All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the PM Vishwakarma scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
  2. It aims at improving the quality as well as the reach of products and services of artisans.
  3. It will provide Credit Support upto Rs.1 crore per artisan.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Only 2
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister of India approved PM Vishwakarma scheme.
  • It is a Central Sector Scheme with a financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore.
  • Time period: Five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28).
  • Aim:
  • To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools.
  • The scheme also aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
  • Under this scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit Support upto Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%. 
  • The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Incentive for Digital Transactions and Marketing Support.
  • Under the scheme, there will be two types of skilling programmes -- Basic and Advanced and a stipend of Rs 500 per day will also be provided to beneficiaries while undergoing skills training.
Hence only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Graphene:
  1. It is the least conductive material of both electricity and heat.
  2. It is the thinnest and strongest material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Khanna answered
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) Secretary launched the ‘Graphene-Aurora program’ at a function in Maker Village Kochi, Kerala.
  • Graphene is a material that is extracted from graphite and is made up of pure carbon.
  • It is one of the most important elements in nature which we find in daily objects like the lead of a pencil.
  • It is the world’s thinnest, strongest, and most conductive material of both electricity and heat.
  • It conducts electricity better than copper.
  • It is 200 times stronger than steel but six times lighter.
  • It is almost perfectly transparent as it absorbs only 2% of light.
  • It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen and helium.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme:
  1. It has been established to promote self-reliance in semiconductor manufacturingas a part of the 'Make in India' initiative.
  2. It is a programme of the Ministry of Science and Technology executed by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
Minister of State in the Defence Ministry recently said the Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme has so far supported 41 MSMEs and 20 startups.
About Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme:
  • TDF Scheme has been established to promote self-reliance in defence technology as a part of the 'Make in India' initiative.
  • It is a programme of MoD (Ministry of Defence) executed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) meeting the requirements of Tri-Services, Defence Production and DRDO. 
  • The scheme encourages participation of public/private industries especially MSMEs to create an eco-system for enhancing cutting edge technology capability for defence application. 
  • It supports indigenous development of components, products, systems and technologies by MSMEs and start-ups.
  • Eligibility:
  • MSMEs and Startups registered in India.
  • Public limited companyprivate limited company,partnership firms, limited liability partnership, one-person company, sole proprietorship registered as per applicable Indian laws.
  • The industry has to be owned and controlled by an Indian citizen.
  • Industries with foreign investments of 49% or less.
  • Funding Support:
    • The funding will be through provision of grants to the Industry.
    • The project cost of up to INR 10 Cr will be considered for funding, subject to a maximum of 90% of the total project cost.
    • Industry may work in collaboration with academia or research institutions.
    • The work involvement of academia cannot exceed 40% of the total project cost.
    • The funding will be linked to mutually agreed milestones.
    • Funds will be released either in advance against a bank guarantee of the same amount as collateral, or reimbursement based on the completion of milestones.
    • Subsequent installments will be released on successful completion of milestones.
  • Project Duration:Maximum development period will be two years.
Hence both statements are not correct.

With reference to the ‘PM-eBus Sewa’ Scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
  2. States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators.
  3. Entire funding for the scheme will be provided by the Central Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Onlyv2
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dr Manju Sen answered
The union cabinet recently approved ‘PM-eBus Sewa’ scheme for augmenting city bus operations.
About ‘PM-eBus Sewa’ Scheme:
  • Under PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country.
  • Support for Operation:
  • Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
  • This scheme will support bus operations for 10 years.
  • States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators.
  • The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidy to the extent specified in the proposed scheme.
  • Funding:
  • It has been allocated a total funding of Rs 57,613 crore.
  • Out of this financial provision, the central government will contribute Rs 20,000 crore, while the remaining portion will be covered by the state governments.
  • Coverage: The scheme will cover cities with 3 lakhs and above population and priority will be given to cities not having organised bus services.
  • There are two segmentsof the scheme: Augmenting the city bus services and Green Urban Mobility initiatives.
  • Augmenting the city bus services:
  • Under this, the e-buses will operate under the PPP model and the government will help develop associated infrastructure to provide support for development/upgradation of depot infrastructure
  • It will also help cities create behind-the-meter power infrastructure for the e-buses.
  • Green Urban Mobility initiatives:
  • Bus rapid transport projects would be developedalong with non-motorised infrastructure like bike sharing, bicycle lanes.
  • Innovative projects like National Common Mobility Card, Intelligent TransitManagement System, Multimodal Interchange facilities would also be developed.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

With reference to the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is administered by a statutory body called the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC).
  2. It applies only to factories and establishments employing 50 or more persons.
  3. It is a self-financing scheme where the employees and the employers make regular monthly contributions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only 2
  • b)
    Only 1
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Monika Singh answered
Statement 1: This statement is correct. The ESI scheme is administered by a statutory body called the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC). Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. As per the ESI Act, the scheme applies to factories and establishments employing 10 or more persons. 
Statement 3: This statement is correct. The ESI scheme is a self-financing scheme where the employees and the employers make regular monthly contributions. The contributions are made at a certain fixed percentage of the wages paid to the employee. The state government also contributes a certain share to the ESI fund.



Consider the following statements regarding SAMUDR App:
  1. It empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters.
  2. It is available in all Indian regional languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
Recently, Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) launched a new mobile application called SAMUDRA for seafarers and fishing community.
  • Smart Access to Marine Users for Ocean Data Resources and Advisories (SAMUDRA) application offers comprehensive information on all ocean related services.
  • It is a cutting-edge tool helping users to navigate the marine domain with confidence on their safety, and profitable fishing operations.
  • It embodies the institute vision and mission in serving the nation with ocean data, information, and advisory services.
  • It will catalyse sustainable ocean activities, thus enabling a way forward for the Blue Economy,
  • It empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters such as tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, and swell surge alerts, for the individuals and communities to stay informed and take necessary precautions towards the protection of lives and property.
  • It will be especially beneficial to the fishing community as it disseminates Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) advisories which will guide them to the probable fish aggregation locations.
  • It is currently serving in English, soon eight coastal languages are proposed to be included soon. 
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT):
  1. It was established to provide an efficient and specialized forum for addressing matters related to company law, insolvency, and competition law.
  2. The members of NCLAT are appointed by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) recently granted three weeks’ time to the RBI to file its response to a plea by Adisri Commercial, the erstwhile promoter company of two insolvent Srei firms. 
About National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT):
  • It was constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 for hearing appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal(s) (NCLT), with effect from 1st June 2016.
  • The NCLAT was established to provide an efficient and specialized forum for addressing matters related to company law, insolvency, and competition law.
  • Objectives:
  • Hear appeals against the orders passed by NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
  • Hear appeals against the orders passed by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC.
  • To hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
  • It is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appealsagainst the orders of the National Financial Reporting Authority.
  • HQ: New Delhi. 
  • Composition:
  • It is composed of a chairperson and judicial and technical members.
  • These members are appointed by the Central Government based on their expertise and experience in relevant fields such as law, finance, accountancy, management, and administration.
  • Disposing of cases:
  • On the receipt of an appeal from an aggrieved person, the Appellate Tribunal would pass such orders, after giving an opportunity of being heard, as it considers fit, confirming, changing or setting aside the order that is appealed against.
  • The Appellate Tribunal is required to dispose the appeal within a period of six months from the date of the receipt of the appeal.
Hence both statements are correct.

Pong Dam, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
  • a)
    Punjab
  • b)
    Uttarakhand
  • c)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • d)
    Assam
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sushil Kumar answered
Several villages within the Beas River catchment area in Punjab have been submerged following the release of a substantial amount of water from the Pong Dam.
About Pong Dam:
  • The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is an earth-fill embankment dam on the Beas River in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
  • The purpose of the dam is water storage for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. 
  • The constructionof the dam began in the year 1961 and was completed in 1974 and at that time was known as the tallest of its type in the country.
  • The raised water level thus invariably created an artificial lake called the Maharana Pratap Sagar, after the great ruler of Mewar. The lake became a renowned bird sanctuary for birds of numerous species including Bar-headed Goose and the Red-necked Grebe.
  • Features:
  • The Pong Dam is a 133 m talland 1,951 m longearth-fill embankment dam with a gravel shell. 
  • The dam is 13.72 m wide at its crest, which sits at an elevation of about 435.86 m above sea level.
  • The base of the Pong Dam is about 610 m wide and has a total volume of 35,500,000 metre cube. 
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System:
  1. It is an online platform available to the citizens to lodge their grievances.
  2. The status of the grievances can be tracked with the unique registration ID.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Kumar answered
Recently, the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) released the Centralized Public Grievance Redressal and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) 12th monthly report for States for July, 2023.
  • Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.
  • It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States.
  • Every Ministry and States has role-based access to this system.
  • CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through standalone mobile application downloadable through Google Play store and mobile application integrated with UMANG.
  • The status of the grievance filed in CPGRAMS can be tracked with the unique registration ID provided at the time of registration of the complainant.
  • CPGRAMS also provides an appeal facility to the citizens if they are not satisfied with the resolution by the Grievance Officer.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:
  1. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recorded a conviction rate of 67.56% in 2021, compared to 69.83% in 2020, according to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) annual report.
  2. The CBI registered 680 regular cases and 67 preliminary enquiries last year, while it had registered 589 regular cases and 87 preliminary enquiries in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saranya Roy answered
Statement 1: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recorded a conviction rate of 67.56% in 2021, compared to 69.83% in 2020, according to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) annual report.

Statement 2: The CBI registered 680 regular cases and 67 preliminary enquiries last year, while it had registered 589 regular cases and 87 preliminary enquiries in 2020.

Let's analyze each statement separately:

Statement 1: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recorded a conviction rate of 67.56% in 2021, compared to 69.83% in 2020, according to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) annual report.

The statement states that the CBI recorded a conviction rate of 67.56% in 2021, which is lower than the conviction rate of 69.83% in 2020. This information is based on the Central Vigilance Commission's annual report.

Statement 2: The CBI registered 680 regular cases and 67 preliminary enquiries last year, while it had registered 589 regular cases and 87 preliminary enquiries in 2020.

The statement provides data on the number of regular cases and preliminary enquiries registered by the CBI in the given years. According to the statement, in the year mentioned, the CBI registered 680 regular cases and 67 preliminary enquiries in 2021, while in 2020, it registered 589 regular cases and 87 preliminary enquiries.

Analysis:

Now, let's analyze both statements together:

Statement 1 states the conviction rate of the CBI, while Statement 2 provides information about the number of cases registered by the CBI. These statements are independent of each other and provide different aspects of the CBI's performance.

According to the data provided in Statement 1, the conviction rate of the CBI decreased from 69.83% in 2020 to 67.56% in 2021. This suggests that there has been a decline in the CBI's success rate in securing convictions.

On the other hand, Statement 2 provides information about the number of cases registered by the CBI. It states that in 2021, the CBI registered 680 regular cases and 67 preliminary enquiries, while in 2020, it registered 589 regular cases and 87 preliminary enquiries. This indicates an increase in the number of cases registered by the CBI in 2021 compared to the previous year.

Conclusion:

Based on the analysis of both statements, we can conclude that both statements are correct:

- The conviction rate of the CBI decreased from 69.83% in 2020 to 67.56% in 2021, according to the Central Vigilance Commission's annual report.
- The CBI registered more regular cases and fewer preliminary enquiries in 2021 compared to 2020.

Therefore, option (c) "Both 1 and 2" is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool:
  1. It is developed by the Zoological Survey of India.
  2. It helps in enabling appropriate agroforestry and also aids in systematic ecosystem restoration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Pillai answered
Statement 1: The Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool is developed by the Zoological Survey of India.

Statement 2: The D4R tool helps in enabling appropriate agroforestry and also aids in systematic ecosystem restoration.

The correct answer is Option B, i.e., Statement 2 only.

Explanation:

The Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool is not developed by the Zoological Survey of India. It is actually developed by the World Agroforestry Centre (ICRAF) in collaboration with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the Biodiversity International.

The D4R tool is a web-based decision-support tool that helps in identifying and selecting appropriate tree species for restoration purposes. It assists in the planning and implementation of ecosystem restoration projects by providing information on tree species diversity and their potential for restoration.

The tool combines various data sources, including species occurrence data, ecological traits, and socio-economic information. It uses advanced algorithms and modeling techniques to analyze and prioritize tree species based on their suitability for specific restoration objectives and site conditions.

The main objective of the D4R tool is to enhance the diversity and resilience of restored ecosystems by promoting the use of a wide range of tree species. It recognizes the importance of incorporating ecosystem services, biodiversity conservation, and socio-economic factors into restoration planning.

The D4R tool can be used for a variety of restoration purposes, including agroforestry systems. Agroforestry combines agricultural crops with trees, providing multiple benefits such as soil conservation, increased crop productivity, and improved livelihoods. The tool can assist in selecting tree species that are compatible with different agroforestry systems and contribute to their sustainability.

In summary, the correct statement is that the D4R tool helps in enabling appropriate agroforestry and also aids in systematic ecosystem restoration. However, it is not developed by the Zoological Survey of India, but by the World Agroforestry Centre in collaboration with the IUCN and Biodiversity International.

Consider the following statements regarding Emperor Penguin:
  1. It is the world's largest penguin species.
  2. It is found only in the Arctic region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'A': 1 only.

Explanation:
1. It is the world's largest penguin species:
Emperor penguins (Aptenodytes forsteri) are indeed the largest species of penguins. They can grow up to about 1.2 meters (4 feet) tall and weigh around 22 to 45 kilograms (49 to 99 pounds). These penguins are known for their impressive size and stature, making them the largest of all penguin species. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

2. It is found only in the Arctic region:
This statement is incorrect. Emperor penguins are not found in the Arctic region, but rather in the Antarctic region. They primarily inhabit the continent of Antarctica and its surrounding coastal areas, including the pack ice of the Southern Ocean. The Arctic region, on the other hand, is located around the North Pole and is home to different species of penguins, such as the Adelie penguins. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Emperor penguins are the largest penguin species but are found in the Antarctic region, not the Arctic region.

Exercise BRIGHT STAR is conducted between which of the following countries?
  • a)
    United Kingdom and France
  • b)
    USA and Australia
  • c)
    China and Russia
  • d)
    India and Egypt
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Joshi answered
Exercise BRIGHT STAR is conducted between which of the following countries?

The correct answer is option 'D' - India and Egypt.

Explanation:

Exercise BRIGHT STAR:
Exercise BRIGHT STAR is a multinational military exercise conducted between various countries. It is aimed at enhancing military cooperation, interoperability, and mutual understanding between participating nations. The exercise focuses on conducting joint military training and exercises in order to improve coordination and preparedness in the face of various security challenges.

Participating Countries:
Exercise BRIGHT STAR is conducted between the following countries:

1. India:
- India is one of the participating countries in Exercise BRIGHT STAR.
- The Indian armed forces actively participate in multinational military exercises to enhance their operational capabilities and foster greater cooperation with other nations.
- Through such exercises, India aims to strengthen its military ties and build strategic partnerships with countries across the world.

2. Egypt:
- Egypt is another participating country in Exercise BRIGHT STAR.
- The Egyptian armed forces also participate in multinational military exercises to enhance their capabilities and promote international cooperation.
- Egypt has a long history of participating in joint military exercises with various countries to improve its combat readiness and strengthen its defense capabilities.

Benefits of Exercise BRIGHT STAR:
Exercise BRIGHT STAR offers several benefits to the participating countries, including:

1. Enhanced Cooperation:
- The exercise promotes mutual understanding and cooperation between participating nations.
- It provides an opportunity for military personnel from different countries to interact, share experiences, and learn from each other.

2. Interoperability:
- Exercise BRIGHT STAR helps improve interoperability between the armed forces of different countries.
- It enables the development of common operational procedures and tactics, which can be crucial during joint military operations.

3. Preparedness:
- The exercise enhances the preparedness of participating countries in addressing various security challenges.
- Through joint training and exercises, military personnel can refine their skills, test their capabilities, and identify areas for improvement.

4. Diplomatic Relations:
- Exercise BRIGHT STAR also has a positive impact on diplomatic relations between participating countries.
- By working together in a military setting, countries can strengthen their overall bilateral relations and trust.

In conclusion, Exercise BRIGHT STAR is conducted between India and Egypt. This multinational military exercise aims to enhance cooperation, interoperability, and preparedness among the participating nations.

Sahyadriophis uttaraghati, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    gecko
  • b)
    snake
  • c)
    invasive plant
  • d)
    medicinal plant
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
A team of researchers recently identified a new genus and species of colubrid snakes named ‘Sahyadriophis uttaraghati’ within the biodiverse Western Ghats.
About Sahyadriophis uttaraghati:
  • The new genus has been named Sahyadriophis, a combination of the Sanskrit word for the Western Ghats ‘Sahyadri’ and the Greek word for snakes ‘Ophis’.
  • The new species, located in the northern part of the Western Ghats, is called Sahyadriophis uttaraghati or Northern Sahyadri keelback. 
  • Features:
  • These snakes are mostly active during monsoons and are often found near streams.
  • Their diet primarily consists of frogs and their eggs. 
  • These snakes are gentle in nature and rarely bite when handled.
  • The juveniles bear a big blotch or a collar mark on the napewhich distempers as the animal grows. 
  • It can be differentiated from its southern counterpart—Sahyadriophis beddomei (Beddome’s Sahyadri keelback)—by a longer tail and higher number of scales on the tail's underside, known as subcaudals.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the debt-for-nature swap:
  1. Under this agreement, financial institutions will pay off heavily indebted countries debt if they agree to spend on conservation of natural resources.
  2. The first such agreement involved Bolivia’s debt exchange for conservation of the Amazon Basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered
And the United States in 1987.
Debt-for-nature swaps are a form of foreign aid that helps developing countries address environmental and conservation challenges.
Debt-for-nature swaps can help protect endangered species, preserve forests, and promote sustainable development.
Debt-for-nature swaps have been successful in reducing the overall debt burden of participating countries.
Debt-for-nature swaps can also have social and economic benefits for participating countries, such as job creation and increased tourism revenue.

Consider the following statements regarding National Supercomputing Mission:
  1. It was launched in 2015 to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups.
  2. Currently, India does not have any operational supercomputer listed in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option A - 1 only.

Statement 1: National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) was launched in 2015 to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups.

This statement is correct. The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) was launched in 2015 by the Government of India with the aim of providing high-performance computing facilities to various sectors such as academia, research institutions, Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), and startups. The mission aims to establish a network of supercomputers across the country and promote research and innovation in areas like weather forecasting, drug discovery, space exploration, etc. The NSM is a joint initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Statement 2: Currently, India does not have any operational supercomputer listed in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List.

This statement is incorrect. As of the latest update, India does have operational supercomputers listed in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List. As of November 2021, the Pratyush supercomputer, located at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune, is ranked among the top 500 supercomputers globally. It has a peak performance of 4.0 petaflops and is used for weather and climate research.

In addition to Pratyush, India also has several other high-performance computing facilities established under the National Supercomputing Mission, such as PARAM Shivay at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) BHU, PARAM Yuva II at the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) Pune, and Mihir at the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), among others.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Force Majeure:
  1. It refers to an extraordinary event rendering the legal obligations impossible to fulfill.
  2. It is used in commercial agreements as a precautionary measure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Force Majeure refers to an extraordinary event rendering the legal obligations impossible to fulfill. It is used in commercial agreements as a precautionary measure. Both of these statements are correct.

Explanation:

Force Majeure is a legal concept that is commonly included in contracts and agreements. It is a clause that allows parties to excuse or delay performance of their contractual obligations in the event of unforeseen circumstances or events that are beyond their control. These events are often referred to as "acts of God" or "force majeure events."

The first statement correctly defines Force Majeure as an extraordinary event that renders the legal obligations impossible to fulfill. This means that if a party is unable to perform their obligations under the contract due to a force majeure event, they would be excused from liability for non-performance.

Force Majeure events can include natural disasters such as earthquakes, floods, or hurricanes, acts of war or terrorism, government actions or regulations, labor strikes, epidemics or pandemics, and other unforeseen events that make it impossible for the parties to fulfill their obligations.

The second statement is also correct in stating that Force Majeure is used in commercial agreements as a precautionary measure. Including a Force Majeure clause in a contract allows parties to anticipate and plan for unforeseen events that may affect their ability to fulfill their obligations. It provides a level of protection and flexibility for both parties in the event that a force majeure event occurs.

By including a Force Majeure clause in a contract, parties can establish the criteria for what constitutes a force majeure event, the rights and obligations of the parties in the event of such an event, and the procedures for invoking the clause.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. Force Majeure refers to an extraordinary event that renders legal obligations impossible to fulfill, and it is commonly used in commercial agreements as a precautionary measure to provide protection and flexibility in the event of unforeseen circumstances.

Consider the following statements regarding Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV):
  1. Its severe infection leads to pneumonia and bronchiolitis.
  2. It is not contagious and does not spread from person to person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Kumar answered
Statement 1: Its severe infection leads to pneumonia and bronchiolitis.
The first statement is correct. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is a common respiratory virus that infects the lungs and breathing passages. In most healthy individuals, RSV causes mild, cold-like symptoms. However, in severe cases, particularly in infants, young children, older adults, and individuals with weakened immune systems, RSV infection can lead to more serious respiratory illnesses such as pneumonia and bronchiolitis.

Pneumonia is an infection that causes inflammation in the air sacs of the lungs. It can lead to symptoms such as cough, fever, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, is an infection that causes inflammation in the small airways of the lungs, known as bronchioles. It leads to symptoms such as cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.

Severe RSV infection can be particularly dangerous for infants and young children, especially those born prematurely or with underlying health conditions. It can cause more severe respiratory symptoms and may require hospitalization.

Statement 2: It is not contagious and does not spread from person to person.
The second statement is incorrect. RSV is highly contagious and spreads easily from person to person. It is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The virus can also spread by touching contaminated surfaces and then touching the face, mouth, or nose.

RSV is most commonly seen during the fall, winter, and early spring months. It is a major cause of respiratory illness in young children and can lead to outbreaks in childcare settings, schools, and households.

To prevent the spread of RSV, it is important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently with soap and water, covering the mouth and nose while coughing or sneezing, and avoiding close contact with individuals who are sick with respiratory infections.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option A, as the first statement is correct while the second statement is incorrect. RSV can cause severe respiratory infections such as pneumonia and bronchiolitis, and it is highly contagious, spreading easily from person to person.

Consider the following statements regarding the GREAT scheme:
  1. It gives impetus for the development of the technical textile startup ecosystem in India.
  2. Under it, the Union Ministry of Textiles will provide the entire funding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
Recently, the Union Ministry of Textiles released the guidelines of the GREAT scheme.
  • Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) Scheme focuses on supporting individuals and companies to translate prototypes to technologies & products, including commercialization.
  • Aim: To provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and speciality fibres, and smart textiles.
  • Funding:
  • Under this scheme grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be provided.
  • The textile ministry will additionally provide 10 per cent of total grant-in-aid to incubators.
  • Only a minimum of 10 per cent contribution has to be made by the incubatee.
  • All of this is being done by incubators like IITs, NITs, Textiles Research Associations, and Centres of Excellence.
  • The textiles ministry has also given a nod to 26 institutes for upgrading their laboratory infrastructure and training of trainers in the application areas of technical textiles.
  • The scheme will be commensurate with the National Technical Textiles Mission.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Pilibhit Tiger Reserve, lies in which state?
  • a)
    Uttarakhand
  • b)
    Assam
  • c)
    Bihar
  • d)
    Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
The authorities of Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) have implemented immediate measures to enhance field patrolling in the core forest regions of the reserve, following a 'red alert' issued by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) recently.
About Pilibhit Tiger Reserve:
  • Location:
  • It is located in Pilibhit District, Lakhimpur Kheri District and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It lies along the India-Nepal border in the foothills of the Himalayas and the plains of the ‘terai’ in Uttar Pradesh.
  • It was declared a Tiger Reserve in September 2008.
  • Drainage: The river Gomti originates from the reserve, which is also the catchment of several others like Sharda, Chuka and Mala Khannot.
  • The Sharda Sagar Dam extending up to a length of 22 km (14 mi) is on the boundary of the reserve. 
  • Habitat: It is characterized by sal foreststall grasslands and swamps, maintained by periodic flooding from rivers.
  • VegetationNorth Indian moist deciduous type.
  • Flora:
  • The sal woodland is very dense with good natural regeneration, amounting to almost 76% of the reserve area.
  • The forest patches are interspersed with grass meadows with several species like Sacchrum, Sclerostachya, Imperata, Themeda, Bothriochloa, Vetiveria, Apluda, Dichanthium, Digitaria and Cyperus.
  • Fauna: It is home to a myriad of wild animals including the endangered tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, hog deer, leopard, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Crop Residue Management guidelines:
  1. The Centre and state governments will provide financial support for projects approved for residue management.
  2. The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged by the beneficiary such as farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
Recently, The Government has revised the Crop Residue Management guidelines enabling efficient ex-situ management of paddy straw generated in the States of Punjab, Haryana, UP and Delhi.
About Crop Residue Management guidelines:
  • As per the revised guidelines, techno-commercial pilot projects for Paddy Straw Supply Chain will be established under the bilateral agreement between the Beneficiary/Aggregator and Industries utilizing the paddy straw.
  • The beneficiary or aggregator can be Farmers, rural entrepreneurs, Cooperative Societies of Farmers, Farmers Producer Organizations (FPOs) and Panchayats.
  • The govt. shall provide financial assistance on the capital cost of machinery and equipment.
  • Project proposal-based financial assistance will be extended for machines and equipment such as higher HP tractors, cutters, tedder, medium to large balers, rakers, loaders, grabbers and tele-handlers.
  • State Governments shall approve these projects through project sanctioning committee.
  • Funding pattern:
  • The Centre and state governments will jointly provide financial support of 65 per cent of the project cost, while the industry as primary promoter of the project will contribute 25 per cent.
  • The remaining 10% will be contributed by beneficiary or aggregator.
  • The land for storage of the collected paddy straw will be arranged and prepared by the beneficiary as may be guided by the end use industry.
The Outcomes of the above interventions are:
  • Supplementing in-situ options: The initiative will complement the ongoing efforts for paddy straw management through in-situ methods.
  • Reduction in stubble burning: It is estimated that during the three-year duration of the interventions, approximately 1.5 million MT of surplus paddy straw will be collected, which would have otherwise been burnt in the fields.
  • Creation of biomass collection depots: Around 333 biomass collection depots with a capacity of 4,500 MT will be established in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Reduced air pollution: The project will significantly contribute to reducing air pollution caused by stubble burning, leading to cleaner and healthier environments.
  • Job creation: The interventions are expected to generate employment opportunities for approximately 900,000 man-days.
  • Encouraging a robust supply chain: The establishment of a paddy straw supply chain will facilitate its availability for various end-uses such as power generation, heat generation, bio-CNG, etc., by power/bio-CNG/bio-ethanol producers.
  • Stimulating investments: The development of a supply chain will attract new investments in the biomass-to-biofuel and energy sectors.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Lion-tailed macaque:
  1. It is a primate endemic to the rainforests of the Himalayan region.
  2. Males of this species define the boundaries of their home ranges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Lion-tailed macaque is a primate endemic to the rainforests of the Himalayan region.

The statement is incorrect.

The Lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is actually endemic to the Western Ghats of South India, not the Himalayan region. This species is primarily found in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The Western Ghats is a mountain range along the western coast of India, and it is recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot due to its high species diversity and endemism.

The Lion-tailed macaque is known for its distinctive appearance, with a tuft of hair on its head that resembles a lion's mane, hence its name. It has a black fur and a silver-white mane, which makes it one of the most visually striking primates.

Statement 2: Males of this species define the boundaries of their home ranges.

The statement is correct.

In Lion-tailed macaque societies, males are primarily responsible for defining and defending the boundaries of their home ranges. They use vocalizations, gestures, and physical displays to communicate and establish dominance over other males in their group. The boundaries of their home ranges are important for resource access, mating opportunities, and overall group cohesion.

Male Lion-tailed macaques are territorial and can be aggressive towards other males that enter their territory. They engage in territorial displays such as lunging, chasing, and vocalizing to enforce their dominance and maintain their boundaries. This behavior helps to reduce competition for resources and ensures reproductive success.

However, it is important to note that Lion-tailed macaque groups are typically small and consist of a dominant male, several females, and their offspring. The dominant male's role in defining home range boundaries is primarily to protect and secure the resources needed for the survival of the group.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option B: 2 only. The Lion-tailed macaque is not endemic to the Himalayan region but is endemic to the Western Ghats of South India. Males of this species define the boundaries of their home ranges.

Consider the following statements regarding Acoustic Side Channel Attack:
  1. It is a technique where the sounds produced by typing on a keyboard to determine what keys are being pressed.
  2. It is used by the hackers to get the sensitive information like passwords and personal messages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
A research paper titled “A Practical Deep Learning-Based Acoustic Side Channel Attack on Keyboards”, revealed that Artificial Intelligence (AI) can be used to decode passwords by analysing the sound produced by keystrokes.
  • This technique uses the sounds produced by typing on a keyboard to determine what keys are being pressed.
  • By analysing these unique sounds, hackers equipped with the right tools can decode the precise letters and numbers being typed.
  • Researchers investigated the use of audio recordings taken from Zoom video conferencing calls, smartphone microphones, and off-the-shelf equipment and algorithms to launch ASCA attacks.
  • The study found that when trained on keystrokes by a nearby phone, the classifier achieved an accuracy of 95%, the highest accuracy seen without the use of a language model.
  • Accuracy
    • When a deep learning model was trained on the data with default values, the model was able to acquire a meaningful interpretation of the data.
    • On a MacBook Pro, which features a keyboard identical in switch design to Apple’s models from the last two years, the model was able to achieve state-of-the-art accuracy with minimal training data.
    • Additionally, when the AI model was made to recognise keystrokes using audio captured through a smartphone microphone, it was able to achieve 95% accuracy.
  •  Implications 
  • This form of hacking could expose sensitive information like passwords and personal messages.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Western Tragopan:
  1. It is endemic to the northwest Himalayan region.
  2. It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Western Tragopan, also known as the Western Horned Tragopan, is a bird species that is found in the northwest Himalayan region. It is known for its vibrant plumage and distinctive horn-like projections on its head. Let us analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Statement 1: It is endemic to the northwest Himalayan region.
Statement 2: It is categorized as an endangered species under the IUCN Red List.

Analyzing Statement 1:
The term "endemic" refers to a species that is found exclusively in a particular geographic area and is not naturally found anywhere else in the world. In the case of the Western Tragopan, it is indeed endemic to the northwest Himalayan region. This region includes parts of India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Analyzing Statement 2:
The IUCN Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of species worldwide. It categorizes species into various categories based on their risk of extinction. The categories range from "Least Concern" to "Extinct." The Western Tragopan, due to various threats including habitat loss and hunting, is categorized as an endangered species on the IUCN Red List. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The Western Tragopan is indeed endemic to the northwest Himalayan region, and it is categorized as an endangered species under the IUCN Red List. This bird species is of conservation concern due to its restricted range and declining population. Efforts are being made to protect its habitat and raise awareness about its conservation needs.

Yelagiri hut shelters, which was recently seen in the news are located in which of the following state?
  • a)
    Tamil Nadu
  • b)
    Haryana
  • c)
    Rajasthan
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Das answered
Yelagiri hut shelters, which were recently seen in the news, are located in the state of Tamil Nadu.

Yelagiri Hut Shelters:
- Yelagiri is a hill station located in the Vellore district of Tamil Nadu, India.
- It is a popular tourist destination known for its pleasant climate and scenic beauty.
- Yelagiri Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats and are situated at an altitude of around 1,410 meters (4,626 feet) above sea level.
- The hills are covered with lush green forests, valleys, and beautiful waterfalls, making it an ideal getaway for nature lovers and adventure enthusiasts.

Yelagiri Hut Shelters in the News:
- Yelagiri hut shelters recently made headlines as the Tamil Nadu Forest Department opened these shelters for tourists.
- The hut shelters are located near the Punganoor Lake in Yelagiri and provide accommodation for visitors.
- These shelters are designed to blend with the natural surroundings and offer a unique experience to the tourists.
- The hut shelters are made of eco-friendly materials and provide basic amenities for a comfortable stay.
- Tourists can enjoy the serene environment, indulge in various outdoor activities, and explore the nearby attractions while staying in these hut shelters.

Importance of Yelagiri Hut Shelters:
- The opening of Yelagiri hut shelters is part of the government's efforts to promote eco-tourism in the region.
- It provides an opportunity for tourists to experience the beauty of nature while minimizing the impact on the environment.
- The hut shelters also generate employment opportunities for the local community and contribute to the overall development of the region.
- By providing affordable and sustainable accommodation options, the hut shelters attract more tourists to Yelagiri, boosting the tourism industry and the local economy.

Conclusion:
Yelagiri hut shelters, located in Tamil Nadu, offer a unique and sustainable accommodation option for tourists visiting the beautiful hill station. These eco-friendly shelters not only provide a comfortable stay but also contribute to the promotion of eco-tourism and the overall development of the region.

Exercise Zayed Talwar, a naval exercise which was recently seen in the news, is conducted between:
  • a)
    India and Japan
  • b)
    India and Russia
  • c)
    India and France
  • d)
    India and United Arab Emirates
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Indian Navy and United Arab Emirates to conduct bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar from 8th to 11 August 2023.
  • Two ships of the Indian Navy, INS Visakhapatnam, and INS Trikand are participating in the exercise.
  • During the visit, the ships will undertake professional interactions with UAE Naval Force on multiple elements of maritime operations.
  • They will further share best practices to enhance cooperation and strengthen ties between the two navies.
  • This exercise will boost the maritime partnership between the two navies and foster a common understanding of the security challenges in the region.
Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
  1. The bank cannot use this amount for lending and investment purposes and does not get any interest from the RBI.
  2. In a high-inflation environment, RBI can decrease CRR to prevent banks from lending more.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently asked Indian banks to set aside a larger share of incremental deposits under the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
About Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
  • Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the share of a bank’s total deposit that is mandated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to be maintained with the latter as reserves in the form of liquid cash.
  • The bank cannot use this amount for lending and investment purposes and does not get any interest from the RBI.
  • CRR applies to scheduled commercial banks, while the regional rural banks and NBFCs are excluded.
  • Key objectives of the Cash Reserve Ratio:
  • CRR helps control inflation. In a high-inflation environment, RBI can increase CRR to prevent banks from lending more.
  • CRR also ensures banks have a minimum amount of funds readily available to customers even during huge demand.
  • CRR serves as the reference rate for loans. Also known as the base rate for loans, the banks cannot offer loans below this rate.
  • Since CRR regulates the money supply, it boosts the economy whenever required by lowering the CRR.
  • How is CRR Calculated?
  • CRR is calculated as a percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL).
  • This percentage is fixed by the RBI and is changed from time to time by the central bank itself.
  • NDTL for banking refers to the aggregate savings account, current account and fixed deposit balances held by a bank. 
  • Currently, the CRR is fixed at 4.50%. This means that for every Rs 100 worth of deposits, the bank has to keep Rs 4.5 with the RBI.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Parker Solar Probe:
  1. It is a NASA spacecraft designed to study the Sun and its atmosphere.
  2. It is currently orbiting the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit that takes it closer to the Sun than any previous spacecraft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aarya Dey answered
Statement 1: It is a NASA spacecraft designed to study the Sun and its atmosphere.
Statement 2: It is currently orbiting the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit that takes it closer to the Sun than any previous spacecraft.

The correct answer is Option C: Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Parker Solar Probe is indeed a NASA spacecraft designed to study the Sun and its atmosphere. It was launched on August 12, 2018, with the primary objective of providing unprecedented insights into the Sun's corona, solar wind, and other related phenomena.

The spacecraft is named after Eugene Parker, a physicist who made significant contributions to our understanding of the solar wind and proposed the concept of the solar wind in 1958. The Parker Solar Probe is the first NASA mission named after a living person.

Highly Elliptical Orbit:
The second statement is also correct. The Parker Solar Probe is currently orbiting the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit that takes it closer to the Sun than any previous spacecraft. The purpose of this unique orbit is to enable the spacecraft to study the Sun's corona and other phenomena up close.

The spacecraft uses multiple gravity assists from Venus to gradually decrease its orbital perihelion (closest approach to the Sun) over the course of several years. This allows the Parker Solar Probe to gradually get closer to the Sun with each orbit.

At its closest approach, the spacecraft will reach within 3.83 million miles (6.16 million kilometers) of the Sun's surface, which is about 4% of the distance between the Earth and the Sun. This is significantly closer than any previous spacecraft has been able to get, allowing for unprecedented observations and measurements.

Scientific Instruments:
To accomplish its mission, the Parker Solar Probe is equipped with a suite of scientific instruments. These instruments are designed to measure the Sun's electric and magnetic fields, capture images of the solar wind and corona, and sample particles and plasma in the Sun's atmosphere.

The data collected by the spacecraft will provide valuable insights into the processes that drive space weather, such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections, which can have significant impacts on Earth's technological infrastructure.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Parker Solar Probe is a NASA spacecraft designed to study the Sun and its atmosphere. It is currently in a highly elliptical orbit around the Sun, allowing it to get closer to the Sun than any previous spacecraft. The mission aims to provide unprecedented insights into the Sun's corona and other related phenomena, which will enhance our understanding of space weather and its impacts on Earth.

Consider the following statements regarding Lymphatic Filariasis:
  1. It is a neglected tropical disease caused by a virus.
  2. It impairs the lymphatic system and can lead to the abnormal enlargement of body parts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Union Health & Family Welfare Minister recently said India is committed to eradicating Lymphatic Filariasis by 2027, surpassing the global target by three years.
About Lymphatic Filariasis:
  • Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is a neglected tropical disease.
  • Infection occurs when filarial parasites are transmitted to humans through mosquitoes. This impairs the lymphatic system and can lead to the abnormal enlargement of body parts, causing pain, severe disability and social stigma. 
  • Cause: It s caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filariodidea. There are 3 types of these thread-like filarial worms:
  • Wuchereria bancrofti, which is responsible for 90% of the cases.
  • Brugia malayi, which causes most of the remainder of the cases.
  • Brugia timori, which also causes the disease.
  • Adult worms nest in the lymphatic vessels and disrupt the normal function of the lymphatic system. The worms can live for approximately 6–8 years and, during their lifetime, produce millions of microfilariae (immature larvae) that circulate in the blood.
  • TransmissionMosquitoes are infected with microfilariae by ingesting blood when biting an infected host. Microfilariae mature into infective larvae within the mosquitoWhen infected mosquitoes bite peoplemature parasite larvae are deposited on the skin, from where they can enter the body. 
  • Symptoms: About two in every three people who have lymphatic filariasis don’t have severe symptoms. But filariasis usually leads to a weakened immune systemSome people may experience:
  • Inflammation: An overactivated immune system.
  • Lymphedema: Fluid buildup in your lymphatic system.
  • Hydrocele: Swelling and fluid buildup in the scrotum.
  • Edema: Swelling and fluid buildup in your arms, legs, breasts and female genitals (vulva).
  • Treatment:
  • Elimination of lymphatic filariasis is possible by stopping the spread of the infection through preventive chemotherapy.
  • The WHO-recommended preventive chemotherapy strategy for lymphatic filariasis elimination is mass drug administration (MDA).
  • MDA involves administering an annual dose of medicines to the entire at-risk population.
  • The medicines used have a limited effect on adult parasites but effectively reduce the density of microfilariae in the bloodstream and prevent the spread of parasites to mosquitoes.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Worldcoin project:
  1. It is an initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake and join the digital economy.
  2. It was launched by the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prateek Shah answered
Overview:
The Worldcoin project is an initiative aimed at creating a digital network that allows individuals to claim a stake and participate in the digital economy. However, it is important to note that the project was not launched by the United Nations. Only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1: It is an initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake and join the digital economy.
The Worldcoin project aims to create a digital network that provides an opportunity for individuals to claim a stake and participate in the digital economy. The project envisions a decentralized network where individuals can have equal access and participation, thereby promoting inclusivity and empowerment in the digital realm. This statement is correct.

Statement 2: It was launched by the United Nations.
Contrary to statement 2, the Worldcoin project was not launched by the United Nations. It is an independent initiative that is being developed by a team of entrepreneurs and technologists. While the project may align with certain goals and principles of the United Nations, it is not an official UN project. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, as the Worldcoin project aims to create a digital network where individuals can claim a stake and participate in the digital economy. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as the project was not launched by the United Nations.

Maya Operating System (OS) was recently adopted by which one of the following Central Ministries?
  • a)
    Ministry of Science and Technology
  • b)
    Ministry of Defence
  • c)
    Ministry of Finance
  • d)
    Ministry of External Affairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
The Defence Ministry recently decided to drop the Microsoft operating system and go for a local one named Maya operating system
About Maya OS:
  • It is a new Operation System (OS) based on an open-source platform.
  • It has the interface and all functionality like Windows and users will not feel much difference as they transition to it.
  • Maya was developed by government development agencies within six months.
  • Aim: To prevent malware attacks and other cyberattacks which had seen a steep increase.
  • Currently, Maya is being installed only in Defence Ministry systems and not on computers connected to the networks of the three Services.
What is an Operating System (OS)?
  • An OS is a software program that acts as an intermediary between computer hardware and the computer user.
  • It provides a user-friendly interface and manages the hardware and software resources of a computer system.
  • In essence, an operating system enables a user to interact with a computer and run applications efficiently.
  • An OS, after being initially loaded into the computer by a boot program, manages all of the other application programs in a computer.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

With reference to the Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a scheme under World Trade organization which is available to developing nations.
  2. The provisions of this scheme were decided in Bali Ministerial Meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Kumar answered
The correct answer is option 'D', neither 1 nor 2. Let's understand why:

1. The statement "It is a scheme under World Trade Organization (WTO) which is available to developing nations" is incorrect. The Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme is not a scheme under the WTO, but rather a commitment made by developed countries to provide duty-free and quota-free access to products originating from least developed countries (LDCs). It is a unilateral trade preference offered by developed countries to support the economic development of LDCs.

2. The statement "The provisions of this scheme were decided in the Bali Ministerial Meeting" is also incorrect. The DFQF scheme was not specifically decided in the Bali Ministerial Meeting. The Bali Ministerial Meeting, held in December 2013, did result in the adoption of the Bali Package, which included various decisions related to trade facilitation, agriculture, and development issues. However, the DFQF scheme is not part of the Bali Package.

The DFQF scheme has its origins in various international agreements and commitments, such as the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) framework. The GSP framework enables developed countries to grant preferential trade treatment to developing countries, including tariff reductions or exemptions. The DFQF scheme builds upon the GSP framework by specifically providing duty-free and quota-free access to products originating from LDCs, without any conditions or limitations.

In conclusion, neither of the statements given in the question is correct. The DFQF scheme is not a scheme under the WTO, and its provisions were not decided in the Bali Ministerial Meeting. It is a unilateral trade preference offered by developed countries to support the economic development of LDCs.

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Barrier Reef:
  1. It is the longest and largest coral reef system in the world and a designated UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  2. It lies in the Pacific Ocean off the northeastern coast of Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Basak answered
The correct answer is option 'C' which states that both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
The Great Barrier Reef is indeed the longest and largest coral reef system in the world. It stretches over 2,300 kilometers (1,430 miles) and covers an area of approximately 344,400 square kilometers (133,000 square miles). It is known for its stunning biodiversity and is home to a wide variety of marine species. Due to its ecological significance, it has been designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The Great Barrier Reef is located in the Pacific Ocean, specifically off the northeastern coast of Australia. It runs parallel to the coast of Queensland and includes hundreds of individual reefs and islands. The closest major city to the Great Barrier Reef is Cairns, which serves as a popular gateway for tourists to explore the reef.

Thus, both statements are correct. The Great Barrier Reef is the longest and largest coral reef system in the world and it lies in the Pacific Ocean off the northeastern coast of Australia.

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA):
  1. It is an international development agency which supports the execution of programmes in the area of population.
  2. It is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics related to population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Roshni Sarkar answered
Statement 1: United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) is an international development agency which supports the execution of programmes in the area of population.

Statement 2: UNFPA is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics related to population.

The correct answer is option C, i.e., Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) is an international development agency that works towards improving sexual and reproductive health, promoting gender equality, and empowering women and young people. It focuses on issues related to population dynamics, including population growth, family planning, and maternal and child health.

Statement 1: UNFPA is an international development agency which supports the execution of programmes in the area of population.
This statement is correct. UNFPA works in partnership with governments, civil society organizations, and other United Nations agencies to implement programs and interventions aimed at addressing population-related challenges. These programs focus on areas such as family planning, reproductive health, maternal health, adolescent sexual and reproductive health, gender equality, and population data and research.

Statement 2: UNFPA is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics related to population.
This statement is also correct. While UNFPA plays a crucial role in advocating for the importance of reliable and accurate population data, it is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics related to population. Instead, UNFPA collaborates with national statistical offices, research institutions, and other partners to support the collection, analysis, and dissemination of population data. UNFPA provides technical assistance, capacity building, and financial support to strengthen national statistical systems and improve data quality.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. UNFPA is an international development agency that supports programs in the area of population and is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics related to population.

Consider the following statements regarding One District One Product Initiative:
  1. It is an initiative under the Union Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
  2. It aims to turn every district in India into an export hub through promotion of the product in which the district specialises. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upasana Menon answered
And Industry.
The main objective of the initiative is to promote traditional industries and crafts of a district.
Under this initiative, each district of India is identified for a specific product which it can specialize in.
The initiative aims to enhance the skill development and employment opportunities in rural areas.
The One District One Product initiative was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding Murmansk Port:
  1. It is one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia.
  2. It is located on the Kola Peninsula at the coast of Barents Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Pillai answered
Statement 1: It is one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia.
Murmansk Port is indeed one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia. An ice-free port refers to a port that remains accessible and operational throughout the year, even during the winter months when ice covers the surrounding waters. Murmansk Port is located in the extreme northwest of Russia, beyond the Arctic Circle, and it remains ice-free due to the influence of the warm North Atlantic Current, which keeps the waters relatively ice-free even during winter. This allows for year-round maritime transportation and trade activities, making Murmansk Port a crucial hub for Russia's northern region.

Statement 2: It is located on the Kola Peninsula at the coast of Barents Sea.
This statement is also correct. Murmansk Port is situated on the Kola Peninsula, which extends into the Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean. The Kola Peninsula is located in the far northwest of Russia, between the White Sea to the south and the Barents Sea to the north. Murmansk, the largest city on the Kola Peninsula, is home to Murmansk Port, which serves as a major gateway for maritime trade and transportation in the region.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Murmansk Port is indeed one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia, and it is located on the Kola Peninsula at the coast of the Barents Sea.

Consider the following statements, with reference to Havana Syndrome
  1. It refers to a set of mental health symptoms such as hearing certain sounds without any outside noise, nausea, vertigo and headaches, memory loss and balance issues.
  2. It is result of unregulated mining activities in particular region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Havana Syndrome refers to a set of mental health symptoms that are said to be experienced by United States intelligence and embassy officials in various countries.
  •  It does not mean a unique medical condition, but rather a set of symptoms that are usually experienced together whose origins may be difficult to confirm.
  • It typically involves symptoms such as hearing certain sounds without any outside noise, nausea, vertigo and headaches, memory loss and balance issues.
  • What are the causes of Havana Syndrome?
    • No exactly reason for the Havana syndrome is know till now.

Consider the following statements regarding Shaligrams:
  1. These are ancient fossils of ammonites.
  2. Buddhism and the shamanic Himalayan religion venerate the Shaligrams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shaligrams are ancient fossils of ammonites that hold great religious and cultural significance in Buddhism and the shamanic Himalayan religion. Let's examine each statement in detail:

1. These are ancient fossils of ammonites:
Shaligrams are indeed ancient fossils of ammonites. Ammonites were marine mollusks that lived around 400-65 million years ago. Over time, their remains fossilized and turned into unique black stones with intricate patterns. These stones are found in the Gandaki river of Nepal and are considered sacred by Hindus and Buddhists.

2. Buddhism and the shamanic Himalayan religion venerate the Shaligrams:
Both Buddhism and the shamanic Himalayan religion venerate Shaligrams. In Buddhism, Shaligrams are considered sacred and worshipped as a manifestation of the Buddha. They are often used as objects of meditation and devotion. Shaligrams are also associated with the deity Vishnu in Hinduism and are worshipped as representations of Lord Vishnu in his various forms.

The shamanic Himalayan religion, which predates Buddhism and Hinduism, also holds Shaligrams in high regard. The shamanic practitioners, known as Bonpo, consider Shaligrams as powerful spiritual objects and use them in their rituals and ceremonies.

The significance of Shaligrams goes beyond religious practices. They are believed to possess divine energy and bring good fortune, protection, and spiritual awakening to those who possess them. The patterns on the Shaligrams are considered sacred symbols and are interpreted for their spiritual meanings.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. Shaligrams are indeed ancient fossils of ammonites, and they are venerated in both Buddhism and the shamanic Himalayan religion. These sacred stones hold profound cultural and religious significance in the region and are revered for their spiritual energy and symbolism.

Consider the following statements regarding Tharosaurus indicus:
  1. It is a short necked, plant-eating dinosaur.
  2. It is globally known as the oldest diplodocoid species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Mehta answered
Statement 1: It is a short-necked, plant-eating dinosaur.
This statement is incorrect. Tharosaurus indicus is not a short-necked dinosaur, but rather a long-necked dinosaur. It is a diplodocoid, which is a group of dinosaurs known for their long necks and tails. These dinosaurs were herbivores, meaning they were plant-eating dinosaurs.

Statement 2: It is globally known as the oldest diplodocoid species.
This statement is correct. Tharosaurus indicus is indeed considered to be the oldest known diplodocoid species. Diplodocoids are a group of sauropod dinosaurs that were long-necked and long-tailed herbivores. Tharosaurus indicus has been found in the Lower Jurassic Kota Formation of India and is estimated to have lived around 180 million years ago.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect as Tharosaurus indicus is a long-necked dinosaur, not a short-necked one. However, statement 2 is correct as Tharosaurus indicus is known as the oldest diplodocoid species. Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following statements regarding National Social Assistance Programme are correct?
  1. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India.
  2. It aims to provide financial assistance to individuals below the poverty line (BPL) who belong to vulnerable groups, such as the elderly, widows, persons with disabilities, and bereaved families.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Desai answered
The correct answer is option C: both 1 and 2.

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India. It aims to provide financial assistance to individuals below the poverty line (BPL) who belong to vulnerable groups, such as the elderly, widows, persons with disabilities, and bereaved families.

Let's discuss each statement in detail:

1. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India.
The NSAP was indeed launched in 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development, which is a part of the Government of India. The scheme is implemented at both the central and state levels, with the central government providing financial assistance to the states for its implementation. The objective of the scheme is to provide social assistance to the most vulnerable sections of society.

2. It aims to provide financial assistance to individuals below the poverty line (BPL) who belong to vulnerable groups, such as the elderly, widows, persons with disabilities, and bereaved families.
The NSAP specifically targets individuals who are below the poverty line and belong to vulnerable groups. The scheme provides financial assistance to four categories of beneficiaries:

- Old Age Pension: This component of NSAP aims to provide a pension to elderly individuals who are above 60 years of age and below the poverty line.

- Widow Pension: The scheme also provides financial assistance to widows who are below the poverty line and are between the ages of 40 and 59.

- Disability Pension: Persons with disabilities who are below the poverty line and have a disability of 80% or more are eligible for financial assistance under this component of NSAP.

- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS): This component was introduced in 2009 and aims to provide financial assistance to widows in the age group of 40-59 years who are below the poverty line.

These components of NSAP aim to provide a basic level of financial support to vulnerable individuals who are unable to support themselves due to old age, disability, or widowhood.

In conclusion, both statements regarding the National Social Assistance Programme are correct. The scheme was launched in 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, and it aims to provide financial assistance to individuals below the poverty line who belong to vulnerable groups such as the elderly, widows, persons with disabilities, and bereaved families.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Assets Under Management is the total market value of investments a financial institution owns or manages on behalf of its clients.
  2. Book value is the value of a company based on the current stock price and the number of outstanding shares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ayush Desai answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: Assets Under Management is the total market value of investments a financial institution owns or manages on behalf of its clients.
This statement is correct. Assets Under Management (AUM) refers to the total market value of investments that a financial institution, such as a bank, asset management company, or investment firm, owns or manages on behalf of its clients. AUM includes various types of assets such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, real estate, and other investment vehicles. It is an important measure of the size and growth of a financial institution and is often used to gauge its performance and profitability.

Statement 2: Book value is the value of a company based on the current stock price and the number of outstanding shares.
This statement is incorrect. Book value refers to the value of a company's assets minus its liabilities, as reflected on its balance sheet. It is calculated by subtracting the total liabilities from the total assets. Book value is a measure of a company's net worth and represents the value of its equity. It is different from the market value of a company, which is based on the current stock price and the number of outstanding shares. The market value can be higher or lower than the book value, depending on various factors such as market conditions, investor sentiment, and future growth prospects.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only Statement 1 is correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.

Which of the following factors help in the formation of fog over the sea?
  1. Tropical winds passing over cooler waters
  2. Presence of condensation nuclei in the form of Ocean salt
Which of the above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vaishnavi Bose answered
Formation of Fog over the Sea

Fog is a weather phenomenon characterized by the presence of low-lying clouds that reduce visibility near the Earth's surface. It occurs when the air near the surface cools and reaches its dew point, causing water vapor to condense into tiny water droplets or ice crystals. Fog over the sea is commonly known as sea fog and is influenced by specific factors related to the oceanic environment.

Tropical Winds Passing over Cooler Waters

When warm, moist air from tropical regions passes over cooler waters, a significant temperature difference is created between the air and the water surface. This temperature difference can lead to the formation of fog. As the warm air comes into contact with the cooler water, it rapidly cools down, causing the water vapor in the air to condense into fog droplets. This process is known as advection fog.

The presence of cooler waters provides the necessary temperature gradient for the warm air to cool and reach its dew point. The temperature difference between the air and the water surface is critical in determining the extent and persistence of sea fog formation.

Presence of Condensation Nuclei in the Form of Ocean Salt

Condensation nuclei are tiny particles suspended in the air that provide a surface for water vapor to condense onto. In the case of fog formation over the sea, the presence of condensation nuclei in the form of ocean salt is crucial. The salt particles act as nuclei for water vapor to condense around, forming fog droplets.

Ocean salt is present in the form of sea spray, which is generated by breaking waves. When waves crash against the shore or collide with each other, they release tiny water droplets into the air, which contain dissolved salts. These salt particles serve as condensation nuclei, enabling the formation of sea fog.

Conclusion

Both the factors mentioned, i.e., tropical winds passing over cooler waters and the presence of condensation nuclei in the form of ocean salt, contribute to the formation of fog over the sea. The temperature difference created by the interaction of warm air with cooler waters and the availability of condensation nuclei play essential roles in the formation and persistence of sea fog.

Consider the following statements regarding Renaming of states in India.
1. The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislator.
2. Article 3 lays down that a bill to alter the name of any state can be introduced in the Parliament, only with the prior recommendation of the President.
3. After recommending the bill to alter the name of any state to the Parliament, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Das answered
Renaming of states in India is a process that can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislature. The procedure for renaming a state is laid down in Article 3 of the Constitution of India. Let us analyze each statement in detail to understand the correct answer.

1. The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislator.
This statement is correct. The renaming of a state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislature. This means that the process can be started by either the central government or the state government.

2. Article 3 lays down that a bill to alter the name of any state can be introduced in the Parliament, only with the prior recommendation of the President.
This statement is incorrect. Article 3 of the Constitution of India deals with the formation of new states and alteration of existing states. It does not specifically mention the renaming of states. However, the renaming of a state can be done through the same process as altering the boundaries or changing the name of a state. According to Article 3, a bill to alter the name of any state can be introduced in the Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President.

3. After recommending the bill to alter the name of any state to the Parliament, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
This statement is correct. Once a bill to alter the name of a state is introduced in the Parliament, it is referred to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views. The state legislature is given a specified period to provide its opinion on the matter. This ensures that the views of the state government are taken into consideration before any decision is made.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, i.e., statements 1 and 2 are correct. The renaming of a state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State Legislature, and a bill to alter the name of a state can be introduced in the Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President. After recommending the bill, the President has to refer it to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views within a specified period.

M1 Abrams Tank, is the main battle tank of which one of the following countries?
  • a)
    Russia
  • b)
    Germany
  • c)
    USA
  • d)
    France
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saranya Gupta answered
The M1 Abrams Tank is the main battle tank of the United States of America (USA). It is a powerful and heavily armored tank that has been in service with the US Army since 1980.

Key points:
1. Introduction to M1 Abrams Tank: The M1 Abrams Tank is named after General Creighton Abrams, who served as the Army Chief of Staff during the Vietnam War. It is a third-generation main battle tank that was designed to replace the aging M60 Patton tanks.

2. Characteristics and Features: The M1 Abrams Tank is known for its exceptional mobility, firepower, and protection. It has a top speed of 45 miles per hour and a range of 265 miles. The tank is powered by a gas turbine engine, which gives it excellent acceleration and maneuverability. It has a crew of four, including a commander, gunner, loader, and driver.

3. Firepower: The M1 Abrams Tank is equipped with a 120mm smoothbore gun, which can fire a variety of ammunition, including armor-piercing rounds, high-explosive rounds, and anti-tank guided missiles. It also has a .50 caliber machine gun and two 7.62mm machine guns for additional firepower. The tank's advanced fire control system allows for accurate and rapid target engagement.

4. Armor and Protection: The M1 Abrams Tank is heavily armored to provide maximum protection for its crew. It features composite and modular armor, which combines steel, ceramics, and depleted uranium to provide high levels of protection against various threats, including anti-tank missiles and improvised explosive devices. The tank's armor is also designed to deflect and absorb the impact of enemy rounds.

5. Upgrades and Variants: Over the years, the M1 Abrams Tank has undergone several upgrades and variants to improve its capabilities. These upgrades have included enhancements to its armor, firepower, and electronics. The tank has also been adapted for various specialized roles, such as the M1 Assault Breacher Vehicle, which is used for mine-clearing operations.

6. Influence and Global Use: The M1 Abrams Tank has been a significant asset for the US military and has also been exported to several allied nations. It has seen combat in various conflicts, including the Gulf War, the Iraq War, and the War in Afghanistan. The tank's exceptional performance and reliability have made it a highly sought-after weapon system in the international defense market.

In conclusion, the M1 Abrams Tank is the main battle tank of the United States of America. Its advanced features, firepower, and protection make it a formidable asset on the battlefield.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Charge sheet contains the names of the people brought in the custody, the charges they are brought in for and the identity of the accusers.
  2. There is no time limit to file a charge sheet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: Charge sheet contains the names of the people brought in the custody, the charges they are brought in for and the identity of the accusers.
Statement 2: There is no time limit to file a charge sheet.

Explanation:
Statement 1: Charge sheet contains the names of the people brought in the custody, the charges they are brought in for and the identity of the accusers.

A charge sheet is a formal document that is prepared by the investigating agency or the police after completing the investigation of a criminal case. It contains important information related to the case and is submitted to the court. The charge sheet generally includes the following details:

1. Names of the accused: The charge sheet lists the names of the individuals who have been brought into custody as accused in the case. This helps in identifying the people directly involved in the alleged crime.

2. Charges brought against the accused: The charge sheet specifies the charges that have been brought against each accused. It outlines the specific sections of the law under which they are being charged. This helps in understanding the nature and seriousness of the alleged offenses.

3. Identity of the accusers: The charge sheet also includes information about the individuals who have accused the accused persons. This is important for transparency and accountability in the legal process.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: There is no time limit to file a charge sheet.

In general, there is no specific time limit mentioned in the law for filing a charge sheet. However, it is important to note that the charge sheet should be filed within a reasonable time after the completion of the investigation. The concept of a reasonable time may vary depending on the specific circumstances of each case.

In some countries, there are time limits prescribed by law for filing a charge sheet, such as within 90 days or 180 days from the date of arrest. However, these time limits can be extended under certain circumstances, such as when the investigation is complex or when additional evidence needs to be collected.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:
From the above explanation, it can be concluded that statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to National Startup Awards 2023?
  1. It is implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
  2. It rewards outstanding startups and enablers in the ecosystem building innovative products.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Recently, The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) said it has extended the deadline for submission of applications for the National Startup Awards 2023 to June 15, 2023.
About National Startup Awards 2023:
  • The National Startup Awards 2023 awards will focus on celebrating innovation from across the country, in line with Vision India @2047.
  • DPIIT has invited applications across 20 different categories including aerospace, retail and emerging technologies etc.
  • Aim: To reward and recognise outstanding startups and enablers in the ecosystem building innovative products and demonstrating measurable social impact.
    AwardCash prize of Rs 10 lakh to one winning startup in each category.
  • The Winners and finalists will also be given exclusive government support, including investor and government connect, mentorship, international market access, and corporate and unicorn connect.
  • It was launched in 2020.
Hence both statements are correct.

Which one of the following has launched the GOBARdhan Scheme?
  • a)
    Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • b)
    Ministry of Finance
  • c)
    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • d)
    Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kajal Chopra answered
The correct answer is option 'A', Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Ministry of Jal Shakti launched the GOBARdhan (Galvanized Organic Bio-Agro Resources) Scheme in 2018.

The GOBARdhan Scheme is a part of the Swachh Bharat Mission and aims to convert cattle dung and solid waste in farms to compost, biogas, and bio-CNG. The scheme focuses on the management and utilization of cattle dung and other organic waste in rural areas.

Key Features of the GOBARdhan Scheme:

1. Objectives:
- To promote sustainable development in rural areas by converting cattle dung and organic waste into useful products.
- To improve the cleanliness and hygiene in rural areas.
- To provide additional income to farmers by generating biogas and bio-CNG.

2. Implementation:
- The scheme is implemented through the Ministry of Jal Shakti in collaboration with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Ministry of Rural Development, and other relevant departments.
- The scheme is being implemented in a phased manner, with the target of covering all villages in the country.

3. Benefits:
- The scheme provides multiple benefits to farmers and rural communities. It helps in managing cattle dung and other organic waste effectively, reducing the environmental pollution caused by open burning or improper disposal.
- The biogas generated through the scheme can be used for cooking, lighting, and other household purposes, reducing the dependence on traditional fuels and improving the quality of life in rural areas.
- The bio-CNG produced can be used as a clean and renewable fuel for transportation and other applications, contributing to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution.

4. Infrastructure Development:
- Under the scheme, village-level infrastructure such as biogas plants, bio-CNG plants, and compost pits are set up to convert organic waste into useful products.
- Training and capacity-building programs are also conducted to educate farmers and rural communities about the benefits of the scheme and the proper management of organic waste.

In conclusion, the GOBARdhan Scheme, launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, aims to convert cattle dung and organic waste into compost, biogas, and bio-CNG. The scheme promotes sustainable development, improves cleanliness and hygiene in rural areas, and provides additional income to farmers.

Which one of the following countries does not share a land border with Baltic Nations?
  • a)
    Russia
  • b)
    Belarus
  • c)
    Poland
  • d)
    Finland
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Nair answered
Answer:

The country that does not share a land border with the Baltic Nations is Finland (option D).

Explanation:

Baltic Nations:
The Baltic Nations, also known as the Baltic states or Baltic countries, are three countries located in Northern Europe on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea. These countries are Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

Land Borders:
A land border is a boundary between two countries that is formed by land or natural features such as rivers or mountains.

Russia:
- Russia shares a land border with Estonia and Latvia, two of the Baltic Nations. Therefore, Russia is not the correct answer.

Belarus:
- Belarus shares a land border with Latvia and Lithuania, two of the Baltic Nations. Therefore, Belarus is not the correct answer.

Poland:
- Poland shares a land border with Lithuania, one of the Baltic Nations. Therefore, Poland is not the correct answer.

Finland:
- Finland does not share a land border with any of the Baltic Nations. It is located to the north of the Baltic Sea and shares a land border with Russia to the east. Therefore, Finland is the correct answer.

In conclusion, Finland is the country that does not share a land border with the Baltic Nations.

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