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All questions of UGC NET Paper 2 Management Mock Test for UGC NET Exam

A statement about a population developed for the purpose of testing is called
  • a)
    Hypothesis
  • b)
    Hypothesis testing
  • c)
    Level of significance
  • d)
    Test-statistic
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

JKL Classes answered
An assumption about certain characteristics of a population.
If it specifies values for every parameter of a population, it is called a simple hypothesis.
Hypothesis generally means a mere assumption or supposition to be proved or disproved.
It provides the basis for investigation and ensures proper direction in which the study should proceed.
So, a statement about a population developed for the purpose of testing is called hypothesis.

According to the concept of financial signalling, management behavior results in new debt issue being recorded as ________ News by investor.
  • a)
    Bad
  • b)
    Risk neutral
  • c)
    Good
  • d)
    Non- Event
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ronit Gupta answered

Financial Signalling and Debt Issues

Financial signalling theory suggests that management behavior can provide important signals to investors about the company's financial health and future prospects.

Management Behavior and Debt Issues

When a company issues new debt, it can send a signal to investors about the company's confidence in its ability to generate future cash flows to meet its debt obligations.

Recording of New Debt Issues

In the context of financial signalling, the recording of new debt issues as a "Non-Event" by investors implies that they do not see the debt issue as either good or bad news.

Implications of Non-Event

This neutral response may indicate that investors are not particularly swayed by the new debt issue and do not view it as a significant signal about the company's financial health or future prospects.

Conclusion

In summary, according to the concept of financial signalling, management behavior resulting in new debt being recorded as a "Non-Event" by investors suggests that the debt issue did not have a significant impact on investor perceptions of the company.

Pricing strategies related to product mix consists of
  • a)
    Product bundle pricing
  • b)
    Captive product pricing
  • c)
    By-product pricing
  • d)
    All a, b and c are correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
The 5 product mix pricing strategies are defined below.
Product line pricing: Setting prices across an entire product line
Optional Product pricing: Pricing optional or accessory products sold with the main product
Captive Product pricing: Pricing products that must be used with the main product
By product pricing: Pricing low value by products to get rid of them
Product bundle pricing: Pricing bundles of products together

A self-contained internet program designed to be used in a specific environment is:
  • a)
    Active-X
  • b)
    Application Program Interface
  • c)
    Applet
  • d)
    Artificial Intelligence
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Applet is a self-contained internet program designed to be used in a specific environment. It is also known as Java applet, written in Java programming language. Applet does not monopolize the user’s attention. It’s not full featured application program and this are easily accessible.
An Applet does not run independently. You can run it with the help of mobile devices.

From the following two statements, choose the correct answer:
Statement I: A person can have one utility curve for one situation and a quite different one for the next situation.
Statement II: Business executive with a linear utility curve can effectively use the expected monetary value as their decision criterion.
  • a)
    Statements I and II are true.
  • b)
     Statement I is false, but II is true.
  • c)
     Statement I is true, but II is false.
  • d)
     Statements I and II are false.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Utility is a level of satisfaction one gets from using particular product. Utility from one product is differed from other product and thus utility curve too. 1st statement says that a person can have one utility curve for one situation and a quite different one for the next situation. So, it is a correct statement.
Linear utility curves shows bundles of goods in which consumers are indifference. Consumers get the same satisfaction from buying any of the products. So, if the business executive have linear utility curve then he can effectively use the expected monetary value as their decision criterion. So, this is also a correct statement.
And therefore Both the statements are true.

Which of the following refers to a situation where the prices of goods or services remain the same or constant over some time?
  • a)
    Price flexibility
  • b)
    Price Rigidity
  • c)
    Price Bending
  • d)
    Plus Pricing
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Price rigidity refers to a situation where the prices of goods or services remain the same or constant over some time. In such cases, the prices do not change in response to shifts in supply and demand conditions in the market.
Price rigidity can occur due to various reasons, such as government regulations, long-term contracts, industry standards, or the behavior of firms in response to market conditions. It means that even if there are changes in production costs, input prices, or demand for the product, the price charged by the sellers remains unchanged.
Price flexibility, on the other hand, refers to the ability of prices to adjust freely in response to changes in market conditions. In a flexible price system, prices are responsive to shifts in supply and demand, allowing them to fluctuate and reach an equilibrium level. Price flexibility is typically associated with competitive markets where there are no barriers to entry or exit and no significant market power held by individual firms.
In the context of the given options, price rigidity is the correct term that describes a situation where prices remain constant over time. Price flexibility, on the other hand, would indicate a situation where prices are able to change in response to market dynamics.

Which one is not the style of leadership?
  • a)
    Attitudinal style
  • b)
    Motivation style
  • c)
    Supervisory style
  • d)
    Power style
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Leadership style is a leader’s style of providing direction, implementing plans, and motivating people. There are many different leadership styles proposed by various authors that can be exhibited by leaders in the political, business or other fields.
Direct supervision is what they believe to be key in maintaining a successful environment and follower ship.
Attitudinal style is not related to style of leadership. Leaders have power, supervisory and motivation style to manage her followers. Towards achievement of an organisational goal.

For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R), suggest the correct code:
Assertion (A): Low initial price is regarded as the principal means for entering into mass market for some new products.
Reasoning (R): Firms generally enter into production of new products with excess capacity of the plant initially.
  • a)
    (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
  • b)
    (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
  • c)
    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
  • d)
    (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The product is developed keeping in view a particular need of a set of consumers, and introduced in the market by initiating its commercial production. At this stage, product is new in the market, consequently its demand is low and requires vigorous sales efforts. The promotional costs are, therefore, high at this stage and the production costs are also not fully recovered due to low volume of sales. Low initial price is regarded as the principal means for entering into mass market for some new products.
Firms generally enter into production of new products with less capacity of the plant initially because on an average, every firm is very much concerned to ensure its future growth or is faced with the constant threats of competitive innovative developments.

Which of the following statistical methods is appropriate to test whether or not there is sufficient evidence of a difference between the proportions of two related samples?
  • a)
    Chi-Square test of independence
  • b)
    Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
  • c)
    McNemar Test
  • d)
    Kruskal-Wallis rank test
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Hypothesis: It is a tentative statement which is given by a researcher. 
  • The concept of hypothesis testing was given by J. Neyman and E.S. Pearson.
  • Hypothesis testing helps to determine whether the particular statement is correct or not.
  • There are various parametric and non- parametric tests that are used under hypothesis testing, namely:
    • Z Test
    • T Test
    • Chi square Test
    • Wilcoxon Rank sum Test
    • McNemar Test
    • Krushal Wallis H- Test
​ Important Points
  • Chi Square Test: This test is non- parametric test and it is also known as goodness of fit test. In essence, a chi-squared test is a statistical analysis based on observations of a random set of variables.
    • It is symbolized as X2., i.e. chi- square.
    • Distribution of chi- square is positively skewed.
    • Chi- square test is used to test the differences between observed frequency and expected frequency.
  • Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test: This test is also known as Mann- Whitney U- Test. 
    • To determine whether the two samples are likely to come from the same population, the Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test is performed.
    • It assumes that the two distributions are same in their shape.
  • McNemar Test: This test is designed to assess if two related groups differ on a dichotomous dependent variable or not.
    • This method is also known as paired chi- square method.
    • McNemar test is appropriate to test whether or not there is sufficient evidence of a difference between the proportions of two related samples.
    • This test is frequently used to evaluate the matched pairs and case-control studies.
  • Krushal Wallis rank Test: This test is also non- parametric test (weak test) that is used to determine whether there is significant difference between the groups of an independent variable on ordinal dependent variable.
    • Krushal test is an extension of Mann whitney test.
    • This non parametric test allows to compare more than two independent variables/ groups.
Hence, the correct answer is McNemar Test.

Distribution strategy of a company will be influenced by:  
  • a)
     Nature of product
  • b)
     Target segment of consumers
  • c)
     Pricing policy
  • d)
     All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Distribution strategy is precisely the strategy deployed by a company to make sure the product/service can reach the maximum potential customers at minimal or optimal distribution costs.
Distribution strategy of a company is influenced by:
  • Nature of product
  • Target segment of consumers
  • Pricing policy

Which is the element of an ideal personnel policy?
  • a)
    Probation policy
  • b)
    Employment policy
  • c)
     Review of progress
  • d)
    All a, b and c are correct
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
An ideal personnel policy encompasses various elements that govern the management of employees within an organization. These elements include:
(A) Probation policy: This policy outlines the rules and procedures for the probationary period that new employees undergo when they join an organization. It typically includes expectations, evaluation criteria, and the duration of the probationary period.
(B) Employment policy: This policy defines the guidelines and principles related to the recruitment, hiring, and employment practices within the organization. It covers aspects such as job postings, selection criteria, compensation, benefits, and other terms and conditions of employment.
(C) Review of progress: This refers to the process of assessing and evaluating the performance and progress of employees. It may involve periodic performance reviews, feedback sessions, goal-setting, and career development discussions to ensure employees' growth and align their performance with organizational objectives.
All three elements are important components of an ideal personnel policy as they address different stages of the employee lifecycle, from hiring to ongoing performance management. Therefore, the correct answer is (D) All a., b., and c. are correct.

Read the statement and choose the correct option:-
Statement (I) : A “Star” is the market leader in a high-growth market; and it has sufficient cash to support other businesses.
Statement (II) : “Dogs” have a weak market share in high – growth market
  • a)
     Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.
  • b)
     Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.
  • c)
     Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.
  • d)
     Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Statement (I) states that a "Star" is the market leader in a high-growth market and has sufficient cash to support other businesses. However, this statement is incorrect. In the context of business strategy, a "Star" refers to a product or business unit that has a high market share in a high-growth market. It does not necessarily imply having sufficient cash to support other businesses. The statement incorrectly combines two different aspects of business analysis.
Statement (II) states that "Dogs" have a weak market share in high-growth markets. This statement is also incorrect. In business analysis, "Dogs" refer to products or business units that have a low market share in a low-growth market. They are not associated with high-growth markets.
Therefore, since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is (D) Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

From the following set of information, which combination is correct to define the process of perception in order to understand consumer behavior?
  1. Selective Attention
  2. Selective distortion
  3. Selective Retention
  4. Selective Apprehension (December)
  • a)
    Only (2), (3) and (4) are correct
  • b)
    Only (1), (2) and (4) are correct
  • c)
    Only (1) and (4) are correct
  • d)
     Only (1), (2), and (3) are correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Perception in Understanding Consumer Behavior:
  • Consumer behavior is the study of how individuals make decisions to spend their available resources on consumption-related items.
  • Perception plays a crucial role in understanding consumer behavior, as it influences how consumers interpret and make sense of information.



Selective Attention:
  • Selective attention refers to the process where consumers focus on certain stimuli while ignoring others.
  • This can impact consumer behavior as individuals may pay more attention to marketing messages that align with their interests or needs.



Selective Distortion:
  • Selective distortion occurs when consumers interpret information in a way that is consistent with their existing beliefs or attitudes.
  • This can lead to biases in decision-making and influence how consumers perceive products or brands.



Selective Retention:
  • Selective retention involves consumers remembering information that is consistent with their beliefs or interests while forgetting contradictory information.
  • This can shape consumer behavior by influencing which messages or experiences are retained and impact future decision-making.



Selective Apprehension:
  • Selective apprehension is not a valid concept in the context of perception and consumer behavior.
  • It does not play a role in influencing how consumers interpret information or make decisions.



Conclusion:
  • Therefore, the correct combination to define the process of perception in understanding consumer behavior includes selective attention, selective distortion, and selective retention.
  • These factors shape how consumers perceive and respond to marketing stimuli, ultimately impacting their purchasing behavior.

Indicate the statement which is not correct:
i. Credit risk is loss on account of default of repayment of loan.
ii. Liquidity risk is the risk on account of the mismatches of cash inflow and outflow in a firm.
iii. Basic risk is the risk in a firm owing to the differences in the index to which financial assets and liabilities are tied up.
iv. Forward rate agreement is a contract where a borrower/lender locks the interest rate and protects itself from the loss on account of change in the future interest rate. 
  • a)
    ii & iii
  • b)
    i and ii
  • c)
    iii & iv
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
When there is risk of loss of principal, or risk of repayment loan it is known as credit risk. Therefore, 1st statement is true.
Liquidity risk is a risk when given security or asset cannot be traded in market and therefore, inflow and outflow of firm mismatches. Statement-ii also says the same therefore it is also a correct statement.
Basic risk is the risk in a firm owing to the differences in the index to which financial assets and liabilities are tied up. it is also a correct statement.
Forward rate contract is a contract made between parties that determine the fixed rate of interest or the currency exchange rate to be paid or received in a future date. Whatever the rates in future, irrespective of that receiver will get amount based on that rates and other party is bound to pay rate that is fixed when contract is made. Here, party protects itself from loss if there is decrease in interest rates. 3rd statement also explains the same. Therefore, it is a correct statement.
All the above statements are correct and none of the statement is wrong.

According to Weighted-factor Approach to strategic incentive management, if for any strategic business unit, return on assets is 25%, cash flow is 25%, strategic funds programs (developmental expenses) is 25% and market share increase is also 25%, then this will fall in which category?  
  • a)
    High Growth
  • b)
    Medium Growth
  • c)
    Low Growth
  • d)
    Very High Growth
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

JKL Classes answered
Weighted-factor Approach to strategic incentive management is a technique to evaluate competing alternatives by scoring each offer against a series of criteria that are weighted to reflect the importance to the final decision. The technique is often used as part of bid evaluation in the procurement process, as it allows a transparent and defensible decision-making trail.
According to Weighted-factor Approach to strategic incentive management, if for any strategic business unit, return on assets is 25%, cash flow is 25%, strategic funds programs (developmental expenses) is 25% and market share increase is also 25%, then this will fall in Medium Growth.

R→S connection is indicated in
  • a)
    Classical conditioning
  • b)
     Operant conditioning
  • c)
    Social behaviour
  • d)
    Cognitive processes
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Classical conditioning also known as Pavlovian or respondent conditioning is a learning process in which response to a potent stimulus is caused in response to a previously neutral stimulus. (S-R). This is achieved by repeated pairings of the neutral stimulus with the effective stimulus.
The theory of B. F. Skinner is based upon the idea that learning is a function of change in overt behavior. Changes in behavior are the result of an individual’s response to events (stimuli) that occur in the environment. A response produces a consequence such as defining a word, hitting a ball, or solving a math problem. When a particular Stimulus-Response (S-R) pattern is reinforced (rewarded), the individual is conditioned to respond.
Here, R Represents the Response and S represents the Stimulus in operant conditioning.

Consider the following statements:
i. Brand equity is a function of brand awareness and brand preference.
ii. Product lines tend to shorten over time.
iii. The Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 1977 provide for the labelling rules relating to packaged commodities.
iv. AIDA model is relevant to advertising as well as physical distribution.
Indicate the correct answer.
  • a)
    All the above statements are false.
  • b)
    Only iii is true.
  • c)
    Only i, iii and iv are true.
  • d)
    Only i is true.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 1977 have been introduced under the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976. The Standards of Weights and Measures provide for the labelling rules relating to packaged commodities.
Statement i is false because brand equity is a function of brand awareness and not brand preference.
Statement ii is false as a product line extension is the use of an established product brand name for a new item in the same product category and it tends to lengthen overtime.
Statement iv is false because AIDA model is an advertising model but not relevant to physical distribution. AIDA stands for Attention, Interest, Desire, and Action.

________aims to reduce reliance on arbitrary methods of pay determination by introducing an element of objectivity in the way jobs are compared.
  • a)
    Attrition
  • b)
    Job enrichment
  • c)
    Performance appraisal
  • d)
    Job evaluation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Job Evaluation

Job evaluation is a systematic and objective process used by organizations to determine the relative worth or value of different jobs within the organization. It aims to reduce reliance on arbitrary methods of pay determination by introducing an element of objectivity in the way jobs are compared. Job evaluation helps in establishing a fair and equitable pay structure by ensuring that jobs of similar value are compensated similarly.

Process of Job Evaluation

1. Job Analysis: The first step in job evaluation is conducting a job analysis. This involves gathering information about the tasks, responsibilities, and requirements of each job within the organization.

2. Job Description: Based on the job analysis, job descriptions are prepared for each job. Job descriptions outline the duties, responsibilities, and qualifications required for each position.

3. Job Evaluation Factors: Job evaluation factors or criteria are established to assess the relative value of jobs. These factors typically include skill, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Each factor is further divided into levels or degrees.

4. Job Evaluation Method: There are several methods of job evaluation, such as the point factor method, ranking method, and classification method. The organization selects the most appropriate method based on its needs and resources.

5. Job Evaluation Committee: A job evaluation committee or panel is formed to evaluate the jobs. The committee consists of individuals who are knowledgeable about the organization, its jobs, and the job evaluation process.

6. Assigning Points: In the point factor method, points are assigned to each job based on the evaluation factors and their respective levels. The points assigned to each job reflect its relative value or worth within the organization.

7. Pay Structure: Once the jobs are evaluated and assigned points, a pay structure is developed. The pay structure determines the pay range for each job based on its point value. Jobs with higher point values are typically compensated at a higher rate.

Benefits of Job Evaluation

- Equitable Pay: Job evaluation helps in establishing a fair and equitable pay structure by ensuring that jobs of similar value are compensated similarly. This reduces the potential for pay discrimination and promotes employee satisfaction.

- Internal Equity: Job evaluation helps in maintaining internal equity by ensuring that pay differentials are based on the relative value of jobs within the organization. This helps in motivating employees and promoting a sense of fairness.

- External Competitiveness: Job evaluation helps in ensuring that the organization's pay rates are competitive in the external labor market. It helps in attracting and retaining talented employees by offering competitive compensation packages.

- Transparency: Job evaluation brings transparency to the pay determination process. It provides employees with a clear understanding of how their jobs are valued and how their pay is determined. This can help in reducing grievances and conflicts related to pay.

- Legal Compliance: Job evaluation helps in ensuring compliance with equal pay laws and regulations. It provides a systematic and objective basis for determining pay, which can help in defending against claims of pay discrimination.

Overall, job evaluation is a valuable tool for organizations to establish a fair and equitable pay structure. It brings objectivity and transparency to the pay determination process and helps in attracting, motivating, and retaining talented employees.

The number of product lines a company carries is called
  • a)
    product range
  • b)
    product mix depth
  • c)
    product mix width
  • d)
    product line length
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
The number of different product categories across which different brands and products created by a company are classified is called product mix width.
For instance, if a company offers milk and yogurts, this indicates that its product mix has two lines. Similarly, a cosmetic company manufactures four different types of products – jewellery, cosmetics, fashion and household items. Its product mix width is 4.

 In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________members.
  • a)
    2-3
  • b)
     3-4
  • c)
     6-8
  • d)
     9-10
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The correct answer is option B, which states that a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of 3-4 members. Let's discuss why this is the correct answer.

Importance of Rating Committee:
A rating committee plays a crucial role in the performance appraisal process of employees. It is responsible for evaluating and assessing the performance of employees and assigning ratings or scores based on their performance. The committee ensures that the appraisal process is fair, unbiased, and consistent across the organization.

Factors Considered for Determining Committee Size:
Several factors are considered when determining the size of a rating committee. These factors include:

1. Number of Employees: The size of the rating committee should be proportional to the number of employees in the organization. If the organization has a large number of employees, a larger committee may be required to effectively evaluate and appraise all employees.

2. Hierarchy and Complexity: The complexity of the organizational hierarchy and the nature of the job roles also play a role in determining the committee size. If the organization has multiple levels of hierarchy and diverse job roles, a larger committee may be needed to ensure a comprehensive evaluation.

3. Expertise and Diversity: The committee should consist of members who possess the necessary expertise and knowledge to evaluate the performance of employees. They should have a good understanding of the job requirements and performance expectations. Including members from different departments or functions can bring diversity and different perspectives to the evaluation process.

Optimal Committee Size:
While the optimal committee size may vary depending on the specific organization and its requirements, a rating committee consisting of 3-4 members is generally considered appropriate. This size allows for a balanced evaluation process while ensuring that different perspectives are taken into account.

With a committee size of 3-4 members, it becomes feasible to gather input from multiple evaluators while avoiding excessive complexity and potential conflicts. It also allows for effective discussion and consensus-building among committee members.

Conclusion:
In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of 3-4 members. This size ensures a fair and comprehensive evaluation process while considering factors such as the number of employees, hierarchy, complexity, expertise, and diversity.

Who among the following defined “Managerial economics is the integration of economic theory with business practice for the purpose of facilitating decision making and forward planning by management”?
  • a)
    Spencer
  • b)
    Haynes, Mote, and Paul
  • c)
    Mansfield
  • d)
    Evan J Douglas
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Managerial economics
  • The study of managerial economics focuses on the application of economic theory to corporate management. 
  • It deals with the use of economic theories and principles of business decision-making.
​Important Points 
Definition of Managerial economics
According to M.H. Spencer and L. Siegelman- 
“Business Economics (Managerial Economics) is the integration of economic theory with business practice for the purpose of facilitating decision making and forward planning by management.” 
  • They believe that the theory of decision-making acknowledges the diversity of objectives and pervasiveness of uncertainty in the real management world.
  • The decision-making theory rejects the idea of a single optimal solution in favor of the idea that the goal is to find a solution that "satisfies" as opposed to "maximizes."
  • It delves into an examination of motivation, the relationship between rewards and aspirational levels, and the distribution of power.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Spencer.

Which of the variables is not used by marketers for demographic segmentation?  
  • a)
    Age
  • b)
    Income
  • c)
    Gender
  • d)
    Poverty
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Demographic segmentation is one of the most common segmentation practices among marketers. Demographic segmentation divides the market on the basis of demographic variables like age, gender, marital status, family size, income, religion, race and occupation.
Poverty is not used by marketers as a variable for demographic segmentation.

If the intrinsic value of the share is greater than market value, such shares are:  
  • a)
    Undervalued
  • b)
    Overvalued
  • c)
    Neutral
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

JKL Classes answered
If the intrinsic value of the share is greater than market value, such shares are undervalued.
Undervalued stocks are those shares whose current price is trading at a discount to its intrinsic value.
For example: A stock whose current price is Rs. 80, and its estimated intrinsic value is say Rs. 100, such a stock is said to be trading @20% undervaluation.

Decision variables:
  • a)
    Tell how much or how many of something to produce, invest, purchase, hire etc.
  • b)
    Represent the value of the constraints
  • c)
    Must exist for each constraint.
  • d)
    Measure the objective function
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Decision variable is a terminology used in linear programming to represent the variables which will decide output.
For example if one has to decide upon how much or how many units of product type A and B be purchased by multiplying by its per unit profit of Rs. 6 and Rs. 5 respectively to maximize the profit say Z, total units of A assumed as X and B as Y
Linear equation will be profit: Max Z = 6X + 5Y
Here total number of units A and B denoted by X and Y are decision variables.
So, decision variables to tell how much or how many of something to produce, invest or purchase etc.

The purpose of a ______ is to help the management identify the reasons underlying a situation that management already know.
  • a)
    Report
  • b)
    Memos
  • c)
    Letters
  • d)
    Circulars
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The correct answer is  Report
There are two main types of communication: oral and written. Written communication involves any type of message that makes use of the written word. Some of the various forms of written communications that are used internally for business operations include Memos, Reports, Bulletin, business letters, notices, etc.
Examples of written communications generally used with clients or other businesses include Circulars, Publicity, Brochures, news releases, etc
Important Points
  • Business report:
    • It is an evaluation of a particular issue, set of circumstances, or financial operations that relate to the performance of a business.
    • It is a set of data that provides historical information related to a company’s operations, production, specific department’s insights, and creates a base for future decision-making processes or factual insights needed to organize business functions.
    • It helps the management identify the reasons underlying a situation that management already knows via data and financial analysis.
    • It is often written in response to an executive of the company, and often takes the form of a memo with the report attached.

Which of the following are the branches of the classical theory of management?
(A) Scientific Management Theory
(B) Administrative Theory
(C) Bureaucracy Theory
(D) Human resource Theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • a)
    (A), (B) and (D) only
  • b)
    (B), (C) and (D) only
  • c)
    (A) and (B) only
  • d)
    (A), (B) and (C) only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Scientific Management Theory:
  • It is a management philosophy that was first introduced by Frederick Winslow Taylor in the late 1800s.
  • It is based on the idea that there is always a scientific way to manage an organization i.e. using data and statistics to identify the most efficient way of conducting business.
  • Taylor described his principles in order to make people understand how to choose the one best way to increase productivity.
  • Scientific management is also known as “Taylorism.” 
Administrative management theory
  • It is also one type of classical management theory and is a way to organize things in a systematic manner.
  • The systematic way includes clearly defined tasks, division of labor and a hierarchical structure of the organizations.
  • It was given by Henri Fayol
Bureaucratic Management:
  • Max Weber, a German scientist, defines bureaucracy as a highly structured, formalized, and also an impersonal organization.
  • He also instituted the belief that an organization must have a defined hierarchical structure and clear rules, regulations, and lines of authority which govern it.​
Therefore we can say that the correct answer is (A), (B) and (C) only.

The main point of difference between HRM and Green HRM?
  • a)
    Green HRM extends its role in the promotion and achievement of sustainable objectives within a company.
  • b)
    It involves all workers in adopting sustainable practices and improving awareness about eco-friendly lifestyles. They include the promotion of energy conservation.
  • c)
    The word green HRM applies mainly to the contribution of policies and activities in the field of HRM. It is commonly known as green human resource management or GHRM.
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • In the present scenario, Green HRM is an emerging topic.
  • Green HRM was developed from the Green movement around the world.
  • The concept of Green HRM has become popular worldwide. Its meaning differs from person to person.
  • It attempts to boost energy savings or reduce the pollution created by industries and general living habits.
  • The primary aim of greening is to minimize the possible adverse effects of energy consumption and pollution on the environment.
  • Implementing green technology as a corporate plan will promote business success in the ever-evolving world.
  • The inevitable fact is that organizations will play a critical role in the fight against global warming. HRM will fulfill the company’s dedication to green practices with the help of management and its employees.
Hence, the correct answer is All of the Above.

The simple probability of the occurrence of an event is called the
  • a)
    Bayesian probability
  • b)
    Marginal probability
  • c)
    Conditional probability
  • d)
    Joint probability
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
  • Bayesian probability is one interpretation of probability that can be seen as an extension of propositional logic that enables reasoning with hypothesis.
  • Conditional probability is the probability of an event (A), given that another (B) has already occurred.
  • Joint probability is occurred when there is probability of two events occurring together. That means one event occurs at the same time when another event occurs.
  • Simple probability of the occurrence an event is called Marginal probability also known as unconditional probability. In this one event is occurred irrespective to the occurrence of other event.

What are the CRM Technology Components ?
  • a)
    Front-Office Solutions
  • b)
    Enterprise Application Integrations (EAIs) for CRM
  • c)
    CRM in the Back Office
  • d)
    All of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Components of CRM technology:
  • Sales Force Automation.
  • Human Resource Management.
  • Lead Management.
  • Front-office solutions.
  • Customer Service
  • Marketing
  • Workflow Automation
  • Enterprise Application Integrations.

Green HRM can include which of the following ways to reduce waste also foster environment stability?
  • a)
    Performance appraisal
  • b)
    Learning and development
  • c)
    Recruitment and selection
  • d)
    Onboarding process
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Learning and Development in Green HRM: 
  1. Learning and development is a method that focuses on improving the abilities, skills, and attitudes of employees.
  2. Leaders should offer training materials to develop employee knowledge and skills in environmental sustainability.
  3. Learning and development can encourage employees to find ways to help their organizations become more successful.
  4. For environmental management training, companies can use digital media and web-based training modules.
  5. Energy conservation, waste management, and recycling factors relevant to the environment can become green training core points.

Cross-functional groups that operate across space, time and organisational boundaries with members who communicate mainly through information technologies are
  • a)
    telecomputers
  • b)
    virtual teams
  • c)
    teleworkers
  • d)
    telemarketers
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vedant Sharma answered
Virtual Teams:
Virtual teams are cross-functional groups that operate across space, time, and organizational boundaries with members who communicate mainly through information technologies. Here are some key points to help explain this answer further:

Operate across space, time, and organizational boundaries:
- Virtual teams are not limited by physical location or time zones. Members can be located in different parts of the world and still collaborate effectively.
- These teams often bring together individuals from different departments or organizations to work towards a common goal.

Communicate mainly through information technologies:
- Virtual teams rely on various communication technologies such as video conferencing, email, instant messaging, and project management tools to collaborate and stay connected.
- Members may not have face-to-face interactions regularly, making communication technology crucial for effective collaboration.

Cross-functional groups:
- Virtual teams typically consist of members with diverse skills, knowledge, and expertise from different functional areas within an organization.
- This diversity helps bring different perspectives to problem-solving and decision-making processes.
In conclusion, virtual teams play a crucial role in today's globalized and digital work environment by allowing organizations to leverage talent from different locations and functions. Effective communication, collaboration, and use of technology are essential for the success of virtual teams.

Who is involved in 'Shoplifting' from the following?
  • a)
    Producer
  • b)
    Seller
  • c)
    Consumer
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Saanvi Gupta answered
Involved Parties in Shoplifting:

Consumer:
- The consumer is the individual who commits the act of shoplifting by taking merchandise from a store without paying for it.
- Shoplifting is a form of theft where the consumer intentionally steals items for personal use or resale.

Seller:
- The seller refers to the store or business where the shoplifting takes place.
- Sellers are negatively impacted by shoplifting as it results in lost revenue and potential damage to their reputation.

Producer:
- The producer is not directly involved in the act of shoplifting.
- However, producers may also suffer from shoplifting indirectly through decreased sales and potential loss of profits.

None of the above:
- This option is incorrect as the act of shoplifting involves the consumer (the individual committing the theft) and the seller (the store or business affected by the theft).
- The producer may not be directly involved in the act but can still be impacted by shoplifting.

Consider the below mentioned statements and state the correct code.
Statement (I): A debt-equity ratio of 2: 1 indicates that for every 1 unit of equity, the company has raised 2 units of debt.
Statement (II): The cost of floating an equity issue is lesser than the cost of floating a debt.
  • a)
    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are false.
  • b)
    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are true.
  • c)
    Statement (I) is false, and Statement (II) is true.
  • d)
    Statement (I) is true, and Statement (II) is false.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The debt-to-equity ratio is a financial ratio indicating the relative proportion of shareholders' equity and debt used to finance a company's assets. A D/E ratio of 2 indicates that the company derives two-thirds of its capital financing from debt and one-third from shareholder equity, so it borrows twice as much funding as it owns (2 debt units for every 1 equity unit).
Flotation cost is the total cost incurred by a company in offering its securities to the public. They arise from expenses such as underwriting fees, legal fees and registration fees. Flotation costs make new equity cost more than cost of floating a debt.

Liberalization of geographic markets is considered as which of the following factors under SWOT analysis?
  • a)
    Internal factor, strength
  • b)
    External factor, Opportunity
  • c)
    Internal factor, Weakness
  • d)
    External factor, Threat
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
The correct answer is External factor, Opportunity. 
SWOT analysis:
  • SWOT analysis is a framework for identifying and analyzing an organization's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. These words make up the SWOT acronym.
  • The primary goal of SWOT analysis is to increase awareness of the factors that go into making a business decision or establishing a business strategy.
  • To do this, SWOT analyzes the internal and external environment and the factors that can impact the viability of a decision.
Key Points
Elements of SWOT Analysis: 
  • Strengths: Internal attributes and resources that support a successful outcome, such as a diverse product line, loyal customers, or strong customer service.
  • Weaknesses: Internal factors and resources that make success more difficult to attain, such as a weak brand, excessive debt, or inadequate staffing or training.
  • Opportunities: External factors that the organization can capitalize on or take advantage of, such as favorable export tariffs, tax incentives, or new enabling technologies.
  • Threats: External factors that could jeopardize the entity's success, such as increasing competition, weakening demand, or an uncertain supply chain.
Important Points
  • Liberalization refers to the removal of controls in an industry or market to encourage the entry of new suppliers and thereby, increase the intensity of competition.
  • In short – it means attempts to lower entry barriers so that a market becomes more contestable.
  • Thus liberalization of geographical markets is an opportunity or an external factor that has a positive impact on the growth of an organization. 
Hence, Liberalization of geographic markets is considered an external factor or opportunity under SWOT analysis.

Falling but a positive inflation is called:
  • a)
    Deflation
  • b)
    Stagflation
  • c)
    Disinflation
  • d)
    Cost-push inflation
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
The correct answer is disinflation. 
Inflation:
  • Inflation is a rise in prices, which can be translated as the decline of purchasing power over time.
  • The rate at which purchasing power drops can be reflected in the average price increase of a basket of selected goods and services over some period of time.
  • The rise in prices, which is often expressed as a percentage, means that a unit of currency effectively buys less than it did in prior periods. 
Key Points Disinflation: 
  • Disinflation is a temporary slowing of the pace of price inflation and is used to describe instances when the inflation rate has reduced marginally over the short term.
  • Unlike inflation and deflation, which refer to the direction of prices, disinflation refers to the rate of change in the rate of inflation.
  • A healthy amount of disinflation is necessary since it prevents the economy from overheating.
  • Disinflation is not considered problematic because prices do not actually drop, and disinflation does not usually signal the onset of a slowing economy.
  • Deflation is represented as a negative growth rate, such as -1%, while disinflation is shown as a change in the inflation rate, say, from 3% one year to 2% the next. 
  • Disinflation benefits certain segments of a population, such as people who are inclined to save their earnings.

When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________ 
  • a)
    Contrast effect
  • b)
    Stereotyping
  • c)
    Selective Perceptive
  • d)
    Halo effect
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aparna Menon answered
Understanding Stereotyping
Stereotyping is a cognitive shortcut that involves attributing characteristics, behaviors, or traits to an individual based on their perceived membership in a particular group. This process often leads to oversimplified and generalized beliefs about that group, which can be misleading and harmful.
How Stereotyping Works
- Group Perception: When we assess someone, we may unconsciously rely on our beliefs about the group they belong to, rather than evaluating them as individuals.
- Cognitive Efficiency: Stereotyping serves as a mental shortcut that helps in processing information quickly. However, this efficiency often comes at the cost of accuracy and fairness.
- Examples: For instance, if someone belongs to a specific ethnicity, profession, or age group, stereotypes may lead us to make assumptions about their behavior or abilities without any personal evidence.
Consequences of Stereotyping
- Bias and Discrimination: Stereotyping can result in unfair treatment and discrimination against individuals based solely on their group identity.
- Self-Fulfilling Prophecies: When individuals internalize stereotypes, they may unconsciously act in ways that confirm those stereotypes, perpetuating the cycle.
- Impaired Judgment: Relying on stereotypes can cloud our judgment, preventing us from recognizing individual strengths and weaknesses.
Conclusion
Stereotyping is a pervasive cognitive bias that can lead to significant misunderstandings and unfair judgments. By consciously working to recognize and mitigate our reliance on stereotypes, we can foster a more inclusive and equitable society. Understanding the principle of stereotyping is crucial, especially in contexts such as hiring, education, and interpersonal relationships, where individual merit should be prioritized over group identity.

What separates the physical aspects of data storage from the logical aspects of data representation
  • a)
    Schema
  • b)
    Data
  • c)
    Relationships
  • d)
    Constraints
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
  • Data representation is defined as the various methods that used to show information. Data storage is where the data are stored.
  • A schema describes an organized pattern of thought or behavior that organizes categories of information and the relationships among them. Thus, Schema describes the organization of data and relationship within the database. It separates physical aspects of data storage from the logical aspects of data representation.

Which of the following is not a form of non-random sampling?
  • a)
    Snowball sampling
  • b)
    Convenience sampling
  • c)
    Quota sampling
  • d)
    They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Sampling may be random or non-random.
Non-random sampling does not involve random selection.
In this probability of selection are not specified for the individual in the population.
There are five types of non-probability sampling technique:
Quota sampling
Convenience sampling
Purposive sampling
Self selection sampling
Snowball sampling
So, they are all forms of non-random sampling is correct.

When the companies pay less attention to its own costs or demands and basis its price largely on competitors’ price then it is known as: 
  • a)
    Going rate pricing
  • b)
    Psychological pricing
  • c)
    Image pricing
  • d)
    Value pricing
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
  • In case of high competition or new launch of product or new entry in the existing market, companies do not consider their own pricing but they follow the pricing of their competitors. This is also a strategy to survive in the market.
  • In such case there may be the possibility of high margin, Low margin or companies may sell on breakeven point if they are new entrant. Going rate pricing is often done in perfect competition.

Assertion (A): ISO 9000 is a set of international quality and assurance standards to maintain quality systems.
Reason (R): ISO 9000 are not industry-specific and can be applied in any industry.
  • a)
    Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • b)
    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • c)
    (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
  • d)
    (A) is wrong, and (R) is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnav Chawla answered
Understanding ISO 9000
ISO 9000 refers to a set of international standards for quality management and assurance that help organizations ensure they meet customer and regulatory requirements.
Assertion (A): Correctness
- ISO 9000 is indeed a well-established framework designed to maintain quality systems across various industries.
- These standards focus on continual improvement, customer satisfaction, and consistent processes.
Reason (R): Applicability
- ISO 9000 is not restricted to any specific industry; it is versatile and can be applied in diverse sectors, including manufacturing, services, healthcare, and more.
- This wide applicability enhances its relevance and utility in promoting quality management practices globally.
Explanation of the Answer
- Both (A) and (R) are correct statements.
- However, while (R) explains a characteristic of ISO 9000, it does not directly explain why it is a set of international quality assurance standards.
- The assertion emphasizes the purpose of ISO 9000, while the reason highlights its broad applicability, which may not elucidate the relationship between the two.
Conclusion
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B': both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). This distinction is crucial for understanding the standards' role and flexibility in various industries.

Which of the following is/are type(s) of direct marketing?
  • a)
    Direct-Response Advertising
  • b)
    Personal Selling
  • c)
    Telemarketing
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Direct marketing is a form of communicating an offer, where organisations communicate directly to a pre-selected customer and supply a method for a direct response. Among practitioners, it is also known as direct response marketing. Direct marketing has various types:

Match the following:
  • a)
    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
  • b)
    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
  • c)
    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
  • d)
    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
1. Pareto analysis
  • It is a formal technique useful where many possible courses of action are competing for attention. In essence, the problem-solver estimates the benefit delivered by each action, then selects a number of the most effective actions that deliver a total benefit reasonably close to the maximal possible one.
  • Pareto analysis is a creative way of looking at causes of problems because it helps stimulate thinking and organize thoughts. However, it can be limited by its exclusion of possibly important problems that may be small initially, but which grow with time. In terms of inventory management, the Pareto principle can be declared as 20% of inventory items by type account for 80% of annual consumption value.
2. The net income (NI) 
  • This approach is also called the traditional approach.
  • This is an approach in which both costs of debt and equity are independent of capital structure. The components which are involved in it are constant and don't depend on how much debt the firm is using. This theory was proposed by David Durand.
3. Net operating income
  • It measures an income-producing property's profitability before adding in any costs from financing or taxes.
  • The operating expenses used in the NOI metric can be manipulated if a property owner defers or accelerates certain income or expense items.
  • The NOI metric does not include capital expenditures.
4. Miller – Orr Model
  • It deals with cash inflows/outflows that change on a daily basis.
  • The model works in terms of upper and lower control limits, and a target cash balance. As long as the cash balance remains within the control limits the firm will make no transaction.
Therefore, the correct match is:
Hence Option d is the correct answer.

The Managerial grid propose how many styles of leadership?
  • a)
    Seven
  • b)
    Three
  • c)
    Five
  • d)
    Four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

JKL Classes answered
In managerial grid they set out managerial styles of dimensions of concern for people and concern for production in a framework.
Managerial grid model is a style leadership model developed by Robert R. Blake and Jane Mouton. This model originally identified five different leadership styles. It based on the concern for people and the concern for production. The optimal leadership style in this model is based on Theory Y.

Who defines advertising as ''any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods and services by an identified sponsor''?
  • a)
    Philip Kotler
  • b)
    C.K. Prahlad
  • c)
    Chartered Institute of Marketing
  • d)
    American Marketing Association
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
American Marketing Association (AMA) defines advertising as "any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods and services by an identified sponsor".
The AMA is the only organisation that provides direct benefits to marketing professionals in both business and education and assists in personal and professional career development among marketing professionals, and to advance the science and ethical practice of marketing disciplines.

The independently owned businesses or units that take title to the merchandise they handle are known as
  • a)
    Full-service wholesalers
  • b)
    Merchant wholesalers
  • c)
    Limited service wholesalers
  • d)
    Brokers and agents
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Wholesale merchants, agents, and brokers are essential elements of the wholesale business.
They help move goods between producers and retailers and the advent of modern technologies helps them do this more efficiently.
A wholesale merchant operates in the chain between the producer and the retail merchant.
Some wholesale merchants only organize the movement of goods rather than move the goods themselves.
Limited service merchant wholesalers take title to the merchandise and assume the risk involved in an independent operation. They buy and resell products and offer a limited range of service.
Wholesale agents and brokers do not take title to the merchandise being marketed; they only bring buyers and sellers together and negotiate the terms of the transaction.
Agent merchants represent their buyer or seller, usually on a permanent basis; brokers bring parties together on a temporary basis.

Which of the following comes under the IT Enabled Services?
1. Medical Transcription Services.
2. Knowledge Portals.
3. Enterprise Resource Planning.
4. GIS Mapping.
Which of the above statements is/are correct here?
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3
  • b)
    2 and 4
  • c)
    1 and 3
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Growth of offshoring of IT-enabled services, although not universally accepted, both to subsidiaries and to outside companies (offshore outsourcing) is linked to the availability of large amounts of reliable and affordable communication infrastructure following the telecommunication and Internet expansion of the late 1990s. Services making use of low-cost countries included
  • Back-office and administrative functions, such as finance and accounting, HR, and legal,
  • Call centers and other customer-facing departments, such as marketing and sales services.
  • IT infrastructure and application development.
  • Knowledge services, including engineering support, product design, research and development, and analytics.
Some of IT Enabled services are
  1. Call Centers.
  2. Electronic Publishing.
  3. Medical Transcription Services.
  4. Data Centers.
  5. GIS Mapping.
  6. Knowledge Portals.
  7. ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning).
  8. Knowledge Management & Archiving.

The following statements relate to project network. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
Statement I: An activity cannot be represented by more than one arrow, but an arrow can represent one or more activities.
Statements II: The activities in a critical path can be preponed or postponed.
  • a)
    Both the statements I and II are correct
  • b)
    Both the statements I and II are incorrect
  • c)
    Statement II is correct but I is incorrect
  • d)
    Statements I is correct, but II is incorrect
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academia Elite answered
Statement I: An activity cannot be represented by more than one arrow, but an arrow can represent one or more activities.
This statement is incorrect. In project network diagrams, an activity can indeed be represented by more than one arrow. In fact, it is common to have multiple arrows representing the same activity to indicate different dependencies or relationships with other activities. For example, an activity might have multiple predecessor activities or multiple successor activities, resulting in multiple arrows representing that single activity.
Statement II: The activities in a critical path can be preponed or postponed.
This statement is also incorrect. The critical path in a project network represents the longest path from the project's start to its completion, and it determines the minimum time required to complete the project. Activities on the critical path have zero float or slack, meaning they cannot be delayed without delaying the entire project. Similarly, they cannot be preponed or completed earlier without affecting the project's duration. The critical path activities must be executed as planned to ensure the project is completed within the shortest possible time.
Therefore, since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is option (b): Both the statements I and II are incorrect.

Porter and Lawler model is related to
  • a)
    perception
  • b)
    attitude
  • c)
    motivation
  • d)
    leadership
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Porter and Lawler model is related to motivation. The Porter and Lawler theory of motivation is based on the assumption that rewards cause satisfaction and that sometimes performance produces reward.

Select the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):
Assertion (A): Shareholders Wealth Maximisation (SWM) is an appropriate and operationally feasible financial management goal and not the profit maximisation.
Reasoning (R): There exists a principal-agent relationship between the shareholders and the management of the company.
  • a)
    (A) and (R) both are correct.
  • b)
    (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • c)
    (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • d)
    (A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Janhavi Shah answered
Explanation:

Assertion (A): Shareholders Wealth Maximisation (SWM) is an appropriate and operationally feasible financial management goal and not the profit maximisation.
- Shareholders Wealth Maximisation (SWM) focuses on maximizing the wealth of the shareholders by increasing the value of their investments in the company.
- This goal is considered appropriate because it aligns the interests of the shareholders with the long-term success of the company.
- Profit maximization, on the other hand, may not always lead to an increase in shareholder wealth as it focuses solely on short-term profits.

Reasoning (R): There exists a principal-agent relationship between the shareholders and the management of the company.
- The principal-agent relationship refers to the relationship between the shareholders (principals) and the management of the company (agents).
- Shareholders delegate decision-making authority to the management to run the company on their behalf.
- However, conflicts of interest may arise as the agents may not always act in the best interests of the principals.
Therefore, both the Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) are correct. Shareholders Wealth Maximisation is a more appropriate financial management goal than profit maximization, and the principal-agent relationship exists between the shareholders and the management of the company.

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