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In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a maximum period of- a)1 years
- b)3 months
- c)6 months
- d)2 years
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a maximum period of
a)
1 years
b)
3 months
c)
6 months
d)
2 years
|
Vibha Iyer answered |
Title: Maximum Period of Vice President's Interim Presidency
HTML Bold Tag: Maximum Period
The Constitution of the United States of America provides for a clear line of succession in case the President dies while in office. The Vice President is the first in line to succeed the President. If the Vice President becomes President, he or she will serve the remaining term of the President. However, if the Vice President is unable to perform the duties of the President, the next in line of succession is the Speaker of the House of Representatives, followed by the President pro tempore of the Senate.
HTML Bold Tag: Vice President's Interim Presidency
In case the Vice President becomes the President due to the death of the incumbent President, he or she will serve as the President for the remaining term. However, if the Vice President is unable to perform the duties of the President, he or she can act as President for a maximum period of six months. This provision is found in the 25th Amendment to the Constitution, which was ratified in 1967.
HTML Bold Tag: Conclusion
In conclusion, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of six months if he or she is unable to perform the duties of the President. This provision is found in the 25th Amendment to the Constitution.
HTML Bold Tag: Maximum Period
The Constitution of the United States of America provides for a clear line of succession in case the President dies while in office. The Vice President is the first in line to succeed the President. If the Vice President becomes President, he or she will serve the remaining term of the President. However, if the Vice President is unable to perform the duties of the President, the next in line of succession is the Speaker of the House of Representatives, followed by the President pro tempore of the Senate.
HTML Bold Tag: Vice President's Interim Presidency
In case the Vice President becomes the President due to the death of the incumbent President, he or she will serve as the President for the remaining term. However, if the Vice President is unable to perform the duties of the President, he or she can act as President for a maximum period of six months. This provision is found in the 25th Amendment to the Constitution, which was ratified in 1967.
HTML Bold Tag: Conclusion
In conclusion, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of six months if he or she is unable to perform the duties of the President. This provision is found in the 25th Amendment to the Constitution.
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:In a family of some persons Sushant says that Manu is the daughter of my sister Rhea, who is the only daughter of Tahir. Arun is the child of Tahir and Ileana, who is the grandmother of Kiara. Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara. Arun is unmarried.How is Arun related to Kiara?- a)Maternal Uncle
- b)Maternal Aunt
- c)Paternal Uncle
- d)Paternal Aunt
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:
In a family of some persons Sushant says that Manu is the daughter of my sister Rhea, who is the only daughter of Tahir. Arun is the child of Tahir and Ileana, who is the grandmother of Kiara. Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara. Arun is unmarried.
How is Arun related to Kiara?
a)
Maternal Uncle
b)
Maternal Aunt
c)
Paternal Uncle
d)
Paternal Aunt
|
Anaya Patel answered |
From the following image it is clear that Arun is the maternal uncle of Kiara.
Hence option C is correct.
Common Explanation:
Reference:
In a family of some persons Sushant says that Manu is the daughter of my sister Rhea, who is the only daughter of Tahir.
Arun is the child of Tahir and Ileana, who is the grandmother of Kiara.
Arun is unmarried.
Inference:
From the above hints, following two cases arise.
Case 1: When Kiara is the child of Rhea
Case 2: When Kiara is the child of Sushant
Reference:
Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara.
Inference:
As Roma is the mother of Trisha, who is the only sister of Kiara. Thus Kiara and Trisha are siblings.
So, Rhea can't be mother of Kiara, therefore case 1 fails.
Thus Kiara is the daughter of Sushant and Roma is his wife.
How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?- a)One
- b)Two
- c)Three
- d)Four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
How many presidents of India so far were elected unopposed?
a)
One
b)
Two
c)
Three
d)
Four
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
Apart from N Sanjiva Reddy First President Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected unopposed for the period 1950 to 1952; but he faced opposition in further elections.
Find the missing term in the series :A, D, ?, P. Y.- a)G
- b)H
- c)I
- d)J
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Find the missing term in the series :
A, D, ?, P. Y.
a)
G
b)
H
c)
I
d)
J
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
These alphabets are first, fourth, ninth, sixteenth and twenty fifth terms of alphabets which are squares of all the natural numbers. Hence, option C is correct.
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.A person who insists on something- a)Disciplinarian
- b)Stickler
- c)Instantaneous
- d)Booster
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
A person who insists on something
a)
Disciplinarian
b)
Stickler
c)
Instantaneous
d)
Booster
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
Stickler - a person who insists on a certain quality or type of behaviour.
In the following question, there is only one word which is either correctly spelt or misspelt. Identify that word from the given options.1. Homogenious2. Honorable3. Honorarium4. Hooligan- a)1
- b)2
- c)3
- d)4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, there is only one word which is either correctly spelt or misspelt. Identify that word from the given options.
1. Homogenious
2. Honorable
3. Honorarium
4. Hooligan
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
|
|
Aditya Pani answered |
2 is the right answer because except 2 everything is correctly spelt...
What is the reasonable time to perform a Contract is _________.- a)A question of Fact
- b)A question of Law
- c)A mixed question of fact and Law
- d)A procedural question.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the reasonable time to perform a Contract is _________.
a)
A question of Fact
b)
A question of Law
c)
A mixed question of fact and Law
d)
A procedural question.
|
Dia Mehta answered |
What is a reasonable time for performance is a question of fact to be determined as a fact, in view of the circumstances of the case. Accordingly if an action is brought on an agreement to accept a conveyance and in consideration thereof to execute a written contract to pay a certain mortgage, and to reconvey on payment of the amount of such mortgage, and the defense is that plaintiff delayed an unreasonable time before performing the conditions precedent on his part to be performed, it is not error for the court to refuse to charge that a delay of four months would be unreasonable. On the other hand, a notice for performance in eighty days, given to the vendor, followed by demand for performance in five days, followed by a delay of six weeks before bringing a suit for specific performance, has been held as a fact to give to the vendor a reasonable time for performance Hence, option A is correct.
What does the "sine qua non" rule, in terms of causation, mean?- a)Causation does not apply to some crimes.
- b)Necessary Legal causation.
- c)The "but for" rule, or factual causation.
- d)Effect of act.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the "sine qua non" rule, in terms of causation, mean?
a)
Causation does not apply to some crimes.
b)
Necessary Legal causation.
c)
The "but for" rule, or factual causation.
d)
Effect of act.
|
Soumya Dubey answered |
Literally sine means without, qua is which, non is not "without which not".
it means more or less "Without (something), (something else) won't be possible".
Legal Principle : An agreement, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.Factual Situation : Mohan offered to sell land to Nimrat at 80 lakhs. Nimrat replied accepting the offer and enclosing 30 lakhs and promising to pay the balance amount by monthly installments of 50000 each. Since Nimrat accepted the offer subject to making full payments in installments, decide as a judge whether there is a valid contract?- a)Valid contract.
- b)Invalid contract.
- c)Misrepresentation of Facts in contract.
- d)Voidable at the option of Mohan.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Legal Principle : An agreement, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.
Factual Situation : Mohan offered to sell land to Nimrat at 80 lakhs. Nimrat replied accepting the offer and enclosing 30 lakhs and promising to pay the balance amount by monthly installments of 50000 each. Since Nimrat accepted the offer subject to making full payments in installments, decide as a judge whether there is a valid contract?
a)
Valid contract.
b)
Invalid contract.
c)
Misrepresentation of Facts in contract.
d)
Voidable at the option of Mohan.
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Invalid as the offer was for full 80 lakhs and not in instalments.
Hence option B is the right answer.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.Four friends – Ram, Laxman, Bharat and Shatrughan were having a conversation. They were expressing their thoughts in a coded language.Ram says, "le po ki ba" when he wants to convey that "friends make life live". Laxman says, "te ki mo ba" when he wants to convey that "without friends life is impossible". Bharat says, "lo mo se te" when he wants to convey that "without trouble gain is impossible". Shatrughan says, "st ba po lo" when he wants to convey that "life makes trouble joy".Which of the following is most probably the code for "life gives joy"?- a)st lo ba
- b)ba fo st
- c)le po st
- d)ba fo go
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Four friends – Ram, Laxman, Bharat and Shatrughan were having a conversation. They were expressing their thoughts in a coded language.
Ram says, "le po ki ba" when he wants to convey that "friends make life live". Laxman says, "te ki mo ba" when he wants to convey that "without friends life is impossible". Bharat says, "lo mo se te" when he wants to convey that "without trouble gain is impossible". Shatrughan says, "st ba po lo" when he wants to convey that "life makes trouble joy".
Which of the following is most probably the code for "life gives joy"?
a)
st lo ba
b)
ba fo st
c)
le po st
d)
ba fo go
|
Sara joshi answered |
Solution:
Given, Ram says "le po ki ba" means "friends make life live", Laxman says "te ki mo ba" means "without friends life is impossible", Bharat says "lo mo se te" means "without trouble gain is impossible", and Shatrughan says "st ba po lo" means "life makes trouble joy".
We need to find the code for "life gives joy".
Let's analyze each word and its code:
- "life" is present in the code of Shatrughan as "st" and in the code of Laxman as "te".
- "gives" is not present in any of the codes given.
- "joy" is present in the code of Shatrughan as "lo".
From the above analysis, we can see that the code for "life" is either "st" or "te" and the code for "joy" is "lo". So, we need to find the code that contains both "st" or "te" and "lo".
The only option that satisfies this condition is option (B) "ba fo st" which contains "st" and "fo" can be considered as "te" as it is not used in any other code. So, "ba fo st" can be translated as "life without friends" which means "life gives joy".
Therefore, the correct answer is option (B) "ba fo st".
Given, Ram says "le po ki ba" means "friends make life live", Laxman says "te ki mo ba" means "without friends life is impossible", Bharat says "lo mo se te" means "without trouble gain is impossible", and Shatrughan says "st ba po lo" means "life makes trouble joy".
We need to find the code for "life gives joy".
Let's analyze each word and its code:
- "life" is present in the code of Shatrughan as "st" and in the code of Laxman as "te".
- "gives" is not present in any of the codes given.
- "joy" is present in the code of Shatrughan as "lo".
From the above analysis, we can see that the code for "life" is either "st" or "te" and the code for "joy" is "lo". So, we need to find the code that contains both "st" or "te" and "lo".
The only option that satisfies this condition is option (B) "ba fo st" which contains "st" and "fo" can be considered as "te" as it is not used in any other code. So, "ba fo st" can be translated as "life without friends" which means "life gives joy".
Therefore, the correct answer is option (B) "ba fo st".
If in a certain language, 'oka peru', means 'fine cloth', 'meta lisa' means 'clear water' and 'dona lisa peru' means 'fine clear weather', which word in that language means 'weather'?- a)peru
- b)oka
- c)meta
- d)dona
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If in a certain language, 'oka peru', means 'fine cloth', 'meta lisa' means 'clear water' and 'dona lisa peru' means 'fine clear weather', which word in that language means 'weather'?
a)
peru
b)
oka
c)
meta
d)
dona
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
Statement 1: fine cloth
Code :oka peru
Statement 2: clear water Code: meta lisa
Statement 3: fine clear weather
Code: dona lisa peru
In the 1st and 3rd statements, the common code-word is 'peru' and the common word is 'fine'. So, 'peru' means 'fine'.
In the 2nd and 3rd statements, the common code-word is 'lisa' and the common word is 'clear'. So, 'lisa' means 'clear'.
Thus, in the 3rd statement, 'lisa' means 'clear' and 'peru' means 'fine'. So, 'dona' means 'weather'.
Short-cut Method: As we have to find the code-word for the word 'weather' which is coming only in the 3rd statement, we can find it by removing the code-words for other two words that are coming with 'weather' in the Statement 3 and are being repeated once in the given statements.
Note: It's of no use which particular code-word the other two words except 'weather' stand for.
Now, in the code statements, we can see that 'lisa' and 'peru' are being repeated twice, we, therefore, remove them. The code-word that is left is 'dona' which evidently stands for 'weather'.
Hence, the answer is option D.
In the Questions given below a statement consists of one/two blank. You have to choose the option which provides the correct word that fits in the blanks.We are witnessing an industry that is__________ on poverty, mostly.- a)leading
- b)superior
- c)thriving
- d)discord
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In the Questions given below a statement consists of one/two blank. You have to choose the option which provides the correct word that fits in the blanks.
We are witnessing an industry that is__________ on poverty, mostly.
a)
leading
b)
superior
c)
thriving
d)
discord
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
Thriving - prosperous and growing; flourishing.
Legal Principle : Communication of offer and acceptance is must for a valid contract.Factual Situation : A proposes by speed post, to sell a watch to B at a definite price. A revokes his proposal by email after 6 hours to B.Q. Issue : Whether the revocation of an offer is valid?Decision :- a)Yes, revocation of offer is valid.
- b)Revocation of offer is not valid because it is not complete.
- c)Neither (a) nor (b).
- d)Revocation of offer is not accepted through two different means.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Legal Principle : Communication of offer and acceptance is must for a valid contract.
Factual Situation : A proposes by speed post, to sell a watch to B at a definite price. A revokes his proposal by email after 6 hours to B.
Q. Issue : Whether the revocation of an offer is valid?
Decision :
a)
Yes, revocation of offer is valid.
b)
Revocation of offer is not valid because it is not complete.
c)
Neither (a) nor (b).
d)
Revocation of offer is not accepted through two different means.
|
Partho Malik answered |
Legal Principle: Communication of offer and acceptance is must for a valid contract.
Factual Situation: A proposes by speed post, to sell a watch to B at a definite price. A revokes his proposal by email after 6 hours to B.
Issue: Whether the revocation of an offer is valid?
Decision: Yes, revocation of offer is valid.
Explanation:
Offer and acceptance are the two essential elements for a valid contract. An offer is a proposal made by one party to another, indicating the willingness to enter into a contract on certain terms. Acceptance is the unconditional agreement of the other party to the terms of the offer. The communication of the offer and acceptance is necessary to create a binding contract.
In the given scenario, A made an offer to B to sell a watch at a definite price by speed post. However, A revoked his proposal by email after six hours to B. The question is whether the revocation of an offer is valid or not.
According to the legal principle, an offer can be revoked at any time before the acceptance is communicated. In this case, A revoked his offer before B communicated his acceptance. Therefore, the revocation of the offer is valid.
The mode of revocation does not matter as long as it is effectively communicated to the offeree. In this case, the revocation was communicated through email, which is a valid means of communication. Hence, the revocation of the offer by A through email is valid.
Conclusion:
The communication of an offer and acceptance is a must for a valid contract. In this scenario, A made an offer to sell a watch to B, but he revoked his proposal before B communicated his acceptance. As per the legal principle, the revocation of the offer is valid, and the mode of communication does not matter. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Factual Situation: A proposes by speed post, to sell a watch to B at a definite price. A revokes his proposal by email after 6 hours to B.
Issue: Whether the revocation of an offer is valid?
Decision: Yes, revocation of offer is valid.
Explanation:
Offer and acceptance are the two essential elements for a valid contract. An offer is a proposal made by one party to another, indicating the willingness to enter into a contract on certain terms. Acceptance is the unconditional agreement of the other party to the terms of the offer. The communication of the offer and acceptance is necessary to create a binding contract.
In the given scenario, A made an offer to B to sell a watch at a definite price by speed post. However, A revoked his proposal by email after six hours to B. The question is whether the revocation of an offer is valid or not.
According to the legal principle, an offer can be revoked at any time before the acceptance is communicated. In this case, A revoked his offer before B communicated his acceptance. Therefore, the revocation of the offer is valid.
The mode of revocation does not matter as long as it is effectively communicated to the offeree. In this case, the revocation was communicated through email, which is a valid means of communication. Hence, the revocation of the offer by A through email is valid.
Conclusion:
The communication of an offer and acceptance is a must for a valid contract. In this scenario, A made an offer to sell a watch to B, but he revoked his proposal before B communicated his acceptance. As per the legal principle, the revocation of the offer is valid, and the mode of communication does not matter. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
The difference between 71% of a number and 58% of the same number is 299. What is 67% of that number?- a)1608
- b)1407
- c)1541
- d)1474
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The difference between 71% of a number and 58% of the same number is 299. What is 67% of that number?
a)
1608
b)
1407
c)
1541
d)
1474
|
|
Anaya Patel answered |
Let the number be 
Again 67% of the number = 
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.Four friends – Ram, Laxman, Bharat and Shatrughan were having a conversation. They were expressing their thoughts in a coded language.Ram says, "le po ki ba" when he wants to convey that "friends make life live". Laxman says, "te ki mo ba" when he wants to convey that "without friends life is impossible". Bharat says, "lo mo se te" when he wants to convey that "without trouble gain is impossible". Shatrughan says, "st ba po lo" when he wants to convey that "life makes trouble joy".Q. Which of the following is most probably the code for "life gives joy"?- a)st lo ba
- b)ba fo st
- c)le po st
- d)ba fo go
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Four friends – Ram, Laxman, Bharat and Shatrughan were having a conversation. They were expressing their thoughts in a coded language.Ram says, "le po ki ba" when he wants to convey that "friends make life live". Laxman says, "te ki mo ba" when he wants to convey that "without friends life is impossible". Bharat says, "lo mo se te" when he wants to convey that "without trouble gain is impossible". Shatrughan says, "st ba po lo" when he wants to convey that "life makes trouble joy".
Q. Which of the following is most probably the code for "life gives joy"?
a)
st lo ba
b)
ba fo st
c)
le po st
d)
ba fo go
|
|
Sahil Iyer answered |
Understanding the Code Language
In the conversation, each friend uses a specific coded language to express thoughts about life and friendship. To decode the phrases, we need to identify the words corresponding to each code.
Analyzing the Codes
1. Ram's Code:
- "le po ki ba" = "friends make life live"
- Possible words:
- le = friends
- po = make
- ki = life
- ba = live
2. Laxman's Code:
- "te ki mo ba" = "without friends life is impossible"
- Possible words:
- te = without
- ki = life
- mo = friends
- ba = impossible
3. Bharat's Code:
- "lo mo se te" = "without trouble gain is impossible"
- Possible words:
- lo = without
- mo = trouble
- se = gain
- te = impossible
4. Shatrughan's Code:
- "st ba po lo" = "life makes trouble joy"
- Possible words:
- st = life
- ba = makes
- po = trouble
- lo = joy
Decoding "life gives joy"
To find the code for "life gives joy," we need to identify the relevant words from the existing codes:
- "life" = st (from Shatrughan's code)
- "gives" = not explicitly coded but is likely to be "fo" (since it is the only word not already assigned)
- "joy" = lo (from Shatrughan's code)
Thus, the most probable code for "life gives joy" would be: "st fo lo."
Since this option does not exist, and based on the provided options, the answer (b) ba fo st is selected as the closest code. The use of "ba" and "st" aligns with the context, indicating a possible alternative for "gives."
In the conversation, each friend uses a specific coded language to express thoughts about life and friendship. To decode the phrases, we need to identify the words corresponding to each code.
Analyzing the Codes
1. Ram's Code:
- "le po ki ba" = "friends make life live"
- Possible words:
- le = friends
- po = make
- ki = life
- ba = live
2. Laxman's Code:
- "te ki mo ba" = "without friends life is impossible"
- Possible words:
- te = without
- ki = life
- mo = friends
- ba = impossible
3. Bharat's Code:
- "lo mo se te" = "without trouble gain is impossible"
- Possible words:
- lo = without
- mo = trouble
- se = gain
- te = impossible
4. Shatrughan's Code:
- "st ba po lo" = "life makes trouble joy"
- Possible words:
- st = life
- ba = makes
- po = trouble
- lo = joy
Decoding "life gives joy"
To find the code for "life gives joy," we need to identify the relevant words from the existing codes:
- "life" = st (from Shatrughan's code)
- "gives" = not explicitly coded but is likely to be "fo" (since it is the only word not already assigned)
- "joy" = lo (from Shatrughan's code)
Thus, the most probable code for "life gives joy" would be: "st fo lo."
Since this option does not exist, and based on the provided options, the answer (b) ba fo st is selected as the closest code. The use of "ba" and "st" aligns with the context, indicating a possible alternative for "gives."
Choose one word which can meaningfully replace the underlined words in both the sentences without changing the meaning of original sentences.I. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.II. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.- a)terminate
- b)finish
- c)disclose
- d)break
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose one word which can meaningfully replace the underlined words in both the sentences without changing the meaning of original sentences.
I. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.
II. The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.
a)
terminate
b)
finish
c)
disclose
d)
break
|
Rohit Jain answered |
The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.
The robber finally decided to end his silence and reveal the truth to the police.
Here both 'end' and 'reveal' are verbs (Verb is a word used to describe an action, state or occurrence)
Options (a), (b) 'terminate' and 'finish' mean end but they do not mean 'reveal'.
Hence, these words cannot be used to replace the words in both the sentences.
Option (c) 'disclose' means 'reveal' but it does not mean 'end.
Only option (d) 'break' means 'end' in sentence (I) and 'reveal' in sentence (II). Thus, 'break' is the word which meaningfully replaces the words in both the sentences.
Direction: In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side :: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.Tadpole : Frog :: Cub : ?- a)Hedgehog
- b)Lion
- c)Cat
- d)Dog
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Direction: In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side :: while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
Tadpole : Frog :: Cub : ?
a)
Hedgehog
b)
Lion
c)
Cat
d)
Dog
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
The young one of the frogs is called tadpole. Similarly, the young one of lion is called cub.
Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?- a)Jawaharlal Nehru
- b)Mrs. Indira Gandhi
- c)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
a)
Jawaharlal Nehru
b)
Mrs. Indira Gandhi
c)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
|
|
Kavya sharma answered |
The first Deputy Prime Minister of India was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Explanation:
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was an Indian barrister and statesman who played a crucial role in the country's struggle for independence from British rule.
- After independence, Patel was appointed as the Deputy Prime Minister and the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Cabinet of Independent India, led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Patel held these positions from 1947 until his death in 1950.
- As the Deputy Prime Minister, Patel played a significant role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
- Under his leadership, the Indian government successfully persuaded the princely states to accede to India, thereby consolidating the country's unity and territorial integrity.
- Patel's efforts in this regard were instrumental in the formation of a unified India, free from the fragmentation of princely states.
- He was also responsible for the reorganization of states on linguistic lines, which led to the formation of states such as Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
- Patel's contributions to the nation-building process and his role in shaping India's political landscape earned him the title of the "Iron Man of India."
- He is remembered as one of the founding fathers of the Indian Republic and as a respected leader who played a crucial role in the early years of independent India.
In conclusion, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. His leadership and contributions to the nation continue to be celebrated and remembered to this day.
Explanation:
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was an Indian barrister and statesman who played a crucial role in the country's struggle for independence from British rule.
- After independence, Patel was appointed as the Deputy Prime Minister and the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Cabinet of Independent India, led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Patel held these positions from 1947 until his death in 1950.
- As the Deputy Prime Minister, Patel played a significant role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
- Under his leadership, the Indian government successfully persuaded the princely states to accede to India, thereby consolidating the country's unity and territorial integrity.
- Patel's efforts in this regard were instrumental in the formation of a unified India, free from the fragmentation of princely states.
- He was also responsible for the reorganization of states on linguistic lines, which led to the formation of states such as Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
- Patel's contributions to the nation-building process and his role in shaping India's political landscape earned him the title of the "Iron Man of India."
- He is remembered as one of the founding fathers of the Indian Republic and as a respected leader who played a crucial role in the early years of independent India.
In conclusion, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India. His leadership and contributions to the nation continue to be celebrated and remembered to this day.
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.There are five countries namely India, Russia, China, Germany and Brazil. Each of them has a national flower, viz Lotus, Rose, Lily, Jasmine and Sunflower, and also a national animal, viz Lion, Tiger, Elephant, Panther and Bear (But not necessarily in the same order.)
The country whose national animal Bear has rose as its national flower. Neither Lily nor Jasmine is the national flower of Germany, whose national animal is Panther. India’s national flower is Lotus and Russia’s national animal is Lion. Sunflower is not China’s national flower and Bear is not Brazil’s national animal. The country whose national flower is Lily has Tiger as its national animal. Which of the following is the national flower of China?- a)Lily
- b)Sunflower
- c)Jasmine
- d)Rose
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.There are five countries namely India, Russia, China, Germany and Brazil. Each of them has a national flower, viz Lotus, Rose, Lily, Jasmine and Sunflower, and also a national animal, viz Lion, Tiger, Elephant, Panther and Bear (But not necessarily in the same order.)
The country whose national animal Bear has rose as its national flower.
Neither Lily nor Jasmine is the national flower of Germany, whose national animal is Panther. India’s national flower is Lotus and Russia’s national animal is Lion.
Sunflower is not China’s national flower and Bear is not Brazil’s national animal.
The country whose national flower is Lily has Tiger as its national animal.
Which of the following is the national flower of China?
a)
Lily
b)
Sunflower
c)
Jasmine
d)
Rose
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well recognised. However, the lack of targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest in women and girls.Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation. Women’s declining labour participation, underrepresentation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005.The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies. Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and administration to address disparities.Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women.For instance, a recent International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure spending.Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years, allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline.For instance, Budget 2016-17 was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.What idea, according to the passage, does the author clearly want to convey?- a)Indian government must work towards bringing more women welfare policies and development programmes to the floor.
- b)Gender responsive budgeting must be seen as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality instead of a symbolic change.
- c)India must shift its focus from Digitalization to core problem areas like ‘Women empowerment’ and ‘Gender inequality’.
- d)Both A and B
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well recognised. However, the lack of targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest in women and girls.Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation. Women’s declining labour participation, underrepresentation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005.
The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies. Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and administration to address disparities.Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women.
For instance, a recent International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure spending.Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years, allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline.
For instance, Budget 2016-17 was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
What idea, according to the passage, does the author clearly want to convey?
a)
Indian government must work towards bringing more women welfare policies and development programmes to the floor.
b)
Gender responsive budgeting must be seen as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality instead of a symbolic change.
c)
India must shift its focus from Digitalization to core problem areas like ‘Women empowerment’ and ‘Gender inequality’.
d)
Both A and B
|
|
Rohit Jain answered |
Last sentence, last paragraph
In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
The later part of the last sentence of the last paragraph clearly supports the idea stated in statement B. However, the ideas mentioned in statement A and C can’t be inferred from the passage.
Option B is hence the correct answer.
Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom:Make up one's mind- a)to be prepared
- b)to make someone happy
- c)make a decision
- d)To criticize someone
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom:
Make up one's mind
a)
to be prepared
b)
to make someone happy
c)
make a decision
d)
To criticize someone
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Make up one's mind - make a decision
Sentence:
She was not able to make up her mind in selecting a college.
The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 100 years. 5 Years ago their ages was in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the age of father and son after 20 years will be- a)15 : 13
- b)17 : 11
- c)11 : 19
- d)20 : 23
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 100 years. 5 Years ago their ages was in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the age of father and son after 20 years will be
a)
15 : 13
b)
17 : 11
c)
11 : 19
d)
20 : 23
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Let the present ages of father and son be x and y. given, x + y = 100
⇒ x = 100 – y ..............(i)
Five years ago, their ages was in ratio of 2 : 1
x − 5 = 2y − 10x − 5 = 2y − 10
2y − x − 5 = 0 2y − x − 5 = 0
x − 2y + 5 = 0 x − 2y + 5 = 0
putting (i) in eq. (ii)
100 − y − 2y + 5 = 0 100 − y − 2y + 5 = 0
100 − 3y + 55 = 0 100 − 3y + 55 = 0
105 = 3y 105 = 3y
y = 1053 = 35 = 105/3 = 35
putting value of y in eq. (i)(?)
x = 100 − 35 = 65x = 100 − 35 = 65
So, the ratio of present ages of father 8 son ⇒ xy = 6535 ⇒ x/y = 65/35
(x:y ⇒ 17:11)(x:y ⇒ 17:11) Hence, option (B) is correct
Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.
If NOTE is coded as OQWl and BOA is coded as CQD, then which of the following is coded as NCWGM?
- a)MOKEB
- b)MATER
- c)CATCH
- d)MATCH
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.
If NOTE is coded as OQWl and BOA is coded as CQD, then which of the following is coded as NCWGM?
a)
MOKEB
b)
MATER
c)
CATCH
d)
MATCH
|
|
Ashima rao answered |
Explanation:
To find the correct answer, we need to understand the coding pattern used in the given codes.
Pattern in coding:
- Each letter in the original word is replaced by the corresponding letter in the coded word.
- The replacement is based on the position of the letter in the English alphabet.
- The position of a letter in the original word is added to the corresponding position of the letter in the coded word to get the new position.
- If the new position exceeds 26, it is wrapped around to the beginning of the alphabet.
Let's decode the given codes to understand the pattern:
Decoding 'OQWl' to 'NOTE':
- The first letter 'O' is 15 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'N', which is 14 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 15 and 14 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'Q' is 17 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 17 and 15 is 2.
- The third letter 'W' is 23 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'T', which is 20 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 23 and 20 is 3.
- The fourth letter 'l' is 12 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'E', which is 5 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 12 and 5 is 7.
Therefore, we can say that the code 'OQWl' is obtained by adding the position of each letter in the original word 'NOTE' to the corresponding position of the letter in the coded word.
Decoding 'CQD' to 'BOA':
- The first letter 'C' is 3 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'B', which is 2 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 3 and 2 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'Q' is 17 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 17 and 15 is 2.
- The third letter 'D' is 4 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'A', which is 1 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 4 and 1 is 3.
Now, let's apply the same pattern to decode 'NCWGM':
Decoding 'NCWGM':
- The first letter 'N' is 14 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in the original word is 'M', which is 13 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 14 and 13 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'C' is 3 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in the original word is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 3 and 15 is -12.
- Since the new position is negative, we need to wrap it around to the end of the alphabet.
- The new position is 26 - 12 = 14.
- Therefore,
To find the correct answer, we need to understand the coding pattern used in the given codes.
Pattern in coding:
- Each letter in the original word is replaced by the corresponding letter in the coded word.
- The replacement is based on the position of the letter in the English alphabet.
- The position of a letter in the original word is added to the corresponding position of the letter in the coded word to get the new position.
- If the new position exceeds 26, it is wrapped around to the beginning of the alphabet.
Let's decode the given codes to understand the pattern:
Decoding 'OQWl' to 'NOTE':
- The first letter 'O' is 15 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'N', which is 14 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 15 and 14 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'Q' is 17 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 17 and 15 is 2.
- The third letter 'W' is 23 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'T', which is 20 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 23 and 20 is 3.
- The fourth letter 'l' is 12 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'NOTE' is 'E', which is 5 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 12 and 5 is 7.
Therefore, we can say that the code 'OQWl' is obtained by adding the position of each letter in the original word 'NOTE' to the corresponding position of the letter in the coded word.
Decoding 'CQD' to 'BOA':
- The first letter 'C' is 3 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'B', which is 2 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 3 and 2 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'Q' is 17 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 17 and 15 is 2.
- The third letter 'D' is 4 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in 'BOA' is 'A', which is 1 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 4 and 1 is 3.
Now, let's apply the same pattern to decode 'NCWGM':
Decoding 'NCWGM':
- The first letter 'N' is 14 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in the original word is 'M', which is 13 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 14 and 13 is 1.
- Similarly, the second letter 'C' is 3 in the alphabet.
- The corresponding letter in the original word is 'O', which is 15 in the alphabet.
- The difference between 3 and 15 is -12.
- Since the new position is negative, we need to wrap it around to the end of the alphabet.
- The new position is 26 - 12 = 14.
- Therefore,
Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.Five persons – P, Q, R, S and T scored different marks in an examination. If Q scored more marks than S and T only while R does not score the highest marks then who among the following has the second highest marks?- a)P
- b)Q
- c)R
- d)S
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Read the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.
Five persons – P, Q, R, S and T scored different marks in an examination. If Q scored more marks than S and T only while R does not score the highest marks then who among the following has the second highest marks?
a)
P
b)
Q
c)
R
d)
S
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Using the below hints we get the following information Q scored more marks than S and T.
And,
R does not score the highest marks,
Now, we can merge the above information as:
Here, we can say that R scored 2nd highest marks.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Which of the following statements is not correct?- a)Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha
- b)Coffee is an important plantation crop in Karnataka
- c)Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat
- d)Meghalaya is a major pineapple producing states of India
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a)
Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha
b)
Coffee is an important plantation crop in Karnataka
c)
Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat
d)
Meghalaya is a major pineapple producing states of India
|
|
Saanvi shah answered |
Explanation:
Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha:
- This statement is not correct because rice is a staple crop in Odisha, not just a commercial crop. It is widely cultivated and consumed by the local population.
Coffee is an important plantation crop in Karnataka:
- This statement is correct. Karnataka is one of the largest producers of coffee in India and is known for its high-quality coffee plantations.
Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat:
- This statement is correct. Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat and the state is one of the leading producers of groundnuts in the country.
Meghalaya is a major pineapple producing state of India:
- This statement is correct. Meghalaya is known for its pineapple production and is one of the major pineapple-producing states in India.
In conclusion, the statement that is not correct is "Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha."
Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha:
- This statement is not correct because rice is a staple crop in Odisha, not just a commercial crop. It is widely cultivated and consumed by the local population.
Coffee is an important plantation crop in Karnataka:
- This statement is correct. Karnataka is one of the largest producers of coffee in India and is known for its high-quality coffee plantations.
Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat:
- This statement is correct. Groundnut is a major Kharif crop in Gujarat and the state is one of the leading producers of groundnuts in the country.
Meghalaya is a major pineapple producing state of India:
- This statement is correct. Meghalaya is known for its pineapple production and is one of the major pineapple-producing states in India.
In conclusion, the statement that is not correct is "Rice is a commercial crop in Odisha."
In the question below, there is a sentence with jumbled up parts. Rearrange these parts, which are labelled A, B, C and D to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.a. She danced with joyb. that she had toppedc. when she found outd. the board examination.Correct Sequence:- a)abcd
- b)abdc
- c)acbd
- d)bcda
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In the question below, there is a sentence with jumbled up parts. Rearrange these parts, which are labelled A, B, C and D to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
a. She danced with joy
b. that she had topped
c. when she found out
d. the board examination.
Correct Sequence:
a)
abcd
b)
abdc
c)
acbd
d)
bcda
|
Saanvi singh answered |
Explanation:
Given Sentence:
She danced with joy when she found out that she had topped the board examination.
Correct Sequence:
a) She danced with joy
c) when she found out
b) that she had topped
d) the board examination
Explanation:
- The sentence starts with the action "She danced with joy," which is part A.
- The next part should explain why she danced with joy, which is when she found out, making it part C.
- Following that, it is revealed that she had topped the board examination, so "that she had topped" should be part B.
- Finally, the sentence concludes with the specific achievement of topping the board examination, which is mentioned as part D.
Therefore, the correct sequence is:
a) She danced with joy
c) when she found out
b) that she had topped
d) the board examination.
Given Sentence:
She danced with joy when she found out that she had topped the board examination.
Correct Sequence:
a) She danced with joy
c) when she found out
b) that she had topped
d) the board examination
Explanation:
- The sentence starts with the action "She danced with joy," which is part A.
- The next part should explain why she danced with joy, which is when she found out, making it part C.
- Following that, it is revealed that she had topped the board examination, so "that she had topped" should be part B.
- Finally, the sentence concludes with the specific achievement of topping the board examination, which is mentioned as part D.
Therefore, the correct sequence is:
a) She danced with joy
c) when she found out
b) that she had topped
d) the board examination.
Choose the word or group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word in Underline.Chimera- a)Chimney
- b)Protest
- c)Illusion
- d)Panache
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose the word or group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word in Underline.
Chimera
a)
Chimney
b)
Protest
c)
Illusion
d)
Panache
|
|
Partho Chavan answered |
Explanation:
Chimera:
- A chimera is a thing that is hoped or wished for but in fact is illusory or impossible to achieve.
- It is often used to describe something that is a figment of the imagination or a fanciful idea.
Illusion:
- Illusion is the most similar word to chimera because both refer to something that is not real or not likely to happen.
- An illusion is a false idea or belief, often created by the mind or by appearances.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: Illusion.
Directions: In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. The statement is followed by some conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.Statements: C < l="" ≤="" m="E" ≤="" x="" />< />J = X < h="" ≤="" s="" ≤="" v="" /> N,A ≤ V < t="Z" =="" w="" /> UConclusions:I. L ≤ H,II. S < />III. J < />- a)Only C1 and C2 follow
- b)Only C3 follows
- c)Only C2 and C3 follow
- d)All the conclusions follow
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. The statement is followed by some conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statements:
C < l="" ≤="" m="E" ≤="" x="" />< />
J = X < h="" ≤="" s="" ≤="" v="" /> N,
A ≤ V < t="Z" =="" w="" /> U
Conclusions:
I. L ≤ H,
II. S < />
III. J < />
a)
Only C1 and C2 follow
b)
Only C3 follows
c)
Only C2 and C3 follow
d)
All the conclusions follow
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Statements:
C < l="" ≤="" m="E" ≤="" x="" />< />
J = X < h="" ≤="" s="" ≤="" v="" /> N,
A ≤ V < t="Z" =="" w="" /> U
Conclusions:
I. L ≤ H,
II. S < />
III. J < />
Combining both the equations to find the relationship between L and H, we get
L ≤ M = E ≤ X < />
Clearly, the common sign of inequalities between L and H is of '<' and="" the="" given="" conclusion="" is="" l="" ≤="" h.="" c1,="" hence,="" does="" not="">
Similarly, for S and M, we get
S ≥ H > X ≥ E = M
Clearly, the common sign between S and M is of '>' and the given conclusion is S < m.="" c2,="" hence,="" does="" not="" />
Similarly, for J and Z, we get
J = X < h="" ≤="" s="" ≤="" v="" />< t="" />
Clearly, the common sign between J and Z is of '<' and="" the="" given="" conclusion="" is="" also="" j="">< z.="" c3,="" hence,="" />
Option B is hence the correct answer.
“Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach”.The word Swaraj was first of all used by Balgangadhar Tilak. Where did Balgangadhar Tilak made the above declaration in Marathi?- a)In Pune Jail
- b)In Yavarda Jail
- c)In Court
- d)In Mandalay Jail
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
“Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach”.
The word Swaraj was first of all used by Balgangadhar Tilak. Where did Balgangadhar Tilak made the above declaration in Marathi?
a)
In Pune Jail
b)
In Yavarda Jail
c)
In Court
d)
In Mandalay Jail
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
In Court, Tilak declared Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach” in court when he was given 7 years rigorous imprisonment in sedition case against him. Later Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail for six years.
Assertion (A): The acceptance must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror and must be qualified and absolute.Reason (R): An acceptance that is not communicated clearly to the offeror does not lead to the formation of a contract.- a)A is false but R is true.
- b)Both A and R are true but Ꭱ is the correct explanation of
- c)A is true but R is false
- d)Both A and R are false
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Assertion (A): The acceptance must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror and must be qualified and absolute.
Reason (R): An acceptance that is not communicated clearly to the offeror does not lead to the formation of a contract.
a)
A is false but R is true.
b)
Both A and R are true but Ꭱ is the correct explanation of
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
Both A and R are false
|
Aravind Ghoshal answered |
Explanation:
Assertion (A):
- The acceptance must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror and must be qualified and absolute.
- This statement is true because for a contract to be formed, there must be a meeting of the minds between the offeror and the offeree. This means that the offeree must clearly communicate their acceptance of the offer to the offeror.
- The acceptance must also be unconditional and without any modifications to the terms of the offer. Any changes or conditions in the acceptance would be considered a counteroffer, not an acceptance.
Reason (R):
- An acceptance that is not communicated clearly to the offeror does not lead to the formation of a contract.
- This statement is also true because communication of acceptance is essential for the offeror to know that their offer has been accepted. Without clear communication, there is no way for the offeror to know whether the offeree has agreed to the terms of the offer.
- If the acceptance is not clearly communicated, there is no meeting of the minds between the parties, and therefore, no contract is formed.
Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion.
Assertion (A):
- The acceptance must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror and must be qualified and absolute.
- This statement is true because for a contract to be formed, there must be a meeting of the minds between the offeror and the offeree. This means that the offeree must clearly communicate their acceptance of the offer to the offeror.
- The acceptance must also be unconditional and without any modifications to the terms of the offer. Any changes or conditions in the acceptance would be considered a counteroffer, not an acceptance.
Reason (R):
- An acceptance that is not communicated clearly to the offeror does not lead to the formation of a contract.
- This statement is also true because communication of acceptance is essential for the offeror to know that their offer has been accepted. Without clear communication, there is no way for the offeror to know whether the offeree has agreed to the terms of the offer.
- If the acceptance is not clearly communicated, there is no meeting of the minds between the parties, and therefore, no contract is formed.
Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion.
On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?- a)Parliament
- b)Supreme Court
- c)President
- d)State legislature
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a)
Parliament
b)
Supreme Court
c)
President
d)
State legislature
|
|
Raveena mehta answered |
The Constitution confers special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights on the Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country and is entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding the Fundamental Rights of citizens. The Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power of judicial review, which allows it to examine the constitutionality of laws and government actions. This power enables the Supreme Court to ensure that the Fundamental Rights of citizens are protected and enforced.
Role of the Supreme Court in enforcing Fundamental Rights:
1. Interpreting the Constitution: The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the provisions of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights. It determines the scope and extent of these rights and clarifies their applicability in various situations.
2. Striking down unconstitutional laws: If a law enacted by the Parliament or the state legislature is found to be violative of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has the power to declare it unconstitutional and void. This ensures that laws that infringe upon the rights of citizens are not enforced.
3. Writ jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, such as habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto, for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. These writs are legal remedies that can be sought by individuals to protect their rights and challenge any violation.
4. Public interest litigation (PIL): The Supreme Court has been proactive in entertaining PILs filed by individuals or organizations in matters of public importance. PILs have been instrumental in bringing to light issues related to Fundamental Rights and ensuring their enforcement.
5. Protection against executive actions: The Supreme Court acts as a check on the executive branch of the government. It can review and strike down executive actions or policies that violate Fundamental Rights, thereby providing a safeguard against potential abuse of power.
6. Guardian of the Constitution: The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of the Constitution and ensures that the Fundamental Rights are upheld. It has the final authority to interpret the Constitution and protect the rights of citizens from any infringement.
In conclusion, the Constitution confers special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights on the Supreme Court due to its powers of judicial review, interpretation, and protection of citizens' rights. The Supreme Court plays a vital role in ensuring that the rights enshrined in the Constitution are upheld and protected.
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country and is entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding the Fundamental Rights of citizens. The Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power of judicial review, which allows it to examine the constitutionality of laws and government actions. This power enables the Supreme Court to ensure that the Fundamental Rights of citizens are protected and enforced.
Role of the Supreme Court in enforcing Fundamental Rights:
1. Interpreting the Constitution: The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the provisions of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights. It determines the scope and extent of these rights and clarifies their applicability in various situations.
2. Striking down unconstitutional laws: If a law enacted by the Parliament or the state legislature is found to be violative of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has the power to declare it unconstitutional and void. This ensures that laws that infringe upon the rights of citizens are not enforced.
3. Writ jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, such as habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto, for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. These writs are legal remedies that can be sought by individuals to protect their rights and challenge any violation.
4. Public interest litigation (PIL): The Supreme Court has been proactive in entertaining PILs filed by individuals or organizations in matters of public importance. PILs have been instrumental in bringing to light issues related to Fundamental Rights and ensuring their enforcement.
5. Protection against executive actions: The Supreme Court acts as a check on the executive branch of the government. It can review and strike down executive actions or policies that violate Fundamental Rights, thereby providing a safeguard against potential abuse of power.
6. Guardian of the Constitution: The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of the Constitution and ensures that the Fundamental Rights are upheld. It has the final authority to interpret the Constitution and protect the rights of citizens from any infringement.
In conclusion, the Constitution confers special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights on the Supreme Court due to its powers of judicial review, interpretation, and protection of citizens' rights. The Supreme Court plays a vital role in ensuring that the rights enshrined in the Constitution are upheld and protected.
Legal Principle : A contract with a minor would be void if the other party knew about the minority.Facts of the Problem : Hitesh is a leading seller of the computer hardware items in the city. His sixteen years old son has Rohan as his best friend. Rohan is also of the same age. Hitesh knowing the age of Rohan entered into a contract with him for a set of laptops for a sum of Rs. 20 lakhs to him. When Hitesh sent the consignment of the laptops, Rohan refused to take them and dishonoured the contract. Hitesh sues Rohan for the damages suffered by him. Decide the legal outcome of the situation?- a)Hitesh would be able to get compensation for the damages from Roha
- b)Hitesh would not be able to get the damages, but can force Rohan to buy the laptops from him.
- c)Hitesh would not be able to get the damages as the contract is void.
- d)The court could grant exemplary damages to Hitesh.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Legal Principle : A contract with a minor would be void if the other party knew about the minority.
Facts of the Problem : Hitesh is a leading seller of the computer hardware items in the city. His sixteen years old son has Rohan as his best friend. Rohan is also of the same age. Hitesh knowing the age of Rohan entered into a contract with him for a set of laptops for a sum of Rs. 20 lakhs to him. When Hitesh sent the consignment of the laptops, Rohan refused to take them and dishonoured the contract. Hitesh sues Rohan for the damages suffered by him. Decide the legal outcome of the situation?
a)
Hitesh would be able to get compensation for the damages from Roha
b)
Hitesh would not be able to get the damages, but can force Rohan to buy the laptops from him.
c)
Hitesh would not be able to get the damages as the contract is void.
d)
The court could grant exemplary damages to Hitesh.
|
Sumedha Gupta answered |
Legal Outcome of the Situation:
The legal outcome of the situation is that Hitesh would not be able to get damages from Rohan as the contract between them is void.
Legal Principle:
According to the legal principle, a contract with a minor would be void if the other party knew about the minority. This principle is based on the fact that minors do not have the capacity to enter into legally binding contracts.
Explanation:
In this case, Hitesh, who is a leading seller of computer hardware items, entered into a contract with Rohan, who is sixteen years old, for a set of laptops worth Rs. 20 lakhs. Hitesh was aware of Rohan's age at the time of entering into the contract.
Void Contract:
Since Rohan is a minor and Hitesh was aware of his age, the contract between them is void. This means that the contract is not enforceable by law and neither party can claim any rights or remedies under it.
Minor's Capacity to Contract:
Minors are considered to lack the necessary legal capacity to enter into contracts. The law recognizes their vulnerability and protects them from entering into agreements that they may not fully understand or appreciate the consequences of.
Doctrine of Restitution:
In such cases, the doctrine of restitution applies, which means that any benefits received by the minor under the contract must be returned to the other party. In this case, since Rohan refused to take the laptops and dishonored the contract, he would be required to return any benefits he may have received from Hitesh.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Hitesh would not be able to get compensation for the damages suffered by him as the contract with Rohan is void due to Rohan's minority. However, Hitesh can seek restitution and request the return of any benefits provided to Rohan under the contract.
The legal outcome of the situation is that Hitesh would not be able to get damages from Rohan as the contract between them is void.
Legal Principle:
According to the legal principle, a contract with a minor would be void if the other party knew about the minority. This principle is based on the fact that minors do not have the capacity to enter into legally binding contracts.
Explanation:
In this case, Hitesh, who is a leading seller of computer hardware items, entered into a contract with Rohan, who is sixteen years old, for a set of laptops worth Rs. 20 lakhs. Hitesh was aware of Rohan's age at the time of entering into the contract.
Void Contract:
Since Rohan is a minor and Hitesh was aware of his age, the contract between them is void. This means that the contract is not enforceable by law and neither party can claim any rights or remedies under it.
Minor's Capacity to Contract:
Minors are considered to lack the necessary legal capacity to enter into contracts. The law recognizes their vulnerability and protects them from entering into agreements that they may not fully understand or appreciate the consequences of.
Doctrine of Restitution:
In such cases, the doctrine of restitution applies, which means that any benefits received by the minor under the contract must be returned to the other party. In this case, since Rohan refused to take the laptops and dishonored the contract, he would be required to return any benefits he may have received from Hitesh.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Hitesh would not be able to get compensation for the damages suffered by him as the contract with Rohan is void due to Rohan's minority. However, Hitesh can seek restitution and request the return of any benefits provided to Rohan under the contract.
An agreement to remain unmarried formed with a business partner is _________.- a)Valid
- b)Void
- c)Voidable
- d)Unenforceable
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
An agreement to remain unmarried formed with a business partner is _________.
a)
Valid
b)
Void
c)
Voidable
d)
Unenforceable
|
|
Faizan Khan answered |
Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.
Hence, option B is correct.
That is unsurprising, considering _______(a)__________ occupational health receives low priority in policymaking, while environmental concerns are counterposed _______(b)__________ rapid growth of industry as an obstacle. The Kodaikanal story should convince Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar, who said his Ministry would no longer be a “roadblock”, that a culture of superficiality in making impact assessments is unsuitable.In the above passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested.Choose the one that fills the blank numbered 'a' most appropriately.- a)that
- b)of
- c)about
- d)the
- e)as
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
That is unsurprising, considering _______(a)__________ occupational health receives low priority in policymaking, while environmental concerns are counterposed _______(b)__________ rapid growth of industry as an obstacle. The Kodaikanal story should convince Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar, who said his Ministry would no longer be a “roadblock”, that a culture of superficiality in making impact assessments is unsuitable.
In the above passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested.
Choose the one that fills the blank numbered 'a' most appropriately.
a)
that
b)
of
c)
about
d)
the
e)
as
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
As per the meaning of the sentence, the black should be filled by a conjunction, Hence, ‘the’ cannot be used. Also, the word ‘consider’ is not followed by any preposition. Hence, ‘that’ is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries is not a part of the Melanesia region in the pacific ocean?- a)Vanuatu
- b)Solomon Islands
- c)Fiji
- d)Kiribati
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following countries is not a part of the Melanesia region in the pacific ocean?
a)
Vanuatu
b)
Solomon Islands
c)
Fiji
d)
Kiribati
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
Melanesia is a subregion of Oceania and refers to the Pacific Islands from New Guinea south east-wards to Fiji. It has four countries viz. Vanuatu, Solomon Islands, Fiji, and Papua New Guinea.
Legal Principle : The acceptance of an agreement by both the parties must be absolute and unqualified in order to constitute a valid contract.Facts of the Problem : Rahul proposes to sell Parul two quintals of kerosene at the cost of Rs. 40/litre. Parul did not convey her acceptance, but says that she would think about it. Unable to wait for Parul to accept the contract, Rahul sells the kerosene to someone else. Parul gets furious after learning about the sale of the kerosene to someone else by Rahul. Parul files a suit for damages against Rahul for the dishonouring of the contract?- a)Parul would get damages from Rahul for the dishonouring of the contract.
- b)Parul would not get any relief as the acceptance of Parul to the contract was not absolute.
- c)The contract between Rahul and Parul was against public policy as kerosene could not be sold/purchased in the open market.
- d)The court would direct Rahul to sell the specified quantity of kerosene to Parul.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Legal Principle : The acceptance of an agreement by both the parties must be absolute and unqualified in order to constitute a valid contract.
Facts of the Problem : Rahul proposes to sell Parul two quintals of kerosene at the cost of Rs. 40/litre. Parul did not convey her acceptance, but says that she would think about it. Unable to wait for Parul to accept the contract, Rahul sells the kerosene to someone else. Parul gets furious after learning about the sale of the kerosene to someone else by Rahul. Parul files a suit for damages against Rahul for the dishonouring of the contract?
a)
Parul would get damages from Rahul for the dishonouring of the contract.
b)
Parul would not get any relief as the acceptance of Parul to the contract was not absolute.
c)
The contract between Rahul and Parul was against public policy as kerosene could not be sold/purchased in the open market.
d)
The court would direct Rahul to sell the specified quantity of kerosene to Parul.
|
|
Raghav Unni answered |
Explanation:
Unqualified acceptance required for a valid contract:
- In order for a contract to be valid, the acceptance of an agreement by both parties must be absolute and unqualified.
- In this case, Parul did not convey her acceptance to Rahul's proposal to sell two quintals of kerosene at a certain price. She only mentioned that she would think about it, which indicates a lack of unqualified acceptance.
Consequences of lack of unqualified acceptance:
- Since Parul did not provide an absolute and unqualified acceptance to Rahul's proposal, a valid contract was not formed between them.
- As a result, Parul would not be entitled to any damages from Rahul for the alleged dishonoring of the contract, as there was no binding contract in the first place.
Legal implications:
- It is important for parties entering into an agreement to ensure that their acceptance is clear, unambiguous, and unqualified to avoid any misunderstandings or disputes in the future.
- In this case, the lack of unqualified acceptance by Parul renders the agreement between her and Rahul invalid, and therefore she would not have any legal basis to claim damages from Rahul.
Eight players P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W participated in the badminton tournament. In the first round of the tournament these eight players were divided into two groups of four players each. In a group each player had to play twice against each of the other players. Every match had a decisive result, i.e. no match ended in a tie. The player with the highest and second highest number of wins in both the groups reached the semifinal. Q, U, W, V were the four players who qualified for the semi final.]It is also known that in the first round:Each player of each group had a different number of wins.R lost all of his matches against all the other players except S, who at least one match against each of the other players except one.V won both the matches against U.P and W won the same number of matches.Q. Who won the least number of matches after the first round?- a)P
- b)R
- c)S
- d)T
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Eight players P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W participated in the badminton tournament. In the first round of the tournament these eight players were divided into two groups of four players each. In a group each player had to play twice against each of the other players. Every match had a decisive result, i.e. no match ended in a tie. The player with the highest and second highest number of wins in both the groups reached the semifinal. Q, U, W, V were the four players who qualified for the semi final.]
It is also known that in the first round:
Each player of each group had a different number of wins.
R lost all of his matches against all the other players except S, who at least one match against each of the other players except one.
V won both the matches against U.
P and W won the same number of matches.
Q. Who won the least number of matches after the first round?
a)
P
b)
R
c)
S
d)
T
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
Following the final solution to the puzzle set we can say that T won the least number of matches after the first round.
Hence the correct answer is option (D.)
Common Explanation:
References:
V won both the matches against U.
Inference:
Studying the information carefully we can say that V and U were in the same group let's say that Group A and we also know Q,U,W,V were the four players who qualified for the semifinal so we can also say that Q and W were in second group let's say that Group B.
References:
Each player of each group had a different number of wins.
P and W won the same number of matches.
R lost all of his matches against all the other players except S, who at least one match against each of the other players except one.
Inference:
Using the given information we say that R and S belongs to Group B and P and T belongs to Group A its because P and w can't be in the same group and R and S must go together. As it is given that R won only against S so he has only one point.
Now, in a group each player had to play twice against each of the players. So the total number of matches that can be played in each group are equal to 12. And the winning combinations given that each player of group had a different number of wins can only be
A- (6 4 2 0 )
B- (6 3 2 1)
C- (5 4 2 1)
D-(5 4 3 0)
In all of the combinations only B and C can fit in Group B. But we know that W and P have the same number of wins so only combinations B and D fits into our requirements.
But U cannot have 5 wins in group A because he lost both of his matches to V.
Therefore the final scorecard is as follows.
The Union Council of Ministers consists of- a)Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers.
- b)Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States.
- c)Prime Minister.
- d)Cabinet Ministers.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The Union Council of Ministers consists of
a)
Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers.
b)
Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States.
c)
Prime Minister.
d)
Cabinet Ministers.
|
Akash Choudhary answered |
The Union Council of Ministers is the executive body of the Government of India, headed by the Prime Minister. It consists of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. The correct answer is option 'A', which includes all three categories of ministers.
- Cabinet Ministers: Cabinet Ministers are senior ministers who are in charge of major government departments and ministries. They are usually political leaders with significant experience and expertise in their respective fields. Cabinet Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- Ministers of State: Ministers of State are junior ministers who assist the Cabinet Ministers in their work. They are usually responsible for specific areas or departments under the Cabinet Ministers. Ministers of State are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- Deputy Ministers: Deputy Ministers are further junior ministers who assist the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State. They have a lower rank and are responsible for specific tasks or projects within their respective ministries. Deputy Ministers are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
The inclusion of all three categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers ensures a hierarchical and efficient structure for the functioning of the government. Cabinet Ministers provide overall leadership and decision-making, while Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers assist in the implementation of policies and programs.
In summary, the Union Council of Ministers consists of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. They collectively form the executive body of the Government of India and work under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
- Cabinet Ministers: Cabinet Ministers are senior ministers who are in charge of major government departments and ministries. They are usually political leaders with significant experience and expertise in their respective fields. Cabinet Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- Ministers of State: Ministers of State are junior ministers who assist the Cabinet Ministers in their work. They are usually responsible for specific areas or departments under the Cabinet Ministers. Ministers of State are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- Deputy Ministers: Deputy Ministers are further junior ministers who assist the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State. They have a lower rank and are responsible for specific tasks or projects within their respective ministries. Deputy Ministers are also appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
The inclusion of all three categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers ensures a hierarchical and efficient structure for the functioning of the government. Cabinet Ministers provide overall leadership and decision-making, while Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers assist in the implementation of policies and programs.
In summary, the Union Council of Ministers consists of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. They collectively form the executive body of the Government of India and work under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
Rearrange the following parts (1, 2, 3 and 4) in proper sequence to obtain a correct sentence.1. and he who has hope,2. has hope3. has everything4. the person who has health- a)1, 4, 3, 2
- b)3, 2, 4, 1
- c)3, 4, 1, 2
- d)4, 2, 1, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Rearrange the following parts (1, 2, 3 and 4) in proper sequence to obtain a correct sentence.
1. and he who has hope,
2. has hope
3. has everything
4. the person who has health
a)
1, 4, 3, 2
b)
3, 2, 4, 1
c)
3, 4, 1, 2
d)
4, 2, 1, 3
|
|
Rajani kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
Correct Sequence:
1. the person who has health
2. has hope
3. has everything
4. and he who has hope
Explanation:
The correct sequence of the parts should be as follows:
- The sentence starts by identifying the person who has health.
- Then it states that this person has hope.
- Following that, it mentions that having hope means having everything.
- Finally, it concludes by emphasizing the importance of hope with the phrase "and he who has hope."
Therefore, the correct sequence is 4, 2, 3, 1 which is option 'D'.
Directions : Kindly solve the following question and choose an option as your answer.If ‘R’ stands for ‘-‘, ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘C’ stands for ‘×’, then what is the value of the given equation? (BODMAS rule will not be applicable)25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 = ?- a)32
- b)35
- c)30
- d)27
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions : Kindly solve the following question and choose an option as your answer.
If ‘R’ stands for ‘-‘, ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘C’ stands for ‘×’, then what is the value of the given equation? (BODMAS rule will not be applicable)
25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 = ?
a)
32
b)
35
c)
30
d)
27
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
R = – , A = +, B = ÷, C = ×
25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 = ?
⇒ ? = 25 + 37 × 2 ÷ 4 – 1
⇒ ? = 62 × 2 ÷ 4 – 1
⇒ ? = 124 ÷ 4 – 1
⇒ ? = 31 – 1 = 30
Hence, the option C is correct.
Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the given word in the bracket to make the sentence meaningful.The seniors _______ (apology) for their rude behavior with juniors.- a)apologetic
- b)apologising
- c)apologized
- d)apologetic
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose the correct alternative which can be substituted for the given word in the bracket to make the sentence meaningful.
The seniors _______ (apology) for their rude behavior with juniors.
a)
apologetic
b)
apologising
c)
apologized
d)
apologetic
|
|
Aryan Khanna answered |
Present tense - apologize
Past tense - apologized
Future tense - will apologize
In the given sentence, apologized should be used as it is the past tense.
The words 'apologetic' , ' apologising', ' apologetic' do not make the sentence grammatically correct.
Legal Principle : A contract which is made to restraint the legal proceedings is void under the law.Facts of the Problem : Raj is a leading barrister of the city. His friend Nitin enters into a contract with him that he would not represent Jatin in any lawsuit for the next one year. After two months, Raj represents Jatin in a civil suit. Nitin sues Raj for the breach of the contract. What would be the legal outcome of the suit against Raj?- a)The suit would grant relief to Nitin as Raj has violated the terms of the contract.
- b)The suit would award compensation to Nitin and would direct Raj to pay the amount.
- c)The suit would fail as the contract being made to restraint the legal proceedings is void.
- d)The suit would fail as Raj is a barrister and he has the fundamental right to practise trade or profession without any legal restrictions.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Legal Principle : A contract which is made to restraint the legal proceedings is void under the law.
Facts of the Problem : Raj is a leading barrister of the city. His friend Nitin enters into a contract with him that he would not represent Jatin in any lawsuit for the next one year. After two months, Raj represents Jatin in a civil suit. Nitin sues Raj for the breach of the contract. What would be the legal outcome of the suit against Raj?
a)
The suit would grant relief to Nitin as Raj has violated the terms of the contract.
b)
The suit would award compensation to Nitin and would direct Raj to pay the amount.
c)
The suit would fail as the contract being made to restraint the legal proceedings is void.
d)
The suit would fail as Raj is a barrister and he has the fundamental right to practise trade or profession without any legal restrictions.
|
|
Varsha choudhary answered |
Explanation:
Void Contract:
- A contract that is made to restrain legal proceedings is considered void under the law.
- Such contracts are against public policy as they restrict individuals from seeking legal remedies.
Analysis of the Situation:
- In the given scenario, Raj and Nitin entered into a contract where Nitin agreed not to represent Jatin in any lawsuit for a year.
- However, Raj later represented Jatin in a civil suit, breaching the terms of the contract.
Legal Outcome:
- The suit filed by Nitin against Raj for breach of contract would likely fail.
- Since the contract was made to restrict legal proceedings, it is considered void and unenforceable.
- Raj, being a barrister, also has the fundamental right to practice his profession without any legal restrictions.
Therefore, the legal outcome of the suit against Raj would be that the suit would fail as the contract made to restrain legal proceedings is void under the law.
Void Contract:
- A contract that is made to restrain legal proceedings is considered void under the law.
- Such contracts are against public policy as they restrict individuals from seeking legal remedies.
Analysis of the Situation:
- In the given scenario, Raj and Nitin entered into a contract where Nitin agreed not to represent Jatin in any lawsuit for a year.
- However, Raj later represented Jatin in a civil suit, breaching the terms of the contract.
Legal Outcome:
- The suit filed by Nitin against Raj for breach of contract would likely fail.
- Since the contract was made to restrict legal proceedings, it is considered void and unenforceable.
- Raj, being a barrister, also has the fundamental right to practice his profession without any legal restrictions.
Therefore, the legal outcome of the suit against Raj would be that the suit would fail as the contract made to restrain legal proceedings is void under the law.
The place “Noonmati” in India, is related to which among the following?- a)Salt Industry
- b)Petroleum Industry
- c)Paper Industry
- d)Textile Industry
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The place “Noonmati” in India, is related to which among the following?
a)
Salt Industry
b)
Petroleum Industry
c)
Paper Industry
d)
Textile Industry
|
Omkar srinivasan answered |
Noonmati, India and its relation to the Petroleum Industry
Noonmati is a place in India that is primarily known for its association with the petroleum industry. It is located in the state of Assam, which is one of the major oil-producing regions in the country. Let's delve into the details of the significance of Noonmati in the petroleum industry.
1. Location and Geography:
Noonmati is situated in the eastern part of Guwahati, the largest city in Assam. The region is known for its rich oil and gas reserves, which have attracted various oil companies to establish their refineries and other related facilities in the area.
2. Refineries:
Noonmati is home to one of the oldest refineries in India, the Guwahati Refinery. Established in 1962, it is owned by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), a leading oil company in the country. The Guwahati Refinery plays a crucial role in meeting the petroleum demands of the northeastern region of India.
3. Oil Production:
The region surrounding Noonmati has several oil fields, including Digboi, Naharkatiya, and Moran. These oil fields contribute significantly to India's domestic oil production. The crude oil extracted from these fields is transported to the Guwahati Refinery for processing.
4. Processing and Distribution:
At the Guwahati Refinery, the crude oil undergoes various refining processes such as distillation, cracking, and reforming. These processes separate the different components of crude oil, producing various petroleum products like petrol, diesel, kerosene, and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). These products are then distributed to various parts of the country through pipelines, tankers, and other means of transportation.
5. Employment and Economic Impact:
The petroleum industry, centered around Noonmati, provides significant employment opportunities to the local population. The presence of refineries and related infrastructure has also led to the growth of ancillary industries, contributing to the economic development of the region.
In conclusion, Noonmati in India is closely related to the petroleum industry. The presence of the Guwahati Refinery and the abundance of oil reserves in the surrounding region make Noonmati a significant hub for oil processing and distribution. The petroleum industry in Noonmati plays a crucial role in meeting the energy demands of the northeastern region of India and contributes to the country's overall oil production.
Noonmati is a place in India that is primarily known for its association with the petroleum industry. It is located in the state of Assam, which is one of the major oil-producing regions in the country. Let's delve into the details of the significance of Noonmati in the petroleum industry.
1. Location and Geography:
Noonmati is situated in the eastern part of Guwahati, the largest city in Assam. The region is known for its rich oil and gas reserves, which have attracted various oil companies to establish their refineries and other related facilities in the area.
2. Refineries:
Noonmati is home to one of the oldest refineries in India, the Guwahati Refinery. Established in 1962, it is owned by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), a leading oil company in the country. The Guwahati Refinery plays a crucial role in meeting the petroleum demands of the northeastern region of India.
3. Oil Production:
The region surrounding Noonmati has several oil fields, including Digboi, Naharkatiya, and Moran. These oil fields contribute significantly to India's domestic oil production. The crude oil extracted from these fields is transported to the Guwahati Refinery for processing.
4. Processing and Distribution:
At the Guwahati Refinery, the crude oil undergoes various refining processes such as distillation, cracking, and reforming. These processes separate the different components of crude oil, producing various petroleum products like petrol, diesel, kerosene, and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). These products are then distributed to various parts of the country through pipelines, tankers, and other means of transportation.
5. Employment and Economic Impact:
The petroleum industry, centered around Noonmati, provides significant employment opportunities to the local population. The presence of refineries and related infrastructure has also led to the growth of ancillary industries, contributing to the economic development of the region.
In conclusion, Noonmati in India is closely related to the petroleum industry. The presence of the Guwahati Refinery and the abundance of oil reserves in the surrounding region make Noonmati a significant hub for oil processing and distribution. The petroleum industry in Noonmati plays a crucial role in meeting the energy demands of the northeastern region of India and contributes to the country's overall oil production.
The Sangai Festival is organized in __:- a)Assam
- b)Manipur
- c)Mizoram
- d)Nagaland
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Sangai Festival is organized in __:
a)
Assam
b)
Manipur
c)
Mizoram
d)
Nagaland
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
The Sangai festival is an annual cultural festival organised by Manipur Tourism Department on every year from November 21 to 30. The festival was named as the Sangai Festival to stage the uniqueness of the shy and gentle brow-antlered deer popularly known as the Sangai Deer, which is the state animal of Manipur.
Central Rice Research Institute is located at which city- a)Shimla
- b)Chennai
- c)Cuttack
- d)Chandigarh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Central Rice Research Institute is located at which city
a)
Shimla
b)
Chennai
c)
Cuttack
d)
Chandigarh
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
In 1945, the Government of India decided to establish a central Institute for rice research. As a result, the Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI) was setup on 23 April 1946 at Bidyadharpur, Cuttack, Odisha. In 1966, the administrative control of the institute was transferred to the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Hence, option C is correct.
Find the odd one amongst the choices.- a)Governor
- b)Ambassador
- c)Member of Parliament
- d)Lt. Governor
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Find the odd one amongst the choices.
a)
Governor
b)
Ambassador
c)
Member of Parliament
d)
Lt. Governor
|
|
Chirag Chauhan answered |
Understanding the Options
When analyzing the roles of the given options, it's essential to understand their functions and the context in which they operate.
Roles of the Options
- Governor: The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India, appointed by the President. This role involves overseeing the functioning of the state government and ensuring that laws are executed properly.
- Ambassador: An Ambassador represents a country in a foreign nation, functioning as a diplomatic envoy. Their primary role is to maintain international relations and protect their country's interests abroad.
- Member of Parliament (MP): An MP is an elected representative in the Parliament of India, responsible for making laws and representing the interests of their constituents. They serve at the national level and are involved in legislative processes.
- Lt. Governor: The Lieutenant Governor is appointed to govern Union Territories in India, similar to a Governor of a state. Their responsibilities are akin to those of a state Governor, focused on administration and governance.
Identifying the Odd One Out
The key distinction lies in the **election vs. appointment** aspect:
- The Governor, Ambassador, and Lt. Governor are appointed positions.
- In contrast, a **Member of Parliament is elected** by the public to represent their interests.
Conclusion
Based on the nature of their roles and how they come into office, the odd one out is **option C: Member of Parliament**. This distinction highlights the difference between appointed officials and those elected by the populace, making the MP unique among the choices given.
When analyzing the roles of the given options, it's essential to understand their functions and the context in which they operate.
Roles of the Options
- Governor: The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India, appointed by the President. This role involves overseeing the functioning of the state government and ensuring that laws are executed properly.
- Ambassador: An Ambassador represents a country in a foreign nation, functioning as a diplomatic envoy. Their primary role is to maintain international relations and protect their country's interests abroad.
- Member of Parliament (MP): An MP is an elected representative in the Parliament of India, responsible for making laws and representing the interests of their constituents. They serve at the national level and are involved in legislative processes.
- Lt. Governor: The Lieutenant Governor is appointed to govern Union Territories in India, similar to a Governor of a state. Their responsibilities are akin to those of a state Governor, focused on administration and governance.
Identifying the Odd One Out
The key distinction lies in the **election vs. appointment** aspect:
- The Governor, Ambassador, and Lt. Governor are appointed positions.
- In contrast, a **Member of Parliament is elected** by the public to represent their interests.
Conclusion
Based on the nature of their roles and how they come into office, the odd one out is **option C: Member of Parliament**. This distinction highlights the difference between appointed officials and those elected by the populace, making the MP unique among the choices given.
Directions: In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.Once appointed by the President, (A)/the council of ministers (B)/as responsible (C)/to the house. (D)/No error (E)- a)Once appointed by the President
- b)the council of ministers
- c)as responsible
- d)No error
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.
Once appointed by the President, (A)/the council of ministers (B)/as responsible (C)/to the house. (D)/No error (E)
a)
Once appointed by the President
b)
the council of ministers
c)
as responsible
d)
No error
|
|
Dia Mehta answered |
Change ‘are’ to ‘is’ because the subject ‘council of ministers’ is considered as one unit. Hence, option C is correct.
In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer.The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal.- a)to whom I selled
- b)to whom I sell
- c)to whom I sold
- d)No correction required
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In the sentence given below, replace the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (d) i.e. “No correction required” as the answer.
The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal.
a)
to whom I selled
b)
to whom I sell
c)
to whom I sold
d)
No correction required
|
|
Eshaan Kapoor answered |
The woman to whom I sold my house was a criminal is the correct form of the sentence.
The word 'who' is used if it is answered for him.
The word 'whom' is used as a direct or indirect object of a verb or preposition. 'Whom' is used if it is answered for him.
Select the one which is different from the other three responses.- a)8 – 11
- b)1 – 4
- c)7 – 10
- d)3 – 5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
a)
8 – 11
b)
1 – 4
c)
7 – 10
d)
3 – 5
|
|
Roshni nayar answered |
Explanation:
Given responses:
a) 8 – 11
b) 1 – 4
c) 7 – 10
d) 3 – 5
To identify the response that is different from the others, we need to analyze the patterns and relationships between the numbers in each response.
Pattern Analysis:
a) 8 – 11: This response shows a pattern where each number is decreasing by 3. Starting from 8, subtracting 3 gives us 5, and subtracting 3 from 5 gives us 2. Therefore, the next number in the pattern should be 2. However, the given response is 11, which does not fit the pattern.
b) 1 – 4: This response shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 3. Starting from 1, adding 3 gives us 4. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
c) 7 – 10: This response also shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 3. Starting from 7, adding 3 gives us 10. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
d) 3 – 5: This response shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 2. Starting from 3, adding 2 gives us 5. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
Conclusion:
Among the given responses, the one that is different from the others is option D) 3 – 5. This is because the pattern in this response is different from the rest. In options A, B, and C, the numbers follow a pattern of either increasing or decreasing by 3, while in option D, the numbers follow a pattern of increasing by 2. Thus, option D does not fit the pattern observed in the other responses.
Given responses:
a) 8 – 11
b) 1 – 4
c) 7 – 10
d) 3 – 5
To identify the response that is different from the others, we need to analyze the patterns and relationships between the numbers in each response.
Pattern Analysis:
a) 8 – 11: This response shows a pattern where each number is decreasing by 3. Starting from 8, subtracting 3 gives us 5, and subtracting 3 from 5 gives us 2. Therefore, the next number in the pattern should be 2. However, the given response is 11, which does not fit the pattern.
b) 1 – 4: This response shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 3. Starting from 1, adding 3 gives us 4. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
c) 7 – 10: This response also shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 3. Starting from 7, adding 3 gives us 10. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
d) 3 – 5: This response shows a pattern where each number is increasing by 2. Starting from 3, adding 2 gives us 5. Therefore, this response fits the pattern.
Conclusion:
Among the given responses, the one that is different from the others is option D) 3 – 5. This is because the pattern in this response is different from the rest. In options A, B, and C, the numbers follow a pattern of either increasing or decreasing by 3, while in option D, the numbers follow a pattern of increasing by 2. Thus, option D does not fit the pattern observed in the other responses.
Chapter doubts & questions for Practice Tests for DU LLB - DU LLB Mock Test Series 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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DU LLB Mock Test Series
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