All questions of December 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
  1. PVTGs are a sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes in India and are considered more vulnerable than regular Scheduled Tribes.
  2. PVTGs are characterized only on the basis of Declining or stagnant population.
  3. The Dhebar Commission created the PVTGs category.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Saha answered
Statement 1: PVTGs are a sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes in India and are considered more vulnerable than regular Scheduled Tribes.
This statement is correct. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes in India. The PVTGs are considered to be the most vulnerable among the tribal groups due to various factors such as their declining population, pre-agricultural level of technology, and a stagnant or declining economy. They are also geographically isolated and socially excluded, which makes them more vulnerable compared to other Scheduled Tribes.

Statement 2: PVTGs are characterized only on the basis of Declining or stagnant population.
This statement is incorrect. While the declining or stagnant population is one of the important criteria for identifying PVTGs, it is not the sole criterion. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, uses a multi-dimensional approach to identify PVTGs. The factors considered for identification include the extent of their isolation, low literacy rate, subsistence level of economy, and the nature of their traditional occupation. The declining or stagnant population is just one aspect that is taken into account while identifying PVTGs.

Statement 3: The Dhebar Commission created the PVTGs category.
This statement is incorrect. The Dhebar Commission, officially known as the Tribal Panchsheel Committee, was constituted in 1960 to study the various issues faced by the Scheduled Tribes in India. However, it did not create the PVTGs category. The category of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups was first identified by the Ministry of Welfare, Government of India, in 1973. The Dhebar Commission's recommendations did contribute to the formulation of policies and programs for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes, but it did not directly create the PVTGs category.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. PVTGs are a sub-classification of Scheduled Tribes in India and are considered more vulnerable due to various factors. They are not characterized solely based on declining or stagnant population, and the Dhebar Commission did not create the PVTGs category.

Consider the following statements based on Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report for 2022-2023.
  1. From 2017-18 to 2022-23, LFPR in rural areas has decreased
  2. From 2017-18 to 2022-23, LFPR in urban areas has increased
  3. From 2017-18 to 2022-23, LFPR for males has increased
  4. From 2017-18 to 2022-23, LFPR for females has decreased
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 and 4 is incorrect.
The labour force participation rate (LPR) is a measure of the proportion of a country’s working-age population that is actively engaged in the labour market.
An increasing trend in LFPR for persons aged 15 years and above was observed
  • In rural areas, LFPR increased from 50.7% in 2017-18 to 60.8% in 2022-23.
  • In urban areas, LFPR increased from 47.6% to 50.4% over the same period.
  • LFPR for males in India increased from 75.8% in 2017-18 to 78.5% in 2022-23.
  • For females, LFPR increased from 23.3% to 37.0% during this time.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘A-HELP’ initiative.
  1. The ‘A-HELP’ initiative is being implemented in all Indian states and union territories through an MoU between the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying and the National Rural Livelihoods Mission.
  2. The program aims to empower women by engaging them as Accredited Agents who play a vital role in disease control, animal tagging, and livestock insurance.
  3. It would enhance access to veterinary services at the farmer’s doorstep.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India, introduced the ‘A-HELP’ (Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production) program.
  • This program aims to empower women by engaging them as Accredited Agents who play a vital role in disease control, animal tagging, and livestock insurance.
  • The ‘A-HELP’ initiative is being implemented in various Indian states and union territories, including Bihar, Gujarat, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand, through an MoU between the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying and the National Rural Livelihoods Mission.
  • The new scheme would enhance access to veterinary services at the farmer’s doorstep and empower Pashu Sakhis.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The McMahon Line serves as the de facto boundary between China and India in the Western Sector along Jammu and Kashmir.
  2. The McMahon Line was drawn during the Simla Convention.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
Background:
The McMahon Line is a disputed boundary line between China and India in the Eastern Sector along the state of Arunachal Pradesh. It was proposed by British colonial administrator Sir Henry McMahon during the Simla Convention in 1914. The Simla Convention was a treaty signed between the British government in India and the Tibetan government, and it aimed to clarify the boundaries of Tibet and its neighboring regions.

Explanation:
Now let's analyze the given statements:

Statement 1: The McMahon Line serves as the de facto boundary between China and India in the Western Sector along Jammu and Kashmir.
This statement is incorrect. The McMahon Line does not pertain to the Western Sector along Jammu and Kashmir. It is relevant to the Eastern Sector, particularly in Arunachal Pradesh. In the Western Sector, the Line of Control (LoC) serves as the de facto boundary between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir. The McMahon Line is not recognized by Pakistan and China in the Western Sector.

Statement 2: The McMahon Line was drawn during the Simla Convention.
This statement is correct. The McMahon Line was indeed proposed and drawn during the Simla Convention in 1914. Sir Henry McMahon, the British representative, presented the line as a proposed boundary between Tibet and British India. The line was drawn on a map and was intended to be the boundary between the two regions.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
To summarize, the McMahon Line is not the boundary in the Western Sector along Jammu and Kashmir. It is only applicable to the Eastern Sector in Arunachal Pradesh. The line was drawn during the Simla Convention in 1914.

The term ‘Vande Mataram’, during the Indian freedom movement was given by 
  • a)
    Maulana Hasrat Mohani 
  • b)
    Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 
  • c)
    Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose 
  • d)
    Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?



Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay:

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the one who gave the term 'Vande Mataram' during the Indian freedom movement. He wrote the song in his novel "Anandamath" which was published in 1882.

Significance:

- 'Vande Mataram' became a rallying cry for the freedom fighters and played a crucial role in inspiring the people to fight against British rule.
- The song became immensely popular and was sung at various political gatherings and protests during the freedom movement.
- The lyrics of 'Vande Mataram' are a tribute to Mother India, symbolizing the love and reverence for the nation.
- The song captured the spirit of patriotism and unity among the people, encouraging them to work towards the goal of independence.

Legacy:

- 'Vande Mataram' was later adopted as the national song of India.
- It continues to hold a special place in the hearts of Indians and is sung on various occasions to evoke a sense of national pride.
- The song remains a powerful symbol of India's struggle for freedom and its rich cultural heritage.

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's 'Vande Mataram' remains an iconic part of India's history and continues to inspire generations of Indians to uphold the values of unity, patriotism, and love for their country.

Consider the following statements regarding Carbon neutrality.
  1. Carbon neutrality refers to achieving net zero carbon dioxide emissions.
  2. It can be achieved through carbon offsetting or eliminating carbon dioxide emissions altogether.
  3. Renewable energy always produce zero carbon emissions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Carbon Neutrality Explanation:

Statement 1: Carbon neutrality refers to achieving net zero carbon dioxide emissions.
- This statement is correct. Carbon neutrality is the balance between emitting carbon dioxide and absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Statement 2: It can be achieved through carbon offsetting or eliminating carbon dioxide emissions altogether.
- This statement is correct. Carbon neutrality can be achieved by either offsetting carbon emissions through projects that reduce or remove greenhouse gases from the atmosphere, or by completely eliminating carbon dioxide emissions.

Statement 3: Renewable energy always produce zero carbon emissions.
- This statement is incorrect. While renewable energy sources like solar and wind power produce significantly lower carbon emissions compared to fossil fuels, they are not completely carbon-free. The manufacturing, installation, and maintenance of renewable energy technologies do have some associated carbon emissions.
In conclusion, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Carbon neutrality is a crucial goal in combating climate change, and it can be achieved through various methods such as carbon offsetting and reducing carbon emissions.

Consider the following statements regarding Solid wastes to energy plants.
  1. The Processing of waste into biofuel is carbon-negative.
  2. The residue ash can be used in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction.
  3. Waste-to-energy plants can convert salt water to potable fresh water.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
Processing of waste into biofuel is carbon-negative:
- The statement is correct. The processing of waste into biofuel is considered carbon-negative because it helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions. When waste is converted into biofuel through processes such as anaerobic digestion or thermal treatment, it prevents the release of methane gas, which is a potent greenhouse gas. Methane is typically emitted when organic waste decomposes in landfills. By converting the waste into biofuel, the methane emissions are significantly reduced, leading to a net reduction in carbon emissions.

The residue ash can be used in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction:
- The statement is correct. After the waste-to-energy process, the remaining ash, known as bottom ash or incinerator ash, can be used in various applications. One such application is in the manufacturing of cinder blocks. The ash can be mixed with cement and other materials to create building blocks with improved strength and durability. Additionally, the ash can also be used for road construction purposes. It can be mixed with asphalt or used as a base material in road construction projects.

Waste-to-energy plants can convert saltwater to potable fresh water:
- The statement is incorrect. Waste-to-energy plants are primarily designed to convert solid waste into energy, typically in the form of electricity or heat. They do not have the capability to convert saltwater into potable freshwater. The process of desalination, which involves removing salt and other impurities from saltwater, is different from waste-to-energy processes. Desalination plants use various technologies such as reverse osmosis or distillation to convert saltwater into freshwater, but these processes are not directly related to waste-to-energy plants.

In conclusion, two of the statements are correct. The processing of waste into biofuel is carbon-negative, as it helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The residue ash from waste-to-energy plants can indeed be used in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction. However, waste-to-energy plants do not have the capability to convert saltwater into potable freshwater.

Consider the following statements regarding Tribunals.
  1. Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that have the power to try cases of special matter which are conferred on them by statutes.
  2. The tenure, terms and conditions of service of the members of the Administrative tribunal are entirely in the hands of the executive.
  3. For effective delivery of justice, the members of the Tribunals must be compulsorily trained in Law.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?



Explanation:

Statement 1: Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies that have the power to try cases of special matters which are conferred on them by statutes.
This statement is correct. Tribunals are specialized bodies set up to deal with specific types of disputes or appeals, and they have the authority to adjudicate on matters assigned to them by law.

Statement 2: The tenure, terms and conditions of service of the members of the Administrative tribunal are entirely in the hands of the executive.
This statement is incorrect. The independence of tribunals is crucial to ensure impartiality in decision-making. The tenure, terms, and conditions of service of tribunal members are usually determined by law to safeguard their independence from executive interference.

Statement 3: For effective delivery of justice, the members of the Tribunals must be compulsorily trained in Law.
This statement is correct. To ensure fair and competent adjudication, tribunal members must possess the necessary legal knowledge and expertise. Training in law helps members understand legal principles, procedures, and precedents to make informed decisions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B - Only two, as statements 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following pairs.
  1. Absolute humidity: the mass of water vapour in a given volume of the air and water vapour mixture
  2. Specific humidity: It is equal to the mass of the moisture divided by the mass of air
  3. Relative humidity: it factors in the amount of vapour that air can hold at different temperatures.
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Humidity is the amount of moisture in the air around us, and there are three ways to track it. The most common of them is absolute humidity: the mass of water vapour in a given volume of the air and water vapour mixture, expressed as kg/m3. The second is specific humidity, equal to the mass of the moisture divided by the mass of air. It is expressed as a dimensionless number (but sometimes also as grams per kilogram, among other similar units.
The third way is relative humidity: it is important because it factors in the amount of vapour that air can hold at different temperatures. 

Consider the following statements regarding Kulasekarapattinam, that was recently in news
  1. Kulasekharapatnamis a town in Kerala.
  2. It was an ancient port that was contemporaneous to the existence of Kollam, Cheran, and Pandyan ports.
  3. ISRO is establishing a second spaceport here, dedicated to Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) developed by the private sector.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
ISRO is establishing a second spaceport in Kulasekarapattinam, Tamil Nadu, dedicated to Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) developed by the private sector.
The SSLV is a cost-effective, flexible launch vehicle capable of deploying around 500kg satellites in a 500-km orbit.
Kulasekharapatnam is a town in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. It was an ancient port dating to the 1st century AD and was contemporaneous to the existence of Kollam, Cheran, and Pandyan ports
.

Which of the following countries are part of Nordic countries?
  1. Finland
  2. Sweden
  3. Norway
  4. Poland
  5. Estonia
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Option 1, 2 and 3 is correct.
The Nordic countries are a geographical and cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. It includes the sovereign states of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden; the autonomous territories of the Faroe Islands and Greenland; and the autonomous region of Åland.

Consider the following statements regarding Passport to Earning (P2E) Initiative.
  1. Passport to Earning (P2E) Initiative was launched by Ministry of Education (MoE).
  2. The initiative aligns with the National Education Policyand provides free access to certificate courses in relevant skills.
  3. It aims to empower youthbetween the ages of 14-29 and connect them to job and self-employment opportunities to achieve financial independence.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ujwal Unni answered
Overview of the P2E Initiative
The Passport to Earning (P2E) Initiative is a significant program launched to empower youth in India. It focuses on providing skills training and enhancing employability among young individuals.
Evaluation of the Statements
1. Statement One: Launch by Ministry of Education (MoE)
- This statement is correct. The P2E Initiative was indeed launched by the Ministry of Education, signifying the government’s commitment to enhancing educational outcomes and employability for the youth.
2. Statement Two: Alignment with National Education Policy (NEP)
- This statement is also correct. The P2E Initiative aligns with the National Education Policy, which emphasizes skill development and vocational training, thereby ensuring that educational programs meet the needs of the job market.
3. Statement Three: Target Age Group and Objective
- This statement is correct as well. The initiative aims to empower youth between the ages of 14-29, focusing on providing them with opportunities for job placements and self-employment, which is crucial for achieving financial independence.
Conclusion
All three statements regarding the P2E Initiative are accurate. Thus, the correct answer should be "All three." However, if the conclusion drawn in the question indicates that only two statements are correct, it may suggest a misinterpretation or a specific context that was not elaborated upon.
In summary, the P2E Initiative is a robust program with a clear focus on skill development and youth empowerment in alignment with national educational goals.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Nobel Foundation is a private institution that oversees the administration of the Nobel prizes.
  2. The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded every year to honour authors whose works focus on idealism.
  3. All the Nobel Prizes are awarded in Sweden
  4. Amartya Sen was the last Indian individual to receive Nobel Prize.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement 3 and 4 is incorrect.
 About the Nobel Prize
It encompasses several categories, including Peace, Literature, Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, and Economic Sciences. The Nobel Foundation, a private institution established in 1900, oversees the administration of the prizes and ensures the independence of the prize-awarding institutions.
 The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded every year to honour authors whose works focus on idealism.
 Indian individuals and their Nobel Prize-winning work:
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Norway, while the other Nobel Prizes are awarded in Sweden. This tradition dates back to 1901 when the Nobel Peace Prize was established and has continued ever since.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Armenia is located in the mountainous Caucasus region between Asia and Europe.
  2. Armenia is bordered by both Black Sea and Caspian Sea.
  3. Armenia was the first state to adopt Christianityas its official religion.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Armenia is a landlocked country in the mountainous Caucasus region between Asia and Europe. Yerevan is the capital. Armenia was the first state to adopt Christianity as its official religion. It underwent the Armenian genocide during World War I. After periods of independence and Soviet rule, it became independent in 1991.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS).
  1. National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) aims to provide climate information to various sectors like agriculture, energy and disaster management, to help them make informed decisions and mitigate climate risks.
  2. It is led by World Meteorological Organization.
  3. Global Framework for Climate Services (GFCS) was framed based on inputs from National Framework for Climate Services.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Saha answered
1. India is the seventh-largest country in the world by land area, covering approximately 3.29 million square kilometers.

2. India is the second-most populous country in the world, with a population of over 1.3 billion people.

3. India is a federal parliamentary democratic republic, with a President as the head of state and a Prime Minister as the head of government.

4. India gained independence from British colonial rule on August 15, 1947, and is celebrated as Independence Day.

5. India has a diverse cultural heritage, with multiple religions, languages, and ethnic groups coexisting in the country.

6. The economy of India is the world's sixth-largest by nominal GDP and the third-largest by purchasing power parity.

7. India is known for its IT and software services industry, with cities like Bangalore and Hyderabad being major hubs for technology companies.

8. The Taj Mahal, located in Agra, is one of the most famous tourist attractions in India and is considered a symbol of love.

9. India has a space program and has successfully launched missions to the moon and Mars.

10. India is a nuclear-armed country and has conducted several nuclear tests in the past.

Which of the following are the examples for Aerosol type of colloids?
  1. Fog
  2. Mist
  3. Mud
  4. Clouds
  5. Pumice
How many of the above options is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Option 1, 2 and 4 is correct.
There are tens of millions of solid particles and liquid droplets in the air we inhale on a daily basis. These ubiquitous specks of matter are known as aerosols, and they can be found in the air over oceans, deserts, mountains, forests, ice, and every ecosystem in between.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of gases is a metric that helps measure the radiative effect of each unit of gas over a specific period of time, that is expressed relative to the radiative effect of carbon dioxide.
  2. Emissions from livestock mainly include carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide and methane.
  3. Gases such as nitrous oxide and methane absorbs less energy than carbon dioxide but stays in the atmosphere for a longer duration.
How many of the above statements are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
Statement 1: The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of gases is a metric that helps measure the radiative effect of each unit of gas over a specific period of time, that is expressed relative to the radiative effect of carbon dioxide.

This statement is correct. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure used to compare the radiative forcing of different greenhouse gases. It measures how much heat a particular greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere relative to carbon dioxide over a specific time period, usually 100 years. Carbon dioxide is used as a reference gas with a GWP of 1, and other greenhouse gases are assigned GWPs based on their ability to trap heat compared to carbon dioxide.

Statement 2: Emissions from livestock mainly include carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and methane.

This statement is incorrect. While livestock do contribute to greenhouse gas emissions, the main greenhouse gas emitted from livestock is methane. Methane is produced during the digestive process of ruminant animals, such as cows, sheep, and goats. Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a much higher Global Warming Potential than carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide emissions from livestock primarily come from land-use changes, such as deforestation for pasture or feed production.

Statement 3: Gases such as nitrous oxide and methane absorb less energy than carbon dioxide but stay in the atmosphere for a longer duration.

This statement is correct. Nitrous oxide and methane have higher Global Warming Potentials than carbon dioxide, meaning they have a greater ability to trap heat in the atmosphere. However, they do not stay in the atmosphere as long as carbon dioxide. Nitrous oxide has a lifetime of about 114 years, while methane has a lifetime of about 12 years. Carbon dioxide, on the other hand, can persist in the atmosphere for hundreds to thousands of years. Despite their shorter lifetimes, the higher Global Warming Potentials of nitrous oxide and methane make them significant contributors to climate change.

In conclusion, two out of the three statements are correct. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures the radiative effect of gases relative to carbon dioxide, and gases like nitrous oxide and methane have higher GWPs than carbon dioxide but stay in the atmosphere for a shorter duration. However, emissions from livestock mainly consist of methane, not carbon dioxide.

Consider the following statements regarding National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.
  1. The law mandates that 75% of the total population must be covered by the PDS.
  2. The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total PDS coverage.
  3. Some States use their own budgets to top up PDS coverage through the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS).
How many of the above statements are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is incorrect.
 The National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 expanded the coverage of the PDS substantially.
 The law mandates that 50% of the urban and 75% of the rural populations must be covered by the PDS. 
 The NFSA requires that the latest completed Census be used to calculate the total PDS coverage. 
 Some States use their own budgets to “top up” PDS coverage through the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) — for example, Tamil Nadu — or local procurement — for example, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe.
  2. Dark matter interacts strongly with electromagnetic forceslike visible light, X-ray or radio waves.
  3. CERN’s Large Hadron Collider experiment aims to detect dark matter.
How many of the above statements are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe.
Scientists say that the reason we are unable to see or detect this invisible matter is that it does not interact with electromagnetic forces — things like visible light, X-ray or radio waves.
They argue that we can, however, observe some of the effects of dark matter through its gravitational force.
But we still want to detect dark matter in its own right. And here’s where CERN’s Large Hadron Collider comes in.

Consider the following statements regarding Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
  1. The CTBT is a global treaty adopted by the United Nations, that isaimed at prohibiting all nuclear explosions for military or peaceful purposes.
  2. The origins of the CTBT can be traced back to the arms race between the United States and the Soviet Union,which conducted numerous nuclear tests from 1945 to 1996.
  3. It entered into force after signing of majority of Nuclear armed countries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The CTBT is a global treaty, adopted by the United Nations in 1996, aimed at prohibiting all nuclear explosions for military or peaceful purposes. However, it has not yet entered into force due to the incomplete ratification process by several countries.
  • The origins of the CTBT can be traced back to the arms race between the United States and the Soviet Union, which conducted numerous nuclear tests from 1945 to 1996, causing concerns about the environmental and health impacts of radioactive fallout.
  • Various attempts to limit nuclear testing were made, including the Limited Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty in 1963, which prohibited tests in the atmosphere, outer space, and underwater but allowed underground testing.
  • The CTBT, established in 1996, sought to impose a complete ban on explosive nuclear testing, taking advantage of reduced geopolitical tensions after the end of the Cold War. Despite its adoption, some countries have conducted nuclear tests since then, including India, Pakistan, and North Korea.
  • The treaty requires ratification by 44 specific countries with nuclear technology, and eight of them, including China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan, and the United States, have yet to do so.

Consider the following statements regarding Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary.
  1. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR)in Karnataka.
  2. Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and global biodiversityhotspot.
  3. Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR) derives its name from the Kali River, which flows through the region.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
About Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • It lies within the Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR)(Uttara Kannada District of Karnataka) along with Anshi National Park.
  • KTR is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and global biodiversity The reserve derives its name from the Kali River, which flows through the region. The ecoregions found here, namely the North Western Ghats montanerainforests and North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests.

Which of the following movements had the issue of Language as an element?
  1. Six-point movement
  2. 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War
  3. Bengali nationalist movement
How many of the above options is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Sengupta answered
Language as an Element in Movements
In the context of the movements mentioned, Language played a significant role in shaping the course of events. Let's analyze each movement in detail:

Six-point Movement
- The Six-point Movement in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) was a political movement in the 1960s, led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.
- One of the key demands of this movement was the recognition of Bengali as an official language alongside Urdu.
- Language was a crucial element in this movement as it symbolized the cultural and linguistic identity of the Bengali people.

1971 Bangladesh Liberation War
- The 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War was a significant event in the history of Bangladesh, leading to its independence from Pakistan.
- Language played a crucial role in this war as the suppression of Bengali language and culture by the Pakistani government was one of the major reasons behind the conflict.
- The Language Movement of 1952, where Bengalis protested against the imposition of Urdu as the sole official language, also laid the foundation for the later struggle for independence.

Bengali Nationalist Movement
- The Bengali nationalist movement refers to the various movements and uprisings in Bengal, primarily centered around the demand for linguistic and cultural rights.
- Language was a central element in this movement, as Bengalis sought to assert their identity and autonomy through the recognition of Bengali language and culture.
Therefore, all three movements - the Six-point Movement, 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War, and Bengali Nationalist Movement - had Language as a significant element, highlighting the importance of linguistic identity and cultural rights in shaping these historical events.

Consider the following statements regarding Zealandia.
  1. Zealandia is an underwater continentlocated to the north of Africa.
  2. It was recognized as Earth’s eighth continent.
  3. Zealandia was formed during the Late Cretaceous periodand started as part of the supercontinent Gondwana before breaking away.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Zealandia is an underwater continent located to the southeast of Australia. It was recognized as Earth’s eighth continent in 2017. Zealandia formed around 83 million years ago during the Late Cretaceous period and started as part of the supercontinent Gondwana before breaking away.

Consider the following statements regarding Habitat Rights.
  1. Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means and protection of their natural and cultural heritage.
  2. They empower Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats.
  3. In India all the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) have been granted habitat rights.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The Baiga Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Chhattisgarh has been granted habitat rights, making it the second PVTG to receive such rights in the state.
  • Out of 75 PVTGs in India, only three have received habitat rights, including the Bharia PVTG in Madhya Pradesh, the Kamar tribe, and now the Baiga tribe in Chhattisgarh.
About Habitat Rights:
  • Habitat rights are granted under the Forest Rights Act and provide communities with rights over their customary territories, cultural practices, livelihood means, biodiversity knowledge, and protection of their natural and cultural heritage.
  • Habitat rights help safeguard traditional livelihoods and ecological knowledge, and they empower PVTG communities to access government schemes and initiatives to develop their habitats.

Political equality of citizens in a democracy refer to
  1. Freedom to express political opinions, organize and protest a Government
  2. Equal eligibility for public offices
  3. Equal voting rights
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • A democracy cannot exist without giving some fundamental rights of citizens and to safeguard them via institutional mechanisms. It is essential to have laws/rules that protect citizen’s rights. Political equality is one such right.
  • Political equality of citizens refers to equal voting rights, equal eligibility for public offices etc.
  • Without the freedom to opine, express, organize and protest a government can turn tyrannical and authoritarian. This is also essential to political equality. It acts as a check and balance.

Martand Sun Temple, recently in news is located in
  • a)
    Uttarakhand 
  • b)
    Jammu and Kashmir 
  • c)
    Madhya Pradesh 
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • Around 1200 years ago, a great king built a grand temple, dedicated to Martand, the Sun god. The temple survives partially today in Jammu and Kashmir’s Anantnag. It still makes for an impressive sight with the formidable grey walls standing stark against the blue sky, broken grey fragments strewn around the green grass. Some of the walls bear clear carvings of deities, and the beauty and symmetry of the temple are still amply evident. The temple is ringed by a row of pillars—the peristyle common in Kashmiri temple architecture.
  • The Martand Temple was built by the Karkota dynasty king Lalitaditya Muktapida, who ruled Kashmir from 725 AD to 753 AD.
  • Dedicated to Vishnu-Surya, the Martand Temple has three distinct chambers—the mandapa, the garbhagriha, and the antralaya—probably the only three-chambered temple in Kashmir.
  • The temple is built in a unique Kashmiri style, though it has definite Gandhar influences.

Consider the following statements regarding Asian Games.
  1. The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a major continental multi-sport event held every five years.
  2. These Games are not recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
  3. Every alternate edition of the Asian Games is held in India.
  4. India has won at least one gold medalin all the Asian Games held till now.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devanshi Saha answered
Statement Analysis:
Let's analyze each statement one by one.

1. The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a major continental multi-sport event held every five years.
This statement is correct. The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is indeed a major continental multi-sport event held every four years. It involves athletes from all over Asia competing in various sports.

2. These Games are not recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
This statement is incorrect. The Asian Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The IOC has granted official recognition to the Asian Games since the 10th edition held in 1974.

3. Every alternate edition of the Asian Games is held in India.
This statement is incorrect. Every alternate edition of the Asian Games is not held in India. The host country for each edition of the Asian Games is determined through a bidding process. Various countries in Asia have hosted the Asian Games, including India, but it is not a fixed pattern that India hosts every alternate edition.

4. India has won at least one gold medal in all the Asian Games held till now.
This statement is correct. India has indeed won at least one gold medal in all the Asian Games held till now. India has participated in the Asian Games since its inception in 1951 and has achieved significant success, particularly in sports like field hockey, shooting, wrestling, and badminton.

Summary:
Out of the four given statements:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, only one statement is correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Along with Harappa, Mohenjo Daro is the site of the bronze age urban civilization that flourished in the valley of the Indus.
  2. The ruins of Mohenjo Daro was the first excavated site of Indus valley civilization.
  3. Mohenjo Daro is famous for its elaborate town planning, developed water supply and monumental buildings such as the Great Granary and the Great Bath.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


Correct Answer: b) Only two



Explanation:



One of the statements is correct, while the other two are not entirely accurate. Let's break down each statement to understand why:

- Statement 1: Along with Harappa, Mohenjo Daro is the site of the bronze age urban civilization that flourished in the valley of the Indus.
- This statement is correct. Mohenjo Daro, along with Harappa, was one of the major urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization that thrived in the Bronze Age.

- Statement 2: The ruins of Mohenjo Daro was the first excavated site of Indus valley civilization.
- This statement is incorrect. Mohenjo Daro was not the first excavated site of the Indus Valley Civilization. Harappa was actually the first site to be excavated in the early 20th century.

- Statement 3: Mohenjo Daro is famous for its elaborate town planning, developed water supply, and monumental buildings such as the Great Granary and the Great Bath.
- This statement is also correct. Mohenjo Daro is renowned for its advanced urban planning, sophisticated water management system, and impressive structures like the Great Granary and the Great Bath.

Therefore, only the first and third statements are accurate, making the correct answer option b) Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding PM Vishwakarma Scheme.
  1. The scheme aims at supporting and providing skill-upgradation training to artisans and craftspeople.
  2. It creates avenues of market linkage for persons working in trades and crafts.
  3. The scheme does not provide any financial assistance.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre on September 17, has received over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months, data from the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) show. The scheme, aimed at supporting and providing skill-upgradation training to artisans and craftspeople.
  • The Vishwakarma Scheme provides formal training for upgradation and modernisation of traditional skills amid a changing economic landscape. It also offers financial assistance and creates avenues of “market linkage” for persons working in 18 trades and crafts. These include carpenter, boat-maker, armourer, blacksmith, hammer and tool kit maker, locksmith, goldsmith, potter, sculptor, cobbler, mason, basket-maker, doll and toy-maker, barber, garland maker, washerman, tailor, and fishing net-maker.

Consider the following statements regarding the rock painting during Upper Paleolithic period.
  1. These painting contain Linear representations of animal and human figures.
  2. The Prominent locations where they were found were Vindhya ranges of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  3. The themes include daily life events to sacred and royal images.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
Statement 1: These paintings contain Linear representations of animal and human figures.
The first statement is correct. The rock paintings during the Upper Paleolithic period did indeed contain linear representations of both animal and human figures. These figures were often depicted in a simplistic and stylized manner, with an emphasis on capturing the essence of the subject rather than attempting to achieve a realistic representation.

Statement 2: The prominent locations where they were found were Vindhya ranges of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
The second statement is correct as well. The Vindhya ranges, which are located in the central part of India, specifically in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, are known to be one of the prominent locations where these rock paintings were found. These paintings were discovered in numerous rock shelters and caves throughout the region, providing valuable insights into the lives and cultures of the people who created them.

Statement 3: The themes include daily life events to sacred and royal images.
The third statement is also correct. The themes depicted in these rock paintings during the Upper Paleolithic period were diverse and encompassed a wide range of subjects. While some paintings portrayed scenes from daily life, such as hunting, gathering, and communal activities, others depicted sacred or ritualistic events, including ceremonies and religious practices. Additionally, there were also paintings that featured royal or prestigious individuals, suggesting a hierarchical societal structure.

Therefore, all three statements are correct. The rock paintings of the Upper Paleolithic period were characterized by linear representations of animal and human figures, were prominently found in the Vindhya ranges of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, and depicted a variety of themes ranging from daily life events to sacred and royal images.

Consider the following statements regarding Travel for LiFE program.
  1. It is a sectoral program launched by the Union Ministryof Culture.
  2. The initiative aims to bring about behavioural changes in both tourists and tourism businesses.
  3. It focuses on environmental protection and socio-cultural sustainability.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is a sectoral program launched by the Union Ministry of Culture.
Statement 2: The initiative aims to bring about behavioral changes in both tourists and tourism businesses.
Statement 3: It focuses on environmental protection and socio-cultural sustainability.

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.

Statement 1: It is a sectoral program launched by the Union Ministry of Culture.
This statement is incorrect. The Travel for LiFE program is not launched by the Union Ministry of Culture. It is actually a program launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism.

Statement 2: The initiative aims to bring about behavioral changes in both tourists and tourism businesses.
This statement is correct. The main objective of the Travel for LiFE program is to bring about behavioral changes in both tourists and tourism businesses. It encourages responsible and sustainable tourism practices by promoting awareness and education among tourists and working closely with tourism businesses to adopt sustainable practices.

Statement 3: It focuses on environmental protection and socio-cultural sustainability.
This statement is correct. The Travel for LiFE program focuses on environmental protection and socio-cultural sustainability. It aims to minimize the negative impact of tourism on the environment and local communities, while promoting the conservation of natural resources and cultural heritage.

In conclusion, statement 1 is incorrect while statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Psyche Mission.
  1. Psyche Mission was launched by European Space Agency to study an asteroid ‘Psyche.’
  2. For the first time, the mission will examine a celestial body primarily composed of rock and ice.
  3. It aims to gain insights into the internal structure of terrestrial planets, including Earth.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Only Statement 3 is correct.
  • NASA has launched a spacecraft called ‘Psyche’ on a six-year mission to study a unique metal-rich asteroid also named ‘Psyche.’
  • This asteroid orbit the Sun between Mars and Jupiter.
  • The primary goal of the Psyche mission is to explore the iron core, a previously unexplored aspect of planet formation.
  • For the first time, the mission will examine a celestial body primarily composed of metal rather than rock and ice.
  • Additionally, it aims to gain insights into the internal structure of terrestrial planets, including Earth, by directly studying the interior of a differentiated body, which would otherwise remain hidden.

A new species of toad, called Bufoides bhupathyi, has been discovered in the Dampa tiger reserve, located in
  • a)
    Kerala 
  • b)
    Madhya Pradesh 
  • c)
    Meghalaya 
  • d)
    Mizoram
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Rane answered
Discovery of Bufoides bhupathyi
- A new species of toad, Bufoides bhupathyi, was discovered in the Dampa tiger reserve.
- The Dampa tiger reserve is located in Mizoram.

Significance of the Discovery
- This discovery highlights the rich biodiversity found in the Dampa tiger reserve.
- It sheds light on the importance of conservation efforts in protecting unique species like Bufoides bhupathyi.

Conservation Implications
- The discovery of Bufoides bhupathyi underscores the need for continued conservation efforts in the Dampa tiger reserve.
- Conservation measures must be put in place to ensure the survival of this newly discovered species and its habitat.

Which of the following water bodies are fully / partially located in Italy?
  1. Lake Garda
  2. Danube River
  3. Po River
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Basu answered
Answer:

The correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.

Explanation:

Italy is known for its beautiful lakes, rivers, and coastlines. Let's analyze each water body mentioned in the question to determine if it is fully or partially located in Italy.

Lake Garda:
Lake Garda is the largest lake in Italy and is located in the northern part of the country. It is partially located in Italy, sharing its shores with three regions: Lombardy, Veneto, and Trentino-Alto Adige. Therefore, Lake Garda is partially located in Italy.

Danube River:
The Danube River is one of the major rivers in Europe, flowing through ten countries. However, Italy is not one of the countries through which the Danube River passes. Therefore, the Danube River is not located in Italy.

Po River:
The Po River is the longest river in Italy, flowing through northern Italy. It originates in the Alps and runs across several regions, including Piedmont, Lombardy, Emilia-Romagna, and Veneto. The Po River is fully located in Italy.

Based on the analysis above, we can conclude that out of the three water bodies mentioned, only two are located in Italy. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
  1. The SCO is an intergovernmental organisation established to ensure security and maintain stability across the Eurasian region.
  2. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) was established as part of SCO.
  3. SCO does not concentrate in the fields of economics and culture.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The SCO is an intergovernmental organisation founded on June 15, 2001 in Shanghai, China. It was established as a multilateral association to ensure security and maintain stability across the vast Eurasian region, join forces to counteract emerging challenges and threats, and enhance trade, as well as cultural and humanitarian cooperation.
  • The SCO was founded with the primary aim to address security-related concerns, with addressing regional terrorism, ethnic separatism and religious extremism top in its list of priorities. In 2004, at the SCO Summit held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) was established. Through RATS, SCO members share crucial intelligence, know-how, legal expertise as well as allow for extradition of terrorists.
  • The SCO promotes cooperation in the fields of economics and culture, with the aim of promoting regional development as a part of a holistic approach towards tackling security issues. To that end, it has signed various treaties to promote trade and cultural exchanges within members.

Which of these African nations border Red Sea?
  1. Egypt
  2. Ethiopia
  3. South Sudan
  4. Eritrea
  5. Chad
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankit Roy answered
Explanation:

Bordering Red Sea:
- Egypt
- Eritrea
Only two of the African nations listed in the options border the Red Sea. Egypt and Eritrea are the countries that have a coastline along the Red Sea.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Indus Valley Civilization (IVC).
  1. Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the basins of the Indus River.
  2. Complete burial of dead bodies was absent in the Indus Valley Civilization.
  3. They had a strong disbelief in life after death, which was similar to the belief system of other contemporary civilizations
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
     Only two 
  • b)
    All three
  • c)
    Only one
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ritika Datta answered
Statement 1: Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the basins of the Indus River.

This statement is correct. The Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, was indeed a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the basins of the Indus River. It existed from approximately 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE and was spread across parts of what is now modern-day India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.

Statement 2: Complete burial of dead bodies was absent in the Indus Valley Civilization.

This statement is correct. Archaeological excavations at various Indus Valley sites have not revealed any evidence of complete burial of dead bodies. Unlike some other contemporary civilizations, such as the ancient Egyptians, the Indus Valley people did not practice mummification or burial in elaborate tombs. Instead, they practiced various burial customs, including partial burial, cremation, and the use of secondary burials (where bones were collected and placed in pots or urns).

Statement 3: They had a strong disbelief in life after death, which was similar to the belief system of other contemporary civilizations.

This statement is incorrect. The belief system of the Indus Valley Civilization regarding life after death is not well understood due to the lack of written records. However, based on archaeological evidence, it is believed that they did have some form of belief in the afterlife. The presence of burial goods, such as pottery, jewelry, and figurines, in graves suggests a belief in an afterlife or a belief in the need to provide for the deceased in the afterlife. This belief in the afterlife is also seen in the practices of secondary burials, where bones were collected and placed in pots or urns, possibly indicating a belief in the journey of the soul to the afterlife.

Conclusion:
Out of the three statements, only two are correct. The Indus Valley Civilization was indeed a Bronze Age civilization that flourished in the basins of the Indus River. However, contrary to the second statement, complete burial of dead bodies was absent in the Indus Valley Civilization. Regarding the third statement, there is evidence to suggest that the Indus Valley people did have some form of belief in the afterlife, indicating a departure from the belief system of other contemporary civilizations. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - only two of the statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Depleted uranium.
  1. Depleted uranium is a byproduct of the process of creating enriched uranium.
  2. Depleted uranium is much more radioactive than enriched uranium.
  3. Due to its high density, depleted uranium is widely used in weapons.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Khanna answered
Understanding Depleted Uranium
Depleted uranium (DU) is a significant material in discussions about nuclear energy and military applications. Let’s analyze the given statements to determine their accuracy.
Statement 1: Depleted uranium is a byproduct of the process of creating enriched uranium.
- This statement is correct.
- During the enrichment process, uranium-238 is separated from uranium-235. The remaining uranium, which is primarily uranium-238, is known as depleted uranium.
Statement 2: Depleted uranium is much more radioactive than enriched uranium.
- This statement is incorrect.
- Depleted uranium is less radioactive than enriched uranium. Enriched uranium contains a higher proportion of uranium-235, which is the isotope responsible for most of the radioactivity.
Statement 3: Due to its high density, depleted uranium is widely used in weapons.
- This statement is correct.
- Depleted uranium has a high density, making it an effective material for armor-piercing ammunition and other military applications.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis of the three statements:
- Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': Only two statements are correct.
This understanding of depleted uranium is crucial for comprehending its uses and implications in both energy and military contexts.

Major Jute producing states in India include
  1. West Bengal
  2. Bihar
  3. Assam
  4. Kerala
  5. Andhra Pradesh
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Stuti Dey answered

Explanation:

Major Jute Producing States in India:

- West Bengal: West Bengal is the largest jute-producing state in India, contributing significantly to the total jute production in the country.

- Bihar: Bihar is also a major jute-producing state in India, making it one of the key contributors to the jute industry.

- Assam: Assam is another important jute-producing state in India, known for its quality jute production.

- Kerala: Kerala also produces jute, although its production levels are relatively lower compared to other major jute-producing states.

- Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh is known for its jute production, adding to the overall jute output in the country.

Therefore, based on the given options, the correct answer is option 'C' - Only four states (West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, and Andhra Pradesh) out of the five listed are major jute-producing states in India. Kerala is not a major jute-producing state compared to the others mentioned.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Sovereign equality means all states are equal under international law in spite of inequalities between them in areas such as military power, geographical and population size and economic development.
  2. The UN Charter does not recognise the principle of Sovereign equality, but recognises the doctrine of collective security.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
Statement 1: Sovereign equality means all states are equal under international law in spite of inequalities between them in areas such as military power, geographical and population size, and economic development.

Explanation:
Sovereign equality is a fundamental principle in international law which asserts that all states are equal regardless of their differences in terms of military power, geographical size, population size, and economic development. This principle implies that every state has the same rights and obligations under international law, and no state should be given preferential treatment or be discriminated against based on its characteristics.

Sovereign equality is enshrined in the United Nations Charter, which is the foundational document of the United Nations. Article 2(1) of the UN Charter states that "The Organization is based on the principle of the sovereign equality of all its Members." This principle is further reinforced by Article 2(4), which prohibits the use of force or the threat of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The UN Charter does not recognize the principle of Sovereign equality but recognizes the doctrine of collective security.

Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect. The UN Charter explicitly recognizes the principle of sovereign equality. As mentioned earlier, Article 2(1) of the UN Charter states that the United Nations is based on the principle of the sovereign equality of all its members. This principle is a fundamental tenet of the UN system and is essential for maintaining peace and stability among nations.

The UN Charter also recognizes the doctrine of collective security. This doctrine, as outlined in Chapter VII of the Charter, establishes the responsibility of the UN Security Council to maintain international peace and security. According to Article 24(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is authorized to take collective action, including the use of force, to address threats to peace, breaches of the peace, and acts of aggression.

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as sovereign equality is a recognized principle in international law, while statement 2 is incorrect as the UN Charter explicitly recognizes the principle of sovereign equality in addition to the doctrine of collective security. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Credit Program (GCP).
  1. Green Credit Program (GCP) is a market-based mechanismdesigned to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across various sectors.
  2. To obtain Green Credits, individuals and entities must register their activities through the central government’s dedicated app/website.
  3. Ministry of Finance is responsible for the implementation, management, monitoring, and operation of Green Credit Program.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Banerjee answered
And meet specific eligibility criteria. Green Credits can be earned by reducing greenhouse gas emissions, conserving natural resources, implementing renewable energy projects, and adopting sustainable practices. Green Credits can be traded in the market, allowing individuals and entities to buy and sell credits based on their environmental performance. The revenue generated from the sale of Green Credits can be used to fund further environmental projects and initiatives. Green Credit Program aims to promote sustainable development and mitigate climate change by encouraging individuals and entities to take proactive measures to reduce their environmental impact.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pontus Plate’, that was recently in news
  1. Pontus plate is a long-lost tectonic plate that disappeared millions of years ago.
  2. It was subducted beneath the Australian and Chinese plates.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Scientists have recently rediscovered the “Pontus plate,” a long-lost tectonic plate that disappeared about 20 million years ago.
  • This plate was approximately a quarter the size of the Pacific Ocean and once existed beneath an ancient ocean known as the Pontus Ocean.
  • The rediscovery of the Pontus plate was accidental, occurring during a study of rocks in Borneo. Researchers had originally been studying the Pacific plate when they came across rock fragments that didn’t fit with known plates’ magnetic properties.
  • This plate formed at least 160 million years ago, possibly even earlier, and eventually disappeared as it was subducted beneath the Australian and Chinese plates.

Consider the following statements regarding Hemochromatosis.
  1. Hemochromatosis is a rare disorder characterized by iron overload.
  2. It can affect vital organs such as the liver, heart, and pancreas.
  3. Hemochromatosis is not a hereditary disorder.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hemochromatosis is a rare genetic disorder characterized by iron overload, which can lead to severe dysfunction in various organs.
There are two main types of hemochromatosis: hereditary hemochromatosis and secondary hemochromatosis.
  • Hereditary Hemochromatosis: This genetic disorder results from a mutation in the HFE gene, causing individuals to absorb excessive iron from their diet.
    • Unlike the body’s natural ability to regulate iron intake, people with hereditary hemochromatosis accumulate iron gradually in their system, which can lead to health problems over time.
    • The excess iron can affect vital organs such as the liver, heart, and pancreas, potentially causing cirrhosis, heart failure, diabetes, and arthritis.
  • Secondary Hemochromatosis: This type is typically caused by external factors like frequent blood transfusions, excessive iron supplementation, or certain medical conditions. Iron accumulation in secondary hemochromatosis can be more rapid and lead to organ dysfunction.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Sarus crane is the world’s shortest flying bird.
  2. The Sarus crane is usually found in wetlands and is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh.
  3. A person keeping and nursing an injured Sarus crane at home can be booked under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • A 35-year-old man from Mandkha, Uttar Pradesh, was booked under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for “illegally” keeping and nursing an injured Sarus crane (Grus Antigone) he found in his village.
  • The Sarus crane is usually found in wetlands and is the state bird of Uttar Pradesh. Standing at 152-156 centimetres, it is the world’s tallest flying bird.
  • Under Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, no person is allowed to acquire or keep in his possession, custody or control any wildlife which is state property. If anyone does so — for example, to treat an injured bird as in the present case — she must report it to the nearest police station or the authorised officer within forty-eight hours of obtaining such possession. Further, under Section 57 of the Act, if a person is found in possession, custody or control of any wildlife, the burden of proof for establishing that the possession, custody or control is not illegal is on the person.
  • WLPA does not allow anyone to take home an injured wild bird and keep it for months without written permission from the state’s chief wildlife warden.

Which of the following is the correct order of pH value for the given substances? 
  • a)
    Milk of magnesia > Black Coffee > Egg White > Lemon juice 
  • b)
    Black Coffee > Egg White > Milk of magnesia > Lemon juice 
  • c)
    Milk of magnesia > Egg White > Black Coffee > Lemon juice 
  • d)
    Egg White > Milk of magnesia > Black Coffee > Lemon juice
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
  • Milk of magnesia is a medium basic compound because its pH is not so high and not so low. The pH of milk of magnesia is 10.5.
  • Egg white is one of the few food products that is naturally alkaline, with an initial pH value that can be as low as 7.6 at time of lay, but with increasing alkalinity as the egg ages, and can reach pH of 9.2.
  • Black coffee typically has a pH of about 5 and is thus slightly acidic. It is acidic, with pH between 4 and 5, depending on the beans, roasting, and brewing.
  • Lemon juice has a pH between 2 and 3.

Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP.
  1. Undue influence or personation at an election
  2. Bribery
  3. Promoting enmity between two groups
  4. Defamation
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, certain offences can lead to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament (MP). Let's break down the options provided and determine which offences are correct.

- Undue influence or personation at an election: This offence involves using improper means to influence voters or impersonating someone else during an election. Engaging in such activities can lead to disqualification of an MP under the Representation of the People Act.

- Bribery: Offering or accepting bribes in exchange for votes is a serious offence that can result in disqualification of an MP. Bribery undermines the integrity of the electoral process and is prohibited under the Act.

- Promoting enmity between two groups: Any actions that promote hatred or enmity between different groups of people can also lead to disqualification of an MP. Such activities are not only illegal but also detrimental to the harmony and unity of society.

- Defamation: While defamation is a punishable offence under the Indian Penal Code, it does not specifically lead to disqualification of an MP under the Representation of the People Act.

Therefore, out of the options provided, only three offences - undue influence or personation at an election, bribery, and promoting enmity between two groups - can lead to disqualification of an MP under Section 8(1) of the Act. Defamation, while a serious offence, does not fall under the purview of this particular provision.

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