All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Earth Day:
1. The first World Earth Day was celebrated in 1970 during the Earth Summit.
2. The theme of World Earth Day 2024 is ‘Planet vs. Plastics’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Surbhi Basu answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
The first statement is incorrect. The first World Earth Day was actually celebrated on April 22, 1970. This day was established to raise awareness about environmental issues and promote environmental protection. It is observed annually on April 22nd.

Statement 2:
The second statement is correct. The theme of World Earth Day 2024 is indeed 'Planet vs. Plastics'. This theme focuses on the global issue of plastic pollution and aims to raise awareness about the harmful effects of plastics on the environment and wildlife.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C, both statements are incorrect.

Sammakka- Saralamma Jatara, recently seen in news, is mainly celebrated in:
  • a)
    Telangana
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Bihar
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Recently, the union Minister for Tribal Affairs visited the Sammakka- Saralamma Maha Jatara, in Medaram, Mulugu district of Telangana.
  • It is also known as Medaram Jatara.
  • It is a tribal festival of honouring the goddesses celebrated in the state of Telangana, India.
  • The festival is a demonstration of tribal devotion and people from all walks of life join together to commemorate the revolt led by Sammakka and Saralamma, a mother-daughter duo, against imposing taxes on the tribal populace during a period of drought by the Kakatiya rulers in the 12th century.
  • Location: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu.
  • It is held every two years (biannually). It is celebrated during the time the goddesses of the tribals is believed to visit them.
  • Ritual: People offer bangaram/gold (jaggery) of a quantity equal to their weight to the goddesses and take holy bath in Jampanna Vagua tributary to River Godavari.
  • Significance: It serves as a platform for understanding and fostering harmony between the people and tribal communities, promoting the preservation of their unique traditions, culture, and heritage on a global scale.
Hence option a is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions:
1. It is a United Nations recognized body established for the promotion and protection of human rights.
2. It ensures the compliance of individual National Human Rights Institutions to the Paris Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Singh answered
Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions
The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) is a United Nations recognized body established for the promotion and protection of human rights.

Paris Principles
The Paris Principles are a set of international standards that guide the establishment and functioning of National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs).

Correctness of the Statements
1. Statement 1: It is a United Nations recognized body established for the promotion and protection of human rights. - This statement is correct as GANHRI is indeed a United Nations recognized body that works towards promoting and protecting human rights globally.
2. Statement 2: It ensures the compliance of individual National Human Rights Institutions to the Paris Principles. - This statement is also correct as one of the key roles of GANHRI is to ensure that NHRIs comply with the Paris Principles, which are essential for the effective functioning of NHRIs.
Therefore, both statements are correct, making option C - Both 1 and 2, the correct answer.

Sannati, an ancient Buddhist site, is located in:
  • a)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • b)
    Bihar
  • c)
    Maharashtra
  • d)
    Karnataka
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sannati Bhddhist site left neglected for many years after it came to light through the ASI excavations in the 1990s, got a restoration project in 2022.
  • It is the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima river near Kanaganahalli (forming part of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district, Karnataka.
  • It is also popular among tourists for the Chandrala Parameshwari Temple.
  • Major findings in this site
  • Maha Stupa: It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D. 
  • Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic times.
  • Inscription: An inscriptions written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
  • Sculpture: The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female attendants in this rare sculpture. The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
  • The recoveries included around 60 dome slabs with sculptural renderings of selected Jataka stories, main events in the life of the Master, portraits of Shatavahana monarchs and certain unique depictions of Buddhist missionaries sent by Ashoka to different parts
  • The site of ancient Nagavi Ghatikasthana, which was often termed the Takshashila of the South by historians, is around 40 km away from Sannati.
  • The Ghatikasthana, which had the status of a present-day university, was a major education hub during rulers of the Rashtrakuta and Kalyana Chalukya dynasties between the 10th and 12th Centuries. 
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Pink Hydrogen:
1. It is generated through electrolysis by using nuclear energy.
2. It can be used as replacement for fossil fuels in cement industry and heavy transportation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pink Hydrogen:
Pink Hydrogen is a type of hydrogen generated through electrolysis by using nuclear energy. It is seen as a promising alternative to traditional hydrogen production methods as it is considered more environmentally friendly.

Statements Analysis:

Statement 1:
- This statement is correct. Pink Hydrogen is indeed produced through electrolysis using nuclear energy. This process involves splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using electricity generated from nuclear power plants.

Statement 2:
- This statement is also correct. Pink Hydrogen can be used as a replacement for fossil fuels in industries such as the cement industry and heavy transportation. It can help reduce carbon emissions and contribute to a more sustainable future.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Pink Hydrogen is an innovative solution that holds great potential for reducing carbon emissions and transitioning towards a cleaner energy future.

Consider the following statements with reference to Exercise Poorvi Lehar (XPOL):
1. It is a bilateral maritime exercise conducted between the navies of India and Vietnam.
2. It is aimed at the validation of procedures towards assessment of Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet Maritime Security challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Indian Navy recently conducted Exercise Poorvi Lehar on the East Coast.
About Exercise Poorvi Lehar (XPOL):
  • It is a maritime exercise conducted by the Indian Navy along the East Coast, under the operational direction of the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Naval Command.
  • The exercise aimed at validation of procedures towards assessment of Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet Maritime Security challenges in the region. 
  • The exercise witnessed participation of Ships, Submarines, Aircrafts and Special Forces. 
  • XPOL was conducted in multiple phases including combat training in a realistic scenario during the Tactical Phase and successful conduct of various firings during the Weapon Phase towards reaffirming Indian Navy’s capability to deliver ordnance on target.
  • With operation of aircraft from diverse locations, a near continuous Maritime Domain Awareness was maintained throughout the Area of operations. 
  • In addition to the participation of assets from Eastern Naval Command, the exercise also witnessed participation of assets from IAFAndaman & Nicobar Command and Coast Guard indicating a very high degree of interoperability amongst the Services. 
  • The Exercise offered valuable lessons to participating forces operating under realistic conditions, thereby enhancing their readiness to respond effectively to maritime challenges in the region.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to International Narcotics Control Board:
1. It was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961.
2. All its members are nominated by the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Divyansh Yadav answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'A' (1 only).

Establishment:
- The International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961. This convention is an international treaty to prohibit production and supply of specific (nominally narcotic) drugs and of drugs with similar effects except under license for specific purposes, such as medical treatment and research.

Membership:
- The members of the INCB are not nominated by the World Health Organisation (WHO). Instead, the INCB consists of 13 members who are elected by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
- The members of the INCB serve in their personal capacity and not as government representatives. They are elected based on their expertise in the field of narcotics control and their impartiality.

Role of the INCB:
- The main functions of the INCB are to monitor the implementation of the international drug control conventions, promote compliance with the provisions of the conventions, and assist governments in implementing effective drug control measures.
- The INCB also assesses the annual estimates of the consumption of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances, and monitors the licit movement of these substances across borders.
In conclusion, the International Narcotics Control Board was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961, and its members are elected by the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations, not nominated by the World Health Organisation.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO):
1. It was set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. NOTTO-ID is mandatory for considering the allocation of organs in the case of a deceased donor transplant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

All cases of organ transplants will be allocated a unique National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)-ID for both the donor and the recipient, according to a recent directive by the Union Health Ministry.
Why in News?
  • The Union Health Ministry has issued the directive to eliminate commercial dealings in organs, especially those involving foreign citizens
  • NOTTO-ID is mandatory for considering the allocation of organs in the case of a deceased donor transplant; this ID in the case of a living donor transplants hall also be generated at the earliest, maximum within 48 hours after the transplant surgery is done.
  • NOTTO-ID must be generated by the hospital from the NOTTO website.
  • It has also called for stricter monitoring of such transplants by the local authorities.
About National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO):
  • NOTTO is a national level organization set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • It functions as the apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for:
  • procurement and distribution of organs and tissues; and
  • registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country.
  • It has following two divisions:
  • National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network:
  • It would function as the apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for theprocurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. 
  • This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011.
  • National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank):
  • The Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue Banks.
  • The main thrust and objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’ as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.
  • ActivitiesCoordinationfortissue procurement and distribution;Donor Tissue Screening;Removal of Tissues and Storage;Preservations of Tissue;Laboratory screening of Tissues;Tissue Tracking;Sterilization, Records maintenance;Data Protection and Confidentiality;Quality Management in tissues;Patient Information on tissues;Development of Guidelines; Protocols and Standard Operating Procedures;Trainings, Assisting as per requirement in registration of other Tissue Banks;
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres:
1. They are set up under the Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme.
2. They provide assistance to the MSMEs to train the workforce for Industry 4.0 technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme
- Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres are set up under the Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme.
- The scheme aims to enhance the competitiveness of the Indian capital goods sector by providing financial support for setting up such centres.

Assistance to MSMEs for Industry 4.0 technologies
- SAMARTH centres provide assistance to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to train their workforce for Industry 4.0 technologies.
- Industry 4.0 technologies include artificial intelligence, Internet of Things (IoT), robotics, additive manufacturing, and other advanced manufacturing technologies.
- The training provided by SAMARTH centres helps MSMEs adopt these technologies and improve their manufacturing processes and productivity.

Conclusion
Both statements are correct as SAMARTH centres are indeed established under the Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme, and they do provide assistance to MSMEs for training the workforce in Industry 4.0 technologies. Therefore, the correct answer is option C - Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Pay Commission:
1. It is usually set up after every ten years to reviews the salary structure of the employees.
2. It is mandatory for the government to accept the recommendations of this commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Nair answered
Explanation:

Central Pay Commission:
- The Central Pay Commission is a body set up by the Government of India to review and recommend changes in the salary structure of its employees.

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. The Central Pay Commission is usually set up after every ten years to review the salary structure of the employees. The commission looks into various factors such as inflation, economic conditions, and the financial health of the government before making its recommendations.

Statement 2:
- The statement is incorrect. While the recommendations of the Central Pay Commission are highly influential, it is not mandatory for the government to accept them. The government may choose to accept, modify, or reject the recommendations based on various factors such as budgetary constraints and other considerations.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.

Phi-3-Mini, an AI model developed by:
  • a)
    OpenAI
  • b)
    Meta
  • c)
    Google
  • d)
    Microsoft
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Recently, Microsoft unveiled the latest version of its ‘lightweight’ AI model – the Phi-3-Mini. 
  • It is believed to be first among the three small models that Microsoft is planning to release.
  • It has reportedly outperformed models of the same size and the next size up across a variety of benchmarks, in areas like language, reasoning, coding, and maths.
  • It is the first model in its class to support a context window of up to 128K tokens, with little impact on quality.
  • The amount of conversation that an AI can read and write at any given time is called the context window, and is measured in tokens.
  • It is a 3.8B language model, is available on AI development platforms such as Microsoft Azure AI Studio, HuggingFace, and Ollama.
  • Phi-3-mini is available in two variants, one with 4K context-length, and another with 128K tokens.
How is Phi-3-mini different from Large language Models?
  • Phi-3-mini is a Small Language Model (SLM).
  • SLMs are more streamlined versions of large language models. When compared to LLMs, smaller AI models are also cost-effective to develop and operate, and they perform better on smaller devices like laptops and smartphones.
  • SLMs are great for resource-constrained environments including on-device and offline inference scenarios and such models are good for scenarios where fast response times are critical, say for chabots or virtual assistants.
  • SLMs can be customised for specific tasks and achieve accuracy and efficiency in doing them. Most SLMs undergo targeted training, demanding considerably less computing power and energy compared to LLMs.
  • SLMs also differ when it comes to inference speed and latency. Their compact size allows for quicker processing. Their cost makes them appealing to smaller organisations and research groups.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the imported inflation:
1. It is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the cost of imported products.
2. The more the currency appreciates in the foreign exchange market, the higher the imported inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
The Asian Development Bank recently warned that India could face imported inflation as the rupee could depreciate amid the rise in interest rates in the West.
About Imported Inflation:
  • Imported inflation is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the costs of imported products.
  • This price increase concerns the price of raw materials and all imported products or services used by companies in a country.
  • Imported inflation is also referred to as cost inflation.
  • Several factors cause imported inflation:
  • Exchange Rates: The most significant driver of imported inflation is fluctuations in exchange rates. The more the currency depreciates in the foreign exchange market, the higher the price of imports. Effectively, more money is needed to buy goods and services outside the country.
  • Commodity Prices: Many countries, particularly smaller countries, are highly dependent on imported commodities like oil, metals, and agricultural products. When commodity prices rise globally, it directly impacts the cost of imports and can lead to higher inflation in the importing country.
  • Trade Policies and Global Supply-Chains: Changes in trade policies, such as tariffs and quotas, can influence the cost of imported goods.
  • Transportation Costs: Fluctuations in transportation costs, influenced by factors like fuel prices and logistical challenges, can affect the final cost of imported goods.
  • Effect:
  • With imported inflation, production costs are higher for companies. These companies most often reflect this increase in the selling price of the goods and services sold.
  • As a result, prices within the country rise.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Dragonfly rotorcraft mission?
  • a)
    To study the critical earth minerals
  • b)
    To observe the surface temperature of the Moon
  • c)
    To monitor the near-Earth objects in space for any potential risks
  • d)
    To look for the prebiotic chemical processes common on both Saturn’s moon Titan and Earth
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Recently, NASA confirmed Dragonfly rotorcraft mission to Saturn’s organic compound-rich moon Titan with a budget of $3.35 billion and a launch date set for July 2028.
  • It is a "dual quadcopter" designed to fly across the surface of Titan, Saturn's largest moon.
  • It will explore a variety of locations on Saturn's moon Titan.
  • It will spend most of its time on the moon’s surface making science measurements.
  • It will use a radioisotope power system like the Curiosity rover on Mars.
  • Its flights, data transmission and most science operations will happen during the day, and it will have a lot of time to recharge during night on Titan.
  • It is a rotorcraft, targeted to arrive at Titan in 2034, will fly to dozens of promising locations on the moon, looking for prebiotic chemical processes common on both Titan and the early Earth before life developed.
  • It marks the first time NASA will fly a vehicle for science on another planetary body. The rotorcraft has eight rotors and flies like a large drone.
Key facts about Titan
  • Titan is Saturn’s largest moon, Titan has an earthlike cycle of liquids flowing across its surface. It is the only moon with a thick atmosphere.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0):
1. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors.
2. It provides for the redressal of complaints within two months from the date of receipt of the complaint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Kapoor answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The first statement is correct. SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) allows market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors.
- SCORES 2.0 serves as a platform for investors to lodge their complaints easily and conveniently, enhancing transparency and efficiency in the redressal process.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is incorrect. SCORES 2.0 does not specify a fixed timeline for the redressal of complaints. However, SEBI aims to resolve complaints in a timely manner, typically within a reasonable period, but it may not always be within two months from the date of receipt of the complaint.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A) 1 only', as only the first statement is accurate.

Consider the following statements with reference to critical minerals:
1. It is a metallic or non-metallic element that is essential for the functioning of modern technologies.
2. Cobalt, Copper and Gallium are examples of critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Roy answered
Explanation:

Critical Minerals:
- Critical minerals are metallic or non-metallic elements that are essential for the functioning of modern technologies.
- They are used in a wide range of applications such as electronics, renewable energy, defense, and transportation.

Examples of Critical Minerals:
- Cobalt, copper, and gallium are examples of critical minerals.
- Cobalt is used in rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles and smartphones.
- Copper is essential for electrical wiring and infrastructure.
- Gallium is used in semiconductors and LEDs.
Therefore, both statements are correct as they accurately define critical minerals and provide examples of some critical minerals.

Consider the following statements regarding the electronics soil:
1. It is a bioelectronics growth substrate that electrically stimulates plant roots.
2. It minimises water resource consumption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

1. Bioelectronics growth substrate:
The first statement is correct. The electronics soil is a bioelectronics growth substrate that electrically stimulates plant roots. This technology involves embedding electrodes in the soil to deliver electrical pulses to the plant roots, promoting growth and potentially increasing yield.

2. Minimises water resource consumption:
The second statement is also correct. The use of electronics soil can help minimize water resource consumption. By stimulating plant roots to grow deeper and spread wider, the plants can access water and nutrients more effectively, reducing the need for excessive watering.
Therefore, both statements are correct. The electronics soil not only acts as a growth substrate that electrically stimulates plant roots but also helps in conserving water resources by improving the efficiency of water uptake by plants. This innovative technology has the potential to revolutionize agriculture by increasing productivity while reducing resource usage.

What is ‘AS-24 KILLJOY’, that was in the news recently?
  • a)
    A type of advanced radar system
  • b)
    A nuclear-powered submarine
  • c)
    A computer virus
  • d)
    A hypersonic ballistic missile
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

AS-24 KILLJOY
AS-24 KILLJOY is a hypersonic ballistic missile that was in the news recently. It is a weapon system developed by a country's military to enhance its defense capabilities.

Key Points:
- Hypersonic ballistic missiles are advanced weapons that travel at speeds exceeding Mach 5, making them extremely difficult to intercept.
- The AS-24 KILLJOY is designed to deliver warheads with high precision and at high speeds, making it a potent threat to enemy targets.
- The development of hypersonic missiles like AS-24 KILLJOY has raised concerns about a new arms race among major military powers.
- These missiles have the potential to revolutionize modern warfare by offering unprecedented speed and accuracy in delivering payloads.
In conclusion, AS-24 KILLJOY being a hypersonic ballistic missile represents a significant advancement in military technology and has implications for global security and defense strategies.

Consider the following statements with reference to Kuchipudi:
1. It is an Indian classical dance mainly performed in Andhra Pradesh.
2. It is performed on the edge of a brass plate known as Tarangam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Recently, it is highlighted that Kuchipudi artists are struggling for survival and going through a tough phase due to lack of patronage.
  • It is one of the Indian classical dances belongs to the Andhra Pradesh.
  • History
It was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
  • In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form. 
  • Features
  • The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
  • It incorporates pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya).
  • It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
  • It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition, and it is most closely related to Bhagavata Mela.
  • The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music and manuscripts of the performance.
  • The Kuchipudi dancers wear light make-up and ornaments like the Rakudi (head ornament), Chandra Vanki (arm band), Adda Bhasa and Kasina Sara (necklace). A long plait is decorated with flowers and jewelry. The ornaments are made of light wood called Boorugu.
  • The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute and the tambura.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to Green Taxonomy:
1. It is a framework that defines which economic activities and assets are environmentally sustainable.
2. It includes the goals of climate mitigation and adaptation and helps prevent greenwashing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Joshi answered
Green Taxonomy:
Green Taxonomy is a framework that defines which economic activities and assets are environmentally sustainable. It aims to promote investment in sustainable projects and prevent greenwashing, where an activity is misleadingly presented as environmentally friendly.
Goals of Green Taxonomy:
- **Climate Mitigation and Adaptation:** One of the key goals of Green Taxonomy is to promote activities that contribute to climate mitigation and adaptation. This includes investments in renewable energy, energy efficiency, sustainable agriculture, and other environmentally friendly projects.
Preventing Greenwashing:
- **Preventing Greenwashing:** Green Taxonomy helps prevent greenwashing by providing clear criteria for what constitutes environmentally sustainable economic activities. This ensures that investors can make informed decisions and support truly green projects.
Overall, Green Taxonomy plays a crucial role in promoting sustainability and combating climate change by guiding investments towards environmentally friendly activities.

Lakshmana Tirtha is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
  • a)
    Godavari
  • b)
    Kaveri
  • c)
    Krishna
  • d)
    Narmada
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview:
Lakshmana Tirtha is a tributary of the Kaveri River. Let's delve deeper into the significance of this tributary.

Lakshmana Tirtha:
Lakshmana Tirtha is a river that flows through the state of Karnataka in India. It originates in the Brahmagiri Range of the Western Ghats and joins the Kaveri River near Krishnarajasagara.

Significance:
- The river is named after Lakshmana, the brother of Lord Rama in the Hindu epic Ramayana.
- It plays a crucial role in the irrigation of agricultural lands in the region it flows through.
- The water from Lakshmana Tirtha is utilized for various purposes such as drinking water supply, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.

Kaveri River:
The Kaveri River, also known as the Cauvery, is one of the major rivers in South India. It originates in the Western Ghats and flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Connection with Kaveri River:
Lakshmana Tirtha joins the Kaveri River as one of its tributaries. Tributaries are smaller rivers or streams that flow into a larger river, adding to its water volume. In this case, Lakshmana Tirtha contributes its waters to the Kaveri River, enhancing its flow and significance.
In conclusion, Lakshmana Tirtha is a significant tributary of the Kaveri River, playing a crucial role in the ecosystem and economy of the region it flows through.

Consider the following statements regarding the Kalaram Mandir:
1. It is located in Nashik, Maharashtra.
2. It is located on the banks of River Godavari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Joshi answered
Kalaram Mandir
The correct answer is option C, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Location
- The Kalaram Mandir is located in Nashik, Maharashtra.
- It is situated on the banks of River Godavari.

About Kalaram Mandir
- The temple is dedicated to Lord Rama and is one of the most important Hindu temples in Nashik.
- The temple holds immense religious significance for devotees and pilgrims who visit Nashik.
- The main deity in the temple is a black statue of Lord Rama, which is believed to have been found in the Godavari River.
- The temple's architecture and design are also noteworthy, attracting tourists and history enthusiasts.

Importance
- The Kalaram Mandir is not only a place of worship but also a cultural and historical landmark in Nashik.
- It is a symbol of the rich heritage and religious diversity of Maharashtra.
- The temple attracts devotees and tourists throughout the year, especially during religious festivals and special occasions.
In conclusion, the Kalaram Mandir in Nashik, Maharashtra, is located on the banks of the River Godavari and holds significant religious and cultural importance for the region. Both statements about its location are correct, making option C the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF):
1. It consists of resident producers’ investments, deducting disposals, in fixed assets during a given period.
2. Developing economies possess more fixed capital per capita than developed economies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Om Saha answered
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct because Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) refers to the total value of a country's acquisitions of new or existing fixed assets, such as machinery, equipment, buildings, and infrastructure, for use in the production process. This includes resident producers' investments in fixed assets during a given period, while deducting any disposals.

Statement 2:
Statement 2 is incorrect. Developed economies generally possess more fixed capital per capita compared to developing economies. Developed countries have higher levels of industrialization and infrastructure development, leading to a higher stock of fixed capital per person. Developing economies, on the other hand, often have lower levels of capital investment per capita due to limited resources and infrastructure development.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A) 1 only, as only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the eROSITA:
1. It is a wide-field X-ray telescope.
2. It provides new insights about evolution of super massive black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akash Majumdar answered
Explanation:

1. Wide-Field X-ray Telescope:
eROSITA (extended ROentgen Survey with an Imaging Telescope Array) is indeed a wide-field X-ray telescope. It was launched in July 2019 as part of the Russian-German "Spectrum-Roentgen-Gamma" (SRG) mission. eROSITA is designed to scan the entire sky in X-rays with unprecedented sensitivity, providing high-resolution images of cosmic sources.
2. Insights about Supermassive Black Holes:
eROSITA plays a crucial role in providing new insights into the evolution of supermassive black holes. By observing X-ray emissions from active galactic nuclei and galaxy clusters, eROSITA can help astronomers understand the growth and evolution of supermassive black holes over cosmic time scales. This data can also shed light on the dynamics of galaxy clusters and the interplay between black holes and their surrounding environments.
Therefore, both statements are correct. eROSITA's capabilities as a wide-field X-ray telescope enable it to contribute significantly to our understanding of supermassive black holes and other cosmic phenomena.

Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance for Incinerator Alternatives (GAIA):
1. It is an alliance of European Union (EU) countries which envisions a just, zero-waste world.
2. It aims to power a transition away from the current linear economy towards a circular system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Desai answered
Explanation:

Incorrect Statement 1:
- The Global Alliance for Incinerator Alternatives (GAIA) is not an alliance of European Union (EU) countries.
- It is actually a worldwide alliance of more than 800 grassroots groups, non-governmental organizations, and individuals in over 90 countries.
- Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Correct Statement 2:
- The second statement is correct.
- GAIA aims to power a transition away from the current linear economy towards a circular system.
- This means moving away from the traditional take-make-dispose model of production and consumption towards a more sustainable approach that focuses on reducing waste, reusing materials, and recycling resources.
- By promoting zero waste practices and advocating for alternatives to incineration, GAIA works towards creating a more environmentally-friendly and just world.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements with reference to the fractal pattern:
1. It is a pattern which is infinitely complex and self-similar across different scales.
2. Its examples include designs of human fingerprints and stumps of trees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saumya Iyer answered
Fractal Patterns
Fractal patterns are intricate and complex patterns that exhibit self-similarity across different scales. They are characterized by the repetition of similar patterns at varying levels of magnification.

Statement Analysis

Statement 1: It is a pattern which is infinitely complex and self-similar across different scales.
- This statement is correct as fractal patterns display infinite complexity and self-similarity across scales, meaning that the same pattern repeats at different levels of magnification.

Statement 2: Its examples include designs of human fingerprints and stumps of trees.
- This statement is also correct as examples of fractal patterns can be found in nature, such as the intricate designs of human fingerprints and the branching patterns of tree stumps.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in describing fractal patterns. These patterns are not only fascinating in their complexity but also have practical applications in various fields such as mathematics, art, and technology.

White Rabbit (WR) technology, recently seen in the news, primarily aims to:
  • a)
    provide high-speed internet access in remote areas
  • b)
    develop quantum computing technology
  • c)
    synchronize devices in accelerators with sub-nanosecond accuracy
  • d)
    establish secure communication networks for government agencies
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Choudhury answered
WR Technology: Synchronizing Devices in Accelerators


Explanation:
- White Rabbit (WR) technology is primarily focused on synchronizing devices in accelerators with sub-nanosecond accuracy.
- It is a networking technology that provides low-latency and high-accuracy time and frequency signals to devices within an accelerator facility.
- WR technology ensures that different components of the accelerator, such as magnets and detectors, operate in perfect synchronization to achieve optimal performance.
- By precisely coordinating the timing of various elements in the accelerator, WR technology helps improve the efficiency and reliability of experiments conducted in these facilities.
- The sub-nanosecond accuracy provided by WR technology is crucial for maintaining the stability and precision required for cutting-edge scientific research in fields such as particle physics.

Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar:
1. It recognizes scientific contributions of researchers, technologist and innovators.
2. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award is given to recognize and encourage young scientists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhijeet Kumar answered
Explanation:

Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar:
- The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is an award given by the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India to recognize outstanding contributions in the field of science and technology.
- It is awarded to researchers, technologists, and innovators who have made significant scientific contributions that have had a positive impact on society.

Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award:
- The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is another prestigious award given by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) to recognize and encourage outstanding scientific research in India.
- This award is specifically aimed at young scientists and is considered one of the highest scientific honors in the country.

Correct Answer:
- Both statements 1 and 2 are correct because the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar recognizes scientific contributions of researchers, technologists, and innovators (Statement 1) and the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given to recognize and encourage young scientists (Statement 2).
- Therefore, the correct answer is option C, "Both 1 and 2."

Kapilavastu Relic, recently seen in the news, is associated with:
  • a)
    Shankaracharya
  • b)
    Ashoka
  • c)
    Mahavir
  • d)
    Buddha
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anu Nambiar answered
Explanation:

Kapilavastu Relic:
- The Kapilavastu Relic is associated with Buddha, the founder of Buddhism.
- Kapilavastu is the ancient city where Prince Siddhartha Gautama, who later became Buddha, grew up.

Significance:
- The relic is of historical and religious significance to Buddhists around the world.
- It symbolizes the life and teachings of Buddha, as well as his journey towards enlightenment.

Recent News:
- The Kapilavastu Relic recently made headlines when it was brought to Sri Lanka for public veneration.
- This event attracted thousands of devotees who came to pay their respects and seek blessings.

Connection to Buddhism:
- The relic serves as a tangible connection to the life of Buddha for followers of Buddhism.
- It is believed to have spiritual power and is revered as a sacred object.

Importance of Relics in Buddhism:
- Relics play a crucial role in Buddhist practices and rituals.
- They are considered to embody the presence and blessings of enlightened beings, such as Buddha.
In conclusion, the Kapilavastu Relic holds great significance for Buddhists and serves as a link to the teachings and legacy of Buddha. Its recent appearance in Sri Lanka has provided an opportunity for devotees to deepen their spiritual connection and seek inspiration from the life of the enlightened one.

The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction, recently seen in news, is related to:
  • a)
    establishing new legal precedents
  • b)
    ensuring uniformity in judicial decisions
  • c)
    safeguarding individual liberties
  • d)
    resolving conflicts between statutes or their provisions
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

While refusing to condone the delay of 5659 days in preferring an appeal, the Supreme Court recently laid down eight principles by providing harmonious construction to Sections 3 and 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963. 
About Doctrine of Harmonious Construction:
  • It is an essential rule for interpreting statutes.
  • It states that when there’s a conflict between two or more statutes or between different parts or provisions of a statute, we should interpret them in a way that harmonises them.
  • This means that when there are inconsistencies, we should try to reconcile the conflicting parts so that one part doesn’t negate the purpose of another.
  • It is rooted in the fundamental legal principle that every statute icreated with a specific purpose and intent. Therefore, it should be understood as a whole.
  • The intention of the legislature is that every provision should remain operative. 
  • But when two provisions are contradictory, it may not be possible to effectuate both of them, and as a result, one will be rendered futile as against the settled basic principle of ‘ut res magis valeat qauam pereat’ (that a thing is better understood so that it may have an effect than that it should be made void).
  • Therefore, the court should interpret the laws in a way that removes the inconsistency and allows both provisions to remain in force, working together harmoniously.
  • The goal is to give effect to all the provisions. To avoid conflicts, the interpretation of the statute should be consistent with all its parts.
  • If it’s impossible to harmoniously interpret or reconcile the different parts or provisions, then it’s the responsibility of the judiciary to make the final decision and give its judgment.
  • In the landmark case of Commissioner of Income Tax v. M/S Hindustan Bulk Carriers (2000), the Supreme Court established five fundamental principles governing the rule of harmonious construction:
  • Courts should make every effort to avoid conflicts between seemingly conflicting provisions and should attempt to interpret these provisions in a way that harmonises them.
  • A provision in one section of the law should not be used to nullify a provision found in another section unless the court is unable to find a way to reconcile their differences despite diligent effort.
  • In cases where it’s impossible to completely reconcile inconsistencies between provisions, the courts must interpret them in a manner that gives effect to both provisions to the greatest extent possible.
  • Courts must consider that an interpretation rendering one provision redundant or useless goes against the essence of harmonious construction and should be avoided.
  • Harmonizing two contradictory provisions means preserving and not destroying any statutory provision or rendering it ineffective.
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements with reference to Lake Kariba:
1. It is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.
2. It lies along the border between South Africa and Zimbabwe. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest El Nino drought.
About Lake Kariba:
  • It is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.
  • It lies approximately 1300 kilometers upstream from the Indian Ocean, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. 
  • It is 200 kilometers downstream of Victoria Falls.
  • The lake was filled following the completion of the Kariba Dam wall at its northeastern end, flooding the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River.
  • The Kariba Dam consists of a double-arch wall.
  • The wall extends across the Kariba gorge, creating a border crossing between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
  • It took up to three years for the dam wall to be completed. Construction began in 1956 and was finished in 1959.
  • It provides considerable electric power to both Zambia and Zimbabwe and supports a thriving commercial fishing industry.
  • It is roughly estimated to be about 280 km long and 40 km at its widest. It covers an area of nearly 6,000 square kilometres.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Hume AI, recently seen in the news, is:
  • a)
    platform launched by Microsoft to train developers in AI technologies
  • b)
    humanoid robot
  • c)
    India’s first indigenous AI chatbot
  • d)
    world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, a New York-based research lab and technology company Hume, has introduced what can be called the ‘first conversational AI with emotional intelligence’.
  • It is the world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI. It accepts live audio input and returns both generated audio and transcripts augmented with measures of vocal expression. 
  • It is essentially an API that is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM). This eLLM reportedly understands and emulates tones of voices, and word emphasis to optimise human-AI conversations.
  • It is trained on human reactions to optimize for positive expressions like happiness and satisfaction. EVI will continue to learn from users’ reactions.
  • By processing the tune, rhythm, and timbre of speech, EVI unlocks a variety of new capabilities, like knowing when to speak and generating more empathic language with the right tone of voice.
What is large language model?
  • It is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
  • LLMs are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name "large."
  • LLMs are built on machine learning: specifically, a type of neural network called a transformer model.
  • In simpler terms, an LLM is a computer program that has been fed enough examples to be able to recognize and interpret human language or other types of complex data. 
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Stingless bees:
1. These are native to the Amazon.
2. The honey produced by these bees is used as natural medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
To protect Amazon, conservators try to save pollinator Stingless bees.
  • A stingless bee is a bee that appears very similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of stinging. 
  • These bees are eusocial, which means that they live together in hives and produce honey.
  • These are native to the Amazon.
  • Their honey, which is runny enough to be drunk like a liquid and is said to have a citrusy aftertaste
  • It is used by many Indigenous Peruvians as a natural medicine.
  • Distribution: Stingless bees can be found in most tropical and subtropical regions.
  • These bees cannot sting but nature has made sure to give them other ways of defending themselves.
  • These bees do possess stingers, but they are too small to be useful in defense. Instead of stinging, stingless bees use their mandibles to bite their attackers.
  • Threats:
  • The Amazon is home to hundreds of species of stingless bee, but as deforestation converts the tropical landscape into farms and ranches, these and other native pollinators are in danger of disappearing.
  • Pesticides and climate change
Hence both statements are correct.

Satpula dam, recently seen in news, was built during the reign of:
  • a)
    Akbar
  • b)
    Jahangir
  • c)
    Muhammad Shah Tughlaq
  • d)
    Alauddin Khalji
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Ahuja answered
Background:
Satpula dam is an ancient water harvesting structure located in Delhi, India. It was built during the reign of Muhammad Shah Tughlaq, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1325 to 1351.

Construction:
- Satpula dam was constructed in the 14th century to serve as a water reservoir and provide water supply to the nearby areas.
- The dam has seven arched openings, hence the name "Satpula" which means seven bridges in Hindi.

Significance:
- The dam played a crucial role in managing water resources during the medieval period in Delhi.
- It helped in storing rainwater and maintaining a sustainable water supply for the residents of the city.

Architectural Features:
- The dam is made of rubble masonry and stands as a testament to the engineering skills of that era.
- The seven arches not only served a functional purpose but also added to the beauty of the structure.

Historical Importance:
- Satpula dam is a historical landmark that reflects the architectural and technological advancements of the Tughlaq dynasty.
- It showcases the importance of water management in ancient civilizations and highlights the ingenuity of the builders of that time.

Conclusion:
Satpula dam, built during the reign of Muhammad Shah Tughlaq, stands as a reminder of the rich history and heritage of Delhi. It serves as a symbol of the importance of water conservation and management in ancient societies.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array (DURGA) system:
1. It destroys its target using focused energy by means of microwaves or particle beams.
2. It has been indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Desai answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. The Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array (DURGA) system is designed to destroy its target by using focused energy in the form of microwaves or particle beams. This makes it a powerful weapon system capable of neutralizing threats efficiently.

Statement 2:
- The statement is also correct. The DURGA system has been indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. This showcases India's capabilities in developing advanced defense technologies.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The DURGA system is a significant technological advancement in the field of defense and reflects India's commitment to enhancing its defense capabilities through indigenous research and development.

Consider the following statements with reference to the KAVACH system:
1. It is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.
2. It makes use of high frequency radio communication and operates on the principle of continuous update of movement to prevent collisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Supreme Court appreciated steps taken by Railways to roll out the Kavach anti-collision system.
About KAVACH System:
  • The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry.
  • It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards.
  • It makes use of high frequency radio communication and operates on the principle of continuous update of movement to prevent collisions
  • It is the cheapest automatic train collision protection system.
  • The salient features:
  • It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision.
  • It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions.
  • It also providing support for train operations during adverse weather conditions such as dense fog.
  • It works on the principle of continuous update of Movement authority.
  • It actively uses the SOS to prevent any kind of mishap and accidents.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to GPS spoofing, consider the following statements:
1. It is the practice of manipulating GPS receiver by broadcasting false GPS signals.
2. It is done by exploiting the weak signal strength of GPS satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Israel reportedly used GPS spoofing against Iran's missile targeting teams by jamming Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation signals.
  • It is also known as GPS simulation, refers to the practice of manipulating or tricking a GPS receiver by broadcasting false GPS signals.
  • It misleads the GPS receiver into believing it is located somewhere it is not, resulting in the device providing inaccurate location data.
  • This form of cyberattack undermines the reliability of GPS data, which is vital for a variety of applications.
  • It has evolved significantly over the years. Initially a theoretical threat, it has now become a practical concern due to the availability of inexpensive software and hardware capable of transmitting fake GPS signals.
  • Spoofing is not the same as jamming. While jamming, as the name suggests, is when the GPS signals are jammed, spoofing is very different and way more threatening.
  • Planes and other aircraft regularly deal with jamming while spoofing of the kind happening in the above-mentioned incidents has reportedly never been seen before.
  • Working
  • GPS spoofing exploits the inherent vulnerabilities in the GPS infrastructure – the weak signal strength of GPS satellites.
  • The Global Positioning System functions by sending signals from satellites to GPS receivers on Earth.
  • These receivers then calculate their position based on the time it takes for these signals to arrive. However, due to the weak signal strength of the GPS satellites, these signals can be easily overwhelmed by fake signals, resulting in inaccurate location data on the receiving device.
  • Impacts
  • It can have potentially catastrophic effects, particularly where navigation is concerned.
  • It has the potential to affect various industries extensively, including logistics and supply chain, telecommunications, energy, and defense.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the ASEAN Future Forum:
1. It aimed at creating a common platform for ASEAN member states as well as partner countries.
2. It was proposed by India at the 43rd ASEAN Summit, 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Recently, India’s External Affairs Minister participated in the First ‘ASEAN Future Forum’.
  • It acts as a platform for ASEAN and its partners to share new ideas and policy recommendations.
  • It aimed at creating a common platform for ASEAN member states as well as partner countries and ASEAN people to contribute to promoting and shaping the bloc’s development path.
  • It was proposed by Vietnam at the 43rd ASEAN Summit in 2023.
  • Theme of the first forum: Toward fast and sustainable growth of a people-centered ASEAN Community.
  • It took place in Hanoi, Vietnam.
Key facts about ASEAN
  • It is a group of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which was established in 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok declaration.
  • Founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
  • Presently ASEAN comprises 10 member states namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
  • It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration between its members and other countries in Asia.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Aardvark:
1. It is a nocturnal mammal which shares common ancestors with elephants.
2. It is mainly found in the semi-arid region of Arabian Peninsula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitin Unni answered
Explanation:

1. Aardvark:
The first statement is correct. Aardvarks are nocturnal mammals that primarily feed on ants and termites. They have a unique appearance with a long snout, which is why they are sometimes also called "antbear." Aardvarks are not closely related to elephants; instead, they belong to the order Tubulidentata, which is a separate lineage of mammals.

2. Habitat:
The second statement is incorrect. Aardvarks are mainly found in sub-Saharan Africa, particularly in savannas, grasslands, woodlands, and bushlands. They prefer areas with sandy or clay soils that are suitable for digging their burrows. The Arabian Peninsula does not have the appropriate habitat for aardvarks.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A) 1 only, as only the first statement about aardvarks being nocturnal mammals is accurate.

Consider the following statements with reference to Whooping cough:
1. It is bacterial disease which affects particularly infants.
2. It can be treated with Diphtheria, Tetanus and Pertussis (DTaP) vaccines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Whooping cough:

Statement 1:
- Whooping cough is indeed a bacterial disease caused by Bordetella pertussis.
- It primarily affects infants and young children, although it can also affect teenagers and adults.
- Infants are at a higher risk of severe complications and even death from whooping cough.

Statement 2:
- The second statement is also correct. Whooping cough can be prevented through vaccination.
- The DTaP vaccine, which stands for Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis, is typically given to children in a series of doses to provide immunity against these diseases, including whooping cough.
- Vaccination not only protects the individual but also helps in preventing the spread of the disease to others, especially vulnerable populations like infants who are too young to be fully vaccinated.
Therefore, both statements are correct. Vaccination is an effective way to prevent whooping cough, particularly in infants who are at a higher risk of severe complications.

Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provision to which of the following States?
  • a)
    Nagaland
  • b)
    Tripura
  • c)
    Manipur
  • d)
    Maharashtra and Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranav Shah answered
Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provisions to Maharashtra and Gujarat. This article was included in the constitution to address the concerns and protect the interests of the people of these states.
- Historical Background:
- The inclusion of Article 371 was a result of the linguistic reorganization of states in India. Maharashtra and Gujarat were formed as separate states from the bilingual Bombay State in 1960.
- Special Provisions:
- Article 371 provides for the establishment of a separate development board for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra.
- It also includes provisions for equitable allocation of funds for development in these regions.
- The article also safeguards the rights of local residents in matters related to education and employment.
- Similar Provisions for Gujarat:
- Article 371 also extends certain special provisions to the state of Gujarat.
- It includes provisions related to the establishment of a development board for the Saurashtra and Kutch regions.
- The article ensures that the interests of the tribal communities in these regions are protected.
- Implementation:
- The special provisions under Article 371 are implemented by the respective state governments in consultation with the central government.
- These provisions aim to promote balanced development and address the unique needs of different regions within the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
In conclusion, Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat to ensure the equitable development and protection of the interests of the people in these states.

Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority:
1. It is a statutory body established to regulate offshore and deep-sea fishing.
2. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Desai answered
The correct answer is option **C**.
**Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA)**
- **Establishment**: MPEDA is a statutory body established in 1972 under the Marine Products Export Development Authority Act, 1972.
- **Regulation**: The primary objective of MPEDA is to regulate and promote the export of marine products.
**Ministry of Commerce and Industry**
- **Supervision**: MPEDA works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
- **Functioning**: The authority operates under the guidance of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to facilitate the export of marine products and ensure compliance with regulations.
Therefore, both statements are correct. Statement 1 is accurate as MPEDA is responsible for regulating the export of marine products, not offshore and deep-sea fishing. Statement 2 is also correct as MPEDA functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which one of the following best describes FiloBot, recently seen in the news?
  • a)
    a fake news identification tool
  • b)
    a bot which gives information about pollution
  • c)
    an Artificial Intelligence tool to diagnose diseases
  • d)
    a new innovative plant-inspired robot
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, a new innovative plant-inspired robot which is named FiloBot has been developed that climbs up structures just like climbing vines. 
  • It is different from conventional climbing robots as it doesn’t depend on pre-programmed movements.
  • It instead absorbs 3D printing filament through its head and extends its length over time, just like a creeper.
  • The team utilised a combination of plant behaviours like phototropism, negative phototropism and gravitropism and utilises these naturally occurring behaviours in high-tech robots.
  • The tests for FiloBot have been successful and displayed remarkable adaptability that adjusts its growth trajectory dynamically in response to moving light intensity.
  • Significance
  • By equipping autonomous systems with transportable additive manufacturing techniques merged with bioinspired behavioural strategies, future robots can navigate unstructured and dynamic environments and even be capable of self-building infrastructure.
  • This new innovation has opened new potential impact of technology that can be applied in robotics, where adaptability and responsiveness redefine the capabilities of climbing robots.
  • Other similar innovations
  • A similar snake-like robot was unveiled by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), which was specifically crafted to work on rough terrains of our solar system’s planets and moons. 
  • The robot named Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS 1.0) is engineered to navigate diverse landscapes, including ice, sand, cliff walls, deep craters and lava tubes. 
Hence option d is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the India International Science Festival:
1. It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog.
2. Its theme for the 2023 edition is 'Science and Technology Public Outreach in Amrit Kaal'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
The 9th edition of the India International Science Festival (IISF) 2023 will be held at Faridabad, Haryana from January 17th-20th, 2024.
  • It will be held at the Campus of Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI) and Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB) of Department of Biotechnology in Faridabad.
  • Theme: 'Science and Technology Public Outreach in Amrit Kaal'.
  • IISF 2023 aims to provide a platform for inspiring public at large and individuals with diverse levels of interests like students, educators, scientists, researchers, industry professionals, entrepreneurs and science communicators.
  • IISF 2023 will have a total of 17 themes to showcase scientific achievements offering diverse benefits to participants and the general public.
  • The IISF is dedicated towards fostering creativity in Science, Technology and Innovation for the advancement of prosperous India.
  • It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Earth Sciences in association with Vijnana Bharati.
  • Since 2015, the IISF has hosted eight editions in different geographical regions of India and expanded as a mega science festival.
  • In 2021, the Department of Space and the Department of Atomic Energy became an integral part of IISF.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to myCGHS App:
1. It has a 2-factor authentication and mPIN features.
2. It is developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
Recently, the secretary of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the myCGHS app for iOS ecosystem of devices.
  • It is designed to enhance access to Electronic Health Records, information, and resources for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries.
  • It is developed by the technical teams of the National Informatics Centre (NIC) Himachal Pradesh and NIC Health Team.
  • It is a convenient mobile application offering features aimed at enhancing information and accessibility for CGHS beneficiaries.
  • It facilitates a wide range of services, including booking and cancellation of online appointments, downloading CGHS cards and index cards, accessing lab reports from CGHS labs, checking medicine history, checking medical reimbursement claim status, accessing referral details and locating nearby wellness centers etc.
  • The app features security features like 2-factor authentication and functionality of mPIN ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of users' data.
Key facts about Central Government Health Scheme
  • It gives healthcare facilities to registered employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India. 
  • The enrolled members are provided reimbursement and cashless facilities under this scheme.
  • It covers health care under different systems of medicine, such as Allopathy, Homeopathy, Ayurveda and Unani.
  • CGHS beneficiaries can undergo treatment at any empanelled private hospital of their choice.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to Queqiao-2:
1. It is a relay satellite launched by China.
2. It will serve as a communications bridge between ground operations on Earth and upcoming lunar probe missions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
China National Space Administration (CNSA) recently said its launch of Queqiao-2 satellite was a "complete success".
About Queqiao-2:
  • Queqiao-2 (Magpie Bridge 2) is a relay satellite launched by China to serve as a communications bridge between ground operations on Earth and upcoming lunar probe missions on the far side of the moon until at least 2030.
  • It has a mass of 1,200 kilograms and carries a large, 4.2-meter-diameter (13.8-foot) parabolic antenna that will be deployed once in space and is one of the largest sent beyond Earth orbit. 
  • Queqiao-2’s first task will be supporting China’s Chang’e-6 lunar far-side sample return mission. It will further support the future Chang'e-7 and -8 lunar missions
  • Queqiao 2 carries three science payloads: an Extreme Ultraviolet Camera (EUC), a Grid-based Energetic Neutral Atom Imager (GENA), and a very long baseline interferometer, the Lunar Orbit VLBI EXperiment (LOVEX).
  • It has a planned lifetime of over 8 years
  • The mission will also be deploying two experimental CubeSats, Tiandu-1 and Tiandu-2, which will orbit the Moon to test navigation and communication technologies.
  • Tiandu-1 has a Ka-band communications system and a laser retroreflector. It has a mass of 61 kg.
  • Tiandu-2, the smaller of the two cube sats with a mass of 15 kg, also has a communications system.
  • The two satellites will be in formation in an elliptical lunar orbit. Navigation tests include laser ranging to the Moon, and microwave ranging between satellites.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Trading Platform:
1. It is where eligible instruments like securities and money market instruments are contracted.
2. It is authorized by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor raised concerns over unauthorised forex trading platforms and asked banks to maintain vigil against such illegal activities.
  • Electronic Trading Platforms are electronic system, other than a recognised stock exchange, on which transactions in eligible instruments like securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, etc. are contracted.
  • In India no entity shall operate an ETP without obtaining prior authorisation of RBI under The Electronic Trading Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018.
  • Resident persons operating ETPs without authorisation from RBI, collecting and effecting/remitting payments directly/indirectly outside India shall render themselves liable for penal action, including the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
  • ETPs authorised by the Reserve Bank shall host transactions only in instruments approved by the Reserve Bank.
  • Criteria for authorization of ETPs
  • The entity shall be a company incorporated in India.
  • An entity seeking authorisation as an ETP operator shall maintain a minimum net-worth of Rs.5 crore (Rupees five crore only) and shall continue to maintain the minimum net-worth prescribed herein at all times.
  • The existing entities operating ETPs with a net-worth lower than the prescribed net-worth requirement shall achieve the minimum net-worth of Rs.5 crores within one year from the date of authorisation by the Reserve Bank.
  • Banks seeking authorisation to operate ETP shall earmark a minimum capital of Rs.5 crore for the purpose.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

One Nation One Registration platform is an initiative launched by:
  • a)
    Ministry of Education
  • b)
    Ministry of Commerce
  • c)
    NITI Aayog
  • d)
    National Medical Commission
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

One Nation One Registration Platform
The One Nation One Registration platform is an initiative launched by the National Medical Commission (NMC) in India. It aims to create a single, centralized database for all medical professionals in the country. This platform will help streamline the registration process for medical practitioners and ensure that their information is easily accessible.

Benefits of One Nation One Registration Platform
- Centralized Database: The platform will centralize all registration data, making it easier for medical professionals to update their information and for authorities to verify their credentials.
- Streamlined Process: Medical practitioners will no longer have to register separately with multiple state medical councils, saving time and effort.
- Transparency: The platform will improve transparency in the registration process, reducing the possibility of fraudulent practices.
- Accessibility: Having all registration information in one place will make it easier for hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare facilities to verify the credentials of medical professionals.

Significance of the Initiative
The One Nation One Registration platform is a significant step towards modernizing the healthcare system in India. By digitizing and centralizing registration data, the platform will help ensure that only qualified and licensed medical professionals are practicing in the country. This will ultimately benefit patients by improving the quality of healthcare services available to them.
Overall, the One Nation One Registration platform is a crucial initiative in the healthcare sector and is expected to have a positive impact on the medical profession in India.

Consider the following statements with reference to PRATUSH telescope:
1. It is a radio telescope developed by the Raman Research Institute and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. It aims to study the impact of radio waves on the outer environment of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Astronomers are looking forward to opening a new window on the universe by posting high-resolution telescopes on the moon, and in orbit around it including one from India called PRATUSH.
  • Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio telescope to be sited on the moon’s far side.
  • It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in Bengaluru with active collaboration from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space agency will launch it moonwards.
  • Main roles: It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies, reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe, answering the question when the first stars formed, the nature of the first stars and what was the light from the first stars.
  • It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver and a digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages.
  • The target instrument sensitivity is at the level of few millikelvin without being limited by any systematic features.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) Prachand:
1. It is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter.
2. It is equipped with Helina missiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, the Indian Army’s Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) Prachand successfully carried out inaugural firing of 70 mm rockets and 20 mm turret guns both by day and night. 
  • It is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter, developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
  • It is designed to meet the needs of the Indian armed forces operating in deserts and mountainous areas.
  • The helicopter is fitted with Shakti Engine, which is co-developed by HAL and France’s Safran.
  • The helicopter received operational clearance in 2017.
  • Features
  • It can fly at a maximum speed of 288 kmph and has a combat radius of 500 km, which can go up to a service ceiling of 21,000 feet.
  • The helicopter can carry out activities such as Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR), Destruction of Enemy Air Defence (DEAD), operations against slow-moving aircraft and Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPAs), high-altitude bunker busting operations, counter-insurgency operations in the jungle and urban environments and provide support to ground forces.
  • The helicopter will be equipped with Helina missiles, the air force version of which is called Dhruvastra.
Hence both statements are correct.

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