All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding the Asia Pacific Forum:
  1. It brings together National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) from the Asia Pacific region.
  2. India is a full-time member of the organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Chopra answered
The correct answer is option 'C'. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:
The Asia Pacific Forum (APF) is a regional human rights organization that brings together National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) from the Asia Pacific region. It aims to promote and protect human rights in the region through cooperation and collaboration among its member institutions.

1. The first statement is correct: The APF brings together NHRIs from the Asia Pacific region. NHRIs are independent bodies established by governments to promote and protect human rights within their respective countries. They play a crucial role in monitoring human rights situations, investigating complaints, and advocating for human rights reforms. The APF provides a platform for NHRIs to exchange information, share best practices, and coordinate efforts to address human rights challenges in the region.

2. The second statement is correct: India is a full-time member of the APF. India's NHRI, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), is actively engaged in the APF's activities and initiatives. The NHRC represents India in the APF and contributes to its work on promoting and protecting human rights in the Asia Pacific region. As a member of the APF, India participates in various meetings, workshops, and training programs organized by the forum to enhance the capacity of NHRIs and improve human rights standards in the region.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Asia Pacific Forum brings together NHRIs from the Asia Pacific region, and India is a full-time member of the organization.

Consider the following statements regarding Magnetogram:
  1. It helps to detect the strength and location of the magnetic fields on the Sun.
  2. Grey areas indicated in it show strong magnetic field and white areas indicate weak magnetic field of the sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It helps to detect the strength and location of the magnetic fields on the Sun.
A magnetogram is a type of image or graph that represents the magnetic field of an object, in this case, the Sun. Magnetograms are commonly used in solar physics to study the properties of the Sun's magnetic field. The strength and location of the magnetic fields on the Sun can be detected and analyzed through magnetograms.

The Sun's magnetic field plays a crucial role in many solar phenomena, such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections. By studying the strength and location of the magnetic fields on the Sun, scientists can gain insights into the processes and dynamics happening on the Sun's surface and in its atmosphere.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: Grey areas indicated in it show strong magnetic field and white areas indicate weak magnetic field of the Sun.
In a magnetogram, the strength of the magnetic field is typically represented by different colors or shades. However, the specific color scheme used may vary depending on the instrument or software used to create the magnetogram.

While it is true that magnetograms often use contrasting colors to represent different strengths of the magnetic field, it is not accurate to say that grey areas indicate a strong magnetic field and white areas indicate a weak magnetic field. The specific color scheme used in a magnetogram can vary, and it is not standardized across all magnetograms.

In some magnetograms, stronger magnetic fields may be represented by darker colors such as black or dark blue, while weaker magnetic fields may be represented by lighter colors such as white or light blue. However, this color scheme is not universally applicable to all magnetograms.

Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. Magnetograms are indeed used to detect the strength and location of the magnetic fields on the Sun, but the color scheme used to represent the magnetic field strength can vary and is not standardized.

Consider the following statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan Award:
  1. It is a biennial award instituted to recognize the lifetime contributions of eminent persons in the field of agriculture.
  2. Only Indian citizens are eligible to be considered for the award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aman Singh answered
Hey Swara!
The correct answer is only A because its true that
MS Swaminathan Award is given Biennial but it has no restrictions over recognising extraordinary efforts in field of agriculture outside India.
The Trust for Advancement of Agricultural Sciences has instituted this award and according to their official website.
For example:
Norman E. Borlaugh from America who is actually the Global Father of Green Revolution is first recipient of it.
Further, notable person like Shenggen Fan from America and John Dixon from Australia also recieved this honour.

Barak Tank, recently seen in the news, was developed by:
  • a)
    Turkey
  • b)
    Iran
  • c)
    Russia
  • d)
    Israel
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Datta answered
Introduction

Barak Tank, which has recently been in the news, was developed by Israel. It is an advanced armored fighting vehicle that has gained attention due to its advanced features and capabilities.

Barak Tank - Developed by Israel

The correct answer to the question is option 'D', which states that the Barak Tank was developed by Israel. Israel has a long history of developing advanced military technologies and equipment, and the Barak Tank is one such example.

Israel's Expertise in Military Technology

Israel has established itself as a global leader in military technology. Despite being a small country, it has invested heavily in research and development to create cutting-edge defense systems. Israel's defense industry is known for its innovation and the development of sophisticated military equipment.

Features of the Barak Tank

The Barak Tank is equipped with several advanced features that enhance its combat capabilities. Some of the key features include:

1. Armor: The tank is designed with advanced armor that provides enhanced protection against various threats, including anti-tank missiles, artillery shells, and small arms fire.

2. Firepower: The Barak Tank is armed with a powerful main gun, typically a smoothbore cannon, capable of firing a variety of projectiles, including high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT) rounds and armor-piercing fin-stabilized discarding sabot (APFSDS) rounds. It also features secondary weapons such as machine guns for close-range engagements.

3. Mobility: The tank is equipped with a robust propulsion system that enables it to traverse various terrains, including rough and uneven landscapes. It has a high power-to-weight ratio and can achieve significant speeds both on and off-road.

4. Sensors and Communication Systems: The Barak Tank is equipped with advanced sensors, including thermal imaging cameras and target acquisition systems, which enhance its situational awareness on the battlefield. It also features communication systems that facilitate seamless coordination with other friendly forces.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the Barak Tank, which has recently been in the news, was developed by Israel. Israel's expertise in military technology and its commitment to innovation have resulted in the development of advanced armored fighting vehicles like the Barak Tank. With its superior features and capabilities, the Barak Tank is a testament to Israel's commitment to maintaining a strong and technologically advanced defense industry.

The Liptako-Gourma Charter, which was recently seen in the news, is:
  • a)
    a defence pact signed between African military leaders
  • b)
    an agreement proposed by UNEP to conserve Olive Ridley Turtles
  • c)
    an initiative South Asean countries to stop narco terrorism
  • d)
    a G20 initiative to manage crypto currency
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Recently, the military leaders of Mali, Burkina Faso and Niger signed a mutual defence pact, Liptako-Gourma Charter in Mali's capital Bamako.
  • The Liptako-Gourma Charter establishes the Alliance of Sahel States (AES).
  • Its aim is to "establish an architecture of collective defence and mutual assistance for the benefit of population.
  • This alliance will be a combination of military and economic efforts between the three countries.
  • The charter binds the signatories to assist one another including militarily — in the event of an attack on any one of them.
  • It also binds the three countries to work to prevent or settle armed rebellions.
Liptako-Gourma region
  • It is the region where the Mali, Burkina Faso and Niger borders meet.
  • It has been ravaged by jihadist insurgency in recent years.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Drone Shakti 2023:
  1. It is organised by the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  2. It will showcase the full potential of the Indian drone industry, with more than 50 live aerial demonstrations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
The Indian Air Force (IAF) is teaming up with the Drone Federation of India to co-host ‘Bharat Drone Shakti 2023’
About Bharat Drone Shakti 2023:
  • The event will take place at the IAF’s airbase in Hindan (Ghaziabad) and feature live aerial demonstrations by the Indian drone industry.
  • It will showcase the full potential of the Indian drone industry, with more than 50 live aerial demonstrations.
  • These demonstrations will encompass a diverse range of drone applications, including survey drones, agriculture drones, fire-fighting drones, tactical surveillance drones, heavy-duty logistics drones, loitering munition systems, drone swarms, and anti-drone solutions.
  • The event is expected to draw approximately 5,000 attendees, including representatives from the central government, state departments, public and private industries, armed and paramilitary forces, delegates from friendly nations, scholars, students, and drone enthusiasts.
  • The event will also witness the active participation of more than 75 drone start-ups and corporate entities.
  • The event promises to showcase the capabilities of Indian drones and provide a platform for networking, knowledge exchange, and collaboration among industry leaders, innovators, and enthusiasts.
Hence both statements are correct.

D. Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in:
  • a)
    Assam
  • b)
    Arunachal Pradesh
  • c)
    Sikkim
  • d)
    Nagaland
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Two rescued wild animals, a Fishing Cat and a Python, were recently released in the D. Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh‘s East Siang district.
About D. Ering Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • Location: It is a protected area located in the East Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • This sanctuary was established in the year 1977 and covers an area of around 190 square kilometers. 
  • It is named after the pioneer of modern Arunachal, the late Daying Ering, who was a famed Indian politician.
  • Vegetation: It is located in a unique ecosystem that comprises tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen, and deciduous forests.
  • It is also home to the Siang River, which is one of the major rivers in Arunachal Pradesh. 
  • Streams and channels intersect the whole Sanctuary. There are small to medium waterbodies in the Sanctuary that provide good nesting sites for birds. 
  • Flora:
  • About 80% of the Sanctuary is covered with grassland, and the rest is riverine forest patches with mixed bamboo and secondary forests.
  • The main grass species are Saccharum spontaneum, S. arundinaceum, Neyraudia rennaudiana.
  • Fauna:
  • It is home to buffalo, elephant, tiger, leopard cat, barking deer, civet cat, sambar, jackal etc.
  • The migratory birds like cranes, wild ducks, storks, waterfowls from Siberia and Mongolia can be spotted every year.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

With reference to the Hydrogen fluoride, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid.
  2. It is formed when the Fluorspar is treated with sulphuric acid at a high temperature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajeev Datta answered
Statement 1: It is an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid.

Hydrogen fluoride (HF) is indeed an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid. It is highly toxic and can cause severe burns on contact with the skin, eyes, and respiratory system. HF is a strong acid that can easily penetrate the skin and react with calcium ions in the body, leading to the formation of insoluble calcium fluoride. This reaction can cause deep tissue damage and result in long-lasting injuries.

Statement 2: It is formed when the Fluorspar is treated with sulphuric acid at a high temperature.

This statement is also correct. Hydrogen fluoride can be produced by treating fluorspar (calcium fluoride, CaF2) with sulfuric acid (H2SO4) at a high temperature. The reaction can be represented as follows:

CaF2 + H2SO4 → 2HF + CaSO4

In this reaction, fluorspar reacts with sulfuric acid to produce hydrogen fluoride and calcium sulfate. Hydrogen fluoride is a colorless gas that readily dissolves in water to form hydrofluoric acid, which is the liquid form of HF.

Conclusion:

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hydrogen fluoride is indeed an extremely poisonous and corrosive liquid, and it is formed when fluorspar is treated with sulfuric acid at a high temperature.

Consider the following statements regarding HTT-40:
  1. It is a Basic Trainer Aircraft (BTA).
  2. It has been indigenously designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Deputy Chief of Air Staff recently flew the Hindustan Turbo Trainer Aircraft - 40 (HTT-40) Basic Trainer Aircraft in Bengaluru.
About HTT-40:
  • The Hindustan Turbo Trainer-40 (HTT-40) is a Basic Trainer Aircraft (BTA).
  • Manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), the aircraft has been indigenously designed and developed by the Aircraft Research & Design Centre of HAL and is based on the training requirements of the Indian Armed Force (IAF).
  • The aircraft will meet the shortage of BTAs for the training of newly inducted pilots of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  • It will be used for basic flight training, aerobatics, instrument flying, and close formation flights, in addition to undertaking secondary missions such as navigation and night flying flights.
  • Features
  • It is a turboprop aircraft designed to have good low-speed handling for better training effectiveness.
  • It is a fixed-wing aircraft incorporating an all-metal airframe design. 
  • It has a maximum take-off weight of 2.8 tonnes. 
  • It can achieve a top speed of 450 Km/hr and a maximum range of 1,000km. 
  • The fully aerobatic tandem seat HTT-40 has an air-conditioned cockpitmodern avionics with multifunction displays, hot refueling, and zero-zero (zero speed and zero altitude) ejection seats.
What is a Turboprop aircraft?
  • A turboprop aircraft uses a turbo-prop engine rather than a piston-powered engine or a jet engine.
  • They have one or more gas-turbine engines connected to a gearbox that turns the propeller(s) to move the aircraft on the ground and through the air.
  • They have lower operating costs than jets because they burn less fuel, but they are also slower than jets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Vindhyagiri frigate:
  1. It is the sixth ship of the Project 17A frigates.
  2. These ships have been designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
President of India will launch Vindhyagiri frigate at Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited, Kolkata, on August 17.
  • It is named after a mountain range in Karnataka.
  • It is the sixth ship of the Project 17A frigates.
  • These warships are follow-ons of the Project 17 Class Frigates (Shivalik Class), with improved stealth features, advanced weapons and sensors and platform management systems.
  • Under the Project 17A programme, four ships by Mumbai-based Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) and three by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE) are under construction.
  • The project’s first five ships were launched by MDL and GRSE, between 2019-2022.
  • These ships have been designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
  • As much as 75% of the orders for equipment and systems of Project 17A ships are from indigenous firms, including MSMEs.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
  1. It is a quasi-judicial commission established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
  2. It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arshiya Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a quasi-judicial commission established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India. Let's understand each statement in detail:

Statement 1: It is a quasi-judicial commission established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is indeed a quasi-judicial commission. Quasi-judicial bodies have powers and procedures similar to that of a court, but they are not considered to be courts. The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to provide speedy and efficient resolution of consumer disputes. It has jurisdiction over disputes involving compensation claims exceeding Rs. 1 crore.

Statement 2: It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
The second statement is also correct. The NCDRC is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India. This provision ensures that the commission is headed by a person with extensive legal knowledge and experience. The presence of a judge ensures that the cases are adjudicated in a fair and impartial manner.

Overall, both statements are correct. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a quasi-judicial commission established under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Consider the following statements regarding Epizootic Haemorrhagic Disease (EHD):
  1. It is an insect-born disease caused by a virus.
  2. Its spread has been declared a public health emergency by the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is an insect-born disease caused by a virus.
Epizootic Haemorrhagic Disease (EHD) is indeed an insect-borne disease caused by a virus. It primarily affects wild and domestic ruminants such as deer, cattle, and sheep. The virus responsible for EHD belongs to the genus Orbivirus, family Reoviridae. It is transmitted through the bite of certain species of biting midges, which act as vectors for the virus. When infected midges feed on the blood of susceptible animals, they transmit the virus, leading to the development of the disease.

Statement 2: Its spread has been declared a public health emergency by the World Health Organisation.
This statement is incorrect. The World Health Organization (WHO) primarily focuses on human health, while Epizootic Haemorrhagic Disease (EHD) primarily affects animals. Therefore, the spread of EHD has not been declared a public health emergency by the WHO.

Epizootic Haemorrhagic Disease primarily affects animals, particularly ruminants like deer, cattle, and sheep. It is not considered a significant threat to human health. However, it can have significant economic consequences for the livestock industry, especially in areas where EHD outbreaks occur frequently.

EHD outbreaks commonly occur in regions with suitable environmental conditions for the breeding and survival of the biting midges responsible for transmitting the virus. These midges thrive in warm and humid environments, which allow them to reproduce and spread the virus more effectively.

When EHD outbreaks occur, infected animals can show symptoms such as fever, loss of appetite, excessive salivation, respiratory distress, and internal and external bleeding. In severe cases, the disease can lead to high mortality rates among affected animals.

Although EHD does not directly impact human health, it is crucial to monitor and control the disease to prevent its spread among animal populations. This is particularly important for the preservation of wildlife and the prevention of economic losses in the livestock industry.

In conclusion, Epizootic Haemorrhagic Disease (EHD) is an insect-borne disease caused by a virus that primarily affects animals, particularly ruminants. While it is not considered a public health emergency by the World Health Organization, it is important to monitor and control the disease to protect animal populations and prevent economic losses.

With reference to the Asia Pacific Plant Protection Commission, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an intergovernmental organization that promotes cooperation among countries to enhance plant health and plant protection.
  2. India is not a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Ghosh answered
Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental organization that promotes cooperation among countries to enhance plant health and plant protection.

The Asia Pacific Plant Protection Commission (APPPC) is indeed an intergovernmental organization that promotes cooperation among countries in the Asia-Pacific region to enhance plant health and plant protection. The commission was established in 1955 and is a regional plant protection organization recognized by the International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC). Its primary objective is to prevent the introduction and spread of pests and diseases of plants in the Asia-Pacific region and to facilitate safe international trade in agricultural products.

The commission works towards achieving its objectives through various activities such as organizing regional conferences, workshops, and training programs on plant protection. It also facilitates the exchange of information and expertise among member countries, promotes the development and harmonization of plant protection measures, and assists member countries in capacity building for effective plant protection.

Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: India is not a member of this organization.

This statement is incorrect. India is, in fact, a member of the Asia Pacific Plant Protection Commission. As of the current information available, there are 24 member countries in the commission, including India. These member countries work together to address common plant health challenges, share knowledge and resources, and collaborate on research and development initiatives to protect crops and enhance agricultural productivity in the region.

Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, Statement 1 is correct as the Asia Pacific Plant Protection Commission is an intergovernmental organization that promotes cooperation among countries to enhance plant health and plant protection. However, Statement 2 is incorrect as India is a member of this organization.

Consider the following statements regarding Hydrography:
  1. It is the branch of applied sciences which deals with the measurement and description of the physical features of oceans and other water bodies.
  2. Hydrographic information is used for making the nautical charts that all mariners use for navigation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Union Defence Minister recently visited the hydrography ship South Jetty, Indian Naval station Kochi on the eve of World Hydrography Day to support the sustainable use of the oceans. 
About Hydrography:
  • Hydrography is the branch of applied sciences which deals with the measurement and description of the physical features of oceans, seas, coastal areas, lakes and rivers, as well as with the prediction of their change over time.
  • This is done mainly with specialised ships and boats operating echo sounders and sonars, but also using survey aircraft fitted with lasers.
  • Useful information can also be derived sometimes from satellite observations.
  • Hydrography also involves measuring the tide and the currents.
  • Unlike oceanography, hydrography will include shore features, natural and manmade, lights and towers that will aid in fixing a ship's position, as well as the physical aspects of the sea and seabed. 
  • The most well-known application of hydrographic information is for making the nautical charts that all mariners use for navigation. 
  • Hydrographic information is required for the safe, efficient and sustainable conduct of every human activity that takes place in, on or under the sea.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Research and Analysis Wing, consider the following statements:
  1. It was established to handle India’s international intelligence affairs.
  2. It operates under the aegis of the Union Ministry of External Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Menon answered
's external intelligence.
It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
It is responsible for gathering intelligence and conducting covert operations.
Which of the statements above are correct?
A) Only statement 1 is correct.
B) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
C) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
D) All of the statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding microRNA (miRNAs):
  1. They are a class of non-coding RNAs that play important roles in regulating gene expression.
  2. If the level of a particular microRNA is underexpressed, the protein it normally regulates will also be underexpressed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Scientists recently identified a single, small strand of microRNA, or miRNA, that plays a crucial role in fighting cancer.
About microRNA (miRNA):
  • MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are a class of non-coding RNAs that play important roles in regulating gene expression.
  • Gene expression refers to whether a particular gene is making too much, too little or the normal amount of its protein at a particular time.
  • Molecules of miRNA are found in cells and in the bloodstream. 
  • They are typically composed of approximately 21 to 24 nucleotides, making them much smaller than messenger RNAs (mRNAs), which carry instructions for protein synthesis. Their small size allows them to bind to specific target mRNAs.
  • How does miRNA control gene expression?
  • miRNA controls gene expression mainly by binding with messenger RNA (mRNA) in the cell cytoplasm. 
  • Instead of being translated quickly into a protein, the marked mRNA will be either destroyed and its components recycled, or it will be preserved and translated later.
  • So, if the level of a particular microRNA is underexpressed (its level in the cell is abnormally low), the protein it normally regulates may be overexpressed (its level will be unusually high in the cell); if the microRNA is overexpressed (its level is unusually high), its protein will be underexpressed (its level will be unusually low).
  • Biological Functions:
  • They play critical roles in various biological processes, including development, cell differentiation, proliferation, and apoptosis (programmed cell death).
  • They are involved in maintaining cellular homeostasis and responding to environmental cues.
  • Disease Implications:
  • Alteration in miRNA expression results in changes in the profile of genes involving a range of biological processes, contributing to numerous human disorders.
  • With high stability in human fluids, miRNAs in the circulation are considered as promising biomarkers for diagnosis, as well as prognosis of disease. 
What is RNA?
  • RNA, or Ribonucleic Acidis a molecule that plays a central role in various biological processes, particularly in the transfer of genetic information and the synthesis of proteins.
  • It is a macromolecule similar to DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) in many ways but differs in its structure and functions.
  • RNA is composed of nucleotide units, just like DNAUnlike DNA, however, RNA is most often single-stranded.
  • Function:
  • The primary function of RNA is to convey genetic information from DNA and use that information to guide the synthesis of proteins.
  • This process involves transcription, where a complementary RNA strand is synthesized based on a DNA template, and translation, where the information encoded in the RNA is used to assemble a specific sequence of amino acids into a protein.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Cerebellum:
  1. It accounts for around 50% of total brain weight and contains more than 50% of all neurons in the brain.
  2. It coordinates muscle actions so that the body can move smoothly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'B', which states that statement 2 only is correct.

The cerebellum is a structure located at the back of the brain, underneath the cerebral cortex. It is responsible for coordinating muscle actions and plays a crucial role in motor control, balance, and coordination. Let's review each statement to understand which one is correct.

1. It accounts for around 50% of total brain weight and contains more than 50% of all neurons in the brain.
This statement is incorrect. While the cerebellum is a relatively large structure, it does not account for 50% of total brain weight. The cerebellum comprises about 10% of the brain's total weight. Additionally, while the cerebellum does contain a significant number of neurons, it does not contain more than 50% of all neurons in the brain. The cerebral cortex, which covers the outer surface of the brain, contains a much larger number of neurons.

2. It coordinates muscle actions so that the body can move smoothly.
This statement is correct. The cerebellum plays a vital role in coordinating muscle actions. It receives sensory information from various parts of the body, such as the muscles, joints, and vestibular system, which helps it monitor the position and movements of different body parts. It then integrates this information and sends signals to the motor cortex and brainstem, providing feedback and fine-tuning motor commands. This coordination ensures smooth and accurate movements of the body.

In conclusion, statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect. The cerebellum does not account for 50% of total brain weight, nor does it contain more than 50% of all neurons in the brain. Its primary function is to coordinate muscle actions and contribute to motor control.

Consider the following statements regarding Dumbo Octopus:
  1. They are the deepest living octopus species.
  2. They are found only in temperate latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditya Kumar answered
US Scientists recently came across a rare "Dumbo" octopus in the midst of their exploration of the North Pacific Ocean.
About Dumbo Octopus:
  • They are known as the deepest living of all octopus species.
  • Genus: Grimpoteuthis spp.
  • They get their name from their distinctive flapping fins that bear a striking resemblance to the oversized ears of the iconic Disney elephant character.
  • There are about 17 species of Dumbo octopus that belong to a group called “umbrella octopus,” because they are able to float with an umbrella-like look to their mantle
  • DistributionWorldwide in tropical to temperate latitudes
  • Features:
  • They live on the seafloor or hover just slightly above it at depths of depths of 3000 to 4000 m (9800 to 13000 ft).
  • They are small animals, around 8 inches tall, and have a pair of fins located on their mantle and webbing between their arms.
  • The octopuses also have a single line of about 65-68 suckers along each arm.
  • Unlike most octopuses, this sea creature doesn’t have ink sacs, which are normally used as a defensive mechanism
  • It uses its ear-like fins to propel through the water and steers using its webbed arms.
  • Diet: It consumes snails, worms and other creatures that live near the ocean floor.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Caribbean false mussel is a/an:
  • a)
    invasive species
  • b)
    flagship species
  • c)
    keystone species
  • d)
    Umbrella species
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A': invasive species.

Explanation:
An invasive species is a non-native species that is introduced to a new environment and has the potential to cause harm to the native species, ecosystems, or human activities in that area. The Caribbean false mussel (Mytilopsis sallei) is an example of an invasive species.

Invasive Species:
Invasive species can have significant negative impacts on ecosystems and biodiversity. They often outcompete native species for resources such as food, space, and habitat, leading to a decline in the native species population. Invasive species can also disrupt the natural balance of ecosystems, alter habitats, and cause economic damage.

Invasive species are typically introduced to new areas through human activities, such as international trade, travel, or accidental transportation. They may be unintentionally transported as stowaways in shipping containers, on boats, or attached to the hulls of ships. Once introduced to a new environment, invasive species can spread rapidly due to their ability to adapt and reproduce quickly.

Caribbean False Mussel:
The Caribbean false mussel (Mytilopsis sallei) is a small bivalve mollusk that is native to the Caribbean region. It is also known as the "brackish-water mussel" or "false dark mussel." This species is typically found in brackish water habitats, such as estuaries, lagoons, and mangrove forests.

The Caribbean false mussel has been introduced to several regions outside its native range, including the Gulf of Mexico, the Atlantic coast of the United States, and the Mediterranean Sea. Once introduced, it can rapidly colonize new areas and outcompete native mussel species. This can have negative impacts on the biodiversity and ecological balance of the invaded ecosystems.

The Caribbean false mussel has a high reproductive capacity, and its larvae can be easily transported by water currents, facilitating its spread to new areas. It can also attach itself to various substrates, including rocks, shells, and man-made structures, further aiding its colonization.

Control and Management:
Controlling invasive species like the Caribbean false mussel is challenging once they become established in a new environment. Strategies for managing invasive species include early detection and rapid response, prevention of further introductions, and targeted removal or control measures. It is important to raise awareness about the potential impacts of invasive species and take steps to prevent their introduction and spread.

In conclusion, the Caribbean false mussel is classified as an invasive species because it is a non-native species that has been introduced to new areas outside its native range and has the potential to cause harm to native species and ecosystems.

Consider the following statements regarding Stump-tailed macaques:
  1. They are found in dry deciduous forests only.
  2. They have cheek pouches to store food for short periods of time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Stump-tailed Macaques
The given statements are related to Stump-tailed macaques. Let's analyze each statement individually to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: They are found in dry deciduous forests only.
This statement is incorrect. Stump-tailed macaques (Macaca arctoides) are not restricted to dry deciduous forests. They are primarily found in Southeast Asia, including countries like Thailand, Myanmar, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam, and China. These macaques inhabit a variety of habitats, including primary and secondary forests, evergreen forests, and even mountainous regions. They are known to adapt to various types of forests, including both dry and wet forests.

Statement 2: They have cheek pouches to store food for short periods of time.
This statement is correct. Stump-tailed macaques have specialized cheek pouches that allow them to store food temporarily. These pouches are located in the cheeks and can stretch to accommodate a significant amount of food. The macaques use these pouches to collect and carry food while foraging. Once they find a safe location, they can then chew and consume the stored food at their leisure. This behavior helps them efficiently gather and consume food resources while minimizing the risk of predation.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct. Stump-tailed macaques are not restricted to dry deciduous forests but are found in various types of habitats. However, they do possess cheek pouches that aid in the temporary storage of food.

Consider the following statements regarding Dhruvastra Missile:
  1. It is a helicopter-launched anti-tank guided missile system.
  2. It has a maximum range of 500 kilometres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Nair answered


Statement 1: Dhruvastra Missile is a helicopter-launched anti-tank guided missile system.

Yes, this statement is correct. Dhruvastra is indeed a helicopter-launched anti-tank guided missile system. It is a variant of the Nag missile, which is a third-generation fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. The Dhruvastra missile is designed to be launched from helicopters, providing them with a powerful anti-tank capability.

Statement 2: Dhruvastra Missile has a maximum range of 500 kilometres.

No, this statement is incorrect. The Dhruvastra missile does not have a maximum range of 500 kilometres. The actual maximum range of the Dhruvastra missile is around 7-8 kilometres. It is designed to engage and destroy enemy tanks and other armored vehicles within this range. The missile is equipped with advanced guidance and targeting systems to ensure high accuracy and effectiveness against armored targets.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as the Dhruvastra missile is indeed a helicopter-launched anti-tank guided missile system. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the Dhruvastra missile does not have a maximum range of 500 kilometres. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

With reference to the Gilgit Manuscripts, consider the following statements:
  1. These manuscripts were written between the 5th and 6th centuries CE.
  2. These contain only Jain works which throw light on the evolution of many religious-philosophical literatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sushant Gupta answered
Answer:

The correct answer is option 'a', i.e., statement 1 only. The Gilgit Manuscripts were not written between the 5th and 6th centuries CE, as mentioned in statement 1.

Explanation:

The Gilgit Manuscripts are a collection of ancient Buddhist texts that were discovered in the Gilgit region of present-day Pakistan. They were found in the late 19th and early 20th centuries and are considered to be one of the most significant discoveries in the field of Buddhist studies.

The Gilgit Manuscripts were written in the Gandhari language, an ancient Prakrit language that was widely used in the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent during the early centuries of the Common Era. These manuscripts provide valuable insights into the early development of Buddhism and its spread in the region.

Key Points:

- The Gilgit Manuscripts were written between the 5th and 6th centuries CE. [Incorrect]
- The Gilgit Manuscripts contain not only Jain works but also Buddhist and Hindu texts. These texts shed light on the evolution of various religious and philosophical literatures in the region.
- The manuscripts include Buddhist sutras, commentaries, and treatises, as well as Hindu texts such as the Mahabharata and the Ramayana.
- The Gilgit Manuscripts also provide information about the social, cultural, and political conditions of the region during that time.
- The manuscripts were written on birch bark and were discovered in various locations in the Gilgit region, including the monastic complex of Kharoshthi, the ancient capital of the region.
- The Gilgit Manuscripts have been instrumental in reconstructing the history of Buddhism in the region and have contributed significantly to the understanding of early Buddhist literature.

In conclusion, the Gilgit Manuscripts are a collection of ancient Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu texts that were written between the 5th and 6th centuries CE. They provide valuable insights into the religious, philosophical, and cultural developments of the region during that time.

The disease, Feline panleukopenia, is mainly known to affect which one of the following?
  • a)
    Cattles
  • b)
    Fish
  • c)
    Cats
  • d)
    Birds
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anushka Tiwari answered
Feline panleukopenia, also known as feline distemper or feline parvovirus, is a highly contagious viral disease that primarily affects cats. It is caused by the feline panleukopenia virus (FPV), which is a member of the Parvoviridae family. This disease is not commonly seen in other animals such as cattle, fish, or birds.

Below are the key points explaining why feline panleukopenia mainly affects cats:

1. Feline Panleukopenia Virus (FPV):
- Feline panleukopenia is caused by the FPV, a virus that specifically infects cats.
- The virus is highly contagious and can survive in the environment for months, making it easy to spread among cats.

2. Symptoms and Effects in Cats:
- Feline panleukopenia primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissues in cats.
- Common symptoms include fever, lethargy, loss of appetite, vomiting, diarrhea (often bloody), and a decrease in white blood cells (panleukopenia).

3. Transmission:
- The virus is shed in the bodily fluids of infected cats, including saliva, urine, feces, and nasal secretions.
- Transmission occurs through direct contact with infected cats or contaminated objects, such as litter boxes, food bowls, or bedding.
- Kittens can also contract the virus in utero or through the milk of an infected mother.

4. Susceptibility and Immunity:
- Cats of all ages are susceptible to feline panleukopenia, but kittens are particularly vulnerable due to their immature immune systems.
- Vaccination is highly effective in preventing the disease and boosting immunity in cats.

5. Diagnosis and Treatment:
- Feline panleukopenia can be diagnosed through clinical signs, blood tests, and laboratory analysis.
- Treatment mainly involves supportive care, including fluid therapy, nutritional support, and medication to control symptoms and prevent secondary infections.

In conclusion, feline panleukopenia is a viral disease that primarily affects cats. It is caused by the feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) and is highly contagious among cats. Understanding the specific nature of this disease is crucial for its prevention, control, and treatment in cats.

Consider the following statements regarding Galactic tide:
  1. It is a tidal force experienced by objects because of the gravitational field of a galaxy.
  2. It can reshape a galaxy structure and disrupt smaller star systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Ahuja answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Galactic tide is a tidal force experienced by objects due to the gravitational field of a galaxy. It can reshape the structure of a galaxy and disrupt smaller star systems. Let's delve deeper into each statement to understand why they are correct.

1. It is a tidal force experienced by objects because of the gravitational field of a galaxy:
- Tidal forces occur when the gravitational force acting on an object varies significantly across its size. In the case of a galaxy, the gravitational field is not uniform, and objects within the galaxy can experience tidal forces.
- The gravitational field of a galaxy is stronger near its center and weaker towards its outer regions. As objects move within the galaxy, they can experience differential gravitational forces, leading to tidal effects.
- These tidal forces can cause stretching and squeezing of objects, similar to how tides on Earth are caused by the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun. However, in the case of a galaxy, the tidal forces are exerted by the entire galaxy rather than just a single celestial body.

2. It can reshape a galaxy structure and disrupt smaller star systems:
- The tidal forces exerted by a galaxy can have significant effects on its structure. As objects, such as stars or gas clouds, move within the galaxy, they can experience differential gravitational forces from different parts of the galaxy.
- These tidal forces can cause the objects to be pulled and stretched in different directions, leading to distortions in the shape of the galaxy. Over time, this can reshape the overall structure of the galaxy.
- The tidal forces can also disrupt smaller star systems within the galaxy. When a smaller star system, such as a binary star system or a star with orbiting planets, comes close to a region with significantly stronger gravitational forces, the differential tidal forces can disrupt the system's stability.
- The disruption can lead to the ejection of stars or planets from the system or their eventual collision with other objects in the galaxy.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. Galactic tide is a tidal force experienced by objects due to the gravitational field of a galaxy, and it can reshape the structure of a galaxy and disrupt smaller star systems.

Psyche spacecraft, recently seen in the news, is developed by:
  • a)
    National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
  • b)
    Russian Space Agency (Roscosmos)
  • c)
    Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • d)
    European Space Agency (ESA)
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivani Pillai answered
Psyche spacecraft is developed by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

Explanation:
The Psyche spacecraft is a NASA mission that aims to explore the asteroid 16 Psyche, which is believed to be the exposed nickel-iron core of a protoplanet. The mission is part of NASA's Discovery Program, which seeks to explore the solar system with low-cost, highly focused missions.

Objective of the Mission:
The primary objective of the Psyche mission is to study the asteroid 16 Psyche and understand its composition, structure, and history. By studying this unique metallic asteroid, scientists hope to gain insights into the formation and evolution of terrestrial planets like Earth. The mission will help scientists understand whether the core of a planet can be exposed by asteroid impacts or other geological processes.

NASA's Role:
As the developer of the Psyche spacecraft, NASA is responsible for the design, development, and execution of the mission. NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) is leading the mission with support from various other institutions and organizations. JPL is responsible for the overall management of the mission, including spacecraft development, mission operations, and data analysis.

Key Features of the Psyche Spacecraft:
1. Solar Electric Propulsion: The Psyche spacecraft will be powered by solar electric propulsion, which uses electricity generated by solar panels to ionize propellant and produce thrust. This technology allows for efficient and precise orbital maneuvers, enabling the spacecraft to reach and study the asteroid.

2. Remote Sensing Instruments: The spacecraft will be equipped with a suite of remote sensing instruments to study the asteroid's surface, composition, and magnetic field. These instruments will include a multispectral imager, a gamma-ray and neutron spectrometer, and a magnetometer.

3. Mission Duration: The Psyche spacecraft is expected to launch in August 2022 and will take approximately four years to reach the asteroid. The mission duration is planned to be 21 months, during which the spacecraft will orbit and study the asteroid.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Psyche spacecraft, recently seen in the news, is developed by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). This mission aims to explore the metallic asteroid 16 Psyche and gain insights into the formation and evolution of terrestrial planets. With its unique design and scientific objectives, the Psyche mission represents NASA's continued commitment to exploring the solar system and expanding our understanding of the universe.

Consider the following statements regarding World Asteroid Day:
  1. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) passed a resolution in 2016, designating June 30 as International Asteroid Day. 
  2. The date was chosen to commemorate the anniversary of the Tunguska Event.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
World Asteroid Day is observed on June 30 every year.
About World Asteroid Day:
  • It is observed on June 30 every year.
  • The day aims to raise awareness about asteroid impact hazards and crisis communication actions in case of a credible asteroid threat to planet Earth.
  • The day also aims to educate people about the latest and upcoming asteroid research and technology through numerous events and activities held by organisations across the globe.
  • History:
  • The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) passed a resolution in December 2016, designating June 30 as International Asteroid Day
  • The UNGA adopted the resolution based on the proposal made by the Association of Space Explorersendorsed by the Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS).
  • The date was chosen to commemorate the anniversary of the Tunguska asteroid’s impact over Siberia on June 30, 1908.
Tunguska Event:
  • It is considered the biggest asteroid impact in recorded history when an asteroid exploded a few kilometers above the Tunguska region of central Siberia.
  • It flattened more than 80 million trees in seconds, over an area spanning nearly 800 square miles (2,000 square kilometers) — but left no crater. 
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Negotiations framework (IGN):
  1. It is a group of nation-states working within the UN to further reform the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
  2. All groups within IGN are unanimous in their positions vis-a-vis reforming the UNSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
President of the 77th session of the United Nations General Assembly recently said the first segments of the UN Intergovernmental Negotiations framework (IGN) meetings are now webcast and a dedicated website on Security Council reform has been established.
About Intergovernmental Negotiations Framework (IGN):
  • IGN is a group of nation-states working within the UN to further reform the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
  • Composition: The IGN is composed of several different international organizations, namely:
  • The African Union;
  • The G4 nations (India, along with Brazil, Japan and Germany are pressing for a permanent seat in the reformed UNSC);
  • The Uniting for Consensus Group (UfC), also known as the "Coffee Club";
  • The L.69 Group of Developing Countries;
  • The Arab League; and
  • The Caribbean Community (CARICOM).
  • Each group represents a different set of positions vis-a-vis reforming the UNSC.
  • The group's conversations are considered "informal" in nature due to the lack of single text and thus, UNGA rules of procedure don't apply. 
  • But in 2015, a framework document was agreed when it comes to the reform, which can be the basis for future talks.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Ramon Magsaysay Award:
  1. It is given to recognize outstanding service for the public good.
  2. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was the first recipient of this award from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Recently, Oncologist Ravi Kannan, has been named one of the four winners of the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award.
  • It is Asia’s premier prize and highest honor, celebrates greatness of spirit and transformative leadership in Asia.
  • The Ramon Magsaysay Awardees, annually selected by the RMAF board of trustees, are presented with a certificate and a medallion with an embossed image of Ramon Magsaysay facing right in profile.
  • From 1958 to 2008, the Award was given in six categories annually:
  • Government Service: To recognize outstanding service in the public interest in any branch of government, including the executive, judicial, legislative, or military;
  • Public Service: To recognize outstanding service for the public good by a private citizen;
  • Community Leadership: To recognize leadership of a community toward helping the disadvantaged have fuller opportunities and a better life;
  • Journalism, Literature, and Creative Communication Arts: To recognize effective writing, publishing, or photography or the use of radio, television, cinema, or the performing arts as a power for the public good;
  • Peace and International Understanding: To recognize contributions to the advancement of friendship, tolerance, peace, and solidarity as the foundations for sustainable development within and across countries; and
  • Emergent Leadership: To recognize an individual, forty years of age or younger, for outstanding work on issues of social change in his or her community, but whose leadership may not yet be broadly recognized outside of this community.
  • It is presented in formal ceremonies in Manila, Philippines on August 31st, the birth anniversary of the much-esteemed Philippine President whose ideals inspired the Award’s creation in 1957.
Indian winners on the list
  • Prominent Indians who have won the award include Vinoba Bhave in 1958, Mother Teresa in 1962, Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay in 1966, Satyajit Ray in 1967, Mahasweta Devi in 1997.
  • In recent years, Arvind Kejriwal (2006), Anshu Gupta of Goonj (2015), human rights activist Bezwada Wilson (2016), and journalist Ravish Kumar (2019) have won the award. 
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding INDIAai initiative:
  1. It is the National artificial intelligence Portal of India.
  2. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A' i.e. 1 only.

Explanation:
The INDIAai initiative is the National artificial intelligence Portal of India. It is a platform that aims to serve as a one-stop digital platform for all artificial intelligence related resources, news, and developments in India. The initiative is aimed at promoting collaboration and knowledge sharing among stakeholders in the field of artificial intelligence.

However, the statement that it is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and NITI Aayog is incorrect. The INDIAai initiative is solely owned and operated by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). NITI Aayog, on the other hand, is a key partner in the initiative and provides strategic guidance and support.

To summarize:
- Statement 1: It is the National artificial intelligence Portal of India. This statement is correct.
- Statement 2: It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and NITI Aayog. This statement is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' i.e. 1 only.

Pampaphoneus biccai, a fossil recently found, belongs to which one of the following species?
  • a)
    Dinocephalian
  • b)
    Biarmosuchian
  • c)
    Pelycosaur
  • d)
    Sinophoneus
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
An international team of researchers documented the discovery of a 265-million-year-old fossil of the species Pampaphoneus biccai which was found in Brazil.
  • It belongs to the early therapsid clade called dinocephalians.
  • It lived just before the largest extinction event in the history of Earth. That event eliminated 86 per cent of all animal species across the globe.
  • Before the extinction event, dinocephalians were one of the major groups of large terrestrial animals that thrived on land.
  • They were medium to large-sized creatures with both carnivorous and herbivorous representatives.
  • They had thick cranial bones, which led to the group's name which translates to "terrible head" in Greek.
  • These animals are rare in other parts of the world but well-known in South Africa and Russia.
  • It is the only known species in Brazil.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme:
  1. It provides funding for the projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply and power.
  2. It provides 100% central funding to the State Governments of North Eastern Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Recently, cabinet gave approval for the continuation of the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme (NESIDS) with an approved outlay of Rs.8139.50 crore.
  • It has been approved by the Government of India as a new Central Sector Scheme in 2017.
  • Under the scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% centrally funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Region.
  • The funding is provided for the projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power and connectivity enhancing tourism and Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Data in Climate Resilient Agriculture (DiCRA) platform:
  1. It provides open access to key geospatial datasets related to climate-resilient agriculture.
  2. It is implemented by the United Nations Development Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to co-create data-driven digital public good which includes DiCRA.
  • Data in Climate Resilient Agriculture (DiCRA) is a collaborative digital public good which provides open access to key geospatial datasets pertinent to climate resilient agriculture.
  • It   is curated by UNDP and partner organizations to inform public investments in agriculture, already provides intelligence on climate resilience for 50 million hectares of farmland across India.
  • It is guided by the digital public good principles of open access, open software, open code and open APIs.
  • It uses cutting edge data science and machine learning to identify farms that are resilient to climate change and those that are highly vulnerable.
  • Advantages
  • By partnering for enhancing and scaling its use, NABARD will host and maintain the DiCRA platform and use its key geospatial datasets for policy making, research and development activities, with UNDP's technical support.
  • This five-year technical cooperation is envisaged to foster collective climate action, create innovative platforms and new product offerings to enhance economic empowerment in rural India.
  • Such open data innovations can highlight best practices, optimize agriculture investments and shelter populations from risk.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Iberian wolf:
  1. It is native to the Iberian Peninsula comprising Spain and Portugal.
  2. It is categorized as vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Gupta answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'C', both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Iberian Wolf:
The Iberian wolf, also known as the Spanish wolf or Portuguese wolf, is a subspecies of the Eurasian wolf. It is native to the Iberian Peninsula, which comprises Spain and Portugal.

Statement 1: It is native to the Iberian Peninsula comprising Spain and Portugal.
This statement is correct. The Iberian wolf is indeed native to the Iberian Peninsula. It is found primarily in the mountainous regions of northern and central Spain, as well as in the north of Portugal. The Iberian Peninsula provides suitable habitat for the wolves, with a variety of ecosystems including forests, grasslands, and mountains.

Statement 2: It is categorized as a vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List.
This statement is also correct. The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the conservation status of species worldwide. It categorizes species based on their risk of extinction. The Iberian wolf is indeed categorized as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List.

The Iberian wolf faces various threats to its survival, including habitat loss, fragmentation, and persecution. Human activities such as hunting, poaching, and habitat destruction have significantly impacted their population. The loss of natural prey and competition with livestock for food have also contributed to the decline in their numbers. In response to these threats, conservation efforts are being undertaken to protect and restore the habitat of the Iberian wolf and mitigate the conflicts between wolves and human activities.

In conclusion, the Iberian wolf is native to the Iberian Peninsula comprising Spain and Portugal, and it is categorized as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Phanigiri Buddhist site, which was recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following States?
  • a)
    Telangana
  • b)
    Odisha
  • c)
    Karnataka
  • d)
    Maharashtra
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Phanigiri artefacts belonging to 200 BCE-400 CE and discovered in 1942, are on display at New York Metropolitan Museum of Art.
  • The Phanigiri Buddhist site is considered one of the most important finds in Buddhist iconography in this millennium.
  • Phanigiri (meaning hillock of snake hood) is a small village in the state of Telangana.
  • Key findings
  • The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are very important as they are among the first found south of Sanchi.
  • The same thorana has a panel that shows both Mahayana and Hinayana school of thought. 
  • There is evidence from Phanigiri that shows the deification of Buddha, and we can date this change. From a historical and spiritual identity there is a transition to canonisation and ritual.
  • The monograph of the event has the image of the Buddha, wearing what looks like a Roman toga with folds, carved in limestone.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Malaviya Mission, recently seen in the news, is launched for:
  • a)
    teachers training
  • b)
    promotion of traditional crafts
  • c)
    digital skilling of youths
  • d)
    healthcare sector development
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
Recently, the Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship launched the Malaviya Mission - Teachers Training Programme by the University Grants Commission at Kaushal Bhawan, New Delhi.
  • It aims to provide tailored training programmes for teachers.
  • This programme will work for the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions (HEI).
  • It will ensure continuous professional development and help in building capacities of 15 lakh teachers of HEIs through 111 Malaviya Mission centres across India in a time-bound manner.
  • It aims to improve the quality of teachers’ training, build leadership skills in teachers and help realise the goals of NEP
  • The capacity building under the Mission will be mapped to the credit framework to ensure career progression pathways for educators.
  • The Indian Knowledge System has been included in the modules of the Programme.
  • Human Resource Development Centres to be revamped and known as Madan Mohan Malaviya Teachers Training Centres
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding World Cities Culture Forum:
  1. It was founded by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
  2. Bengaluru has become the first Indian city to become part of this forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tarun Datta answered
Statement 1: It was founded by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Statement 2: Bengaluru has become the first Indian city to become part of this forum.

The correct answer is Option B: 2 only.

Explanation:
World Cities Culture Forum (WCCF) is a global network of cities that focuses on promoting and supporting culture in urban areas. Let's evaluate each statement to determine their correctness.

Statement 1: It was founded by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
This statement is incorrect. The World Cities Culture Forum was not founded by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). It is an independent organization that operates as a collaborative network of cities.

Statement 2: Bengaluru has become the first Indian city to become part of this forum.
This statement is correct. Bengaluru, also known as Bangalore, has indeed become the first Indian city to join the World Cities Culture Forum. The city's inclusion in the forum signifies its recognition as a vibrant cultural hub and its commitment to promoting and supporting cultural activities.

In conclusion, only Statement 2 is correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.

Bhoj wetland, which was recently seen in the news, is located in:
  • a)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • b)
    Jharkhand
  • c)
    Tripura
  • d)
    Rajasthan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) ordered Madhya Pradesh government to stop the operation of cruise vessels as well as other motor-propelled boats in the Bhoj wetland.
  • It consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs, the upper and lower lakes located in the city of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Upper lake is called Bhojtal (BadaTalaab) and Lower Lake is known as ChhotaTalaab.  
  • The lakes are very rich in biodiversity, particularly for macrophytes, phytoplankton and zooplankton.
  • It has more than 15 kinds of fishes and several vulnerable species including turtles, amphibians and aquatic invertebrates.
  • It is designated as the Ramsar site in 2002.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the hematene, consider the following statements:
  1. It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite.
  2. It is not capable of withstanding high laser intensities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Simran Mehta answered
Statement 1: It is extracted from naturally occurring hematite.
Hematene is a recently discovered material that is derived from hematite, which is a naturally occurring mineral. Hematite is an iron oxide mineral that is commonly found in rocks and soils. Hematene is formed by extracting the layers of hematite using a process called liquid exfoliation. This process involves immersing hematite in a liquid solvent and applying ultrasonic waves to separate the layers of the mineral. The resulting material, hematene, retains the properties of hematite but in a much thinner and more flexible form. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: It is not capable of withstanding high laser intensities.
Hematene, being derived from hematite, possesses unique properties that make it suitable for various applications. One of its notable properties is its ability to withstand high laser intensities. Hematene has been found to exhibit excellent optical properties, including high absorption and low reflectivity, which make it suitable for use in optoelectronic devices such as photodetectors, solar cells, and optical switches. These properties indicate that hematene can indeed withstand high laser intensities. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as hematene is indeed extracted from naturally occurring hematite. However, statement 2 is incorrect as hematene is capable of withstanding high laser intensities. Therefore, the correct answer is option A, both statements are not correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian overnight index swap:
  1. It is a derivative instrument where returns under a fixed rate asset are swapped against a pre-determined rate.
  2. It allows financial institutions to swap the interest rates they are paying without having to change the terms of their existing loan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Parth Ghosh answered
Indian Overnight Index Swap

Statement 1: It is a derivative instrument where returns under a fixed rate asset are swapped against a pre-determined rate.

This statement is correct. An Indian Overnight Index Swap (OIS) is a derivative instrument where the cash flows are exchanged between two parties based on the difference between the fixed rate and the prevailing overnight interest rate. The fixed rate asset in this case refers to a fixed-rate security or loan, and the pre-determined rate is the overnight interest rate.

Statement 2: It allows financial institutions to swap the interest rates they are paying without having to change the terms of their existing loan.

This statement is also correct. The Indian OIS allows financial institutions to effectively swap their interest rate payments without altering the terms of their existing loan or investment. This is particularly useful for managing interest rate risk or taking advantage of variations in interest rates.

Explanation:

The Indian OIS is an important tool for financial institutions, providing them with flexibility in managing their interest rate exposure. Here is a detailed explanation of how it works:

1. Overnight Interest Rate: The Indian OIS is primarily based on the overnight interest rate, which is the rate at which banks lend and borrow funds from each other on an overnight basis. This rate is determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and serves as a benchmark for short-term interest rates.

2. Cash Flow Exchange: In an OIS, two parties enter into an agreement to exchange cash flows based on the difference between the fixed rate and the prevailing overnight interest rate. One party pays the fixed rate, while the other party pays the floating rate, which is linked to the overnight interest rate.

3. Fixed Rate Asset: The party paying the fixed rate typically holds a fixed-rate asset, such as a bond or a loan. By entering into an OIS, they effectively swap the fixed interest payments for floating interest payments based on the overnight rate.

4. Risk Management: Financial institutions use OIS to manage their interest rate risk. For example, if a bank holds fixed-rate loans and expects interest rates to decrease, it can enter into an OIS to swap its fixed-rate payments for floating-rate payments. This way, the bank can benefit from the decrease in interest rates and reduce its interest rate risk.

5. No Change in Terms: Importantly, the OIS allows financial institutions to swap interest rate payments without changing the terms of their existing loan or investment. This means that the original loan or investment remains intact, and the parties only exchange the cash flows based on the difference between the fixed rate and the floating rate.

In conclusion, both statements regarding the Indian Overnight Index Swap are correct. The Indian OIS is a derivative instrument that allows financial institutions to swap their interest rate payments based on the difference between the fixed rate and the prevailing overnight interest rate, without changing the terms of their existing loan or investment.

MQ-9B Predator Drone, recently seen in the news, is developed by:
  • a)
    France
  • b)
    Germany
  • c)
    United States of America
  • d)
    China
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
MQ-9B Predator Drone

The MQ-9B Predator Drone is a highly advanced unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) that has been making headlines in recent news. This drone is developed by the United States of America.

Overview of the MQ-9B Predator Drone
The MQ-9B Predator Drone is an upgraded version of the original MQ-9 Reaper, which was first introduced in 2007. It is a medium-altitude, long-endurance UAV designed for various military and civilian applications. The drone is known for its versatility, as it can perform a wide range of missions, including surveillance, reconnaissance, target acquisition, and strike capabilities.

Development and Manufacturer
The MQ-9B Predator Drone is developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems, Inc., an American aerospace and defense company. It is one of the leading manufacturers of UAVs worldwide. General Atomics has been at the forefront of drone technology for many years and has a long history of producing innovative and advanced unmanned systems.

Key Features and Capabilities
The MQ-9B Predator Drone boasts several key features and capabilities that make it a highly sought-after UAV:

1. Endurance: The drone has the ability to stay airborne for up to 35 hours, making it ideal for long-duration missions.

2. Payload Capacity: It can carry a variety of payloads, including sensors, cameras, and weapons, depending on the mission requirements.

3. Range: With its long-range capabilities, the drone can operate in remote and hostile environments, providing real-time intelligence and surveillance.

4. Automation and Artificial Intelligence: The MQ-9B Predator Drone is equipped with advanced automation and artificial intelligence technologies, allowing it to autonomously carry out missions and adapt to changing situations.

5. Communication and Networking: The drone can seamlessly integrate into existing communication networks, enabling real-time data transmission and information sharing with ground-based control stations.

Applications and Significance
The MQ-9B Predator Drone has significant implications for both military and civilian sectors:

1. Military Applications: The drone is primarily used for military purposes, such as intelligence gathering, target acquisition, and precision strikes. It provides valuable situational awareness and enhances the operational capabilities of armed forces.

2. Civilian Applications: The drone can also be utilized for civilian applications, including border surveillance, disaster response, environmental monitoring, and search and rescue operations. Its long-endurance capabilities and advanced sensors make it a valuable asset in various non-military scenarios.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the MQ-9B Predator Drone is a state-of-the-art unmanned aerial vehicle developed by the United States of America. It is renowned for its advanced features, long-endurance capabilities, and versatility in performing a wide range of missions. The drone's development and production by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems highlight the United States' commitment to advancing drone technology and maintaining its position as a global leader in the defense industry.

Anamalai Tiger Reserve, lies in which state?
  • a)
    Karnataka
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Telangana
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
An elephant image shot at Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR) has emerged as the winner in the Wildlife category of Siena Drone Photo Awards 2023 announced recently.
About Anamalai Tiger Reserve:
  • Location:
  • It is a protected area located at an altitude of 1400 m in the Anamalai Hills of Pollachi and Coimbatore District of Tamil Nadu.
  • It lies South of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats
  • It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side.
  • The reserve is also surrounded by NenmaraVazhachalMalayattur and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala.
  • It was declared a Tiger reserve in the year 2007.
  • Habitat:
  • It supports diverse habitat types viz. Wet evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous, dry deciduous, dry thorn and shola forests.
  • Other unique habitats like montane grasslands, savannah and marshy grass lands are also present.
  • Flora:
  • Around 2500 species of angiosperms are found in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, with several species of Balsam, Crotalaria, Orchids and Kurinchi.
  • The reserve is rich in wild relatives of cultivated species like mango, jackfruit, wild plantain, ginger (Zingiber officinale), turmeric, pepper (Piper longum), cardamom etc.
  • Fauna: The important wild animals of the reserve include: Tiger, Asiatic elephant, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Jackal, Leopard, Jungle cat etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

With reference to the Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign, consider the following statements:
  1. Under this campaign soil collected from different parts of the country will be used to develop a garden along the Kartavya Path in Delhi.
  2. This initiative includes Vasudha Vandhan programme under which every gram panchayat plants 75 saplings of indigenous species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
Recently, the Union government of India has launched the ‘Meri Maati Mera Desh’ campaign, envisaged as a culminating event of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’ celebration of 75 years of Indian Independence.
  • Under this campaign soil collected from different parts of the country in August will be used to develop a garden along the Kartavya Path in Delhi.
  • Events have been planned at the panchayat, village, block, urban local body, and State and national levels, respectively.
  • The five-point agenda includes the installation of a shilaphalakam (memorial plaque), as per specifications, bearing the “names of those who have made the supreme sacrifice”.
  • Work for the shilaphalakam may be executed through the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), leveraging local materials and resources.
  • Vasudha Vandhan’ envisages every gram panchayat or village renewing “Mother Earth by planting 75 saplings of indigenous species and developing an Amrit Vatika”.
  • Veeron Ka Vandan’ will felicitate freedom fighters, and the families of deceased freedom fighters.
  • Young volunteers and others will collect soil from every panchayat/village and bring it to the block, from where the ‘Mitti Kalash’ will be transported to Delhi.
  • In urban areas, events will be organised at local bodies, notified area councils, Cantonment Boards, and town panchayats from August 9 and 15, and in bigger municipalities and municipal corporations from August 16 to 20.
  • The ‘Mitti Kalash’ is to be brought ceremoniously to the larger municipalities/corporations and transported to Kartavya Path.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the International Organisation of Legal Metrology (OIML), consider the following statements:
  1. It is an international standard-setting body for metrology.
  2. India is the only OIML certificate-issuing country from Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
Recently, the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs secretary said that India has become an OIML certificate-issuing authority.
  • The OIML stands for International Organisation of Legal Metrology which was established in 1955.
  • It is an international standard-setting body.
  • It develops model regulations, standards and related documents for use by legal metrology authorities and industry.
  • It plays a crucial role in harmonising national laws and regulations on performance of measuring instruments like clinical thermometers, alcohol breath analysers, radar speed measuring instruments, ship tanks found at ports, and petrol dispensing units.
  • India became a member of the OIML in 1956. In the same year, India signed the metric convention.
  • Headquarter: Paris
What is the OIML certificate?
  • It is a system for issuing, registering and using OIML certificates, and their associated OIML type evaluation/test reports, for instruments like digital balance, clinical thermometers, etc.
  • With the addition of India, the number of countries authorised to issue OIML certificates has increased to 13.
  • Other certificate issuing countries: Australia, Switzerland, China, Czech Republic, Germany, Denmark, France, United Kingdom, Japan, Netherlands, Sweden and Slovakia. 
  • It is a single certificate accepted worldwide.
  • Indian domestic manufacturers can now export their weighing and measuring instrument worldwide without incurring additional testing fees, resulting in significant cost savings.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

What is the role of a Data Fiduciary in the context of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023?
  • a)
    It is responsible for protecting data from any form of processing.
  • b)
    It collects, stores and shares personal data and facilitates consent management.
  • c)
    It acts as a regulatory body overseeing data protection laws.
  • d)
    It is an individual appointed to manage personal data processing.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Data Fiduciary in the context of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023

The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 is a legislation that aims to protect the personal data of individuals in the digital realm. In this context, the role of a Data Fiduciary is crucial in ensuring the privacy and security of personal data. The Data Fiduciary is responsible for collecting, storing, and sharing personal data while also facilitating consent management.

Collecting, Storing, and Sharing Personal Data
One of the primary responsibilities of a Data Fiduciary is to collect, store, and share personal data. This entails gathering information from individuals, such as their name, address, contact details, and other relevant data. The Data Fiduciary must ensure that this data is collected in a lawful and fair manner, with the consent of the individuals involved.

Once the data is collected, the Data Fiduciary is responsible for securely storing it. This involves implementing appropriate technical and organizational measures to protect the data from unauthorized access, loss, or destruction. The Data Fiduciary must also ensure that the data is accurate and up to date.

Sharing personal data is another aspect of the Data Fiduciary's role. This may involve sharing data with third parties, such as service providers or business partners, for specific purposes. However, the Data Fiduciary must ensure that the sharing of personal data is done in a manner that is consistent with the consent given by the individuals and complies with the provisions of the DPDP Act.

Consent Management
Consent management is an essential part of the Data Fiduciary's role. The DPDP Act emphasizes the importance of obtaining informed and explicit consent from individuals before collecting and processing their personal data. The Data Fiduciary must ensure that individuals have a clear understanding of how their data will be used, who it will be shared with, and for what purposes.

The Data Fiduciary is responsible for implementing mechanisms to obtain and manage consent effectively. This may include providing individuals with clear and concise privacy notices, giving them options to provide or withdraw consent, and maintaining records of consent given by individuals.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the role of a Data Fiduciary in the context of the DPDP Act, 2023 is to collect, store, and share personal data in a lawful and fair manner while ensuring the privacy and security of the data. The Data Fiduciary also plays a crucial role in facilitating consent management and ensuring that individuals have control over how their personal data is used.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Only an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court of India.
  2. An Advocate can argue and plead a case with the instructions of an AoR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Khanna answered
Answer:




Statement 1: Only an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court of India.


This statement is correct. According to Order IV, Rule 1 of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, only an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is authorized to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court of India. An AoR is an advocate who has qualified a specific examination conducted by the Supreme Court and has been enrolled on the AoR's roll maintained by the Supreme Court Registry. This requirement ensures that only qualified and recognized advocates can present cases before the Supreme Court.




Statement 2: An Advocate can argue and plead a case with the instructions of an AoR.


This statement is also correct. While an AoR is responsible for filing matters and documents before the Supreme Court, an advocate can still argue and plead a case on behalf of a client with the instructions of an AoR. The advocate will represent the client in court, present arguments, and make submissions as per the instructions given by the AoR. The AoR acts as a coordinator between the client and the court, ensuring that all necessary documents are filed and procedural requirements are met. The advocate's role is to effectively present the case and advocate for the client's interests during the proceedings.




Conclusion:


Both statements are correct. Only an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) is entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court of India. However, an advocate can still argue and plead a case with the instructions of an AoR. This division of roles ensures that qualified advocates handle the procedural aspects of the case while advocates have the opportunity to present the case in court.

Consider the following statements regarding comets:
  1. They are is a small, rocky object found in a ring between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter.
  2. They form tails when they are closer to the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Recently, NASA said that it seems like a good bet that Comet Nishimura could become visible to the naked eye this week.
  • The comet was discovered in mid-August by amateur astronaut Hideo Nishimura, who used 30-second exposures with a standard digital camera to see it.
  • Since then, the comet, officially called C/2023 P1 Nishimura, has increased in brightness as it went forward on its path in the inner solar system.
  • The comet is angularly near the Sun so even if it is visible it will only be able to spot it early before sunrise or late before sunset.
  • The comet is currently located in the constellation Leo.
  • It completes an orbit around the Sun once every 435 years.
What are comets?
  • Comets are cosmic snowballs of frozen gasesrock and dust that orbit the Sun.
  • They are leftovers from the formation of the solar system.
  • Typically, they range from a few kilometres to tens of kilometres wide. But as they orbit closer to the Sun, they spew out gases and dust, which forms the tails that they are famous for.
  • An asteroid is a small, rocky object and when seen in a telescope, it appears as a point of light. Most asteroids are found in a ring between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter called the asteroid belt.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Which one of the following best describes Batillipes kalami, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    It is newly discovered green algae
  • b)
    It is a salt tolerant Rice plant.
  • c)
    It is a new species of marine Tardigrade.
  • d)
    It is a virus which affects Camels.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Introduction

Batillipes kalami is a newly discovered species of marine Tardigrade that has recently been in the news.

Description of Batillipes kalami

- Batillipes kalami is a species of Tardigrade, also known as water bears or moss piglets.
- Tardigrades are microscopic, water-dwelling organisms known for their ability to survive extreme conditions, including high temperatures, low temperatures, and even the vacuum of space.
- Batillipes kalami was discovered in the intertidal zone of a beach in Kerala, India.
- It is one of the largest known species of Tardigrade, with adults measuring up to 1.5 mm in length.
- The species is characterized by its unique body shape, which is elongated and covered in spines.
- Its coloration ranges from orange to reddish-brown.
- Batillipes kalami has been found to have a high tolerance for salinity variations, which allows it to survive in the intertidal zone where the salinity of water fluctuates with the tides.

Significance of the Discovery

- The discovery of Batillipes kalami is significant because it adds to our understanding of the biodiversity of Tardigrades.
- Tardigrades are known for their ability to survive in extreme environments, and studying new species like Batillipes kalami can provide insights into the adaptations and mechanisms that enable their survival.
- Tardigrades have attracted attention from scientists and researchers due to their unique ability to enter a state of suspended animation called cryptobiosis, in which they can withstand extreme conditions.
- Understanding the genetic and physiological mechanisms that allow Tardigrades to survive in harsh environments could have potential applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and space exploration.

Conclusion

In conclusion, Batillipes kalami is a newly discovered species of marine Tardigrade that has drawn attention due to its unique body shape and high tolerance for salinity variations. This discovery contributes to our understanding of Tardigrade biodiversity and their remarkable survival abilities.

With reference to Lake Victoria, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in East Africa and bordered by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. 
  2. It is a source of the White Nile River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditya Kumar answered
Recently, a new scientific report published in the journal Nature shows that significant precipitation changes and increasing extreme climate events affect the large human populations as well as the endemic biodiversity of Lake Victoria Basin.
  • It is the world’s second-largest freshwater lake.
  • Location: It is located in East Africa, bordered by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya.
  • It is also called Victoria Nyanza in Kenya, Nalubaale in Uganda, and Ukerewe in Tanzania.
  • It is a source of the White Nile River which flows northward and eventually joins the Blue Nile in Sudan to form the Nile River.
  • The lake supports the largest freshwater fishery in the world, producing 1 million tons of fish per year and employing 200,000 people in supporting the livelihoods of 4 million people.
Hence both statements are correct.

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