-Communicable disease occurs when the pancreas does not produce enough insulin or body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces.
  2. Type 1 diabetes is caused by an autoimmune reaction wherein the body attacks itself by mistake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas does not produce enough insulin or the body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels in the body.

Non-Communicable Disease:
Diabetes is a non-communicable disease, which means it is not contagious and cannot be spread from person to person.

Type 1 Diabetes:
Type 1 diabetes is a form of diabetes that is caused by an autoimmune reaction in which the body attacks itself by mistake. In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas, leaving the body without enough insulin to function properly.

Type 2 Diabetes:
Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes and is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. In type 2 diabetes, the body is unable to use insulin effectively, leading to high blood sugar levels.

Gestational Diabetes:
Gestational diabetes is a form of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy. It usually goes away after the baby is born, but women who have had gestational diabetes are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.

Conclusion:
Therefore, both statements given in the question are correct. Diabetes is a non-communicable disease that occurs when the pancreas does not produce enough insulin or the body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces. Type 1 diabetes is caused by an autoimmune reaction in which the body attacks itself by mistake.

With reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission ,consider the following statements:
  1. Under this mission safe and adequate drinking water connections will be provided in rural India by 2024 to all households.
  2. The funding pattern for all the states is same under this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Chawla answered
Jal Jeevan Mission is a flagship programme of the Government of India that aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water to all households in rural India by 2024. Let's discuss the given statements in detail.

Statement 1: Under this mission safe and adequate drinking water connections will be provided in rural India by 2024 to all households.

This statement is correct. The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 15th August 2019. Its objective is to provide functional household tap connections (FHTCs) to every rural household by 2024. As per the Census 2011, around 19 crore rural households did not have access to piped water supply. The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to bridge this gap by providing safe and adequate drinking water to all households. It also focuses on the sustainability of water supply systems by involving local communities in planning, implementation, and maintenance of water supply systems.

Statement 2: The funding pattern for all the states is the same under this mission.

This statement is incorrect. The funding pattern for the Jal Jeevan Mission varies for different states. The Central Government provides 90% of the funds for the northeastern states and Himalayan states, while for other states, the Central Government provides 50% of the funds. The remaining funds are to be provided by the State Government and the community. The community contribution can be in the form of labor, materials, or cash. The State Government is also responsible for planning, implementation, and monitoring of the programme.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the correct statement is statement 1 only. The Jal Jeevan Mission is a significant initiative by the Government of India to provide safe and adequate drinking water to all households in rural India. The funding pattern for the mission varies for different states, and it is essential to involve local communities in planning and implementation for the sustainability of water supply systems.

Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
  1. It is an intergovernmental forum to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
  2. IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavana Yadav answered
IAEA: An Overview

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an intergovernmental forum that was established in 1957 under the United Nations (UN) to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. The agency is headquartered in Vienna, Austria, and has 171 member states.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental forum to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.

This statement is correct. IAEA works with its member states and other partners to promote the peaceful use of nuclear technologies, including nuclear power, nuclear medicine, and radiation therapy. The agency provides technical assistance and advice to its member states to ensure the safe and secure use of nuclear technologies.

Statement 2: IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.

This statement is also correct. IAEA reports to both the UN General Assembly and Security Council, which are the main organs of the UN. The agency provides regular reports to these bodies on its activities and the state of nuclear technology and safety around the world.

Answer Explanation

Both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option C - Both 1 and 2. IAEA is an intergovernmental forum that promotes the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies, and it reports to both the UN General Assembly and Security Council. The agency plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe and secure use of nuclear technologies around the world and in preventing the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Its work is essential for maintaining global peace and security.

With reference to the Myristica swamps, consider the following statements:
  1. In India these are mainly found in the Western Ghats region.
  2. These are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mihir Chavan answered
**Explanation:**

The correct answer is option **C) Both 1 and 2**.

**Statement 1: In India, Myristica swamps are mainly found in the Western Ghats region.**

- Myristica swamps are a type of swamp forest found in the wetland areas of the Western Ghats region in India.
- The Western Ghats is a mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of India and is known for its rich biodiversity.
- The region receives heavy rainfall, which contributes to the formation of swamps and marshlands.
- Myristica swamps are found in the low-lying areas of the Western Ghats, where the water table is high and the soil is waterlogged.

**Statement 2: Myristica swamps are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil.**

- Myristica swamps are dominated by trees with large aerial roots that are adapted to survive in waterlogged conditions.
- These trees have a unique adaptation called pneumatophores, which are specialized roots that grow vertically above the water level.
- The pneumatophores act as breathing tubes, allowing the trees to exchange gases with the atmosphere even when the soil is waterlogged.
- These protruding roots are a distinguishing feature of Myristica swamps and help the trees to survive in the waterlogged conditions.

Therefore, both statements are correct. Myristica swamps are mainly found in the Western Ghats region in India, and they are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil.

Consider the following statements regarding Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) method:
  1. It is a water-intensive method of sowing paddy.
  2. Seeds are directly drilled into the fields in this method.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Chopra answered
Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) Method

Statement 1: It is a water-intensive method of sowing paddy.

This statement is incorrect. Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) method is actually a water-saving technique as compared to traditional transplanting methods. In DSR, seeds are sown directly into the field without any nursery transplantation. This method saves water by reducing the number of times fields need to be flooded. It also reduces the labour and cost involved in transplanting seedlings.

Statement 2: Seeds are directly drilled into the fields in this method.

This statement is correct. In DSR, seeds are drilled directly into the field using a seed drill. This eliminates the need for nursery transplantation and also reduces the labour and time involved in the process.

Conclusion

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., statement 2 only is correct. Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) method is a water-saving technique in which seeds are drilled directly into the field using a seed drill.

Consider the following statements regarding Sudarshan Shakti Exercise:
  1. It aimed at starting the transformation of the forces into a modern, lean, and agile fighting combination capable of leveraging new-age technologies.
  2. It was designed to validate operational plans in a network-centric environment with elements of combat power, combat support and logistic support.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Sudarshan Shakti Exercise was a military exercise conducted by the Indian Army. The exercise aimed at starting the transformation of the forces into a modern, lean, and agile fighting combination capable of leveraging new-age technologies. This aligns with statement 1, which states that the exercise aimed at transforming the forces into a modern, lean, and agile fighting combination capable of leveraging new-age technologies.

The exercise was designed to validate operational plans in a network-centric environment with elements of combat power, combat support, and logistic support. This validates statement 2, which states that the exercise was designed to validate operational plans in a network-centric environment with elements of combat power, combat support, and logistic support.

In a network-centric environment, the forces can coordinate and communicate with each other in a more efficient and effective manner, enabling them to achieve their objectives with better situational awareness and coordination. This requires the integration of various combat power elements, combat support elements, and logistic support elements.

By conducting Sudarshan Shakti Exercise, the Indian Army aimed to evaluate and improve its capabilities in these areas, ensuring that it is prepared for future conflicts and can effectively utilize new-age technologies. The exercise would have involved various scenarios and simulations to test the forces' abilities to operate in a network-centric environment and validate their operational plans.

Overall, Sudarshan Shakti Exercise was an important step towards modernizing and enhancing the capabilities of the Indian Army, and it aimed to transform the forces into a modern, lean, and agile fighting combination capable of leveraging new-age technologies, while also validating operational plans in a network-centric environment with elements of combat power, combat support, and logistic support. Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to the NITI Aayog Governing Council, consider the following statements:
  1. The Governing Council, which embodies NITI Aayog's objectives of cooperative federalism, presents a platform to discuss inter-sectoral and federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.
  2. The First Meeting was held in February 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Saini answered
The correct answer is option C, both statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim of achieving sustainable development goals and enhancing cooperative federalism. The NITI Aayog Governing Council is a platform through which inter-sectoral and federal issues can be discussed to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.

Statement 1: The Governing Council, which embodies NITI Aayog's objectives of cooperative federalism, presents a platform to discuss inter-sectoral and federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.

This statement is correct. The NITI Aayog Governing Council comprises the Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson, Chief Ministers of all the states and union territories, and other members from the central government. It provides a forum for the central and state governments to come together, discuss issues, and collaborate on policy formulation and implementation. It aims to promote cooperative federalism by involving states in the decision-making process and addressing inter-sectoral and federal issues.

Statement 2: The First Meeting was held in February 2015.

This statement is also correct. The first meeting of the NITI Aayog Governing Council was indeed held in February 2015. The meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, and was attended by Chief Ministers of all the states and union territories. The agenda of the meeting included discussions on various development issues and strategies to accelerate economic growth and social progress.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The NITI Aayog Governing Council serves as a platform for cooperative federalism and the first meeting of the council was held in February 2015.

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Interbank Consortium, consider the following statements:
  1. It was established after the 2008 Global financial crisis.
  2. The first meeting of this consortium was held under India’s presidency in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Amrita Saha answered
False.

The first statement is false. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Interbank Consortium was established in 2005, before the 2008 Global financial crisis.

The second statement is also false. The first meeting of the consortium was not held under India, but rather under Russia, which is one of the founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Red Eared Slider:
  1. It is native to the Indian subcontinent.
  2. It is considered as one of the worst invasive non-native species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Mehra answered
Red Eared Slider: A Non-Native Invasive Species

Introduction:
The Red Eared Slider is a species of turtle that is not native to the Indian subcontinent. It is considered as one of the worst invasive non-native species.

Statement Analysis:
• Statement 1: It is native to the Indian subcontinent.
This statement is incorrect. The Red Eared Slider is not native to the Indian subcontinent. It is native to the southern United States and northern Mexico.

• Statement 2: It is considered as one of the worst invasive non-native species.
This statement is correct. The Red Eared Slider is considered as one of the worst invasive non-native species. It has been introduced to many parts of the world, including India, where it poses a threat to native species and ecosystems. The Red Eared Slider is a highly adaptable species that can survive in a wide range of habitats and has the ability to outcompete native species for resources.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the correct statement is statement 2: It is considered as one of the worst invasive non-native species. The Red Eared Slider is not native to the Indian subcontinent and has been introduced to many parts of the world, including India, where it poses a threat to native species and ecosystems.

With reference to the Aquarius constellation, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in the fourth quadrant of the northern hemisphere.
  2. It lies in the region of the sky which is sometimes referred to as the Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aquarius Constellation

Statement 1: It is located in the fourth quadrant of the northern hemisphere.
This statement is incorrect. The Aquarius constellation is located in the southern hemisphere, specifically in the fourth quadrant of the southern hemisphere. This can be easily verified by looking at star charts or using astronomy apps.

Statement 2: It lies in the region of the sky which is sometimes referred to as the Sea.
This statement is correct. The Aquarius constellation is sometimes referred to as the "water bearer" and is associated with the sea. In Greek mythology, Aquarius is often depicted as a water carrier pouring water from a jar. The constellation is also located near other water-related constellations such as Pisces and Cetus.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 2 Only.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme.
  2. Under this scheme a maternity benefit of Rs.50000 is given to a woman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshu Bose answered
The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a maternity benefit scheme launched by the Government of India in 2017. The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to pregnant and lactating mothers for their first live birth.

Under the scheme, eligible beneficiaries receive a cash incentive of Rs. 5,000 in three installments - the first installment of Rs. 1,000 is given at the time of registration of pregnancy, the second installment of Rs. 2,000 is given after the pregnancy is registered and the first antenatal check-up is done, and the third installment of Rs. 2,000 is given after the child is born and has received the first cycle of immunization.

The scheme is implemented through the Ministry of Women and Child Development and is available for all pregnant and lactating women except those who are in regular employment with the Central or State Government or PSUs or those who are receiving similar benefits under any other scheme.

The PMMVY aims to provide financial support to pregnant and lactating mothers, especially those from the economically weaker sections, to ensure that they receive adequate nutrition and care during pregnancy and early childhood. The scheme is a step towards achieving the goal of reducing maternal and infant mortality rates in India.

With reference to the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM), consider the following statements:
  1. The mission aims to improve the condition of the urban poor by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development.
  2. It is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option C: Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) is a government scheme aimed at improving the conditions of the urban poor by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development. It is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

Let's examine each statement in detail:

1. The mission aims to improve the condition of the urban poor by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development.
This statement is correct. The primary objective of the DAY-NULM is to reduce poverty and vulnerability of the urban poor households by enabling them to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. The mission focuses on providing skill training, organizing self-help groups, facilitating access to credit, and promoting market linkages for the urban poor. By enhancing their skills and providing them with sustainable livelihood opportunities, the mission aims to uplift the living standards of the urban poor.

2. It is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
This statement is also correct. The DAY-NULM is implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, which is responsible for the formulation and implementation of policies and programs related to urban development and urban poverty alleviation. The ministry provides the necessary guidance and support to state governments, urban local bodies, and other stakeholders in implementing the mission effectively.

Therefore, both statements are correct. The DAY-NULM aims to improve the condition of the urban poor through skill development and is being implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

With reference to the large Grain Storage Plan initiative of India, consider the following statements:
  1. It will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Cooperation in at least 10 selected districts on a pilot basis.
  2. It aims to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure at the level of primary agricultural credit societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Yadav answered
Large Grain Storage Plan Initiative of India

Introduction:
The Large Grain Storage Plan initiative of India is a pilot project that aims to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure at the level of primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) in the country. The project will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Cooperation in at least 10 selected districts on a pilot basis.

Statements:
1. It will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Cooperation in at least 10 selected districts on a pilot basis.
This statement is correct. The Large Grain Storage Plan initiative of India will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Cooperation in at least 10 selected districts on a pilot basis. The project is aimed at providing storage infrastructure to the primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) in these districts.

2. It aims to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure at the level of primary agricultural credit societies.
This statement is also correct. The Large Grain Storage Plan initiative of India aims to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure at the level of primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) in the country. The project will help these societies to store their produce safely and securely, thus reducing the risk of losses due to spoilage or damage.

Conclusion:
Both the statements given in the question are correct. The Large Grain Storage Plan initiative of India is a much-needed project that will help address the storage infrastructure shortage at the level of primary agricultural credit societies. By providing safe and secure storage facilities, the project will help reduce the risk of losses due to spoilage or damage, thus benefiting the farmers and the agricultural sector as a whole.

With reference to the State Development Loan, consider the following statements:
  1. These are dated securities issued by states to meet their budgetary needs.
  2. These securities carry less interest rate as compared to the other Central Government securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaishnavi Das answered
**Statement 1: These are dated securities issued by states to meet their budgetary needs.**
Yes, this statement is correct. State Development Loans (SDLs) are securities issued by state governments in India to meet their budgetary requirements. SDLs are a form of market borrowing by states and are similar to the Central Government securities (G-Secs) issued by the central government.

State governments often need funds to finance their development projects, infrastructure investments, or to meet their day-to-day expenditure. To raise funds, they issue SDLs in the market. These securities have a specific maturity period and carry a fixed interest rate. They are typically issued in the form of bonds or debentures.

**Statement 2: These securities carry less interest rate as compared to the other Central Government securities.**
No, this statement is incorrect. State Development Loans generally carry a higher interest rate compared to Central Government securities. This is because SDLs are considered to be riskier investments as the creditworthiness of state governments may vary. The interest rate on SDLs is determined by market forces and factors such as the fiscal health of the state, its ability to repay the loan, and the demand and supply dynamics in the market.

On the other hand, Central Government securities are considered to be safer investments as they are backed by the creditworthiness of the central government. Therefore, they carry lower interest rates compared to SDLs. The interest rate on Central Government securities is benchmarked to the yield on government bonds and is influenced by factors such as inflation, fiscal deficit, and monetary policy decisions.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. SDLs are dated securities issued by states to meet their budgetary needs, but they generally carry higher interest rates compared to Central Government securities.

With reference to Language Friendship Bridge Project, consider the following statements:
  1. Under this project  all tribal dialects will be translated into the Hindi language
  2. It is an initiative of the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'B' - Statement 2 only.

Explanation:
The Language Friendship Bridge Project is an initiative of the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR). This project aims to connect different Indian tribal communities through the translation and preservation of their dialects. However, the project does not specifically mention that all tribal dialects will be translated into the Hindi language. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India. It aims to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries. The Language Friendship Bridge Project is one of the initiatives taken by the ICCR to promote linguistic diversity and preserve the cultural heritage of tribal communities in India.

The project focuses on translating and documenting the dialects of various tribal communities, with the aim of preserving their unique linguistic traditions. It seeks to bridge the gap between these communities and the rest of the country, enabling a better understanding and appreciation of their culture and heritage.

Through the Language Friendship Bridge Project, the ICCR collaborates with linguistic experts, scholars, and community members to collect and record the dialects of tribal communities. These dialects are then translated and documented, allowing for wider dissemination and accessibility. The project also provides opportunities for cultural exchange and interaction between tribal communities and the broader Indian society.

In conclusion, the Language Friendship Bridge Project is an initiative of the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR), aimed at preserving and promoting the linguistic diversity of Indian tribal communities. However, it does not specifically mention the translation of all tribal dialects into the Hindi language. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Gift Tax, consider the following statements:
  1. Under the Income Tax Act gifts whose value exceeds Rs.5, 00,000 are subject to gift tax.
  2. The Gifts received during weddings are not exempted from gift tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruv Yadav answered
Explanation:

Gift Tax was introduced in India in 1958 and was abolished in 1998. Currently, there is no gift tax in India. Therefore, both the statements given in the question are incorrect.

However, it is important to note that any gift received by an individual, whether in cash or kind, exceeding Rs. 50,000 in a financial year is taxable under the Income Tax Act, 1961. This is applicable to all individuals, irrespective of whether they are related or not.

Wedding gifts are also subject to taxation if their value exceeds Rs. 50,000. However, gifts received on the occasion of marriage are exempted from tax if they are received from relatives or friends.

In conclusion, while the Gift Tax has been abolished in India, it is important to be aware of the tax implications of receiving gifts under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

With reference to the Advance authorisation scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It allows the duty-free import of inputs for manufacturing.
  2. The products under this scheme are not allowed to sell in the domestic market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Chavan answered
Advance Authorisation Scheme

The Advance Authorisation Scheme is an export promotion scheme launched by the government of India. It allows duty-free import of inputs required for manufacturing of export products. The scheme is aimed at encouraging exports by enabling manufacturers to import raw materials and other inputs without paying any duty.

Statement 1: It allows the duty-free import of inputs for manufacturing.

The first statement is correct. Under the Advance Authorisation Scheme, manufacturers can import inputs required for manufacturing of export products without paying any duty. The scheme allows duty-free import of raw materials, components, consumables, spares, and packing materials. This helps manufacturers to reduce their costs and improve their competitiveness in the global market.

Statement 2: The products under this scheme are not allowed to sell in the domestic market.

The second statement is also correct. The products manufactured using inputs imported under this scheme are meant for export only. They are not allowed to be sold in the domestic market. This condition is imposed to ensure that the benefits of the scheme are passed on to the export sector and not diverted to the domestic market.

Conclusion

In conclusion, both statements given in the question are correct. The Advance Authorisation Scheme allows duty-free import of inputs required for manufacturing of export products, and the products manufactured using these inputs are meant for export only. This scheme has been instrumental in promoting exports from India and has helped manufacturers to reduce their costs and improve their competitiveness in the global market.

With reference to the Yangtze finless porpoise, consider the following statements:
  1. It is naturally found in France.
  2. It is listed as a Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement Analysis:

The given statements are related to the Yangtze finless porpoise, and we have to identify the correct statement(s) from them.

1. It is naturally found in France.
2. It is listed as a Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red List.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 'B,' i.e., 2 only.

Explanation:

Yangtze finless porpoise is a freshwater mammal found only in the Yangtze River in China. Hence, the statement 1 is incorrect.

The Yangtze finless porpoise is listed as a Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red List. It is estimated that there are less than 1000 individuals remaining in the wild, and the population is declining due to various threats like habitat loss, pollution, and overfishing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:

From the above explanation, we can conclude that the Yangtze finless porpoise is not naturally found in France, and it is listed as a Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red List.

With reference to the Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE.
  2. This programme consists of the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation and green skilling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shail Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'C' i.e. Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme is a Central Sector sub-scheme that is being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE (Livelihood, Inclusion, and Financial Empowerment). This programme aims to disseminate environmental information, facilitate informed policy formulation, and promote green skilling.

Let's understand each statement in detail:

1. It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE.
This statement is correct. The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme is a sub-scheme implemented by the Central government. It is aligned with Mission LiFE, which focuses on livelihood generation and financial inclusion of vulnerable and marginalized communities. The programme aims to enhance the capacity of individuals and communities to address environmental challenges while also improving their livelihood opportunities.

2. This programme consists of the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation, and green skilling.
This statement is also correct. The Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme has multiple components. One of its key objectives is to disseminate environmental information among various stakeholders, including communities, organizations, and policymakers. This helps in creating awareness about environmental issues and promoting sustainable practices. The programme also focuses on informed policy formulation, where stakeholders are provided with the necessary information and knowledge to contribute to policy discussions and decision-making processes. Additionally, the programme aims to promote green skilling, which involves providing training and capacity building opportunities for individuals to acquire skills and knowledge related to environmental conservation, sustainable development, and green technologies.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option 'C' i.e. Both 1 and 2.

With reference to the auroras, consider the following statements:
  1. It is formed when charged particles from the sun’s corona interact with the earth's ionosphere.
  2. It is formed only in the Northern Hemisphere of the earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Sengupta answered
Collide with atoms in the Earth's atmosphere.
The most common colors of auroras are green and pink.
The auroras occur predominantly near the Earth's equator.
Geomagnetic storms can intensify the auroras.
Which of the statements are true?
1. It is formed when charged particles from the sun collide with atoms in the Earth's atmosphere.
2. The most common colors of auroras are green and pink.
3. The auroras occur predominantly near the Earth's equator.
4. Geomagnetic storms can intensify the auroras.

Statements 1 and 4 are true.

With reference to Blackbuck, consider the following statements:
  1. It lives mainly in open grasslands or dry deciduous forests of peninsular India.
  2. It is listed as endangered species on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilotpal Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'A', i.e., only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1: It lives mainly in open grasslands or dry deciduous forests of peninsular India.
This statement is correct. The Blackbuck (Antilope cervicapra) is a species of antelope found mainly in open grasslands and dry deciduous forests of peninsular India. It prefers areas with low shrubs and thorny vegetation, which provide cover and food.

Statement 2: It is listed as an endangered species on the IUCN Red List.
This statement is incorrect. The Blackbuck is not classified as an endangered species but is listed as a species of "Least Concern" on the IUCN Red List. The "Least Concern" category means that the species is not currently facing a high risk of extinction in the wild.

The Blackbuck is a unique and iconic species in India, known for its beautiful spiral horns and distinct black and white coat. It is one of the fastest terrestrial animals, capable of reaching speeds of up to 80 km/h (50 mph). Historically, the Blackbuck population faced threats such as hunting, habitat loss, and fragmentation. However, conservation efforts and strict wildlife protection laws have helped stabilize their population in recent years.

Blackbucks are primarily found in the Indian subcontinent, particularly in peninsular India. They inhabit open grasslands, plains, and dry deciduous forests, where they feed on grasses, leaves, and fruits. They are social animals and live in herds, with males and females often segregating into different groups. During the breeding season, males engage in fierce territorial battles to establish dominance and access to females.

In conclusion, the correct statement is that the Blackbuck lives mainly in open grasslands or dry deciduous forests of peninsular India. It is not listed as an endangered species but is categorized as "Least Concern" on the IUCN Red List.

With reference to the Raman spectroscopy, consider the following statements:
  1. In this spectroscopy polychromatic radiations are used to study the properties of the molecules.
  2. It is used to study the vibrational, rotational, and low-frequency modes of the molecules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Dey answered
Raman Spectroscopy

Raman spectroscopy is a technique used in chemistry to study the vibrational, rotational, and low-frequency modes of molecules. In this technique, monochromatic radiation is used to study the properties of the molecules.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1: In this spectroscopy, polychromatic radiations are used to study the properties of the molecules.

This statement is incorrect. In Raman spectroscopy, monochromatic radiation is used, not polychromatic radiation.

Statement 2: It is used to study the vibrational, rotational, and low-frequency modes of the molecules.

This statement is correct. Raman spectroscopy is primarily used to study the vibrational modes of molecules. It can also be used to study rotational and low-frequency modes.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 2 only.

With reference to the World Meteorological Organisation, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
  2. India is not a member of this organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Datta answered
Explanation:

The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN) responsible for promoting international cooperation in atmospheric science, climatology, hydrology, and related fields. It was established in 1950 and currently has 193 member countries, including India.

Therefore, the first statement is correct as WMO is a specialised agency of the United Nations. The second statement is incorrect as India is a member of the organisation.

Hence, the correct answer is option A - 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Taiwan Strait:
  1. It separates the island of Taiwan and continental Asia.
  2. It extends between the South and East China Seas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Desai answered
Taiwan Strait

The Taiwan Strait is a narrow body of water that separates the island of Taiwan from continental Asia. It is one of the busiest and most heavily patrolled waterways in the world.

Statement 1: It separates the island of Taiwan and continental Asia.

This statement is correct. The Taiwan Strait is an approximately 180 km wide strait that separates Taiwan from the Chinese mainland.

Statement 2: It extends between the South and East China Seas.

This statement is also correct. The Taiwan Strait connects the South China Sea in the south to the East China Sea in the north.

Conclusion

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Taiwan Strait plays a crucial role in the political and economic relations between China and Taiwan, as well as between China and other countries in the region. It is also important for global trade, as it is a major shipping route for goods traveling between China, Japan, and other countries in Southeast Asia.

With reference to the Khelo India Youth Games-2022, consider the following statements:
  1. Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.
  2. For the first time water sports namely Kayaking Canoeing, Canoe Slalom and Fencing will be part of this edition of Khelo India Games.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Diya Deshpande answered
Khelo India Youth Games-2022

Introduction:
The Khelo India Youth Games is an initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to promote sports at the grassroots level and identify and nurture young sporting talent in the country.

Statement Analysis:
1. Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.
This statement is correct. Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games. The event is scheduled to be held in the month of February 2022.

2. For the first time water sports namely Kayaking Canoeing, Canoe Slalom and Fencing will be part of this edition of Khelo India Games.
This statement is also correct. For the first time, water sports namely Kayaking, Canoeing, Canoe Slalom, and Fencing will be part of the Khelo India Games. The inclusion of these sports is expected to provide a platform for young athletes to showcase their skills and gain exposure at the national level.

Conclusion:
Both the statements given in the question are correct. Madhya Pradesh is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games and for the first time, water sports namely Kayaking, Canoeing, Canoe Slalom, and Fencing will be part of the Khelo India Games.

With reference to the American foulbrood disease, consider the following statements:
  1. It is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae.
  2. It is largely infecting bovine animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
Explanation:

American foulbrood disease is a serious disease affecting honeybees. Let us consider the given statements one by one to understand why option A is the correct answer.

Statement 1: It is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae.

This statement is correct. American foulbrood disease is caused by the bacterium Paenibacillus larvae, which is a spore-forming bacterium. The spores of this bacterium are highly resistant and can survive for a long time in the environment, making it very difficult to control the disease.

Statement 2: It is largely infecting bovine animals.

This statement is incorrect. American foulbrood disease is a disease that affects honeybees and not bovine animals. It is caused by the bacterium Paenibacillus larvae, which infects the larvae of honeybees, causing them to die before they can develop into adult bees.

Conclusion:

From the above explanation, it is clear that statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Consider the following statements regarding the International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC):
  1. It is one of the oldest organizations established during the 1800s that promotes the trade union movement.
  2. It is headquartered in Belgium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Saumya Iyer answered
International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC)

Statement 1: It is one of the oldest organizations established during the 1800s that promotes the trade union movement.

- The statement is not entirely correct. ITUC is not one of the oldest organizations promoting the trade union movement. It was established in 2006 after the merger of two international trade union organizations - International Confederation of Free Trade Unions (ICFTU) and World Confederation of Labour (WCL).
- However, both ICFTU and WCL were established during the 1800s. ICFTU was founded in 1949, while WCL was established in 1920. Therefore, it can be said that the roots of ITUC can be traced back to the 1800s, but the organization itself was formed much later.

Statement 2: It is headquartered in Belgium.

- This statement is correct. ITUC is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. It is located in the heart of the European Union and works closely with the EU institutions.

Conclusion

- The correct answer is option B - Statement 2 only.

With reference to Uranium, consider the following statements:
  1. It has the highest atomic weight of all naturally occurring elements.
  2. India imports all its uranium requirements as it does not have uranium deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Uranium: Facts and Statements

Statement 1: It has the highest atomic weight of all naturally occurring elements.

- This statement is correct.
- Uranium is a naturally occurring element with the symbol U and atomic number 92.
- It is a heavy metal that is slightly radioactive and has a silvery-white color.
- It is the heaviest naturally occurring element and has an atomic weight of 238.03.

Statement 2: India imports all its uranium requirements as it does not have uranium deposits.

- This statement is incorrect.
- India has significant uranium deposits in various parts of the country, including Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Rajasthan.
- India's uranium reserves are estimated to be around 142,000 tonnes, and the country has been working to increase its domestic production of uranium to reduce its dependence on imports.
- India is one of the largest consumers of uranium in the world, and it imports uranium from countries like Kazakhstan, Canada, and Australia to meet its nuclear energy requirements.

Conclusion

- The correct answer is option A, i.e., only statement 1 is correct.
- Uranium is the heaviest naturally occurring element, but India has significant uranium deposits and does not import all its uranium requirements.

With reference to the Copernicus programme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an Earth observation programme of the Indian Space Research Organisation.
  2. It provides accurate and timely accessible information to improve the management of the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Singh answered
Copernicus Programme and its objectives:

The Copernicus Programme is a European Union Earth observation programme aimed at providing accurate and timely accessible information to improve the management of the environment, understand and mitigate the effects of climate change, and ensure civil security. It is not an Earth observation programme of the Indian Space Research Organisation as mentioned in statement 1.

The programme is named after the famous astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus, who was the first to propose the heliocentric model of the solar system. The programme was formerly known as the Global Monitoring for Environment and Security (GMES) programme, but was renamed in 2012 as the Copernicus Programme.

Components of the Copernicus Programme:

The Copernicus Programme consists of several components, including:

1. Sentinel Satellites: The Sentinel satellites are a series of Earth observation satellites that provide data on a range of environmental parameters, including land use, oceanography, and atmospheric composition. There are currently six Sentinel satellites in orbit, with more planned for the future.

2. Copernicus Services: The Copernicus Services provide users with access to a range of environmental data and information, including air quality, climate, emergency management, and land monitoring. These services are available free of charge to users across Europe and around the world.

3. Contributing Missions: In addition to the Sentinel satellites, the Copernicus Programme also makes use of data from a range of other Earth observation missions, both from Europe and from international partners.

Objective of Copernicus Programme:

The main objective of the Copernicus Programme is to provide accurate and timely environmental information to support policy-making, improve the management of the environment, and ensure civil security. The programme is also intended to promote innovation and economic growth by providing businesses and entrepreneurs with access to environmental data and information.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as the Copernicus Programme is not an Earth observation programme of the Indian Space Research Organisation. Statement 2 is correct as providing accurate and timely accessible information to improve the management of the environment is one of the main objectives of the Copernicus Programme. Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which is 2 only.

With reference to the National Internet Exchange of India, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a not-for-profit organization established under the Companies Act.
  2. It has developed NIXI-IP-INDEX which showcases the Internet Protocol (IPv6) adoption rate in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Rane answered
**Statement 1: It is a not-for-profit organization established under the Companies Act.**
The first statement is correct. The National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is indeed a not-for-profit organization that was established under the Companies Act, 1956. NIXI was set up with the objective of facilitating the exchange of Internet traffic and promoting the development of Internet Protocol (IP) services in India.

**Statement 2: It has developed NIXI-IP-INDEX which showcases the Internet Protocol (IPv6) adoption rate in India.**
The second statement is also correct. NIXI has developed the NIXI-IP-INDEX, which is a platform that showcases the adoption rate of Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) in India. IPv6 is the latest version of the Internet Protocol, which provides a larger address space and improved functionality compared to its predecessor, IPv4. As the global pool of IPv4 addresses is nearing exhaustion, the adoption of IPv6 is crucial for the continued growth of the Internet.

NIXI-IP-INDEX provides data and statistics related to the IPv6 adoption rate in India. It tracks the number of IPv6 addresses allocated to Indian entities, the number of Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs) using IPv6, and other relevant metrics. This information is essential for monitoring the progress of IPv6 deployment in the country and promoting its further adoption.

By showcasing the IPv6 adoption rate, NIXI-IP-INDEX helps raise awareness among Internet service providers, government agencies, and other stakeholders about the need to transition to IPv6. It also helps in identifying areas where more efforts are required to accelerate the adoption of IPv6 in India.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The National Internet Exchange of India is a not-for-profit organization established under the Companies Act, and it has developed the NIXI-IP-INDEX to showcase the IPv6 adoption rate in India.

With reference to the Financial Services Institution Bureau, consider the following statements:
  1. It is set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFI).
  2. It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors of state-run financial services institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahil Verma answered
Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) - Functions and Purpose

The Financial Services Institution Bureau (FSIB) is a specialized body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS) to make recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors of state-run financial services institutions.

Statement 1: It is set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFI).

This statement is correct. The FSIB is a specialized body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), which is a part of the Ministry of Finance. The DFS is responsible for overseeing the functioning of various financial services institutions in India, including banks, insurance companies, and pension funds.

Statement 2: It is entrusted with making recommendations for the appointment of full-time directors of state-run financial services institutions.

This statement is also correct. The FSIB is responsible for identifying and recommending suitable candidates for the post of full-time directors of state-run financial services institutions, such as banks, insurance companies, and pension funds. The FSIB plays a crucial role in ensuring that these institutions are led by competent and experienced professionals who can effectively manage their operations and ensure their growth and stability.

Therefore, both the statements given in the question are correct, and the correct answer is option C, i.e., both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
  1. Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
  2. Only Government Departments and PSUs can participate as buyers in TReDS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Charvi Yadav answered
Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) Platform: Correct Statement

Introduction:
Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) is an online electronic institutional mechanism. It facilitates the financing of trade receivables of micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) from corporate buyers through multiple financiers.

Statement Analysis:
1. Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
- This statement is correct. The TReDS platform is primarily designed to provide MSMEs with quick and easy access to finance. Therefore, only MSMEs are eligible to register as sellers on the platform.
2. Only Government Departments and PSUs can participate as buyers in TReDS.
- This statement is incorrect. While Government Departments and PSUs are encouraged to participate in TReDS, they are not the only eligible buyers on the platform. Any corporate entity registered in India as a buyer can participate in TReDS to support MSMEs.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only. TReDS is an essential initiative for the financial inclusion of MSMEs in India. It helps MSMEs to receive prompt payment and access to working capital, which is crucial for their growth and success.

Consider the following statements regarding Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA):
  1. It is a specialized force which has been raised for guerilla/jungle warfare type operations for dealing with Maoist.
  2. Personnel for CoBRA are selected from the Indian Army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Ahuja answered
CoBRA: Commando Battalion for Resolute Action

Statement 1: It is a specialized force which has been raised for guerilla/jungle warfare type operations for dealing with Maoist.
- CoBRA is a specialized unit of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) that was raised in 2009 to combat Naxalites/Maoists in India.
- The force is trained in guerrilla warfare and jungle warfare tactics to operate in difficult terrain and conditions.
- CoBRA units are primarily deployed in areas affected by left-wing extremism, such as Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and Maharashtra.

Statement 2: Personnel for CoBRA are selected from the Indian Army.
- This statement is incorrect. Personnel for CoBRA are selected from the CRPF and undergo specialized training before joining the unit.
- The selection process for CoBRA is rigorous and includes physical fitness tests, medical examinations, and psychological evaluations.
- Once selected, personnel undergo a six-month training program that includes specialized courses in counter-insurgency operations, jungle warfare, and weaponry.

Conclusion:
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the answer is option A.

With reference to the Foot rot disease, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a bacterial disease which affects only the Basamati variety of paddy in India.
  2. The infected saplings turn pale yellow and grow way taller than normal plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Foot Rot Disease in Paddy

Introduction:
Foot rot disease is a common bacterial disease that affects paddy plants. It is caused by the bacterium Fusarium moniliforme.

Statement Analysis:
1. It is a bacterial disease which affects only the Basamati variety of paddy in India.
This statement is incorrect. Foot rot disease can affect various paddy varieties, not just Basamati. It is a widespread disease that affects paddy crops in many countries.

2. The infected saplings turn pale yellow and grow way taller than normal plants.
This statement is partially correct. Foot rot disease causes the affected plants to turn pale yellow and grow taller than healthy plants. However, it affects mature plants, not saplings.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct. Foot rot disease is a bacterial disease that affects mature paddy plants, causing them to turn pale yellow and grow taller than healthy plants. It can affect various paddy varieties, not just Basamati.

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