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All questions of July 2023 for CLAT Exam

Which Indian state recently inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre?
  • a)
    Maharashtra
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh
  • c)
    Tamil Nadu
  • d)
    Rajasthan
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha iyer answered
Andhra Pradesh recently inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre.

Explanation:

Andhra Pradesh is the Indian state that recently inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre. The convention centre is a significant addition to the state's infrastructure and is expected to boost the tourism and hospitality sectors.

Key Points:

- The Sai Hira Global Convention Centre is a state-of-the-art facility that aims to attract national and international conferences, exhibitions, and events. It is equipped with modern amenities and can accommodate a large number of participants.
- The convention centre is strategically located in Andhra Pradesh, making it easily accessible for both domestic and international delegates.
- The inauguration of the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre is part of the state government's efforts to promote tourism and attract investments. It is expected to create employment opportunities and contribute to the overall development of the region.
- The convention centre is expected to host a wide range of events, including business conferences, trade shows, cultural festivals, and weddings. It is designed to cater to the diverse needs of different types of events.
- The inauguration ceremony was attended by top government officials, industry leaders, and dignitaries from various sectors. It was a grand event that showcased the state's commitment to infrastructure development and its determination to position itself as a premier destination for conventions and events.
- The Sai Hira Global Convention Centre is expected to have a positive impact on the local economy. It will attract tourists and business travelers, leading to increased spending on accommodation, food, transportation, and other services.
- The convention centre is also expected to boost the overall image of Andhra Pradesh as a tourist destination. It will provide a platform for showcasing the state's rich cultural heritage, natural beauty, and investment opportunities.
- The state government has plans to develop more convention centres and infrastructure projects in the future to further enhance the tourism and hospitality sectors. The inauguration of the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre is just the beginning of a larger vision for the state's development.

What was the theme of the UAE-India Economic Summit held in Abu Dhabi?
  • a)
    Strengthening Bilateral Trade
  • b)
    Fostering Global Investments
  • c)
    Uniting Falcon and Tiger Economies
  • d)
    Building Sustainable Partnerships
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The theme of the UAE-India Economic Summit held in Abu Dhabi was "Uniting Falcon and Tiger Economies". This theme represents the collaboration and partnership between the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and India to strengthen their economic ties and create mutually beneficial opportunities.

Importance of the Summit
The UAE and India share a strong bilateral relationship, with significant trade and investment flows between the two countries. The summit aimed to further enhance this relationship by bringing together key stakeholders from both nations to discuss and explore opportunities for economic cooperation and growth.

Collaboration between Falcon and Tiger Economies
The use of the terms "Falcon" and "Tiger" in the theme represents the UAE and India respectively. The UAE, often referred to as the "Falcon Economy," is known for its economic strength and rapid growth in various sectors such as oil and gas, real estate, finance, and tourism. On the other hand, India, known as the "Tiger Economy," has emerged as one of the fastest-growing economies globally, with a strong focus on technology, manufacturing, services, and innovation.

The theme emphasizes the need to unite these two dynamic economies to leverage each other's strengths and foster collaboration in various sectors. By joining forces, the UAE and India can create synergies and unlock new opportunities for trade, investment, and economic growth.

Key Objectives
The summit had several key objectives, including:

1. Strengthening Bilateral Trade: The summit aimed to explore avenues to enhance trade between the two countries by identifying potential sectors for collaboration, reducing trade barriers, and promoting investments.

2. Fostering Global Investments: The UAE and India have significant investment potential. The summit aimed to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) from the UAE into India and vice versa. It also aimed to encourage joint ventures and strategic partnerships between businesses in both nations.

3. Building Sustainable Partnerships: The summit focused on promoting sustainable development and partnership in various sectors, including renewable energy, infrastructure, technology, and tourism. It aimed to encourage collaboration in areas that align with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.

Conclusion
The theme of the UAE-India Economic Summit, "Uniting Falcon and Tiger Economies," highlights the importance of collaboration between the UAE and India to drive economic growth, enhance trade and investment, and foster sustainable partnerships. By leveraging the strengths of both economies, the summit aimed to create a mutually beneficial relationship and unlock new opportunities for growth and development.

Where was the 4th Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group (ECSWG) and Environment and Climate Ministers’ meeting held?
  • a)
    Delhi, India
  • b)
    Chennai, Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Mumbai, Maharashtra
  • d)
    Kolkata, West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The 4th Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group (ECSWG) and Environment and Climate Ministers’ meeting were held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, between 26th to 28th July 2023. The meeting brought together delegates from G20 member countries and several International Organizations to focus on finalizing Ministerial Outcome and Presidency Documents under the two broad tracks of Environment and Climate.

What is the primary objective of the 'Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar' (MGMD) initiative?
  • a)
    Promoting art traditions
  • b)
    Preserving Indian heritage
  • c)
    Supporting agriculture sector
  • d)
    Enhancing digital infrastructure
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Kaur answered
Primary Objective of the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar (MGMD) Initiative

The primary objective of the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar (MGMD) initiative is to preserve Indian heritage. This initiative was launched by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, to protect and promote the rich cultural and artistic traditions of the country.

Preserving Indian Heritage
The MGMD initiative focuses on various aspects of Indian heritage, including art, craft, music, dance, and other forms of cultural expressions. It aims to safeguard and revive these traditions, which are an integral part of India's diverse cultural fabric.

Under this initiative, efforts are made to document and digitize traditional art forms, music, and dance performances to ensure their preservation for future generations. The initiative also supports the restoration and maintenance of historical monuments, temples, and heritage sites across the country.

Reviving Traditional Art Forms
One of the key objectives of MGMD is to revive and promote traditional art forms that are on the verge of extinction or have already faded away. The initiative provides a platform for artisans, craftsmen, and traditional artists to showcase their skills and revive interest in their art forms.

Through various programs and events, the initiative aims to create awareness about these art forms and encourage their practice and patronage. This not only helps in preserving the heritage but also provides livelihood opportunities for the artists and artisans.

Conservation of Historical Monuments
MGMD also focuses on the conservation and restoration of historical monuments, temples, and heritage sites. These structures are not only architectural marvels but also hold immense historical and cultural significance. The initiative aims to protect and preserve these structures from natural decay, vandalism, and other threats.

The restoration and conservation efforts undertaken as part of the initiative involve meticulous research, structural analysis, and implementation of appropriate conservation techniques. This ensures that these monuments and sites retain their original grandeur and continue to serve as a testament to India's rich history and heritage.

Conclusion
The Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar (MGMD) initiative primarily aims to preserve Indian heritage by promoting and safeguarding traditional art forms and conserving historical monuments and sites. By doing so, the initiative ensures that India's cultural heritage is not only protected but also celebrated and passed on to future generations.

What is the objective of the One District One Product (ODOP) program in Gujarat?
  • a)
    To promote agriculture in the state
  • b)
    To boost the rural economy by showcasing traditional crafts and industries
  • c)
    To provide employment opportunities to the youth
  • d)
    To attract foreign investments in Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan bajaj answered
Objective of the One District One Product (ODOP) program in Gujarat:

The objective of the One District One Product (ODOP) program in Gujarat is to boost the rural economy by showcasing traditional crafts and industries. This program aims to promote and revive the indigenous crafts and industries that are unique to each district in Gujarat.

Importance of promoting traditional crafts and industries:

1. Preservation of cultural heritage: The traditional crafts and industries of Gujarat are an integral part of its cultural heritage. By promoting and preserving these crafts, the ODOP program ensures that the rich cultural traditions of the state are passed on to future generations.

2. Employment generation: Traditional crafts and industries have the potential to generate employment opportunities, especially in rural areas. By supporting and promoting these industries, the ODOP program creates jobs for the local population, reducing unemployment and poverty.

3. Economic growth: Traditional crafts and industries have the potential to contribute significantly to the economic growth of the state. By showcasing and marketing these products at the district, national, and international levels, the ODOP program aims to increase the market demand for these products, thereby boosting the rural economy.

4. Revival of dying crafts: Many traditional crafts and industries in Gujarat are on the verge of extinction due to lack of demand and support. The ODOP program provides a platform for artisans and craftsmen to revive these dying crafts by providing them with technical and financial support.

5. Promotion of entrepreneurship: The ODOP program encourages entrepreneurship by supporting artisans and craftsmen in setting up their own businesses. By providing them with training, financial assistance, and marketing support, the program aims to create a conducive environment for entrepreneurship in rural Gujarat.

6. Boost to tourism: Traditional crafts and industries are an important attraction for tourists visiting Gujarat. By promoting these crafts, the ODOP program not only boosts the rural economy but also enhances the tourism potential of the state.

7. Preservation of traditional skills: Many traditional crafts and industries require specialized skills that have been passed down through generations. By supporting and promoting these crafts, the ODOP program ensures that these traditional skills are preserved and continue to be practiced.

In conclusion, the objective of the One District One Product (ODOP) program in Gujarat is to boost the rural economy by showcasing traditional crafts and industries. This program aims to preserve the cultural heritage, generate employment, promote economic growth, revive dying crafts, promote entrepreneurship, boost tourism, and preserve traditional skills.

Which organization launched the second edition of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report?
  • a)
    Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • b)
    NITI Aayog
  • c)
    International Energy Agency (IEA)
  • d)
    United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Singh answered
Launch of the Second Edition of National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Report

NITI Aayog launched the second edition of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report. The MPI report provides a comprehensive overview of poverty across different states and Union Territories in India.

Key Findings of the Report:
- The report highlighted the progress made by various states in reducing multidimensional poverty.
- It identified the states that have shown improvement in different indicators of poverty such as health, education, and living standards.
- The report also pointed out the areas where more efforts are needed to address poverty effectively.

Significance of the MPI Report:
- The MPI report serves as a valuable tool for policymakers and stakeholders to understand the extent and nature of poverty in India.
- It helps in designing targeted interventions and policies to uplift the most vulnerable sections of society.
- The report also enables the monitoring of progress in poverty reduction efforts over time.

NITI Aayog's Role:
- NITI Aayog plays a crucial role in coordinating and monitoring poverty alleviation programs in India.
- By launching the MPI report, NITI Aayog aims to provide evidence-based insights to support policy decisions related to poverty reduction.
In conclusion, the second edition of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report launched by NITI Aayog is a significant step towards addressing poverty in India. It provides valuable data and analysis to guide efforts aimed at improving the well-being of the most marginalized populations in the country.

How many Acts were amended under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023?
  • a)
    19
  • b)
    42
  • c)
    183
  • d)
    2023
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'B', which states that 42 Acts were amended under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023.

Explanation:
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 is a legislation that aims to amend certain provisions of existing Acts in order to address various issues and bring about positive changes in the legal framework. This bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 2023.

Under this bill, a total of 42 Acts were amended. These Acts cover a wide range of areas including but not limited to criminal law, civil law, taxation, labor laws, environmental laws, and consumer protection. The amendments made to these Acts were intended to improve the effectiveness, efficiency, and fairness of the legal system.

Amending Acts is a common practice in the legislative process, as it allows for necessary changes to be made to existing laws in order to keep them up to date with the evolving needs of the society. It is important to regularly review and amend laws to ensure that they are in line with societal changes, technological advancements, and emerging challenges.

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 underwent a thorough process of scrutiny and debate in the Parliament before it was passed. The amendments made to the Acts were carefully considered and deliberated upon by lawmakers to ensure that they serve the best interests of the public and promote justice and equity.

By amending 42 Acts, the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 has made significant changes to the legal landscape of the country. These amendments are expected to have a positive impact on various aspects of the law and contribute to the overall development and progress of the nation.

Which country secured the first position in the World Archery Youth Championships 2023?
  • a)
    India
  • b)
    Korea
  • c)
    Ireland
  • d)
    Germany
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Nambiar answered
The country that secured the first position in the World Archery Youth Championships 2023 is South Korea.

South Korea's Dominance in Archery
South Korea is known for its dominance in the sport of archery. The country has a rich history and tradition in archery and has consistently produced world-class archers. South Korean archers have achieved remarkable success at both the national and international levels, winning numerous medals and setting records.

Exceptional Performance in the World Archery Youth Championships 2023
In the World Archery Youth Championships 2023, South Korea once again demonstrated its excellence in archery by securing the first position. The tournament showcases the talents of young archers from around the world, and South Korea's archers proved to be the best in their respective categories.

Factors Contributing to South Korea's Success
1. Training and Infrastructure: South Korea has invested heavily in training facilities and infrastructure for archery. The country has specialized training centers and coaches who provide rigorous training to young archers. This focus on training has played a crucial role in developing the skills and techniques of South Korean archers.

2. Technical Expertise: South Korean archers are known for their exceptional technical expertise. They have mastered the art of shooting with precision and accuracy. The archers undergo extensive training in various aspects of archery, including form, technique, mental preparation, and equipment customization.

3. Mental Strength: Mental strength is a crucial factor in archery, and South Korean archers excel in this aspect. They are known for their ability to handle pressure and perform consistently under challenging conditions. The archers undergo mental conditioning and are taught techniques to stay focused and composed during competitions.

4. Supportive System: South Korean archers receive strong support from the government, archery associations, and sponsors. This support ensures that they have access to the necessary resources, equipment, and financial assistance to compete at the highest level. The archers also benefit from a competitive environment, as they have the opportunity to train and compete with other talented archers.

Conclusion
South Korea's first position in the World Archery Youth Championships 2023 is a testament to the country's commitment to the sport of archery. Through their investment in training and infrastructure, technical expertise, mental strength, and a supportive system, South Korean archers continue to dominate the world of archery. Their success inspires young archers around the globe and establishes South Korea as a powerhouse in the sport.

Where was India's first 'Police Drone Unit' launched?
  • a)
    Delhi
  • b)
    Mumbai
  • c)
    Chennai
  • d)
    Bangalore
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi kumar answered
< b="" />India's First Police Drone Unit Launch< />

India's first police drone unit was launched in Chennai. The city police commissioner, Mahesh Kumar Aggarwal, inaugurated the unit in March 2021. This move is aimed at enhancing the surveillance capabilities of the police force and improving law enforcement in the city.

< b="" />Chennai as the Launch Location< />

Chennai was chosen as the location for the launch of India's first police drone unit due to several reasons:

1. Technological Hub: Chennai is known as one of the major technological hubs in India. The city has a thriving IT industry and houses numerous technology companies. This makes it an ideal location to introduce advanced technologies like drones for law enforcement purposes.

2. Urban Environment: Chennai is a densely populated city with a high crime rate. The use of drones can be particularly beneficial in urban environments, where it is often challenging for law enforcement personnel to navigate through congested areas and gather real-time information. Drones offer a bird's-eye view and can cover large areas quickly, providing valuable situational awareness to the police.

< b="" />Benefits of the Police Drone Unit< />

The establishment of India's first police drone unit brings several benefits to law enforcement in Chennai:

1. Enhanced Surveillance: Drones equipped with high-resolution cameras can provide real-time video footage from the sky, allowing the police to monitor public spaces, identify potential threats, and respond quickly to emergencies.

2. Traffic Management: Drones can be used to monitor traffic flow and detect violations, such as speeding or illegal parking. This can help in improving traffic management and reducing congestion in the city.

3. Crime Prevention: The presence of drones can act as a deterrent to criminal activities. Criminals are less likely to engage in illegal activities if they know they are being monitored from the sky.

4. Search and Rescue Operations: Drones can be deployed for search and rescue missions, especially in difficult terrains or during natural disasters. They can cover large areas quickly, locate missing persons, and provide valuable information to rescue teams.

< b="" />Conclusion< />

The launch of India's first police drone unit in Chennai marks a significant step towards leveraging technology for law enforcement purposes. The use of drones can greatly enhance the surveillance capabilities of the police force and contribute to maintaining public safety in the city. This initiative sets a precedent for other cities in India to explore the potential of drones in their respective law enforcement agencies.

Which organizations signed an MoU to enhance collaboration in the food and agriculture sector between the UAE and India?
  • a)
    RAKEZ and ICFA
  • b)
    HDFC Bank and HDFC
  • c)
    India Post and Canada Post
  • d)
    Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana shah answered
RAKEZ and ICFA signed an MoU to enhance collaboration in the food and agriculture sector between the UAE and India. RAKEZ stands for Ras Al Khaimah Economic Zone, which is a free economic zone in the United Arab Emirates. ICFA stands for Indian Council of Food and Agriculture, which is a non-profit organization based in India.

The MoU between RAKEZ and ICFA aims to promote bilateral cooperation in the food and agriculture sector between the two countries. It seeks to establish a framework for collaboration in areas such as research and development, technology transfer, capacity building, and investment promotion.

The MoU also aims to facilitate the exchange of knowledge, expertise, and best practices in the food and agriculture sector. It will encourage the participation of businesses, research institutions, and government agencies from both countries in joint projects and initiatives.

The collaboration between RAKEZ and ICFA is expected to benefit both the UAE and India. The UAE is a major importer of food products, and India is one of the world's largest producers of food. By strengthening cooperation in the food and agriculture sector, the two countries can enhance food security, promote sustainable agriculture practices, and boost trade and investment in the sector.

In conclusion, the signing of the MoU between RAKEZ and ICFA is a significant step towards enhancing collaboration in the food and agriculture sector between the UAE and India. It will pave the way for greater cooperation in research, technology transfer, capacity building, and investment promotion, benefiting both countries and contributing to food security and sustainable agriculture.

Which Indian insurance company introduced digital payments via WhatsApp and UPI?
  • a)
    LIC
  • b)
    HDFC Ergo
  • c)
    Tata AIA
  • d)
    Bajaj Allianz
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anand Majumdar answered
Tata AIA Life Insurance Company Limited is the Indian insurance company that introduced digital payments via WhatsApp and UPI. This move demonstrates Tata AIA's commitment to providing convenient and seamless services to its customers.

Benefits of Digital Payments
Digital payments offer several advantages over traditional payment methods. They are faster, more secure, and provide a more convenient way for customers to make transactions. By introducing digital payments, Tata AIA aims to enhance the overall customer experience and simplify the payment process.

Integration of WhatsApp and UPI
WhatsApp is a popular messaging platform that is widely used in India. By integrating WhatsApp with its digital payment system, Tata AIA allows customers to make payments directly through the messaging app. This eliminates the need for customers to switch between different applications or platforms to complete their transactions.

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). UPI enables users to link multiple bank accounts to a single mobile application and make payments instantly. By integrating UPI into its digital payment system, Tata AIA offers customers a secure and efficient way to make payments.

Convenience and Ease of Use
By introducing digital payments via WhatsApp and UPI, Tata AIA makes it easier and more convenient for customers to pay their insurance premiums. Customers can simply initiate a payment through WhatsApp and complete the transaction using UPI. This eliminates the need for customers to visit physical branches or use other payment methods such as cash or cheques.

Enhanced Security Measures
Tata AIA has implemented robust security measures to ensure the safety of digital transactions. These measures include encryption, multi-factor authentication, and transaction limits to prevent unauthorized access and fraudulent activities. By prioritizing customer security, Tata AIA aims to build trust and confidence among its customers.

Conclusion
Tata AIA's introduction of digital payments via WhatsApp and UPI demonstrates its commitment to leveraging technology for the benefit of its customers. This initiative provides a convenient and secure way for customers to make insurance premium payments. By embracing digital innovation, Tata AIA aims to enhance the overall customer experience and streamline the payment process.

Who will succeed Markus Duesmann as Chairman and CEO of Audi?
  • a)
    Gernot Dollner
  • b)
    Manfred Doss
  • c)
    Rachel Brooking
  • d)
    TS Singh Deo
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Farida Ali answered
Gernot Dollner has been appointed as the successor to Markus Duesmann as Chairman and CEO of Audi. Dollner, who holds a degree in mechanical engineering, has a background in the automotive industry. He has served in various management roles at Porsche and currently oversees the Volkswagen Group's Product and Group Strategy.

Which state recently launched the Mobile Dost App for mobile-based delivery of citizen-centric services?
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    Odisha
  • c)
    Jammu and Kashmir
  • d)
    Kerala
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Farida Ali answered
The Mobile Dost App was launched in Jammu and Kashmir by Dr. Arun Kumar Mehta, the Chief Secretary. This app enables citizens to access over 450 government-to-citizen services, including certificates, licenses, grievance registration, and welfare schemes, through their mobile devices.

Which naval ship participated in the training exercise 'Operation Southern Readiness 2023'?
  • a)
    INS Vikramaditya
  • b)
    INS Sunayna
  • c)
    INS Arihant
  • d)
    INS Viraat
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Faizan Khan answered
INS Sunayna, a second Saryu-class patrol vessel, participated in the training exercise 'Operation Southern Readiness 2023.' The exercise focused on promoting security, stability, and prosperity in international waters and was conducted in Seychelles. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

What was the purpose of the amendments to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023?
  • a)
    To criminalize minor offenses
  • b)
    To simplify legal procedures
  • c)
    To promote ease of business and living
  • d)
    To increase fines and penalties
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The purpose of the amendments to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 was to promote ease of business and living. These amendments aimed to simplify legal procedures, reduce bureaucracy, and create a more favorable environment for businesses and individuals.

Simplifying legal procedures:
The amendments sought to simplify legal procedures by reducing unnecessary red tape and streamlining processes. This would make it easier and quicker for individuals and businesses to navigate the legal system, saving time and resources.

Reducing bureaucracy:
The amendments aimed to reduce bureaucratic hurdles and remove unnecessary regulations that hindered businesses and individuals. By cutting down on excessive paperwork and administrative requirements, the amendments aimed to create a more conducive environment for economic activities and personal endeavors.

Promoting ease of business:
The amendments to the Jan Vishwas Bill aimed to promote ease of doing business by creating a more favorable regulatory framework. This would attract investment, stimulate economic growth, and generate employment opportunities. By removing barriers and providing a more predictable and transparent legal system, the amendments aimed to encourage entrepreneurship and foster a thriving business environment.

Promoting ease of living:
In addition to promoting ease of business, the amendments also sought to enhance ease of living for individuals. This could include measures such as simplifying property registration processes, improving access to public services, and ensuring timely and efficient resolution of disputes. By making it easier for individuals to navigate legal procedures and avail themselves of essential services, the amendments aimed to improve the overall quality of life.

In summary, the purpose of the amendments to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 was to promote ease of business and living. By simplifying legal procedures, reducing bureaucracy, and creating a more favorable environment for individuals and businesses, the amendments aimed to stimulate economic growth and enhance the overall well-being of the people.

The commercial mining of critical minerals is important for which industries?
  • a)
    Agriculture and textiles
  • b)
    Construction and real estate
  • c)
    Electronics and communication
  • d)
    Pharmaceuticals and healthcare
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Faizan Khan answered
The commercial mining of critical minerals, including lithium and titanium, is significant for industries such as electronics and communication. These minerals are essential for the production of electronic devices, communication systems, and renewable energy technologies.

What is the purpose of the tamper-proof device developed by IIT-Kharagpur?
  • a)
    To measure the alertness of locomotive pilots
  • b)
    To capture facial images of the loco pilot
  • c)
    To sound an alarm in case of loss of attention
  • d)
    To send an alert to the control room
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanaya rao answered
The purpose of the tamper-proof device developed by IIT-Kharagpur is to measure the alertness of locomotive pilots.

Importance of Locomotive Pilot Alertness
Ensuring the alertness of locomotive pilots is crucial for the safe operation of trains. Locomotive pilots are responsible for controlling and operating the locomotives, and any loss of attention or drowsiness can lead to accidents and mishaps. Therefore, it is essential to continuously monitor their alertness levels to prevent any potential risks.

Function of the Tamper-Proof Device
The tamper-proof device developed by IIT-Kharagpur aims to address this issue by providing a reliable and efficient system to measure the alertness of locomotive pilots. It utilizes advanced technology to accurately assess the cognitive state of the pilots and detect any signs of drowsiness or reduced attentiveness.

Working of the Device
The device incorporates various sensors and algorithms to collect and analyze data related to the locomotive pilot's alertness. It may use technologies such as facial recognition, eye tracking, and brainwave monitoring to gather information about the pilot's state of mind.

Alertness Measurement
Using the collected data, the device can determine the level of alertness of the locomotive pilot. It may measure parameters such as eye movement, blinking patterns, facial expressions, and brain activity to assess the pilot's cognitive state. These measurements are then processed and analyzed to determine the pilot's level of alertness.

Alarm System and Control Room Alert
If the device detects any signs of reduced alertness or drowsiness in the pilot, it can trigger an alarm system. This alarm can be in the form of a visual or auditory signal to immediately alert the pilot and bring their attention back to the task at hand.

Additionally, the device can also send an alert to the control room or relevant authorities. This allows them to take necessary action, such as contacting the pilot, providing assistance, or taking preventive measures to ensure the safety of the train and its passengers.

Conclusion
The tamper-proof device developed by IIT-Kharagpur plays a crucial role in promoting the safety of locomotive operations. By continuously monitoring the alertness levels of locomotive pilots, it helps prevent accidents and ensures the smooth and secure functioning of the railway system.

Who received the Philippe Chatrier Award from the International Tennis Federation (ITF)?
  • a)
    Justine Henin
  • b)
    Novak Djokovic
  • c)
    Serena Williams
  • d)
    Rafael Nadal
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Farida Ali answered
Justine Henin, the Belgian tennis player, received the Philippe Chatrier Award from the ITF in recognition of her significant contributions to the sport.

How did India win the SAFF Championship final?
  • a)
    They won by a margin of 2 goals.
  • b)
    They won in extra time.
  • c)
    They won in a penalty shootout.
  • d)
    They won by a golden goal in overtime.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

In the SAFF Championship final, India emerged victorious by winning in a penalty shootout. Let's break down the details of the match and the penalty shootout.

The Match:
The SAFF Championship is a football tournament organized by the South Asian Football Federation. In the final match, India faced off against another team, and the match ended in a draw after regular time and extra time. This means that neither team was able to secure a victory within the designated time frame.

The Penalty Shootout:
Since the match ended in a draw, a penalty shootout was conducted to determine the winner. A penalty shootout is a method used to determine the winner of a match when the scores are tied after regular and extra time. It involves a series of one-on-one penalty kicks taken by selected players from each team.

Here's how the penalty shootout unfolded:
1. The players from both teams and the match officials gathered near the center of the field.
2. The referee explained the rules and procedures of the penalty shootout to the players.
3. A coin was tossed to decide which team would take the first penalty kick.
4. The team that won the coin toss chose whether to take the first or second penalty kick.
5. The players from both teams lined up at the penalty spot, which is 12 yards away from the goal line.
6. Each team alternated taking penalty kicks.
7. The selected player from the shooting team took the penalty kick, while the goalkeeper from the defending team tried to save it.
8. If a player scored a goal, it was counted as one point for their team.
9. If a player missed the goal or the goalkeeper saved the shot, it was a missed opportunity for their team.
10. The penalty shootout continued until all the selected players from both teams had taken their kicks.
11. The team with the highest number of goals at the end of the penalty shootout was declared the winner.

In this case, India won the penalty shootout, which means they scored more goals in the shootout than their opponents. As a result, they were crowned as the champions of the SAFF Championship.

Which space venture successfully completed its first manned mission to space?
  • a)
    SpaceX
  • b)
    Virgin Galactic
  • c)
    Blue Origin
  • d)
    NASA
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Faizan Khan answered
Virgin Galactic, the space venture established by Richard Branson, successfully completed its inaugural manned mission to the edge of space. The mission had a research-oriented focus and marked a significant achievement for Virgin Galactic.

Which organization collaborated with Indian Bank for Project WAVE, unveiling digital services?
  • a)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • b)
    National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL)
  • c)
    State Bank of India (SBI)
  • d)
    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sumitra dubey answered
Collaboration between Indian Bank and National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL) for Project WAVE

The correct answer to the question is option 'B', that is, the National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL) collaborated with Indian Bank for Project WAVE, unveiling digital services.

Overview:
- Indian Bank, a leading public sector bank in India, partnered with the National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL) to launch Project WAVE.
- Project WAVE aims to provide digital services to Indian Bank customers, enhancing their banking experience and convenience.
- This collaboration is a significant step towards digitization and modernization of banking services in India.

National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL):
- The National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL) is a government-owned company under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- NESL focuses on providing e-governance services to various government departments and organizations in India.
- It plays a crucial role in the implementation of digital initiatives and projects across the country.

Project WAVE:
- Project WAVE stands for "Work-flow Automation for Validation and Execution."
- It is an initiative by Indian Bank in collaboration with NESL to automate and digitize banking processes.
- The project aims to simplify and streamline various banking services, making them easily accessible to customers.
- Through Project WAVE, Indian Bank intends to leverage technology to enhance customer experience, improve efficiency, and reduce manual intervention.

Benefits of Project WAVE:
- Improved customer experience: The digital services introduced through Project WAVE will provide customers with a seamless and convenient banking experience.
- Time and cost-saving: Automation of banking processes will significantly reduce the time and effort required for various transactions, benefiting both customers and the bank.
- Increased efficiency: The digitized workflows will streamline operations, ensuring faster processing and minimizing errors.
- Enhanced security: The digital services will incorporate robust security measures, safeguarding customer information and transactions.
- Greater accessibility: With the adoption of digital services, customers can access banking facilities anytime and anywhere, eliminating the need for physical visits to branches.

Conclusion:
The collaboration between Indian Bank and the National E-Governance Services Ltd (NESL) for Project WAVE is a significant step towards digitization and modernization of banking services in India. Through this partnership, Indian Bank aims to provide seamless and convenient digital services to its customers, enhancing their banking experience. The automation and digitization of banking processes will result in improved efficiency, cost savings, and increased accessibility for customers.

Which city in Madhya Pradesh has become the first urban body in India to receive Extended Producers Responsibility (EPR) credit for effectively recycling banned single-use plastic items?
  • a)
    Bhopal
  • b)
    Indore
  • c)
    Jabalpur
  • d)
    Gwalior
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Veena jain answered
Indore is the city in Madhya Pradesh that has become the first urban body in India to receive Extended Producers Responsibility (EPR) credit for effectively recycling banned single-use plastic items.

Extended Producers Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach in waste management where the responsibility of managing waste is shifted from the government to the producers of the products. It is based on the principle that manufacturers and importers of products bear the responsibility for the entire life cycle of their products, including disposal and recycling. EPR aims to ensure that producers take responsibility for the environmental impact of their products and promote sustainable waste management practices.

Indore's achievement in receiving EPR credit for effectively recycling banned single-use plastic items is a significant milestone in waste management. It showcases the city's commitment to sustainable practices and responsible waste management. Here are the key points explaining Indore's achievement:

1. Banned single-use plastic items: The Indian government has banned certain single-use plastic items to reduce plastic waste and promote environmental sustainability. These banned items include plastic bags, cups, plates, cutlery, and other similar items.

2. Effective recycling: Indore has demonstrated its ability to effectively recycle these banned single-use plastic items, thereby reducing their environmental impact. The city has implemented innovative and efficient recycling practices to ensure that these plastic items are properly managed and recycled.

3. Recognition of achievement: The recognition of Indore as the first urban body in India to receive EPR credit for recycling banned single-use plastic items highlights the city's success in waste management. It acknowledges the efforts and initiatives taken by Indore's municipal authorities and the active participation of its residents in waste segregation and recycling.

4. Encouragement for other cities: Indore's achievement serves as an inspiration and encouragement for other cities and urban bodies to adopt similar waste management practices. It sets a precedent for effective recycling of banned single-use plastic items and motivates other cities to strive for sustainability and environmental responsibility.

In conclusion, Indore's recognition as the first urban body in India to receive EPR credit for effectively recycling banned single-use plastic items is a testament to the city's commitment to sustainable waste management practices. It sets an example for other cities to follow and encourages the adoption of responsible waste management practices to protect the environment and promote a cleaner and greener future.

What was the main objective of the DPIIT's notification of Quality Control Orders (QCOs) on Potable Water Bottles & Flame-Producing Lighters?
  • a)
    To regulate the prices of potable water bottles and flame-producing lighters
  • b)
    To ensure quality standards for potable water bottles and flame-producing lighters
  • c)
    To promote the export of potable water bottles and flame-producing lighters
  • d)
    To ban the use of potable water bottles and flame-producing lighters
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajat Das answered
The main objective of the DPIIT's notification of Quality Control Orders (QCOs) on Potable Water Bottles is to ensure that the water bottles available in the market meet certain quality standards. The QCOs aim to regulate the manufacturing, import, and sale of potable water bottles to ensure the safety and hygiene of the bottled water consumed by the public. These standards cover various aspects such as the quality of raw materials, manufacturing processes, labeling, packaging, and testing methods. By implementing these QCOs, the DPIIT aims to protect consumers from substandard and unsafe water bottles and promote the availability of quality potable water bottles in the market.

Which organization became the first Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to receive certification for its Anti-Bribery Management System (ABMS)?
  • a)
    ONGC
  • b)
    DPIIT
  • c)
    Razorpay
  • d)
    DCB Bank
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sumitra dubey answered
The correct answer is option 'A', ONGC.

Introduction:
ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited) became the first Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to receive certification for its Anti-Bribery Management System (ABMS). This certification was awarded by the British Standards Institution (BSI).

Background:
- ONGC is India's largest oil and gas exploration and production company, and it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
- The ABMS certification is based on the international standard ISO 37001:2016, which provides a framework for organizations to prevent, detect, and address bribery.
- The certification process involves a rigorous assessment of an organization's anti-bribery policies, procedures, and controls.

Reasons for ONGC's certification:
- Commitment to ethics: ONGC has demonstrated a strong commitment to ethical business practices and has implemented robust anti-bribery measures.
- Transparency and accountability: ONGC has established a culture of transparency and accountability, ensuring that its employees adhere to high ethical standards.
- Anti-bribery policies and procedures: ONGC has developed comprehensive anti-bribery policies and procedures, which are regularly reviewed and updated to align with international best practices.
- Training and awareness programs: ONGC has conducted regular training and awareness programs to educate its employees about the risks of bribery and the importance of reporting any suspected bribery incidents.
- Internal controls and monitoring: ONGC has implemented effective internal controls and monitoring mechanisms to identify and prevent bribery. These include regular audits, risk assessments, and reporting mechanisms.

Benefits of certification:
- Enhanced reputation: The certification enhances ONGC's reputation as a responsible and ethical organization, both domestically and internationally.
- Increased stakeholder confidence: The certification provides assurance to stakeholders, including shareholders, customers, and business partners, that ONGC has implemented effective anti-bribery measures.
- Competitive advantage: ONGC's certification gives it a competitive edge over other organizations in the industry, as it demonstrates its commitment to ethical business practices.
- Legal compliance: The certification helps ONGC comply with relevant anti-bribery laws and regulations, both in India and in other countries where it operates.

Conclusion:
ONGC's certification for its Anti-Bribery Management System is a significant achievement that highlights its commitment to ethical business practices. This certification not only enhances ONGC's reputation but also strengthens its position as a leader in the oil and gas industry. It sets a benchmark for other CPSEs and organizations to follow in implementing effective anti-bribery measures.

With which organization did Punjab National Bank (PNB) sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to offer financial services to their supply network?
  • a)
    Amul
  • b)
    Walmart
  • c)
    Amazon
  • d)
    Reliance
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Farida Ali answered
Punjab National Bank (PNB) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Amul, the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd., to offer financial services to their supply network. Under this partnership, PNB will provide a range of financial services such as working capital finance, term loans, business loans, supply chain finance, and digital payment services to support Amul's extensive supply network across India. This collaboration aims to enhance financial inclusion and provide necessary support to Amul's retailers, wholesale dealers, and other stakeholders.

What is the significance of the Kalyani M4 Quick Reaction Force Vehicle?
  • a)
    It serves as an armored personnel carrier.
  • b)
    It strengthens the Indian Army's mobility and operational capabilities.
  • c)
    It is designed for amphibious operations.
  • d)
    It provides air defense capabilities.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tarun Malik answered
The Kalyani M4 Quick Reaction Force Vehicle holds great significance in strengthening the Indian Army's mobility and operational capabilities. Let's delve into the details to understand why this is the correct answer.

1. **Enhanced Mobility**: The Kalyani M4 is a highly mobile vehicle designed to operate in diverse terrains, including urban areas, deserts, and mountains. It is equipped with a powerful engine and an efficient suspension system that allows it to navigate challenging landscapes with ease. This enhanced mobility enables the Indian Army to swiftly deploy and respond to various operational requirements.

2. **Quick Reaction Force**: The Kalyani M4 is specifically designed for quick reaction force operations. It can rapidly transport troops and equipment to the required location, enabling timely response to emerging threats or crises. This quick response capability is crucial in maintaining national security and supporting counter-terrorism efforts.

3. **Versatile Platform**: The vehicle serves as a versatile platform for a wide range of missions. It can be configured as an armored personnel carrier (APC), enabling the transportation of troops safely in hostile environments. Additionally, it can be adapted for various roles such as reconnaissance, command and control, and medical evacuation. This versatility enhances the Indian Army's operational flexibility and effectiveness.

4. **Firepower**: The Kalyani M4 is equipped with advanced weapon systems, including a remote-controlled weapon station. This provides the vehicle with offensive capabilities, enabling it to engage enemy targets effectively. The firepower of the vehicle enhances the Indian Army's ability to neutralize threats and protect its personnel during operations.

5. **Protection**: The vehicle features a high level of protection against ballistic threats, mines, and improvised explosive devices (IEDs). Its armored hull and advanced composite materials provide enhanced survivability for the crew and occupants. This protection is crucial in ensuring the safety and security of personnel during high-risk operations.

In conclusion, the Kalyani M4 Quick Reaction Force Vehicle is of significant importance as it strengthens the Indian Army's mobility and operational capabilities. Its enhanced mobility, quick reaction capability, versatility, firepower, and protection contribute to the overall effectiveness and readiness of the Indian Army in fulfilling its security responsibilities.

Which state topped the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2022 for States and Union Territories (UTs) according to the NITI Aayog's report?
  • a)
    Maharashtra
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Karnataka
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jyoti patil answered
Introduction:
The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) is a tool developed by the NITI Aayog to assess the export potential and performance of states and union territories (UTs) in India. The EPI serves as a benchmark for states to identify areas of improvement and enhance their export competitiveness. The EPI 2022 report provides insights into the export readiness of different states and UTs based on various parameters.

Explanation:
According to the NITI Aayog's report on the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2022, Tamil Nadu topped the rankings among all states and UTs. Let's understand the reasons behind Tamil Nadu's top ranking:

1. Infrastructure:
Tamil Nadu has a well-developed infrastructure that supports export activities. It has a robust road network, well-connected ports, and airports, which facilitate the movement of goods within and outside the state. The availability of quality infrastructure plays a crucial role in enhancing export competitiveness.

2. Policy Support:
The state government of Tamil Nadu has implemented favorable policies and initiatives to promote exports. It has established dedicated export promotion agencies and provided various incentives and subsidies to exporters. These policy support measures create an enabling environment for businesses to engage in export activities.

3. Market Access and Diversification:
Tamil Nadu has a strong presence in both domestic and international markets. It has a diversified export basket, encompassing a wide range of products and sectors. The state has successfully tapped into global markets and established strong trade linkages, contributing to its high export readiness.

4. Human Capital:
Tamil Nadu boasts a skilled and educated workforce, which is essential for the growth of export-oriented industries. The state has a well-developed education system and vocational training institutes, ensuring the availability of a skilled workforce. The presence of a competent human capital base further strengthens Tamil Nadu's export preparedness.

5. Institutional Support:
The state government of Tamil Nadu has established institutions and organizations that provide comprehensive support to exporters. These institutions offer services such as export promotion, trade facilitation, market intelligence, and capacity building. The availability of institutional support enhances the export readiness of the state.

Conclusion:
Tamil Nadu's top ranking in the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2022 can be attributed to its well-developed infrastructure, favorable policies, market access, skilled workforce, and institutional support. The state's proactive approach towards promoting exports has resulted in its high export readiness. By identifying the key factors contributing to Tamil Nadu's success, other states can learn valuable lessons and implement strategies to enhance their own export competitiveness.

What is the aim of the NCC Integrated Software launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh?
  • a)
    To promote cashless transactions among NCC cadets
  • b)
    To streamline the process of NCC enrollment and alumni registration
  • c)
    To enhance the physical fitness of NCC cadets through digital tools
  • d)
    To provide career counseling and job placement assistance to NCC cadets
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The aim of the NCC Integrated Software launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh is to streamline the process of NCC enrollment and alumni registration.

The NCC Integrated Software, launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh, aims to make the process of NCC enrollment and alumni registration more efficient and streamlined. This software is designed to provide a digital platform for NCC cadets and alumni to register themselves and access various services related to their NCC journey.

Benefits of the NCC Integrated Software:

1. Efficient enrollment process: The software simplifies the NCC enrollment process by providing a digital platform for cadets to register themselves. It eliminates the need for manual paperwork and allows for a more streamlined and efficient process.

2. Improved alumni registration: The software also facilitates the registration of NCC alumni, allowing them to stay connected with the NCC community even after completion of their training. Alumni can register themselves through the software and access various resources and services.

3. Easy access to information: The software provides a centralized platform for NCC cadets and alumni to access important information related to their training, events, camps, and other activities. It ensures that all relevant information is easily accessible to the users.

4. Tracking of achievements: The software allows cadets to track their achievements and progress within the NCC program. It provides a record of their participation in various activities, training programs, and camps. This feature helps in recognizing and rewarding the efforts of cadets.

5. Efficient communication: The software facilitates seamless communication between NCC cadets, alumni, and authorities. It provides a platform for sharing important announcements, notifications, and updates. This ensures that all stakeholders are well-informed and can actively participate in NCC activities.

6. Improved administration: The software aids in the efficient administration of the NCC program by providing a digital platform for managing various administrative tasks. It simplifies the process of generating reports, maintaining records, and monitoring the progress of cadets.

In conclusion, the NCC Integrated Software launched by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh aims to streamline the process of NCC enrollment and alumni registration. It provides a digital platform for NCC cadets and alumni to register themselves, access information, track achievements, and communicate effectively. This software is expected to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the NCC program.

Which organization appointed Krishna Mishra as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) with effect from 1st August 2023?
  • a)
    FPSB India
  • b)
    Lloyds Banking Group
  • c)
    JCPenney
  • d)
    Mastercard
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Faizan Khan answered
Krishna Mishra has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of FPSB India, the Indian subsidiary of the Financial Planning Standards Board (FPSB). He will be responsible for leading the strategy and operations of FPSB India, focusing on advancing the financial planning profession in India.

Which Indian state launched the 'Ama Pokhari' scheme?
  • a)
    Maharashtra
  • b)
    Rajasthan
  • c)
    Odisha
  • d)
    Gujarat
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Yashica Gupta answered
The correct answer is option 'C', Odisha.

The Ama Pokhari scheme was launched by the state of Odisha in India. Let's delve into the details of the scheme and its significance.

About the Ama Pokhari Scheme
The Ama Pokhari scheme is an initiative by the Government of Odisha aimed at rejuvenating and restoring water bodies, specifically ponds, in the state. The term "Ama Pokhari" translates to "Our Pond" in English, signifying the community's ownership and responsibility towards these water bodies.

Objectives of the Scheme
The primary objectives of the Ama Pokhari scheme are as follows:

1. Conservation and Revival: The scheme aims to conserve and revive the traditional water bodies, primarily ponds, that have been neglected or faced degradation over the years.

2. Water Security: By restoring these water bodies, the scheme aims to enhance water security in the state, especially during periods of drought or water scarcity.

3. Agriculture and Irrigation: The rejuvenation of ponds will support agricultural activities and provide irrigation facilities to farmers, thereby boosting agricultural productivity.

4. Biodiversity Conservation: The scheme also focuses on the conservation of aquatic flora and fauna, contributing to the overall biodiversity of the region.

Implementation
The Ama Pokhari scheme is implemented through the collaboration of various government departments and local communities. The government provides financial assistance and technical support to ensure the successful implementation of the scheme.

Benefits of the Scheme
The Ama Pokhari scheme yields several benefits, including:

1. Increased Water Availability: The restoration of ponds helps in replenishing groundwater levels, ensuring a sustainable water supply for domestic and agricultural needs.

2. Livelihood Support: The scheme generates employment opportunities for local communities during the restoration process, thereby improving their livelihoods.

3. Improved Agriculture: The availability of irrigation facilities through restored ponds enhances agricultural productivity, leading to increased crop yields and income for farmers.

4. Environmental Conservation: The rejuvenation of water bodies contributes to the conservation of biodiversity and ecological balance in the region.

Conclusion
The launch of the Ama Pokhari scheme in Odisha reflects the government's commitment to conserving and restoring traditional water bodies. The scheme's objectives, implementation, and benefits highlight the significance of such initiatives in ensuring water security, supporting agriculture, and preserving the environment.

Who launched the Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) during the 4th ECSWG meeting?
  • a)
    Bhupender Yadav
  • b)
    Narendra Modi
  • c)
    Nirmala Sitharaman
  • d)
    S. Gopalakrishnan
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tarun Khanna answered
Answer:

The Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched during the 4th ECSWG (Environment, Climate, and Sustainable Development Working Group) meeting by Bhupender Yadav.

Explanation:

The Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched to promote resource efficiency and circular economy principles in India. The coalition aims to bring together various stakeholders from industry, government, academia, and civil society to work towards a more sustainable and eco-friendly economy.

Key Points:
- Launch of the RECEIC: The RECEIC was launched during the 4th ECSWG meeting by Bhupender Yadav, who is the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in the Government of India.
- Objective of the Coalition: The coalition aims to promote resource efficiency and circular economy principles in India. It seeks to create awareness, share best practices, and facilitate collaboration among stakeholders to achieve sustainable development goals.
- Stakeholder Participation: The coalition brings together various stakeholders including industry representatives, government officials, academic experts, and civil society organizations. This multi-stakeholder approach ensures diverse perspectives and expertise to address the challenges of resource management and circular economy implementation.
- Importance of Resource Efficiency: Resource efficiency is crucial for sustainable development as it focuses on optimizing the use of resources while minimizing waste generation and environmental impact. By adopting resource-efficient practices, industries can reduce their ecological footprint and enhance their competitiveness.
- Circular Economy Principles: The circular economy is an economic model that aims to keep resources in use for as long as possible, extracting maximum value from them, and minimizing waste generation. It promotes the reuse, recycling, and recovery of materials, thereby reducing the need for virgin resources and minimizing environmental degradation.
- Government Support: The Indian government has been actively promoting resource efficiency and circular economy principles through various policies and initiatives. The launch of the RECEIC further strengthens the government's commitment to sustainable development and provides a platform for collaboration and knowledge sharing among stakeholders.

In conclusion, the Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched by Bhupender Yadav during the 4th ECSWG meeting. The coalition aims to promote resource efficiency and circular economy principles in India by bringing together various stakeholders and facilitating collaboration towards a more sustainable and eco-friendly economy.

Who is the longest-serving woman Chief Minister in India, completing five consecutive terms in office?
  • a)
    Mamata Banerjee
  • b)
    Mayawati
  • c)
    Shaina NC
  • d)
    Vasundhara Raje
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shaina NC is not the longest-serving woman Chief Minister in India. The correct answer is Mayawati.

Mayawati, also known as Kumari Mayawati, is an Indian politician and the leader of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP). She served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, the most populous state in India, for a total of four terms. Mayawati held office as Chief Minister from 1995 to 1997, 2002 to 2003, 2007 to 2012, and briefly in 2002.

Here is the correct breakdown of the options:

a) Mamata Banerjee: Mamata Banerjee is the Chief Minister of West Bengal and has been in office since 2011. While she is a prominent political figure, she has not served five consecutive terms as Chief Minister.

b) Mayawati: Mayawati, as mentioned above, is the correct answer. She has served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh for four terms.

c) Shaina NC: Shaina NC is an Indian politician and spokesperson for the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). However, she has not served as a Chief Minister in any state.

d) Vasundhara Raje: Vasundhara Raje is an Indian politician from the BJP. She served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan from 2003 to 2008 and again from 2013 to 2018. While she has had two terms as Chief Minister, she has not completed five consecutive terms in office.

In conclusion, Mayawati is the longest-serving woman Chief Minister in India, having completed four terms in office.

What is the significance of reconstituting the panel of vice-chairpersons in Rajya Sabha with 50% women Parliamentarians?
  • a)
    It marks the first time women Parliamentarians have been appointed to the panel in Rajya Sabha's history.
  • b)
    It ensures equal representation of women in the Upper House of the Indian Parliament.
  • c)
    It demonstrates the commitment to gender equality and women's empowerment.
  • d)
    All of the above.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aisha Gupta answered
The reconstitution of the panel of vice-chairpersons in Rajya Sabha with 50% women Parliamentarians holds immense significance. It is the first time in the history of Rajya Sabha that women have been appointed to the panel, which signifies a historic step towards gender representation and empowerment in the Upper House of the Indian Parliament. This move ensures that women's voices and perspectives are equally represented in key decision-making positions, promoting gender equality in the country's political landscape. By selecting four women Parliamentarians, the Rajya Sabha Chairman, Jagdeep Dhankhar, sends a strong message about the commitment to women's empowerment and inclusivity in the highest legislative body of the nation.

Which university will set up India's first Atal Incubation Centre (AIC) in the field of fisheries?
  • a)
    Kerala University of Agriculture and Veterinary Sciences (KUAVS)
  • b)
    Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (KUFOS)
  • c)
    Kerala University of Fisheries and Agriculture (KUFA)
  • d)
    Kerala University of Marine Sciences (KUMS)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rounak Das answered
Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (KUFOS) will set up India's first Atal Incubation Centre (AIC) in the field of fisheries.

Background:
- The Atal Incubation Centre (AIC) is an initiative by the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog, which aims to promote innovation and entrepreneurship in various sectors.
- The AICs provide a platform for nurturing innovative ideas and supporting startups in their early stages by providing necessary infrastructure, mentorship, networking opportunities, and funding support.

Reasons for Selection:
- Expertise in Fisheries: The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (KUFOS) is a dedicated university focused on fisheries and ocean studies. It offers specialized courses and conducts research in the field of fisheries and aquaculture. The university has a strong faculty and research infrastructure in this domain, making it a suitable choice for setting up the AIC.
- Relevance to Local Economy: Kerala has a significant fishing industry, with a large number of fishermen and fisherwomen engaged in various activities related to fisheries. Setting up an AIC in the field of fisheries will help in promoting entrepreneurship and innovation in this sector, leading to the development of new technologies and solutions for the local fishing community.
- Government Support: The Government of Kerala has shown keen interest in promoting the fisheries sector and has been supportive of initiatives aimed at its development. The establishment of the Atal Incubation Centre at KUFOS is a testament to the government's commitment to fostering innovation and entrepreneurship in the fisheries sector.

Benefits of the Atal Incubation Centre:
- Support for Startups: The AIC will provide a conducive environment for startups in the field of fisheries, offering them the necessary infrastructure, mentorship, and guidance to transform their ideas into successful businesses.
- Access to Funding: Startups incubated at the AIC will have access to various funding opportunities, including grants, seed funding, and venture capital investments. This will help them in scaling up their operations and realizing their full potential.
- Networking and Collaboration: The AIC will facilitate networking and collaboration among startups, industry experts, investors, and government agencies. This will create a vibrant ecosystem for innovation and entrepreneurship in the fisheries sector.
- Technology Development: The AIC will encourage the development of new technologies and solutions for the fisheries industry, addressing the challenges faced by fishermen and fisherwomen. This will lead to the modernization and sustainable growth of the sector.

In conclusion, the Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (KUFOS) has been selected to set up India's first Atal Incubation Centre (AIC) in the field of fisheries due to its expertise in the domain, relevance to the local economy, and government support. The AIC will provide a platform for nurturing innovative ideas and supporting startups in the fisheries sector, leading to the development of new technologies and solutions for the benefit of the fishing community.

Who has been appointed as the new Undersecretary-General and Associate Administrator of the UN Development Programme (UNDP)?
  • a)
    Usha Rao-Monari
  • b)
    Xu Haoliang
  • c)
    Antonio Guterres
  • d)
    Anurag Verma
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima iyer answered
New Appointment in UNDP
The recent appointment of Xu Haoliang as the Undersecretary-General and Associate Administrator of the UN Development Programme (UNDP) marks a significant development within the organization.
Background of Xu Haoliang
- Xu Haoliang has previously held various positions within the United Nations, showcasing his extensive experience in international development and policy implementation.
- His expertise aligns with the UNDP's mission of eradicating poverty and promoting sustainable development across the globe.
Role of the UNDP
- The UNDP plays a crucial role in supporting countries to achieve their development goals.
- It focuses on poverty reduction, environmental sustainability, and enhancing governance.
Significance of the Appointment
- Xu’s leadership is expected to bring innovative solutions to the ongoing challenges faced by developing nations.
- His appointment reflects the UN's commitment to strengthening its efforts in addressing global issues such as climate change, inequality, and economic instability.
Conclusion
With Xu Haoliang at the helm, the UNDP is poised to navigate the complexities of global development effectively, ensuring that the organization continues to make substantial progress towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). His extensive experience and understanding of the global landscape are valuable assets in this endeavor.

Which film director was presented with the British National Award for Best Director?
  • a)
    Shekhar Kapur
  • b)
    Amit Shah
  • c)
    Tamim Iqbal
  • d)
    Krishna Mishra
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shekhar Kapur was presented with the British National Award for Best Director.

Background:
- Shekhar Kapur is an Indian film director, actor, and producer.
- He gained international recognition for his work in the film "Bandit Queen" (1994), which was based on the life of Phoolan Devi, a notorious female bandit in India.
- Kapur's other notable films include "Mr. India" (1987), "Dil Se" (1998), and "Elizabeth" (1998).

British National Award for Best Director:
- The British National Award for Best Director is an annual award presented by the British Film Academy (BAFTA).
- BAFTA is an independent charity that supports and promotes the art of filmmaking in the United Kingdom.
- The award recognizes excellence in directing and honors the achievements of directors in the British film industry.

Shekhar Kapur's Achievement:
- Shekhar Kapur received the British National Award for Best Director for his film "Elizabeth" (1998).
- "Elizabeth" is a historical drama film that depicts the early years of Queen Elizabeth I's reign.
- The film received critical acclaim and was a commercial success.
- Kapur's direction in "Elizabeth" was praised for its visual style, storytelling, and the performances of the actors.
- The film also received several other accolades, including seven Academy Award nominations and a Golden Globe Award for Best Actress for Cate Blanchett's portrayal of Queen Elizabeth I.

Conclusion:
- Shekhar Kapur, an Indian film director, was presented with the British National Award for Best Director for his film "Elizabeth" (1998).
- The award recognizes excellence in directing and honors the achievements of directors in the British film industry.

Which player defeated Viswanathan Anand in the eighth round of the 2023 SuperUnited Rapid and Blitz tournament?
  • a)
    D Gukesh
  • b)
    Magnus Carlsen
  • c)
    Fabiano Caruana
  • d)
    Ian Nepomniachtchi
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kunal Banerjee answered
The correct answer is option 'A', D Gukesh.

In the eighth round of the 2023 SuperUnited Rapid and Blitz tournament, Viswanathan Anand was defeated by D Gukesh.

Let's break down the answer in more detail:

1. Viswanathan Anand:
Viswanathan Anand is a renowned Indian chess player. He is a former World Chess Champion and is considered one of the greatest chess players of all time. Anand has achieved numerous accolades and victories throughout his career.

2. 2023 SuperUnited Rapid and Blitz Tournament:
The 2023 SuperUnited Rapid and Blitz tournament is a prestigious chess event that brings together top chess players from around the world. The tournament features both rapid and blitz chess formats, which are known for their fast-paced and thrilling gameplay.

3. D Gukesh:
D Gukesh is a young Indian chess prodigy. He is considered one of the most promising young talents in the world of chess. Gukesh has achieved remarkable success at a young age and has won several national and international tournaments.

4. Defeat in the eighth round:
In the eighth round of the tournament, Viswanathan Anand faced D Gukesh and was defeated by him. While the specific details of the game and the moves played are not provided, it is clear that Gukesh emerged victorious in their encounter.

In conclusion, D Gukesh defeated Viswanathan Anand in the eighth round of the 2023 SuperUnited Rapid and Blitz tournament. Gukesh's victory showcases his skill and talent as a young chess player, while Anand's participation in such high-level tournaments highlights his continued presence and competitiveness in the chess world.

Which Indian organization launched the "Resources Acquisition Centres" (RAC) to bolster its retail deposit business portfolio?
  • a)
    State Bank of India (SBI)
  • b)
    Indian Bank
  • c)
    HDFC Bank
  • d)
    ICICI Bank
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Indian Bank launched the "Resources Acquisition Centres" (RAC) on 20th July 2023 to strengthen its retail deposit business portfolio, which includes Current Deposit, Savings Bank, and Term Deposit accounts. The bank aims to target specific customer segments, such as High Net Worth Individuals (HNIs), Government/Institutional Clients, Salaried Class, Corporates, Business community, Traders, and Pensioners.

When was the 100 Microsites project launched under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)?
  • a)
    30th July 2023
  • b)
    28th July 2023
  • c)
    31st July 2023
  • d)
    27th July 2023
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anuj Nambiar answered
Introduction:
The 100 Microsites project was launched under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) on 28th July 2023. This initiative aims to provide comprehensive healthcare services to the citizens of India through the use of digital technology.

Details:
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is a flagship program of the Indian government that seeks to transform the healthcare system in the country through the integration of digital technology. It was launched with the goal of providing a wide range of healthcare services to the citizens of India, particularly those in rural and remote areas, who have limited access to quality healthcare.

Under this mission, the 100 Microsites project was launched on 28th July 2023. This project involves the creation of 100 microsites or small websites that will serve as information hubs for various healthcare services. These microsites will provide detailed information about healthcare facilities, available treatments, and other relevant information to the general public.

Objective of the 100 Microsites project:
The main objective of the 100 Microsites project is to improve the accessibility and availability of healthcare services to the citizens of India. By providing detailed information about healthcare facilities and treatments through these microsites, people can make informed decisions about their healthcare needs. This initiative aims to bridge the gap between healthcare providers and patients by leveraging digital technology.

Benefits of the 100 Microsites project:
1. Enhanced access to information: The microsites will serve as a one-stop platform for accessing information about healthcare facilities, treatments, and other related services. This will enable individuals to make informed decisions about their healthcare needs.

2. Improved healthcare outcomes: By providing accurate and up-to-date information, the microsites can contribute to improved healthcare outcomes. People will have access to the right information at the right time, leading to better treatment decisions and outcomes.

3. Increased transparency: The microsites will promote transparency in the healthcare system by providing information about the quality of healthcare facilities, available treatments, and patient feedback. This will enable individuals to make informed choices and hold healthcare providers accountable.

4. Empowered citizens: The 100 Microsites project aims to empower citizens by providing them with the necessary information to navigate the healthcare system. It will enable individuals to take control of their own health and make informed decisions about their healthcare needs.

In conclusion, the 100 Microsites project was launched under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission on 28th July 2023. This initiative aims to leverage digital technology to improve the accessibility and availability of healthcare services to the citizens of India. The microsites will serve as information hubs, providing detailed information about healthcare facilities, treatments, and other relevant services. This project has the potential to enhance access to information, improve healthcare outcomes, promote transparency, and empower citizens in their healthcare decisions.

Who was elected as the new President of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA)?
  • a)
    Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah
  • b)
    Nirmala Sitharaman
  • c)
    Nikki McCray-Penson
  • d)
    Manoj Ahuja
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashi gupta answered
Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah has been elected as the new President of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).

Explanation:
The Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) is responsible for governing and promoting sports activities in Asia and is the governing body for the Asian Games. The OCA holds elections for its leadership positions, including the position of President, every four years. In the most recent election, Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah was elected as the new President of the OCA.

Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah:
- Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah is a member of the Kuwaiti royal family and has a long history of involvement in sports administration.
- He has previously served as the President of the Kuwait Olympic Committee and has held various other positions within the OCA.
- Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah is known for his dedication to promoting sports and has been actively involved in the development of sports infrastructure in Kuwait and the wider Asian region.

Significance:
- The election of Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah as the President of the OCA is significant for several reasons.
- As the head of the OCA, Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah will play a crucial role in shaping the future of sports in Asia and promoting the development of athletes in the region.
- His extensive experience in sports administration and commitment to promoting sports will likely contribute to the growth and success of the Asian Games and other sporting events organized by the OCA.
- Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah's election also highlights the increasing influence of Kuwait in the international sporting community.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Sheikh Talal Fahad Al-Sabah has been elected as the new President of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA). His experience, dedication, and commitment to promoting sports make him a valuable asset to the OCA and ensure the continued growth and success of sports in Asia.

Who introduced the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 in the Lok Sabha?
  • a)
    Piyush Goyal
  • b)
    Mr. P.P. Chaudhary
  • c)
    Narendra Modi
  • d)
    Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Piyush Goyal. Let's understand the context and details of this bill.

Context:
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha to amend certain provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2021. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2021 was enacted to provide relief to individuals who have been victims of fraudulent investment schemes.

Key Provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2021:
The Jan Vishwas Act, 2021 aimed to establish a framework for the investigation and resolution of cases related to fraudulent investment schemes. Some key provisions of the act include:

1. Establishment of Jan Vishwas Authority: The Act established the Jan Vishwas Authority, which is responsible for the investigation and resolution of cases related to fraudulent investment schemes.

2. Compensation to Victims: The Act provided for the compensation of victims of fraudulent investment schemes. The Jan Vishwas Authority would determine the amount of compensation based on the losses suffered by the victims.

3. Recovery of Assets: The Act empowered the Jan Vishwas Authority to attach and recover assets acquired through fraudulent investment schemes. The recovered assets would be used for the compensation of the victims.

Amendments proposed by the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023:
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 proposed certain amendments to the Jan Vishwas Act, 2021. The key amendments include:

1. Strengthening the Authority: The Bill aimed to strengthen the Jan Vishwas Authority by providing it with more powers and resources to effectively investigate and resolve cases related to fraudulent investment schemes.

2. Enhanced Compensation: The Bill proposed to enhance the compensation provided to the victims of fraudulent investment schemes. The revised compensation amount would be determined based on the losses suffered by the victims.

3. Streamlining the Asset Recovery Process: The Bill aimed to streamline the process of attaching and recovering assets acquired through fraudulent investment schemes. It proposed mechanisms to ensure that the recovered assets are utilized for the compensation of the victims.

4. Provision for Stringent Penalties: The Bill proposed to introduce more stringent penalties for individuals involved in fraudulent investment schemes. This would act as a deterrent and help in preventing such schemes in the future.

Conclusion:
Piyush Goyal, who is a Member of Parliament and a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), introduced the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 in the Lok Sabha. The bill aimed to amend certain provisions of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2021, in order to strengthen the framework for the investigation and resolution of cases related to fraudulent investment schemes.

Which Indian state recently approved the inclusion of the Kui language in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India?
  • a)
    Odisha
  • b)
    Tamil Nadu
  • c)
    Telangana
  • d)
    Uttar Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer:

The correct answer is option 'A', Odisha.

Introduction:
Recently, the state of Odisha approved the inclusion of the Kui language in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India. This decision was made to recognize and protect the linguistic rights of the Kui-speaking community in the state.

Importance of Inclusion:
The inclusion of a language in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India holds significant importance. It signifies that the language is recognized as one of the official languages of the country and is entitled to protection and promotion by the government. Inclusion in the 8th schedule also means that the language can be used for official purposes, education, and other government-related activities.

About Kui Language:
Kui is an Austro-Asiatic language spoken by the Kui tribe, primarily inhabiting the western and southern parts of the state of Odisha. It is also spoken by a small number of people in the neighboring states of Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. The Kui language has its own distinct script and is a vital part of the cultural identity of the Kui-speaking community.

Recognition of Kui Language:
The recognition and inclusion of the Kui language in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India is a significant step towards preserving and promoting the linguistic diversity of the country. It acknowledges the cultural and linguistic rights of the Kui-speaking community and ensures that their language receives official recognition and support.

Impact of Inclusion:
The inclusion of the Kui language in the 8th schedule will have several positive impacts. It will enable the Kui-speaking community to use their language in official capacities, such as government documents, publications, and communication. It will also facilitate the development of educational resources and materials in the Kui language, allowing for better access to education for the Kui-speaking population. Furthermore, the inclusion will help in the preservation and promotion of the Kui language and its associated cultural practices.

Conclusion:
The decision to include the Kui language in the 8th schedule of the Constitution of India by the state of Odisha is a commendable step towards recognizing and protecting the linguistic rights of the Kui-speaking community. This inclusion will not only provide official recognition but also ensure the preservation and promotion of the Kui language and its associated culture.

Which organization has partnered with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBiH) to support FinTech and TechFin entities?
  • a)
    Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
  • b)
    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • c)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • d)
    Practice School Division (PIEDS)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Farida Ali answered
BITS Pilani's Practice School Division (PIEDS) has partnered with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBiH) to support and facilitate FinTech and TechFin entities. This collaboration aims to foster innovation, provide a conducive environment for FinTech startups, and promote technological advancements in the financial sector.

Which bank was approved for membership to join the International Committee on Credit Reporting (ICCR) by the World Bank?
  • a)
    Bank of America
  • b)
    Bank of Israel
  • c)
    World Bank of India
  • d)
    Federal Reserve Bank
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Faizan Khan answered
The World Bank issued official approval for the Bank of Israel to join the International Committee on Credit Reporting (ICCR). The ICCR, coordinated by the World Bank with support from the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), is a worldwide committee on credit reporting. The membership in ICCR allows countries to collaborate and establish international standards and guidelines for credit reporting systems, contributing to financial stability and inclusive access to finance.

Who completed one year in office as the 15th President of India on 25th July 2023?
  • a)
    Pratibha Patil
  • b)
    Droupadi Murmu
  • c)
    Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana
  • d)
    Jyotiraditya Scindia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Smita Patel answered
Explanation:

Droupadi Murmu completed one year in office as the 15th President of India on 25th July 2023.
  • Droupadi Murmu: Droupadi Murmu is an Indian politician serving as the 15th President of India. She assumed office on 25th July 2022.


This milestone marked her first year in office as the President of India.
  • Significance: Completing one year in office is a significant milestone for any President as it provides an opportunity to reflect on achievements, challenges, and goals for the future.


It allows for a period of assessment and evaluation of the President's performance and impact during the first year of their term.
  • Role of the President: The President of India is the head of state and holds a ceremonial position with certain executive powers. The President plays a crucial role in upholding the Constitution, representing the nation, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the government.


Droupadi Murmu's first year in office would have involved various responsibilities, engagements, and decisions in line with her constitutional duties.
  • Celebrations and Observations: The completion of one year in office may be commemorated through various events, speeches, and interactions with the public to highlight the President's achievements and vision for the future.


It is a time to acknowledge the President's contributions and reaffirm commitments to serving the nation.
In conclusion, Droupadi Murmu's completion of one year in office as the 15th President of India on 25th July 2023 is a momentous occasion that signifies her dedication to fulfilling her responsibilities and serving the country.

Who received the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award?
  • a)
    Bhupender Yadav
  • b)
    Prem Prakash
  • c)
    Narendra Modi
  • d)
    Nirmala Sitharaman
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shraddha Mehta answered
Bhupender Yadav
The correct answer is not Bhupender Yadav. Bhupender Yadav is an Indian politician who serves as the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in the Narendra Modi-led government. He is not the recipient of the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award.

Prem Prakash
The correct answer is Prem Prakash. Prem Prakash is an Indian media entrepreneur and the founder of the Indian media company, ANI (Asian News International). He is known for his contribution to the field of journalism and media. Prem Prakash has been awarded the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award for his significant contributions and achievements in the media industry.

Narendra Modi
The correct answer is not Narendra Modi. Narendra Modi is the Prime Minister of India and is not the recipient of the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award.

Nirmala Sitharaman
The correct answer is not Nirmala Sitharaman. Nirmala Sitharaman is an Indian politician and the current Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs in the Government of India. She is not the recipient of the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award.

In conclusion, Prem Prakash is the correct answer for the recipient of the Global Education Mentor (GEM) Award 2023 - Lifetime Achievement Award. He is recognized for his contributions to the media industry as the founder of ANI.

What is the capacity of the world's largest commercial communications satellite, Hughes JUPITER 3?
  • a)
    200 Gigabits per second (Gbps)
  • b)
    500 Gigabits per second (Gbps)
  • c)
    1 Terabit per second (Tbps)
  • d)
    120 Gigabits per second (Gbps)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Hughes JUPITER 3, launched by SpaceX's Falcon Heavy Rocket, has a capacity of 500 Gigabits per second (Gbps). This satellite will significantly enhance communication services, including in-flight Wi-Fi, maritime connections, enterprise networks, and more.

Which ministry signed an MoU with the Ministry of Information and Communication Technology (MICT) of Papua New Guinea?
  • a)
    Ministry of Finance
  • b)
    Ministry of Culture
  • c)
    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
  • d)
    Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of Information and Communication Technology (MICT) of Papua New Guinea to share India Stack digital services, including Aadhaar, eSign, Digilocker, and Unified Payments Interface (UPI), with Papua New Guinea. The aim is to enhance digital public infrastructure and collaboration in the implementation of population-scale Digital Public Infrastructure and Transformational Platforms.

When were the 3 technological initiatives launched under PMFBY & RWBCIS by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA & FW)?
  • a)
    21st July 2023
  • b)
    28th July 2023
  • c)
    26th July 2023
  • d)
    27th July 2023
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vishakha shah answered
The three technological initiatives launched under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) were launched at different times. However, the specific dates of their launch were not mentioned in the question. Here are the three technological initiatives under PMFBY:

1. Crop Insurance App: This mobile application was developed to help farmers register for crop insurance, calculate premium rates, and get updates on their insurance claims. It allows farmers to access information regarding the scheme and file claims easily.

2. Weather-based Crop Insurance: This initiative uses weather data from satellites to assess crop loss and determine insurance claims. It replaces the traditional method of crop cutting experiments, providing a faster and more accurate way of determining crop loss.

3. Remote Sensing Technology: This technology involves the use of remote sensing satellites to assess crop health, monitor crop conditions, and estimate crop yield. It helps in the timely identification of crop stress and enables speedy claim settlement for farmers.

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