All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Chandra river flows through which one of the following States in India?
  • a)
    Assam
  • b)
    West Bengal
  • c)
    Himachal Pradesh
  • d)
    Tamil Nadu
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mehta answered
The Chandra river, one of the major rivers in India, flows through the state of Himachal Pradesh. Let's explore more details about the Chandra river and its significance in the region.

Chandra River:
The Chandra river is a tributary of the Chenab river, which is one of the major rivers in the Indian subcontinent. It originates from the Chandrabhaga glacier in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. The river flows through the picturesque Lahaul Valley, which is known for its stunning landscapes and high mountain ranges.

Flow through Himachal Pradesh:
The Chandra river traverses through the region of Lahaul and Spiti in Himachal Pradesh. It passes through the towns of Keylong and Tandi, which are important settlements in the Lahaul Valley. The river is fed by the melting glaciers and snowmelt from the surrounding peaks, making it a crucial water source for the region.

Importance:
1. Irrigation: The Chandra river plays a vital role in supporting agriculture and irrigation activities in the Lahaul Valley. The water from the river is utilized for cultivating crops and sustaining the livelihoods of the local communities.

2. Hydropower Generation: The Chandra river has immense potential for hydropower generation. Several hydroelectric projects have been constructed along the river to harness its energy and generate electricity for both Himachal Pradesh and neighboring states.

3. Eco-tourism: The Chandra river, with its pristine beauty and serene surroundings, attracts a significant number of tourists and adventurers. The region offers opportunities for activities like river rafting, camping, and trekking, which contribute to the tourism industry of Himachal Pradesh.

4. Biodiversity: The Chandra river and its surrounding areas are home to diverse flora and fauna. The river ecosystem supports a variety of aquatic life, and the surrounding forests are inhabited by numerous species of plants and animals. It enhances the ecological balance and contributes to the overall biodiversity of the region.

In conclusion, the Chandra river flows through the state of Himachal Pradesh in India. It is an important water source, supporting agriculture, hydropower generation, eco-tourism, and maintaining the biodiversity of the region.

Consider the following statements regarding President’s Colours Award:
  1. It is the highest honour that can be awarded to any military unit or state/UT Police Forces of India.
  2. The Assam Regiment of the Indian Army was the first to be awarded the President’s Colour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The Chief of Army Staff recently presented the prestigious ‘President’s Colours’ to the Third Battalion of the Naga Regiment.
About President’s Colours Award:
  • It is the highest honour that can be awarded to any military unit, military training establishment, or state/UT Police Forces of India.
  • It is bestowed upon a military unit in recognition of exceptional service rendered to the nation, both in peace and in war.
  • It is also known as “Rashtrapati ka Nishaan” in Hindi.
  • History:
  • The tradition began under colonial rule, but on November 23, 1950, the ‘king’s colour’ of the erstwhile British Indian regiments was laid to rest in Chetwode Hall, Dehradun, to make way for the ‘colours’ of the President of the Republic of India.
  • The Indian Navy was the first Indian Armed Force to be awarded the President Colour by Dr. Rajendra Prasad on May 27, 1951. 
  • Award:
  • It is a type of special flag, also known as ‘Nishaan’which is awarded to a military unit in an organised ceremony
  • The flag consists of a golden border in the middle and the insignia of a respective military unit, training establishments, and police forces in the centre.
  • Sometimes, it may also contain the mottoimportant achievements, and battle participation of those military units to which the award is bestowed.
  • During any ceremonial parade, the President’s Colour, i.e., the special flag of a military unit, is kept in a special position, and soldiers often march with the President’s Colour on important dates, like their establishment anniversary.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Poorvottar Sampark Setu portal, recently seen in the news, was launched by:
  • a)
    Ministry of Development of North-East Region
  • b)
    Ministry of Education
  • c)
    Ministry of Home Affairs
  • d)
    Ministry of Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the union Ministry of Development of North-East Region virtually launched “MDoNER Data Analytics Dashboard” and “Poorvottar Sampark Setu” portal at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
  • It is a powerful tool designed to streamline and enhance monitoring of fortnightly visits of Union Ministers to NER.
  • Features:
  • The dashboard provides valuable insights and graphical information about State-wise/ District-wise visits to the North Eastern Region by Union Ministers to be used by all the stake holders in one place.
  • The portal generates a curated list of Ministers who can be nominated for visit to NER in the upcoming months.
  • After the visit, the Minister can submit their tour reports along with their recommendations online.
  • MDoNER can forward the recommendations to respective line Ministries/Departments/State Governments for quick action, after analyzing the same. The Portal generates the summary report on the visits by a single click.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Orionid meteor shower:
  1. It is produced when Earth passes through the debris left behind by Halley's Comet.
  2. It is an annual phenomenon that occurs in every October.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Orionid meteor shower is an annual event that occurs in October. It is produced when the Earth passes through the debris left behind by Halley's Comet.

1) It is produced when Earth passes through the debris left behind by Halley's Comet:
The Orionid meteor shower is associated with the debris left behind by Halley's Comet. Halley's Comet is a periodic comet that orbits the Sun every 76 years. As it travels through the Solar System, it leaves behind a trail of debris, mostly composed of dust and small rocks. When the Earth passes through this debris trail, the particles enter our atmosphere and burn up, creating the streaks of light that we see as meteors.

2) It is an annual phenomenon that occurs in every October:
The Orionid meteor shower is an annual event that occurs in October. It is called the Orionid meteor shower because the meteors appear to radiate from the constellation Orion. The peak of the meteor shower usually occurs around October 20-22 each year, although it can be visible from late October to early November. During the peak, observers can expect to see around 20 meteors per hour.

In conclusion, both statements are correct. The Orionid meteor shower is produced when the Earth passes through the debris left behind by Halley's Comet, and it is an annual phenomenon that occurs in October.

Rafah Border Crossing, recently seen in the news, is located:
  • a)
    south of the Gaza Strip
  • b)
    north of the Syria
  • c)
    west of North Korea
  • d)
    east of Ukraine
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kritika Menon answered
Rafah Border Crossing, recently seen in the news, is located south of the Gaza Strip. The correct answer is option 'A'.

Explanation:
Rafah Border Crossing is an important border crossing between the Gaza Strip and Egypt. It is the only crossing point between these two regions that is not controlled by Israel. The crossing is located in the southern part of the Gaza Strip, near the city of Rafah.

The significance of Rafah Border Crossing:
1. Gateway for Palestinians: The Rafah Border Crossing serves as a vital gateway for the Palestinian people living in the Gaza Strip. It allows them to travel in and out of the region for various purposes such as medical treatment, education, and commerce.

2. Connection to the Outside World: The crossing provides the people of Gaza with a connection to the outside world. It allows them to travel to Egypt and beyond, facilitating trade, cultural exchanges, and family reunions.

3. Humanitarian Aid: The Rafah Border Crossing is also a crucial entry point for humanitarian aid and goods into the Gaza Strip. It is an important channel for the delivery of essential supplies like food, medical equipment, and building materials.

4. Political Significance: The control and operation of the Rafah Border Crossing have been a subject of political negotiations between the Palestinian Authority, Hamas (which governs the Gaza Strip), and Egypt. The crossing has been periodically closed or restricted due to political tensions or security concerns.

Conclusion:
The Rafah Border Crossing is located south of the Gaza Strip and serves as a crucial link between the Palestinian territory and Egypt. Its strategic location and function make it an important focal point in the Israeli-Palestinian conflict and the overall situation in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA):
  1. It is a central sector scheme.
  2. It aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Dey answered
Explanation:
Statement 1: Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA) is a central sector scheme.
The statement is incorrect. Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA) is not a central sector scheme. It is a centrally sponsored scheme, meaning that the funding is shared between the central government and the states. The central government provides 60% of the funding while the remaining 40% is provided by the states and union territories.

Statement 2: Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA) aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions.
The statement is correct. Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA), also known as the Prime Minister's Special Scholarship Scheme, aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions. The scheme focuses on providing financial assistance to improve the quality of higher education and enhance research and innovation in these institutions. It aims to bridge the gap between the demand and supply of quality faculty in higher education institutions and promote equity in access to higher education.

Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only statement 2 is correct. Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA) is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions.

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Rim Association:
  1. It is as an intergovernmental organization established in 1997.
  2. All member countries of this organization shares border with the Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Nair answered
Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an intergovernmental organization that was established in 1997. It is aimed at promoting regional cooperation and sustainable development among the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim.

Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1997.
This statement is correct. IORA was established on March 7, 1997, with the signing of the Charter of the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation in Mauritius. The organization has its headquarters in Ebene, Mauritius.

Statement 2: All member countries of this organization share a border with the Indian Ocean.
This statement is incorrect. Not all member countries of IORA share a border with the Indian Ocean. The organization consists of 22 member states, including Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, United Arab Emirates, Yemen, and Mozambique. While most of these countries have coastlines along the Indian Ocean, there are a few exceptions like Iran, which is located in the Persian Gulf.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

IORA focuses on promoting cooperation in various areas such as maritime safety and security, trade and investment facilitation, fisheries management, disaster risk management, academic and scientific cooperation, tourism, and cultural exchanges among member countries. It provides a platform for dialogue and collaboration to address common challenges and harness opportunities for development in the Indian Ocean region.

The association holds regular meetings and ministerial conferences to discuss and coordinate efforts on various regional issues. It also has several working groups and specialized committees that work on specific areas of cooperation. IORA has collaborated with other regional and international organizations to enhance cooperation and promote regional integration.

In recent years, IORA has gained significance due to the growing importance of the Indian Ocean region in global trade and geopolitics. The region is a vital maritime trade route and is home to a significant portion of the world's population. Enhancing regional cooperation and addressing common challenges such as maritime security, piracy, and climate change are important for the sustainable development and stability of the Indian Ocean region.

In conclusion, IORA is an intergovernmental organization established in 1997 to promote regional cooperation and sustainable development among the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim. While not all member countries share a border with the Indian Ocean, they actively participate in the organization's activities to enhance cooperation and address common challenges in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding Pulsars:
  1. They have very strong magnetic fields.
  2. Most pulsars have masses greater than the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Statement 1: They have very strong magnetic fields.
Pulsars are highly magnetized, rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation. Neutron stars are remnants of massive stars that have undergone a supernova explosion, leaving behind a dense core composed mainly of neutrons. The magnetic fields of pulsars are incredibly strong, typically ranging from 1012 to 1015 gauss, which is orders of magnitude stronger than the magnetic field of the Earth.

The strong magnetic fields of pulsars play a crucial role in their emission of radiation. As the pulsar rotates, its magnetic field becomes distorted and generates intense electric currents. These currents accelerate charged particles near the magnetic poles, producing beams of radiation that sweep across space as the pulsar rotates. The emission of radiation from pulsars is similar to that of a lighthouse, where the rotating beams are periodically observed as pulsating signals on Earth.

Statement 2: Most pulsars have masses greater than the Sun.
Neutron stars, including pulsars, are incredibly dense celestial objects. They are composed of matter that has been compressed to extreme densities, with a teaspoon of neutron star material weighing as much as a mountain on Earth. Due to their high density, pulsars have masses that are significantly greater than the Sun.

The mass of a typical pulsar ranges from about 1.4 to 3 times the mass of the Sun. This mass is packed into a relatively small volume, resulting in a high gravitational field around the pulsar. The strong gravitational field of a pulsar can cause significant distortions of spacetime, leading to phenomena like gravitational lensing and time dilation.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Pulsars are characterized by their strong magnetic fields and most pulsars have masses greater than the Sun.

Consider the following statements regarding the UN Commission for Social Development (CSocD):
  1. It is a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
  2. It is in charge of the implementation of the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nidhi Shah answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The UN Commission for Social Development (CSocD) is indeed a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It was established by the UN General Assembly in 1946 as a subsidiary body of ECOSOC. The CSocD is responsible for promoting social development, advancing social justice, and implementing internationally agreed policies on social development. It is comprised of 46 member states and meets annually to discuss and make recommendations on social development issues.

The second statement is also correct. The CSocD is indeed in charge of the implementation of the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action. The Copenhagen Declaration was adopted at the World Summit for Social Development held in Copenhagen, Denmark, in 1995. It outlines key principles and commitments for social development, including poverty eradication, employment promotion, and social integration. The Programme of Action provides a framework for implementing the principles and commitments of the Copenhagen Declaration.

The CSocD plays a crucial role in monitoring the implementation of the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action. It reviews progress made by member states in achieving social development goals, identifies emerging social issues, and provides policy recommendations to address these challenges. Through its annual sessions, the CSocD facilitates dialogue and collaboration among member states, civil society organizations, and other stakeholders to promote social development and address social inequalities.

In conclusion, the UN Commission for Social Development (CSocD) is a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) and is responsible for the implementation of the Copenhagen Declaration and Programme of Action. Both statements given in the question are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pilatus PC-7 Mk II:
  1. It is a trainer aircraft of Indian Air Force.
  2. It has a range of 1,200 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, two Indian Air Force (IAF) pilots were killed after their Pilatus PC-7 Mk II trainer aircraft crashed during a routine training sortie from the Air Force Academy at Dundigal, Telangana.
  • It is a trainer aircraft.
  • It is a low-wing, turbo-prop aircraft with tandem seating (the cadet sits in the front, the instructor behind him).
  • While the original aircraft has been in service since the 1970s, the Mk II version was introduced in the 1990s, with a newer airframe and more advanced avionics.
  • It is Powered by a Pratt & Whitney turbo-prop engine, it has a maximum speed of 412 km/h and can fly to a height of slightly more than 10,000 m.
  • It has a range of 1,200 km without external tanks, which translates to slightly more than 4 hours of flying time.
  • There are 75 Pilatus PC-7 Mk II aircraft in service with the IAF.
Hence both statements are correct.

Erg Chech 002, which was recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    dwarf planet
  • b)
    novel SARS virus
  • c)
    meteorite
  • d)
    new snake species
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Bajaj answered
Erg Chech 002 is a meteorite that has recently been in the news. A meteorite is a solid object that originates from outer space and survives its passage through the Earth's atmosphere to reach the surface. In the case of Erg Chech 002, it refers to a specific meteorite that was found in the Erg Chech region of Algeria.

The discovery of Erg Chech 002 is significant because it is a rare type of meteorite known as an "achondrite." Achondrites are meteorites that are composed mainly of silicate minerals and lack the characteristic features of stony meteorites. They are believed to originate from differentiated parent bodies, such as asteroids or planets, where the rock has undergone melting and recrystallization processes.

Erg Chech 002 is particularly interesting because it contains a high concentration of a mineral called olivine. Olivine is a common mineral in the Earth's mantle but is rarely found in meteorites. Its presence in Erg Chech 002 suggests that it may have originated from a parent body that experienced intense melting and differentiation.

The study of meteorites like Erg Chech 002 provides valuable insights into the early history of our solar system. By analyzing their composition and age, scientists can learn about the processes that led to the formation of planets and other celestial bodies. Meteorites can also contain organic compounds, such as amino acids, which are the building blocks of life. Therefore, studying meteorites can also provide clues about the origin of life on Earth.

In conclusion, Erg Chech 002 is a meteorite that has recently been in the news. Its discovery is significant because it is an achondrite with a high concentration of olivine, providing valuable insights into the early history of our solar system.

Consider the following statements regarding Demat Account:
  1. It provides facility of holding shares and securities in an electronic format.
  2. Exchange-traded funds cannot be held under this account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which had in July announced it was working to launch real-time settlement of trades, is now planning to implement one-hour settlement of trades first.
  • In one-hour settlement, if an investor sells a share, the money will be credited to their account in an hour, and the buyer will get the shares in their demat account within an hour.
  • What is trade settlement?
  • Settlement is a two-way process which involves the transfer of funds and securities on the settlement date.
  • A trade settlement is said to be complete once purchased securities of a listed company are delivered to the buyer and the seller gets the money.
  • The current cycle of T+1 means trade-related settlements happen within a day, or 24 hours of the actual transactions.
  • The migration to the T+1 cycle came into effect in January 2023.
  • India became the second country in the world to start the T+1 settlement cycle in top-listed securities after China.
What is Demat Account?
  • A Demat Account or Dematerialised Account provides the facility of holding shares and securities in an electronic format.
  • During online trading, shares are bought and held in a Demat Account, thus, facilitating easy trade for the users.
  • It holds all the investments an individual makes in shares, government securitiesexchange-traded funds, bonds and mutual funds in one place.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding comets:
  1. They are is a small, rocky object found in a ring between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter.
  2. They form tails when they are closer to the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B', which means statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect. Let's discuss each statement one by one:

Statement 1: They are is a small, rocky object found in a ring between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter.
This statement is incorrect. The given description matches that of asteroids rather than comets. Asteroids are rocky objects that are mainly found in the asteroid belt, which is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. In contrast, comets are icy bodies that are primarily found in the outer regions of the solar system.

Statement 2: They form tails when they are closer to the Sun.
This statement is correct. Comets are composed of a nucleus made up of ice, dust, and rocky material. When a comet gets closer to the Sun, the heat causes the ice on the nucleus to vaporize and release gas and dust. This release forms a glowing coma (a cloud of gas and dust) around the nucleus, and the pressure of the solar wind causes this coma to form a tail that always points away from the Sun.

In summary:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because comets are not small, rocky objects found in a ring between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter. Instead, that description matches asteroids.
- Statement 2 is correct because comets do indeed form tails when they are closer to the Sun.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' (2 only).

Consider the following statements regarding Armoured Recovery Vehicles (ARVs):
  1. They are designed for the recovery and maintenance of armored vehicles on the battlefield.
  2. They can be modified to carry and deploy portable bridge sections over rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Indian Army recently began the process to procure 170 Armoured Recovery Vehicles (ARVs) to enhance its operational capabilities.
About Armoured Recovery Vehicles:
  • They are specialized military vehicles designed for the recovery and maintenance of armored vehicles on the battlefield.
  • These vehicles are crucial for keeping armored units operational by recovering damaged or disabled tanks and other armored vehicles, performing field repairs, and evacuating casualties.
  • They are normally built on the chassis of a main battle tank (MBT), but some are also constructed on the basis of other armoured fighting vehicles, mostly armoured personnel carriers (APCs).
  • Functions:
  • Towing and Recovery: They can recover vehicles stuck in mud, water, or other obstacles and tow them to safety or repair depots.
  • Maintenance and Repair: ARVs often have workshops and tools on board to perform basic repairs and maintenance tasks on armored vehicles.
  • Crew and Casualty Transport: Some ARVs are configured to transport injured personnel from the battlefield to medical facilities.
  • Armament: Many ARVs are armed with a defensive weapon, such as a machine gun or anti-aircraft gun, to provide self-defense capabilities.
  • Communication Equipment: They are typically equipped with advanced communication systems to coordinate recovery and maintenance operations with other units and command centers.
  • Bridge Layers: Some ARVs can be modified to carry and deploy portable bridge sections, allowing them to create temporary bridges over obstacles like rivers and ditches, enabling the movement of armored vehicles.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Codex Alimentarious Commission:
  1. It is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body.
  2. It was established by the World Bank under the World Food Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, the Codex Alimentarious Commission (CAC) has praised India’s Standards on Millets and accepted its proposal for the development of global standards for millets during its 46th session held in Rome, Italy.
  • It is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body.
  • It was created by World Health Organisation and Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations in May 1963.
  • Objective: Protecting consumer’s health and ensuring fair practices in food trade.
  • Members: It consists of 189 member countries,
  • Membership of the Commission is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
  • The Commission meets in regular session once a year alternating between Geneva and Rome.
  • Funding: The programme of work of the Commission is funded through the regular budgets of WHO and FAO with all work subject to approval of the two governing bodies of the parent organizations. 
  • The Commission works in the six UN official languages.
  • Currently it has standards for Sorghum and Pearl Millet.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
  • a)
    Jharkhand
  • b)
    Maharashtra
  • c)
    Assam
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Recently, a pair of elusive wild dogs often referred to as Dholes, have made a rare appearance in Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha’s Bargarh district.
  • It is located between the Hirakud Dam (Mahanadi River) and the Reservoir in the state of Odisha.
  • It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1985.
  • It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai. 
  • During his rebellion against the British Veer Surendra Saimade his base at ‘Barapathara” located within the sanctuary.
  • Fauna: The beautiful sanctuary is known for its easy sightings of animals particularly Indian Bison, Wild Boars and Sambhar etc.
  • Flora: It has a dry deciduous forest that attracts a host of birds during the winters.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Black Stork:
  1. It is a migratory bird mainly found in the swampy coniferous forests.
  2. It is categorized as least concern species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, a Black Stork species rarely seen, has been spotted in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh.
  • The black stork (Ciconia nigra ) is a large bird in the stork family Ciconiidae
  • Habitat: It breeds in swampy coniferous and mixed forests.
  • It can also be found in grasslands, agricultural fields, and on the margins of lakes and rivers during winter.
  • It is a long-distance migrant, with European populations wintering in tropical Sub-Saharan Africa, and Asian populations in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Distribution: It is mainly found in Europe, Asia and African countries.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Least concern
Key facts about Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary
  • It is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It lies alongside the northern tip of the River Ganga, flowing through the districts of Muzaffarnagar and Bijnor.
  • Flora: It has a variety of landforms and is a mixture of different habitats such as wetlands, marshes, dry sand beds and gently sloping ravines.
  • Fauna: Swamp Deer, Leopard, Wild Cats, Wild Otter, Pythons etc.
  • It is a part of the "Asia Flyway" project, and many migratory Birds, both local and foreign, flock in numbers near the numerous water bodies present in the region.
Hence both statements are correct.

What is the purpose of the reverse auction system in a chit fund?
  • a)
    To increase the total chit value
  • b)
    To distribute dividends among members
  • c)
    To determine the winner with the lowest bid
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Chavan answered
The Purpose of Reverse Auction System in a Chit Fund

The reverse auction system plays a crucial role in the functioning of a chit fund. It is designed to determine the winner of the chit with the lowest bid. Let's understand the purpose of the reverse auction system in a chit fund in detail.

1. What is a Chit Fund?

A chit fund is a type of financial arrangement in which a group of individuals comes together to contribute a fixed amount of money periodically. This collective pool of funds is then given to one member of the group, known as the "winner" or "foreman," through a bidding process. This process continues until all the members have received their turn to receive the fund.

2. The Role of Reverse Auction System

The reverse auction system is employed during the process of determining the winner of the chit fund. It reverses the traditional auction process, where participants bid higher amounts to win an item. In a reverse auction, participants bid lower amounts to secure the benefit.

3. Determining the Winner with the Lowest Bid

The primary purpose of the reverse auction system in a chit fund is to determine the winner with the lowest bid. When it is time for a member to receive the chit fund, a reverse auction is conducted among the members who are interested in receiving the amount.

During this reverse auction, interested members submit their bids, indicating the lowest amount they are willing to accept as the chit fund. The member who submits the lowest bid becomes the winner and receives the fund. This process ensures that the member with the lowest bid is the one who benefits from the chit fund at that particular time.

4. Ensuring Fairness and Transparency

The reverse auction system brings fairness and transparency to the chit fund process. It prevents any member from monopolizing the funds or influencing the bidding process by setting a higher bid. By determining the winner through the lowest bid, the system ensures equal opportunities for all members to benefit from the chit fund.

5. Enhancing Participation and Interest

The reverse auction system also enhances the participation and interest of the members in the chit fund. As the bidding process is open to all interested members, it encourages active involvement and engagement. Members have the opportunity to strategize and submit their lowest bids to secure the chit fund when their turn arrives. This aspect of competition adds excitement and engagement among the members.

Conclusion

The purpose of the reverse auction system in a chit fund is to determine the winner with the lowest bid. This system ensures fairness, transparency, and equal opportunities for all members to benefit from the chit fund. It enhances participation, engagement, and interest among the members, making the chit fund process more inclusive and competitive.

With reference to Exercise VINBAX 2023, consider the following statements:
  1. The exercise is a joint military training between India and Thailand.
  2. It focuses on peacekeeping operations aligned with Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
  3. The first edition of VINBAX was held in New Delhi, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Statement 1: The exercise is a joint military training between India and Thailand.
This statement is incorrect. The given exercise, VINBAX 2023, is not a joint military training between India and Thailand. The question does not provide any information about the participation of Thailand in the exercise.

Statement 2: It focuses on peacekeeping operations aligned with Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
This statement is correct. VINBAX 2023 focuses on peacekeeping operations aligned with Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter. Chapter VII of the UN Charter deals with "Action with Respect to Threats to the Peace, Breaches of the Peace, and Acts of Aggression." It authorizes the UN Security Council to take measures, including the use of force, to maintain or restore international peace and security. Therefore, VINBAX 2023 aims to enhance the capabilities of the participating forces in conducting peacekeeping operations in accordance with Chapter VII.

Statement 3: The first edition of VINBAX was held in New Delhi, India.
This statement is incorrect. The question does not provide any information about the location of the first edition of VINBAX. Therefore, we cannot determine whether it was held in New Delhi, India or not.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis of the given statements, only statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements about Girsu:
  1. Girsu was a city of the Akkadian civilization.
  2. The first excavations in Girsu were conducted by the British archaeologist Leonard Woolley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Only 2
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Singh answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option D, neither 1 nor 2. Let's examine each statement individually to understand why it is incorrect.

Statement 1: Girsu was a city of the Akkadian civilization.
This statement is incorrect. Girsu was not a city of the Akkadian civilization. Girsu was actually a city of the Sumerian civilization. It was one of the most important cities in ancient Sumer and was located in what is now modern-day Iraq. The Akkadian civilization, on the other hand, was a later civilization that emerged after the Sumerian civilization.

Statement 2: The first excavations in Girsu were conducted by the British archaeologist Leonard Woolley.
This statement is also incorrect. The first excavations in Girsu were not conducted by Leonard Woolley, but by the French archaeologist Ernest de Sarzec. Sarzec conducted excavations in Girsu in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, uncovering many important artifacts and providing valuable insights into the Sumerian civilization.

Conclusion:
Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. Girsu was not a city of the Akkadian civilization, and the first excavations in Girsu were not conducted by Leonard Woolley. It is important to have accurate information about historical sites and civilizations to avoid misconceptions and misunderstandings.

With reference to the Logistics Ease Across Different State report, consider the following statements:
  1. It provides insights into improvement of logistics performance at State level.
  2. It was conceived on the lines of Logistics Performance Index of World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sarthak Goyal answered
Statement 1: The Logistics Ease Across Different State report provides insights into improvement of logistics performance at State level.

The Logistics Ease Across Different State (LEADS) report is an annual publication by the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. It aims to assess and rank the states and union territories (UTs) in terms of their logistics performance. The report provides insights into the efficiency and effectiveness of logistics infrastructure and services in different states.

The report measures the logistics performance of states on various parameters such as infrastructure, services, and institutional support. It evaluates factors such as quality of roads, railways, ports, airports, warehouse infrastructure, ease of doing business, and availability of skilled manpower, among others. By assessing these factors, the report helps identify the strengths and weaknesses of each state's logistics ecosystem.

The objective of the LEADS report is to facilitate the improvement of logistics performance at the state level. It helps state governments and policymakers identify areas that need attention and focus their efforts on enhancing logistics infrastructure and services. By understanding the specific challenges faced by each state, targeted interventions can be made to improve the overall logistics efficiency, reduce costs, and promote economic growth.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The Logistics Ease Across Different State report was conceived on the lines of Logistics Performance Index of World Bank.

The Logistics Ease Across Different State report is inspired by the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) of the World Bank. The LPI is a global benchmarking tool that measures the logistics performance of countries based on their efficiency in moving goods across borders and within domestic supply chains. It assesses factors such as customs efficiency, infrastructure quality, ease of arranging shipments, logistics competence, and tracking and tracing.

The LEADS report adopts a similar approach to assess the logistics performance of states and UTs within India. It considers similar parameters such as infrastructure, services, and institutional support to evaluate the logistics efficiency within each state. This enables a comparative analysis of the logistics performance of different states and helps identify areas of improvement.

By aligning with the LPI framework, the LEADS report ensures that the assessment of logistics performance in India is in line with global standards and best practices. It allows for benchmarking against international standards and enables policymakers to understand India's position in terms of logistics competitiveness.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Logistics Ease Across Different State report provides insights into the improvement of logistics performance at the state level, and it was conceived on the lines of the Logistics Performance Index of the World Bank.

Ghatiana sanguinolenta, a newly discovered species of freshwater crab, is endemic to which one of the following regions?
  • a)
    Western Himalayas
  • b)
    Eastern Ghats
  • c)
    Western Ghats
  • d)
    Northeast India
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Ghoshal answered
Introduction:
Ghatiana sanguinolenta is a recently discovered species of freshwater crab. It is important to determine the region where this species is endemic in order to understand its habitat and conservation needs. The correct answer is option 'C', which is the Western Ghats.

Explanation:
The Western Ghats is a mountain range along the western coast of India. It is a biodiversity hotspot and is known for its rich flora and fauna. Several species of plants and animals are endemic to this region, meaning they are found nowhere else in the world.

Ghatiana sanguinolenta:
Ghatiana sanguinolenta is a freshwater crab species that was recently discovered. It belongs to the family Potamidae and is characterized by its vibrant red coloration. This species is small in size and inhabits freshwater streams and rivers.

Endemic to the Western Ghats:
The Western Ghats is home to a diverse range of species, many of which are endemic to the region. The unique geographical and climatic conditions of the Western Ghats have contributed to the evolution of numerous plant and animal species found nowhere else in the world.

Importance of the Western Ghats:
The Western Ghats is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage site due to its exceptional biodiversity. It is home to numerous endangered and endemic species, including the Ghatiana sanguinolenta crab. The region plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance and providing various ecosystem services.

Conservation Concerns:
Given the high biodiversity and endemism in the Western Ghats, it is important to implement effective conservation measures to protect these unique species and their habitats. Deforestation, habitat fragmentation, pollution, and climate change are some of the major threats to the Western Ghats and its endemic species.

Conclusion:
Ghatiana sanguinolenta, a newly discovered species of freshwater crab, is endemic to the Western Ghats. This region is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous endemic species. Conservation efforts are crucial to protect the Western Ghats and its unique flora and fauna.

Consider the following statements regarding the White Lung Syndrome:
  1. It originates from distinctive white patches on chest X-rays in affected children.
  2. It is caused by a combination of bacteria and virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Banerjee answered
Statement 1: It originates from distinctive white patches on chest X-rays in affected children.
Statement 2: It is caused by a combination of bacteria and virus.

Explanation:
The given statements are related to White Lung Syndrome. Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: It originates from distinctive white patches on chest X-rays in affected children.
White Lung Syndrome is a respiratory condition that primarily affects children. It is characterized by the presence of distinctive white patches on chest X-rays. These patches indicate areas of inflammation, scarring, or infection in the lungs. The affected children may experience symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The white patches on chest X-rays are a key diagnostic feature of this syndrome.

Statement 2: It is caused by a combination of bacteria and virus.
White Lung Syndrome is not caused by a combination of bacteria and virus. In fact, the exact cause of White Lung Syndrome is currently unknown. Researchers are still studying the condition to determine its cause and underlying mechanisms. It is believed that various factors, including environmental triggers, genetic predisposition, and immune system abnormalities, may play a role in the development of this syndrome. However, there is no evidence to suggest that it is caused by a specific combination of bacteria and virus.

Conclusion:
From the above analysis, it can be concluded that Statement 1 is correct as White Lung Syndrome does originate from distinctive white patches on chest X-rays in affected children. However, Statement 2 is incorrect as White Lung Syndrome is not caused by a combination of bacteria and virus. Therefore, the correct answer is option C) Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Green Voyage2050 Project:
  1. It aims to support developing countries to reduce Green House Gas emissions from ships.
  2. India is not a part of this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, India has been selected as pioneer lead country for International Maritime Organization (IMO) Green Voyage2050 Project.
  • The overall goal of the Project is to support effective implementation of the Initial IMO GHG Strategy.
  • It provides support to developing countries in their efforts to reduce Green House Gas emissions from ships.
  • The Initial IMO Strategy sets out a clear vision and levels of ambition, one of which is to reduce the total annual GHG emissions by at least 50% by 2050 compared to 2008.
  • It is envisaged that the project will strengthen MARPOL Annex VI compliance, facilitate sharing of operational best practices, catalyze the uptake of energy efficient technologies and explore opportunities for low- and zero-carbon fuels.
  • Components of the project
  • Component 1 – Developing global tools to support implementation of the Initial IMO GHG Strategy
  • Component 2 – Capacity building, policy and NAP development
  • Component 3 – Strategic partnership development
  • Component 4 – Technology cooperation, innovation and pilot demonstrations
  • Partnering Countries
  • The countries participating in the GreenVoyage2050 Project are: Azerbaijan, Belize, China, Cook Islands, Ecuador, Georgia, India, Kenya, Malaysia, Solomon Islands, South Africa, Sri Lanka.
  • These countries are participating as either a New Pilot Country (NPC) or a Pioneer Pilot Country (PPC).
  • The GreenVoyage2050 Project, currently in its first phase, is funded by the Norwegian Ministry of Climate and Environment for an initial period up to December 2023 (NOK 64.5 million).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Dragon snakehead fish:
  1. It is considered as living fossils and is mainly found in Kerala.
  2. It is mostly found in wetlands and paddy fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dragon snakehead fish (Aenigmachanna gollum ) which has been included in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list may face serious conservation challenges.
  • It is considered ‘living fossils’ and named after the character in Lord of the Rings.
  • It is mainly found in Kerala.
  • It evolved around 120 million years ago, probably with dinosaurs in the Jurassic period.
  • Since it was isolated in underground habitats, scientists say the extinction events on land may not have affected it.
  • Habitat: It is mostly seen in wetlands and nearby paddy fields.
  • After the species was identified, it became one of the most wanted items in international aquarium pet trade.
  • Due to its dragon like appearance, it is used as a good luck fish in far east countries.
  • “It is a subterranean fish whose distribution is embedded within human dominated landscapes, making conservation measures difficult.
  • Threats: The assessment also observes the use of pesticides and insecticides in the paddy fields and the deterioration or quality of groundwater as other factors impacting the survival of the species.
  • Conservation measures: Protecting wetlands and regulating the use of pesticides and insecticides are among the recommendations as there has been a decline in the area and quality of habitats.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN red list: Vulnerable
  • The Wildlife Protection Act ,1972: Schedule II
  • Other fish species from the Kerala state: Kryptoglanis shajii, Horaglanis abdulkalami and Pangio bhujia are the other fish species listed as endangered under IUCN list.
Hence both statements are correct.

Statement 1: The Terai region is a strip of marshy land located at the foothills of the Himalayas, extending from the Yamuna River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east.
Statement 2: The Terai region is characterized by its alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and supports diverse flora and fauna, including several tiger reserves.
  • a)
    Only Statement 1 is correct
  • b)
    Only Statement 2 is correct
  • c)
    Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
  • d)
    Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Tiwari answered
Statement 1: The Terai region is a strip of marshy land located at the foothills of the Himalayas, extending from the Yamuna River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east.

Statement 2: The Terai region is characterized by its alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and supports diverse flora and fauna, including several tiger reserves.

Explanation:
The Terai region is a unique geographical feature located at the foothills of the Himalayas. Let's analyze both statements to understand their accuracy.

Statement 1: The Terai region is a strip of marshy land located at the foothills of the Himalayas, extending from the Yamuna River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east.

The Terai region is indeed a strip of low-lying marshy land situated at the base of the Himalayas. It stretches from the Yamuna River in the western part to the Brahmaputra River in the eastern part. This region spans across multiple countries, including India, Nepal, and Bhutan. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The Terai region is characterized by its alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and supports diverse flora and fauna, including several tiger reserves.

The Terai region is known for its alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and suitable for agriculture. The deposition of sediment from rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries has created a fertile plain with rich soil. This fertile land supports diverse flora and fauna, including several tiger reserves. The presence of tiger reserves indicates the presence of a healthy ecosystem and biodiversity in the region. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are accurate. The Terai region is a marshy land located at the foothills of the Himalayas, extending from the Yamuna River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east. This region is characterized by its alluvial soil, which is highly fertile and supports diverse flora and fauna, including several tiger reserves.

Bab al-Mandab strait, recently in news, is bordered by:
  • a)
    Yemen, Somalia and Eritrea
  • b)
    Yemen, Djibouti and Eritrea
  • c)
    Oman, Yemen and Djibouti
  • d)
    Yemen, Omen and Eritrea
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Yemen's Houthis have been targeting vessels in the southern Red Sea and the Bab al-Mandab strait.
  • It is strait between Arabia (northeast) and Africa (southwest) that connects the Red Sea (northwest) with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean (southeast).
  • It forms a vital strategic link in the maritime trade route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean via the Red Sea and the Suez Canal
  • It is one of the world's most important routes for global seaborne commodity shipments, particularly crude oil and fuel.
  • It is bordered by Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea on the African coast.
Key points about the Red Sea
  • It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. It is one of the world’s warmest seas.
  • The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal.
  • Bordering Countries:
  • Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.
  • It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding PM Vishwakarma Scheme:
  1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
  2. The scheme provides credit support with a concessional interest rate of 5%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1
  • b)
    Only 2
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the MSME. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme does indeed provide credit support with a concessional interest rate of 5%, making statement 2 correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Cinereous vulture:
  1. It is only found in the European countries.
  2. It is an altitudinal migrant which means it migrates from a higher to a lower altitude. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Recently, the cinereous vulture (Aegypius monachus), one of the largest raptors in the world has been sighted at the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • It is also known as the Eurasian Black Vulture or monk vulture.
  • It is one of the heaviest and largest raptors in the world.
  • It is one of the two largest Old World vultures.
  • It is an altitudinal migrant — which means it migrates from a higher to a lower altitude. 
  • Habitat: This vulture is a bird of hilly, mountainous areas, especially favoring dry semi-open habitats such as meadows at high altitudes over much of the range.
  • Distribution: It is a Eurasian species. It is mainly found in Spain and inland Portugal, South France, central Asia, northern India, northern Manchuria, Mongolia and Korea.
  • Conservation status
  • IUCN: Near threatened
  • Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Potteromyces asteroxylicola, recently seen in news, is a:
  • a)
    Bacteria
  • b)
    Virus
  • c)
    Algae
  • d)
    Fungus
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Researchers discover a 407-million-year-old fungus fossil, Potteromyces asteroxylicola in the Rhynie Chert, marking the oldest evidence of fungi causing diseases. 
  • It was found infecting the ancient plant Asteroxylon mackiei, showcasing a predator-prey interaction that occurred while the plant was alive.
  • The unique reproductive structures of Potteromyces, known as conidiophores, stood out with their unusual shape and formation, leading to its designation as a new species.
  •  Its reproductive structures, known as conidiophores, had an unusual shape and formation.
  • Rhynie Chert site in Scotland is known for its well-preserved Early Devonian communities of plants and animals, including fungi and bacteria.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the PM Vishwakarma Scheme:
  1. It is a central sector scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. It offers services like market linkage support and incentives for digital transactions to artisans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B', i.e., statement 2 only is correct.

Statement 1: It is a central sector scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
This statement is incorrect. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is not a central sector scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Rural Development. In fact, there is no scheme named PM Vishwakarma Scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.

Statement 2: It offers services like market linkage support and incentives for digital transactions to artisans.
This statement is correct. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and not the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The scheme aims to provide market linkage support and incentives for digital transactions to artisans.

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme aims to provide a platform for artisans to showcase their products and connect with buyers. It also provides financial incentives for adopting digital transactions, which is in line with the government's push for a cashless economy. The scheme aims to promote the development and growth of the artisan sector by providing support in marketing and financial transactions.

Under the scheme, artisans can register themselves on the dedicated portal and showcase their products. The portal provides a platform for buyers to browse and purchase artisan products. The scheme also provides financial incentives for artisans who adopt digital transactions. This is aimed at promoting digital payments and reducing the reliance on cash transactions.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'B', i.e., statement 2 only is correct. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and offers services like market linkage support and incentives for digital transactions to artisans.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Ghaggar River:
  1. It is an intermittent river that rises from the Shivalik Range in Himachal Pradesh.
  2. It eventually dries up in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Pillai answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Statement 1:

It is an intermittent river that rises from the Shivalik Range in Himachal Pradesh.

The Ghaggar River, also known as the Ghaggar-Hakra River, is an intermittent river that rises from the Shivalik Range in Himachal Pradesh. It is one of the major rivers in northern India and has a total length of approximately 470 kilometers.

The Shivalik Range is a mountain range that spans across the states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, and Haryana. The Ghaggar River originates from the northern slopes of the Shivalik Range near the village of Dagshai in Himachal Pradesh.

Statement 2:

It eventually dries up in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.

The Ghaggar River does not reach the Thar Desert in Rajasthan. Instead, it flows through the states of Haryana and Punjab before disappearing into the ground near the village of Surapura in Rajasthan. The river is known to have a seasonal flow and often dries up during the summer months.

The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is located in the northwestern part of India and covers parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab. It is the seventh-largest desert in the world and is known for its arid and dry conditions.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct as the Ghaggar River does rise from the Shivalik Range in Himachal Pradesh, but statement 2 is incorrect as it does not reach the Thar Desert in Rajasthan. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Industrial Security Force:
  1. It works under the Ministry of Defence.
  2. It is mandated to provide services only to government-owned industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Ahuja answered
Explanation:
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is a Central Armed Police Force in India. It was established in 1969 under an Act of Parliament with the aim of providing security to various government-owned industries, airports, metro systems, and other vital installations. Let's analyze the given statements:

Statement 1: It works under the Ministry of Defence.
This statement is incorrect. The CISF does not work under the Ministry of Defence. It is actually under the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is responsible for the maintenance of internal security and domestic policy in India. The CISF falls under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs and is responsible for the security of various government-owned industrial units, public sector undertakings, and other important infrastructure.

Statement 2: It is mandated to provide services only to government-owned industries.
This statement is also incorrect. While the primary mandate of the CISF is to provide security to government-owned industries, it is not limited to them. The CISF is also responsible for providing security to airports, metro systems, seaports, power plants, atomic power installations, oil fields, and other vital installations. It is also deployed for special events, disaster management, and VIP security.

Therefore, neither of the given statements is correct. The correct answer is option D, "Neither 1 nor 2." The CISF works under the Ministry of Home Affairs and provides security services to a wide range of installations, not just government-owned industries.

Barak Tank, recently seen in the news, was developed by:
  • a)
    Turkey
  • b)
    Iran
  • c)
    Russia
  • d)
    Israel
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Israel’s Defence Ministry recently unveiled its next-generation tank, the artificially intelligent Barak Tank.
About Barak Tank:
  • The Barak, or Lightning, is a fifth-generation main battle tank developed by Israel.
  • It was developed jointly by the Israel Defense Ministry’s (IDF) Armored Vehicles Directorate and the IDF’s Ground Forces and Armored Corps.
  • Features:
  • It includes Artificial Intelligence based sensing and processing capabilities.
  • The Barak includes touch screens and an operational application store to help with missions. 
  • IronVision:
  • The tank commander will be equipped with a helmet known as IronVision, resembling those used by fighter jet pilots.
  • The device would enable real-time target location using artificial intelligence and 360-degree scanning via head movement.
  • This will enable soldiers to overcome inherent visibility challenges, thereby enhancing mission effectiveness and safety.
  • Weaponry:
  • It includes a 120mm smoothbore gun. This gun can fire high-penetration projectiles and guided ammunition at distances of up to four kilometres.
  • The additional weaponry consists of a pair of 7.62mm machine guns, an additional 7.62mm machine gun installed on the right side of the turret, and a 60mm mortar.
  • It features the advanced Windbreaker missile defense system.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) scheme:
  1. It is 100% completely funded by the Government of India.
  2. It envisages the development of 4,000 MWh of BESS projects by 2030-31.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, the Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy has informed that the Government has approved the scheme for Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for development of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) with capacity of 4,000 megawatts hours (MWh).
  • This scheme envisages the development of 4,000 MWh of BESS projects by 2030-31.
  • Funding:
  • Financial support of up to 40% of the capital cost as budgetary support in the form of Viability Gap Funding (VGF) is provided by the union government.
  • The VGF shall be disbursed in five tranches linked with the various stages of implementation of BESS projects.
  • By offering VGF support, the scheme targets achieving a Levelized Cost of Storage (LCoS) ranging from Rs. 5.50-6.60 per kilowatt-hour (kWh), making stored renewable energy a viable option for managing peak power demand across the country.
  • For passing on the scheme to consumers of the Discoms, at least 85% of the power from VGF-funded BESS projects shall be first offered to Discoms before making it available for others.
  • The selection of BESS developers for VGF grants will be carried out through a transparent, competitive bidding process, promoting a level playing field for both public and private sector entities.
  • Significance:
  • This will not only enhance the integration of renewable energy into the electricity grid but also minimise wastage while optimising the utilisation of transmission networks.
  • This will reduce the need for costly infrastructure upgrades.
  • The competitive bidding process approach will foster healthy competition and encourage the growth of a robust ecosystem for BESS, attracting significant investments and generating opportunities for associated industries.
  • This scheme is designed to harness the potential of renewable energy sources such as solar and wind power; the scheme aims to provide clean, reliable, and affordable electricity to the citizens.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) is located in:
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • c)
    Uttar Pradesh
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Malik answered
Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) is located in Uttar Pradesh.

Location and Overview:
- Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Terai region of the state of Uttar Pradesh in India.
- It is spread across the districts of Bahraich, Gonda, and Shravasti.
- The sanctuary is located along the India-Nepal border, adjacent to the Kailali Wildlife Sanctuary in Nepal.
- It covers an area of approximately 400 square kilometers.

Flora and Fauna:
- The sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity and diverse ecosystems.
- The vegetation in Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is predominantly characterized by moist deciduous forests, riverine forests, and grasslands.
- The sanctuary is home to a wide variety of plant species, including sal, teak, eucalyptus, semal, mahua, and khair trees.
- It is also famous for its extensive swampy areas and wetlands, which provide a suitable habitat for aquatic plants like lotus and water lilies.

Wildlife:
- Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is renowned for its diverse wildlife population.
- The sanctuary is a haven for several endangered and rare species, including the Gangetic dolphin, swamp deer (barasingha), tiger, elephant, leopard, fishing cat, and Indian pangolin.
- It is also home to a variety of reptiles, amphibians, and avifauna.
- Several migratory bird species visit the sanctuary during the winter season, including the Sarus crane, Indian skimmer, and lesser adjutant stork.

Conservation Efforts:
- The sanctuary has been designated as a Project Tiger reserve, aiming to conserve and protect the endangered tiger species.
- It is also a part of the larger Dudhwa-Katarniaghat Tiger Conservation Unit, which includes the Dudhwa National Park and the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary.
- The sanctuary has implemented various conservation measures, including anti-poaching activities, habitat restoration, and community participation programs.

Tourism and Accessibility:
- Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary offers a unique opportunity for wildlife enthusiasts and nature lovers to explore its diverse ecosystems.
- The sanctuary provides facilities for wildlife safaris, bird watching, and nature trails.
- It is accessible by road and is well-connected to nearby towns and cities.
- The nearest airport and railway station are located in Lucknow, which is approximately 240 kilometers away from the sanctuary.

Overall, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh is a significant biodiversity hotspot, playing a crucial role in the conservation of endangered species and providing a natural habitat for a wide range of flora and fauna.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pappathi Chola:
  1. It is located in the Chathurangappara hills and Mathikettan shola.
  2. It is one of the main hubs of balsams (Impatiens balsamina) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitya Kulkarni answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
Pappathi Chola is a region located in the Chathurangappara hills and Mathikettan shola. It is one of the main hubs of balsams (Impatiens balsamina) in India. Let's analyze each statement individually:

1. It is located in the Chathurangappara hills and Mathikettan shola:
- The Chathurangappara hills and Mathikettan shola are specific geographical locations.
- Pappathi Chola is situated in these hills and shola.
- Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

2. It is one of the main hubs of balsams (Impatiens balsamina) in India:
- Balsams, scientifically known as Impatiens balsamina, are flowering plants.
- Pappathi Chola is known for its abundance of balsams.
- This indicates that the region is a major hub or hotspot for the growth and distribution of balsams in India.
- Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Based on the above analysis, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hence, the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Cholesterol:
  1. LDL (low-density lipoprotein) carries cholesterol from other parts of your body back to your liver.
  2. A high level of LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol can lead to coronary artery disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: LDL (low-density lipoprotein) carries cholesterol from other parts of your body back to your liver.

Explanation:
- LDL (low-density lipoprotein) is often referred to as "bad cholesterol" because it carries cholesterol from the liver to the cells in your body.
- It transports cholesterol to various tissues and organs, including the arteries.
- Cholesterol is an essential component of cell membranes and is required for the production of certain hormones and vitamin D.
- However, when there is an excessive amount of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream, it can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

Statement 2: A high level of LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol can lead to coronary artery disease.

Explanation:
- When LDL cholesterol levels are high, it can lead to the accumulation of cholesterol in the walls of the arteries, forming plaque.
- Over time, this plaque can narrow the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle.
- If the plaque ruptures, it can cause a blood clot to form, completely blocking the artery and leading to a heart attack.
- Coronary artery disease is a condition characterized by the narrowing and hardening of the coronary arteries, which supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle.
- High levels of LDL cholesterol are one of the major risk factors for developing coronary artery disease.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct. LDL cholesterol carries cholesterol from other parts of the body back to the liver, and a high level of LDL cholesterol can lead to coronary artery disease. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

Qiantang River is a major river flowing through which one of the following countries?
  • a)
    Vietnam
  • b)
    China
  • c)
    South Korea
  • d)
    Myanmar
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Diya Deshpande answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - China.

Explanation:
Qiantang River, also known as the Qiantangjiang River or the Qiantang, is a major river that flows through China. It is one of the largest rivers in the country and has significant cultural and historical importance.

Here are some key points about the Qiantang River:

River Location:
- The Qiantang River is located in eastern China and flows through the provinces of Zhejiang, Jiangxi, and Anhui.
- It originates in the western part of Zhejiang province and flows eastward into the East China Sea.

River Length and Drainage Area:
- The Qiantang River has a length of approximately 459 kilometers (285 miles).
- Its drainage area covers about 16,000 square kilometers (6,200 square miles).

Importance and Features:
1. Tidal Bore:
- One of the most famous features of the Qiantang River is its tidal bore, known as the Qiantang Tidal Bore or the Silver Dragon.
- The tidal bore is a natural phenomenon that occurs during high tides in the river.
- When the tide rises, a wall of water travels upstream against the current, creating a spectacular wave that can reach heights of up to 9 meters (30 feet).
- This tidal bore attracts many tourists and surfers who come to witness and ride the wave.

2. Economic Significance:
- The Qiantang River plays a significant role in the regional economy.
- It supports agricultural activities in the surrounding areas, providing irrigation water for rice cultivation and other crops.
- The river also serves as a transportation route, allowing for the movement of goods and people.

3. Cultural Significance:
- The Qiantang River has been an important cultural symbol in China for centuries.
- It has been mentioned in ancient Chinese literature, poetry, and folklore.
- The river is associated with various cultural events and festivals, including the famous Qiantang River Tidal Bore Festival, which celebrates the natural wonder of the tidal bore.

In conclusion, the Qiantang River is a major river that flows through China. It is known for its tidal bore, economic significance, and cultural importance.

Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) is located in:
  • a)
    Madhya Pradesh
  • b)
    Bihar
  • c)
    Odisha
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Forest department personnel in Odisha recently arrested four poachers and two timber smugglers from Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) in Mayurbhanj district during patrolling.
About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR):
  • Location: STR is located within the Mayurbhanj District, in the northernmost part of Odisha.
  • It was declared a 'Tiger Reserve' in 1956 and included under the national conservation programme 'Project Tiger' in 1973.
  • It is surrounded by high plateaus and hillsthe highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515m above mean sea level).
  • The STR, along with a 'transitional area' of 2250 sq. km, was included as a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2009.
  • Terrain:
  • The terrain is mostly undulating and hilly, interspersed with open grasslands and wooded areas.
  • The inclined plateau has risen abruptly from the low coastal plains. The steep side faces the Bay of Bengal and runs northwards to finally merge with Chhota Nagpur.
  • The water level is high, and the tract is woven with perennial water sources converging into rivers like Budhabalanga, Salandi, and many tributaries of the Baitarani River flowing from the Reserve.
  • Vegetation: It is a mix of different forest types and habitats, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches.
  • It is the only landscape in the world that is home to melanistic tigers.
  • The region around STR is home to a variety of tribes, including Kolha, Santhala, BhumijaBhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia, and Sahara.
  • Flora:
  • An astounding 1078 species of plants, including 94 species of orchids, are found here.
  • Sal is the dominant tree species here.
  • FaunaLeopard, Gaur, Elephant, Langur, Barking and Spotted Deer, Sloth Bear Mongoose, Flying Squirrel, Porcupine, Turtle, Monitor Lizard, Python, Sambar, Pangolin etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.

Epulopiscium viviparus, recently seen in the news, is a:
  • a)
    Fungus
  • b)
    Bacteria
  • c)
    Algae
  • d)
    Virus
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

For the first time, scientists have sequenced the genome of a mysterious species of giant bacterium Epulopiscium viviparus that can be seen without a microscope.
  • It is a bacteria which live symbiotically in the guts of a fish, Naso tonganus, in tropical ocean environments. 
  • The first member of Epulopiscium – whose name comes from the Latin words for "a guest" and "of a fish" – was discovered in 1985.
  • Epulopiscium viviparus has modified its metabolism to make the most of its environment, by using a rare method to make energy and to move (the same swimming method is used by the bacteria that cause cholera), and by devoting a huge portion of its genetic code to making enzymes that can harvest the nutrients available in its host’s gut.
  • It makes enzymes that are highly efficient at nutrient extraction from their host fish, especially carbohydrates called polysaccharides from the algae that forms a large part of N. tonganus's diet.
  • It has plentiful enzymes that make ATP too, the 'energy currency' that supports a wide variety of cellular processes.
  • Researchers discovered space for these molecules in a unique membrane, similar to the mitochondria of more complex organisms.
Hence option b is the correct answer.

Banni festival, a traditional stick-fight, is celebrated in:
  • a)
    Karnataka
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • c)
    Tamil Nadu
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Simran Mehta answered
Banni festival, a traditional stick-fight, is celebrated in Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation:
The Banni festival is an ancient traditional stick-fight celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, a state in southern India. It is a unique cultural event that showcases the martial arts skills of the local people and is an integral part of their cultural heritage.

Banni festival is held annually during the month of Magha, which falls between January and February according to the Hindu calendar. It is primarily celebrated in the districts of East Godavari and West Godavari in Andhra Pradesh.

The festival is named after the banni tree, which is considered sacred and is believed to have divine powers. The banni tree is worshipped and revered by the people, and its branches are used as the traditional sticks for the stick-fighting event.

During the festival, participants from different villages gather in a designated area where the stick-fighting competition takes place. The participants are usually young men who are trained in the art of stick-fighting. They engage in friendly combat using the sticks, displaying their agility, strength, and skill.

The stick-fighting is accompanied by traditional music and dance performances, adding to the festive atmosphere. The audience cheers and encourages the participants, creating a lively and energetic environment.

The Banni festival not only serves as a platform to showcase the martial arts skills of the local community but also promotes unity, camaraderie, and sportsmanship among the participants. It is a celebration of their cultural identity and heritage, passed down through generations.

In conclusion, the Banni festival, a traditional stick-fight, is celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, specifically in the districts of East Godavari and West Godavari. It is a significant cultural event that highlights the martial arts skills and cultural heritage of the local community.

Consider the following statements regarding the Grey Francolin:
  1. It is a ground-dwelling bird only found in India.
  2. It is categorized as least concern under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

In an encouraging development, Grey Francolin (Ortygornis pondicerianus) was reported inside the Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP) of Mumbai.
  • It is a ground-dwelling bird known for its distinctive calls and cryptic plumage.
  • They are carnivores (insectivores) and herbivores (granivores).
  • Habitat: Grey francolins inhabit open plains, bare or low grass-covered ground in scrub and open country. They are also found in open cultivated lands and scrub forest and are rarely found above an altitude of 500 m above sea level in India.
  • Distribution: Grey francolins are found in the Indian subcontinent and Iran. Their distribution is south of the foothills of the Himalayas westwards to the Indus Valley and eastwards to Bengal. They are also found in north-western Sri Lanka.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pir Panjal Valley:
  1. It forms a divide between the rivers Beas and Ravi on one side and the Chenab on the other.
  2. The Banihal Pass is located in this valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Basak answered
The correct answer is option 'C': Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
The Pir Panjal Valley is a significant region located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas. Let's discuss each statement in detail:

1) It forms a divide between the rivers Beas and Ravi on one side and the Chenab on the other.
The Pir Panjal Valley acts as a natural divide between the rivers Beas and Ravi on one side and the Chenab on the other. The Pir Panjal Range runs parallel to the main Himalayan range and separates the Kashmir Valley from the drier regions of Jammu. The rivers Beas and Ravi flow from the eastern side of the Pir Panjal Range, and the Chenab flows from the western side. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

2) The Banihal Pass is located in this valley.
The Banihal Pass is indeed located in the Pir Panjal Valley. It is a mountain pass situated at an altitude of 2,832 meters (9,291 ft) above sea level and connects the Kashmir Valley with the Jammu region. The pass is an important route for transportation, and the Banihal Tunnel, also known as the Jawahar Tunnel, has been constructed to provide all-weather connectivity through the Pir Panjal Range. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Pir Panjal Valley acts as a divide between the rivers Beas and Ravi on one side and the Chenab on the other, and the Banihal Pass is located in this valley.

Kolyma River flows through which one of the following countries?
  • a)
    China
  • b)
    Bangladesh
  • c)
    Russia
  • d)
    Hungary
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anmol Banerjee answered
The Kolyma River flows through Russia.

Explanation:
The Kolyma River is one of the major rivers in northeastern Russia. It is located in the Far Eastern Federal District, in the region of Magadan Oblast. Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option 'C':

1. Location of the Kolyma River:
- The Kolyma River is situated in northeastern Russia, specifically in the region of Magadan Oblast.
- Magadan Oblast is located in the Far Eastern Federal District of Russia.
- The Far Eastern Federal District is the easternmost federal district of Russia, bordering the Pacific Ocean.

2. Importance and characteristics of the Kolyma River:
- The Kolyma River is approximately 2,129 kilometers long and is the sixth longest river in Russia.
- It is known for its harsh climate and freezing temperatures, as it is located in a subarctic region.
- The river is frozen for most of the year, with ice cover lasting from October to May.
- Despite these challenging conditions, the Kolyma River supports various species of fish, including salmon and grayling.

3. Flow and drainage:
- The Kolyma River originates in the eastern Siberian uplands and flows in a north-northeast direction.
- It passes through several regions of Russia, including Magadan Oblast.
- The river eventually empties into the Kolyma Gulf, which is part of the East Siberian Sea.

4. Significance:
- The Kolyma River has played a significant role in the history and development of the region.
- It has been used as a transportation route for centuries, particularly during the Soviet era when the region was known for its gulag system.
- The river's basin is also rich in mineral resources, including gold, which has been a major economic driver in the area.

In conclusion, the Kolyma River flows through Russia, specifically in the region of Magadan Oblast. It is an important river in the Far Eastern Federal District, known for its harsh climate and significant role in transportation and resource extraction.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Olympic Association (IOA):
  1. It is the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India.
  2. It was established post-independence under the administrative control of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jay Gupta answered
Introduction:
The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is the apex body responsible for the promotion and development of Olympic sports in India. It plays a crucial role in the administration and governance of the Olympic Movement in the country. In this question, we are given two statements related to the IOA and need to determine their correctness.

Explanation:
Let's evaluate each statement separately:

Statement 1: It is the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India.
This statement is correct. The Indian Olympic Association is indeed the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India. It is responsible for organizing and managing India's participation in these international sporting events. The IOA selects and sends Indian athletes to represent the country in the Olympic Games and Commonwealth Games. It also coordinates with various sports federations and associations to ensure proper training and preparation of athletes. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: It was established post-independence under the administrative control of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
This statement is incorrect. The Indian Olympic Association was not established post-independence. It was formed on 24th January 1927, well before India gained independence from British colonial rule. The IOA operates as an autonomous body and is not under the direct administrative control of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. However, it does work in close collaboration with the ministry to promote sports and ensure the welfare of athletes. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct. The Indian Olympic Association serves as the governing body for the Olympic Movement and the Commonwealth Games in India. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the IOA was established before independence and does not operate under the administrative control of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

INS Tarmugli, recently seen in the news, is a/an:
  • a)
    Aircraft carrier
  • b)
    Submarine
  • c)
    Guided missile destroyer
  • d)
    Fast attack craft
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, INS Tarmugli, a Fast Attack Craft has been commissioned into the Navy at a ceremony held at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam.
  • It is the first Follow-on Water Jet Fast Attack Craft (WJFAC), is an improved version of WJFAC, earlier constructed by GRSE.
  • It is built by M/s Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE).
  • It is conceived, designed and built indigenously.
  • It would be deployed for coastal patrol and surveillance operations along the East Coast of India.
  • It is named after a picturesque island in the Andaman group.
  • Capacity and speed: It has carrying capacity of 320-tonne measuring 48 meters in length, can achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots.
  • Features
  • The ship is capable of operating in shallow waters at high speeds and is equipped with enhanced fire power.
  • It is built for extended coastal and offshore surveillance and patrol the warship.
  • It is fitted with advanced MTU engines, water jet propulsion and the latest communication equipment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

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