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Linda has the choice to buy raw materials from one of two vendors. Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but includes a handling fee with each purchase. Vendor Y doesn't offer a discount but doesn't charge any additional fees. The handling fee Vendor X charges is $10 for orders under $250, $20 for orders from $250 to $600, and $25 for orders above $600. Linda calculates that for very small orders, Vendor Y is more cost-effective, but she suspects that for larger orders, Vendor X might be cheaper.
I. Determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive.
II. If an order costs $500 from Vendor Y, how much would the same order cost from Vendor X?- a)$500, $475
- b)$400, $485
- c)$210, $475
- d)$400, $380
- e)$210, $200
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Linda has the choice to buy raw materials from one of two vendors. Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but includes a handling fee with each purchase. Vendor Y doesn't offer a discount but doesn't charge any additional fees. The handling fee Vendor X charges is $10 for orders under $250, $20 for orders from $250 to $600, and $25 for orders above $600. Linda calculates that for very small orders, Vendor Y is more cost-effective, but she suspects that for larger orders, Vendor X might be cheaper.
I. Determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive.
II. If an order costs $500 from Vendor Y, how much would the same order cost from Vendor X?
I. Determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive.
II. If an order costs $500 from Vendor Y, how much would the same order cost from Vendor X?
a)
$500, $475
b)
$400, $485
c)
$210, $475
d)
$400, $380
e)
$210, $200
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Pranav Das answered |
Analysis:
Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but charges a handling fee, while Vendor Y does not offer a discount but does not charge any additional fees.
I. Smallest Value of an Order:
To determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive, we need to calculate the crossover point where the total cost from each vendor is the same.
II. Calculation for a $500 Order:
For an order costing $500 from Vendor Y:
- Vendor X's cost would be $500 - 5% discount + handling fee
- Cost of order from Vendor X = $500 - 5% of $500 + handling fee
To find the exact crossover point where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y, we need to compare the total cost for both vendors at different order values.
Calculation:
- For orders under $250, Vendor Y is cheaper
- For orders from $250 to $600, we need to find the exact crossover point
- For orders above $600, Vendor X is cheaper
Answer Explanation:
- The correct answer is option D: $400 from Vendor Y would cost $380 from Vendor X.
- For an order of $500, Vendor X would not be cheaper than Vendor Y.
- By comparing the costs at different order values, we find that the crossover point is at $400, where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y.
Vendor X offers a 5% bulk order discount but charges a handling fee, while Vendor Y does not offer a discount but does not charge any additional fees.
I. Smallest Value of an Order:
To determine the smallest value of an order from Vendor Y for which an identical order from Vendor X would be less expensive, we need to calculate the crossover point where the total cost from each vendor is the same.
II. Calculation for a $500 Order:
For an order costing $500 from Vendor Y:
- Vendor X's cost would be $500 - 5% discount + handling fee
- Cost of order from Vendor X = $500 - 5% of $500 + handling fee
To find the exact crossover point where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y, we need to compare the total cost for both vendors at different order values.
Calculation:
- For orders under $250, Vendor Y is cheaper
- For orders from $250 to $600, we need to find the exact crossover point
- For orders above $600, Vendor X is cheaper
Answer Explanation:
- The correct answer is option D: $400 from Vendor Y would cost $380 from Vendor X.
- For an order of $500, Vendor X would not be cheaper than Vendor Y.
- By comparing the costs at different order values, we find that the crossover point is at $400, where Vendor X becomes cheaper than Vendor Y.
Article 1
From a local Southern California newspaper.
Typically, fewer people vote in local elections that in national ones, but participation can vary widely by state. A new poll has found that more people in California vote in local elections than do people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico combined. This has been attributed to the high number of independent voters in our state, as well as the high enthusiasm for local elections. City councilman Brad Zellman was pleased to see such a high turnout at the recent city council election. “It’s a unique opportunity for local citizens’ votes to carry more weight than they would in big national elections, and it’s great to have so much participation in these smaller campaigns state-wide.”
Article 2
Editorial from the Opinion section of a competing newspaper.
The recent city council election has seen many a politico claim that the increased voter turnout is due to local citizens wanting to be a part of an election where their vote is proportionally more important. However, it is incorrect to suggest that voting in local elections somehow means your vote “counts more.” True, local politicians make decisions that affect day-to-day operations of our cities, but national politicians make decisions that ultimately affect the outcomes of our lives. When you vote for national figures in larger elections, your vote matters more because you are voting for people who will ultimately have a bigger impact on your life long-term.
Article 3
Results from recent California elections.
City councilman elections: 13,000 local votes cast (22% of the eligible population voted), 80% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results. District representative elections: 1.9 million votes cast (19% of the eligible population voted), 67% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results.Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the articles support the inference as stated?
Californians are more concerned with politics than are people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico.
The “weight” Zellman describes refers to the scale of political decision-making.
- a)Yes, Yes
- b)No, No
- c)Yes, No
- d)No, Yes
- e)Cannot be determined
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Article 1
From a local Southern California newspaper.
Typically, fewer people vote in local elections that in national ones, but participation can vary widely by state. A new poll has found that more people in California vote in local elections than do people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico combined. This has been attributed to the high number of independent voters in our state, as well as the high enthusiasm for local elections. City councilman Brad Zellman was pleased to see such a high turnout at the recent city council election. “It’s a unique opportunity for local citizens’ votes to carry more weight than they would in big national elections, and it’s great to have so much participation in these smaller campaigns state-wide.”
Article 2
Editorial from the Opinion section of a competing newspaper.
The recent city council election has seen many a politico claim that the increased voter turnout is due to local citizens wanting to be a part of an election where their vote is proportionally more important. However, it is incorrect to suggest that voting in local elections somehow means your vote “counts more.” True, local politicians make decisions that affect day-to-day operations of our cities, but national politicians make decisions that ultimately affect the outcomes of our lives. When you vote for national figures in larger elections, your vote matters more because you are voting for people who will ultimately have a bigger impact on your life long-term.
Article 3
Results from recent California elections.
City councilman elections: 13,000 local votes cast (22% of the eligible population voted), 80% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results. District representative elections: 1.9 million votes cast (19% of the eligible population voted), 67% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results.
From a local Southern California newspaper.
Typically, fewer people vote in local elections that in national ones, but participation can vary widely by state. A new poll has found that more people in California vote in local elections than do people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico combined. This has been attributed to the high number of independent voters in our state, as well as the high enthusiasm for local elections. City councilman Brad Zellman was pleased to see such a high turnout at the recent city council election. “It’s a unique opportunity for local citizens’ votes to carry more weight than they would in big national elections, and it’s great to have so much participation in these smaller campaigns state-wide.”
Article 2
Editorial from the Opinion section of a competing newspaper.
The recent city council election has seen many a politico claim that the increased voter turnout is due to local citizens wanting to be a part of an election where their vote is proportionally more important. However, it is incorrect to suggest that voting in local elections somehow means your vote “counts more.” True, local politicians make decisions that affect day-to-day operations of our cities, but national politicians make decisions that ultimately affect the outcomes of our lives. When you vote for national figures in larger elections, your vote matters more because you are voting for people who will ultimately have a bigger impact on your life long-term.
Article 3
Results from recent California elections.
City councilman elections: 13,000 local votes cast (22% of the eligible population voted), 80% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results. District representative elections: 1.9 million votes cast (19% of the eligible population voted), 67% of citizens who voted were polled as “extremely satisfied” with the results.
Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the articles support the inference as stated?
Californians are more concerned with politics than are people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico.
The “weight” Zellman describes refers to the scale of political decision-making.
Californians are more concerned with politics than are people in Nevada, Arizona, and New Mexico.
The “weight” Zellman describes refers to the scale of political decision-making.
a)
Yes, Yes
b)
No, No
c)
Yes, No
d)
No, Yes
e)
Cannot be determined
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Question 1 Explanation: The answer is No. This argument assumes that the percentage of people who vote in California is higher than the percentage of people who vote in the other three states put together, based on the fact that the number of people who vote is greater in California. We cannot infer anything about the percentage of people who vote based only on actual numbers of people who vote.
Question 2 Explanation: The answer is No. Zellman likely means that your vote carries “more weight” in local elections since “typically fewer people vote in local elections” according to Article 1. This is further established by Article 2, which begins with a refutation of Zellman and the idea that a vote in a local election “counts more.”
Question 2 Explanation: The answer is No. Zellman likely means that your vote carries “more weight” in local elections since “typically fewer people vote in local elections” according to Article 1. This is further established by Article 2, which begins with a refutation of Zellman and the idea that a vote in a local election “counts more.”
A shopper bought a tie and a belt during a sale. Which item did he buy at the greater dollar value?(1) He bought the tie at a 20 percent discount.
(2) He bought the belt at a 25 percent discount- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
A shopper bought a tie and a belt during a sale. Which item did he buy at the greater dollar value?
(1) He bought the tie at a 20 percent discount.
(2) He bought the belt at a 25 percent discount
(2) He bought the belt at a 25 percent discount
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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Dipanjan Mehra answered |
Understanding the Problem
To determine which item (tie or belt) was purchased at a greater dollar value, we need to analyze the information provided in each statement regarding their discounts.
Statement (1): Tie at 20% Discount
- The tie is discounted by 20%, but we do not know the original price of the tie.
- Without the original price, we cannot ascertain its final price after the discount.
- Thus, this statement alone is insufficient to determine which item has the greater dollar value.
Statement (2): Belt at 25% Discount
- Similar to the first statement, the belt is discounted by 25%.
- However, we also lack the original price of the belt.
- Therefore, this statement alone is insufficient to determine which item has the greater dollar value.
Combining Both Statements
- When we combine both statements, we still do not have the original prices for either the tie or the belt.
- Knowing both items' discount rates does not provide enough information to compare their final prices without their original prices.
Conclusion
- Since neither statement alone is sufficient and their combination does not provide the necessary information, we conclude that additional data specific to the original prices of the tie and belt are needed to answer the question asked.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'E': Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
To determine which item (tie or belt) was purchased at a greater dollar value, we need to analyze the information provided in each statement regarding their discounts.
Statement (1): Tie at 20% Discount
- The tie is discounted by 20%, but we do not know the original price of the tie.
- Without the original price, we cannot ascertain its final price after the discount.
- Thus, this statement alone is insufficient to determine which item has the greater dollar value.
Statement (2): Belt at 25% Discount
- Similar to the first statement, the belt is discounted by 25%.
- However, we also lack the original price of the belt.
- Therefore, this statement alone is insufficient to determine which item has the greater dollar value.
Combining Both Statements
- When we combine both statements, we still do not have the original prices for either the tie or the belt.
- Knowing both items' discount rates does not provide enough information to compare their final prices without their original prices.
Conclusion
- Since neither statement alone is sufficient and their combination does not provide the necessary information, we conclude that additional data specific to the original prices of the tie and belt are needed to answer the question asked.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'E': Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
The number of cats in Libby’s house is twice the number of dogs and one third the number of fish. If cats, dogs and fish are the only pets in Libby’s house, what is the probability of randomly selecting two cats?(1) The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12.
(2) The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The number of cats in Libby’s house is twice the number of dogs and one third the number of fish. If cats, dogs and fish are the only pets in Libby’s house, what is the probability of randomly selecting two cats?
(1) The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12.
(2) The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
(2) The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Assume:
dogs = y
cats = 2y
fishes = 6y
Total pets = y+2y+6y = 9y
dogs = y
cats = 2y
fishes = 6y
Total pets = y+2y+6y = 9y
Sattement1 :
The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12, i.e, 2y = 12 => y = 6
9y = 54
P(Randomly selecting 2 cats) =
Statement 2:
The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
that means 9y = 54 => number of cats = 2y = 12
So, P(Randomly selecting 2 cats) =
Hence, both of the statements seems to be sufficient.
Hence, option D
The number of cats in Libby’s house is 12, i.e, 2y = 12 => y = 6
9y = 54
P(Randomly selecting 2 cats) =
Statement 2:
The total number of pets in Libby’s house is 54.
that means 9y = 54 => number of cats = 2y = 12
So, P(Randomly selecting 2 cats) =
Hence, both of the statements seems to be sufficient.
Hence, option D
Based on a study of a 10,000 person sample of the adult population of Country Y, the unbroken curve on the graph plots an association between daily consumption of various amounts of Beverage Z and the relative risk of contracting Disease X compared to the risk with no consumption of Beverage Z (indicated by 1.00). For the entire adult population of Country Y, the relative-risk values could—because of sampling error—be either higher or lower than for the particular 10,000 person sample studied. Thus the two broken lines show the estimates of how high or how low those relative-risk values for that population could be.
Choose the options that create the statement that is most strongly supported by the information provided.
Compared to the risk with no consumption of Beverage Z, the reduction in relative risk of contracting Disease X for adults of Country Y is ____(A)_____ when the daily consumption of Beverage Z is in the range of ____(B)_____ 100 mg glasses.- a)(A)- Greatest,(B)- 1-3
- b)(A)- unchanged, (B)- 4-6
- c)(A)- Least, (B)- 1-3
- d)(A)- Least, (B)- 7-8
- e)(A)- Greatest,(B)- 4-6
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Based on a study of a 10,000 person sample of the adult population of Country Y, the unbroken curve on the graph plots an association between daily consumption of various amounts of Beverage Z and the relative risk of contracting Disease X compared to the risk with no consumption of Beverage Z (indicated by 1.00). For the entire adult population of Country Y, the relative-risk values could—because of sampling error—be either higher or lower than for the particular 10,000 person sample studied. Thus the two broken lines show the estimates of how high or how low those relative-risk values for that population could be.
Choose the options that create the statement that is most strongly supported by the information provided.
Compared to the risk with no consumption of Beverage Z, the reduction in relative risk of contracting Disease X for adults of Country Y is ____(A)_____ when the daily consumption of Beverage Z is in the range of ____(B)_____ 100 mg glasses.
Choose the options that create the statement that is most strongly supported by the information provided.
Compared to the risk with no consumption of Beverage Z, the reduction in relative risk of contracting Disease X for adults of Country Y is ____(A)_____ when the daily consumption of Beverage Z is in the range of ____(B)_____ 100 mg glasses.
a)
(A)- Greatest,(B)- 1-3
b)
(A)- unchanged, (B)- 4-6
c)
(A)- Least, (B)- 1-3
d)
(A)- Least, (B)- 7-8
e)
(A)- Greatest,(B)- 4-6
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The question talks of comparison on relative risk with no consumption of a beverage and some consuption of the beverage, so we are dealing with the straight line vs the curved line.
The first blank talks of this relation and the options are:
Unchanged: For unchanged, the two lines, straight and curved, should be superimposed on each other. But that is not the situation anywhere on the line graph. Discard. (Although the lines intersect at a certain time, but the second blank talks of range of number of glasses).
Least: Least reduction will be when the two lines are close to each other.
Greatest: Greatest reduction will be when the curved line is the farthest from staright line
Unchanged: For unchanged, the two lines, straight and curved, should be superimposed on each other. But that is not the situation anywhere on the line graph. Discard. (Although the lines intersect at a certain time, but the second blank talks of range of number of glasses).
Least: Least reduction will be when the two lines are close to each other.
Greatest: Greatest reduction will be when the curved line is the farthest from staright line
Let us now, relate least and greatest with second blank.
1-3: It is not the lowest or greatest as the curved line is sloping downwards ( moves from 0.97 to 0.90), so reduction is neither the least nor the greatest.
4-6: The curved line flattens at this location and is at the lowest point 0.90-0.92, so the reduction is the greatest in this range.
7-8: The curved line moves upwards from 0.93 to 0.95, thus neither the least nor the greatest.
1-3: It is not the lowest or greatest as the curved line is sloping downwards ( moves from 0.97 to 0.90), so reduction is neither the least nor the greatest.
4-6: The curved line flattens at this location and is at the lowest point 0.90-0.92, so the reduction is the greatest in this range.
7-8: The curved line moves upwards from 0.93 to 0.95, thus neither the least nor the greatest.
Correct combination:
1. Greatest
2. 4-6
1. Greatest
2. 4-6
The following argument is logically flawed. The author's goal was to craft the argument so that the conclusion follows logically from Premises 1 and 2 and so that both premises are necessary to draw the conclusion.Premise 1: Every respondent to our survey who reported feeling satisfied also reported being in a good mood.
Premise 2: Every respondent to our survey who reported having a central goal also reported being in a good mood.
Conclusion: Therefore, assuming all of the reports were accurate and complete, every respondent to our survey who felt satisfied also had a central goal.Choose for Boldface A and for Boldface B two of the boldface phrases in the argument such that Boldface A occurs earlier in the argument than Boldface B, and exchanging the positions of those two phrases in the argument would make it so the argument fulfills the author's goal. 
- a)Boldface A - had a central goal
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood - b)Boldface A - reported feeling satisfied
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood - c)Boldface A - reported having a central goal
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood - d)Boldface A - felt satisfied
Boldface B - had a central goal - e)Boldface A - reported being in a good mood
Boldface B - reported feeling satisfied
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The following argument is logically flawed. The author's goal was to craft the argument so that the conclusion follows logically from Premises 1 and 2 and so that both premises are necessary to draw the conclusion.
Premise 1: Every respondent to our survey who reported feeling satisfied also reported being in a good mood.
Premise 2: Every respondent to our survey who reported having a central goal also reported being in a good mood.
Conclusion: Therefore, assuming all of the reports were accurate and complete, every respondent to our survey who felt satisfied also had a central goal.
Premise 2: Every respondent to our survey who reported having a central goal also reported being in a good mood.
Conclusion: Therefore, assuming all of the reports were accurate and complete, every respondent to our survey who felt satisfied also had a central goal.
Choose for Boldface A and for Boldface B two of the boldface phrases in the argument such that Boldface A occurs earlier in the argument than Boldface B, and exchanging the positions of those two phrases in the argument would make it so the argument fulfills the author's goal.
a)
Boldface A - had a central goal
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
b)
Boldface A - reported feeling satisfied
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
c)
Boldface A - reported having a central goal
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
Boldface B - reported being in a good mood
d)
Boldface A - felt satisfied
Boldface B - had a central goal
Boldface B - had a central goal
e)
Boldface A - reported being in a good mood
Boldface B - reported feeling satisfied
Boldface B - reported feeling satisfied
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EduRev GMAT answered |
These are conditional Statements. Every/Whenever etc signal 'if' conditional statements.
Important: The author's goal was to craft the argument so that the conclusion follows logically from Premises 1 and 2 and so that both premises are necessary to draw the conclusion.
The argument as given is certainly flawed. How will it follow logically? (i.e. deductive logic) Identify that "conclusion follows logically" means that we should be able to deduce the conclusion.
The argument as given is certainly flawed. How will it follow logically? (i.e. deductive logic) Identify that "conclusion follows logically" means that we should be able to deduce the conclusion.
Premises:
If A, then B.
If B, then C
Conclusion: Hence if A then C.
If A, then B.
If B, then C
Conclusion: Hence if A then C.
A, B, C are "satisfied," "goal" and "mood" in some order.
The "reported good mood" phrasing is available twice so make it 'B' in our if then conditional shown above.
If satisfied, then good mood.
If good mood, then central goal.
Conclusion: Hence if satisfied, then central goal.
Fits. So exchange "reported having a central goal " with "reported being in a good mood" (ANSWER)
The "reported good mood" phrasing is available twice so make it 'B' in our if then conditional shown above.
If satisfied, then good mood.
If good mood, then central goal.
Conclusion: Hence if satisfied, then central goal.
Fits. So exchange "reported having a central goal " with "reported being in a good mood" (ANSWER)
Rounded to the nearest 10,000, the populations of San Pepe and of its suburb Maple Beach are 140,000 and 80,000, respectively. What is the combined population of San Pepe and Maple Beach, rounded to the nearest 10,000 ?(1) The exact population figures of San Pepe and Maple Beach are each within 2% of the rounded figures above.
(2) The approximate population figure for San Pepe was rounded up, whereas the figure for Maple Beach was rounded down.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Rounded to the nearest 10,000, the populations of San Pepe and of its suburb Maple Beach are 140,000 and 80,000, respectively. What is the combined population of San Pepe and Maple Beach, rounded to the nearest 10,000 ?
(1) The exact population figures of San Pepe and Maple Beach are each within 2% of the rounded figures above.
(2) The approximate population figure for San Pepe was rounded up, whereas the figure for Maple Beach was rounded down.
(2) The approximate population figure for San Pepe was rounded up, whereas the figure for Maple Beach was rounded down.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Given:
135 < SP < 145
75 < MB < 85
135 < SP < 145
75 < MB < 85
Thus:
210 < SP + MB < 230
210 < SP + MB < 230
So, SP + MB, rounded to the nearest 10, could be 210, 220, or 230.
(1) The exact population figures of San Pepe and Maple Beach are each within 2% of the rounded figures above.
Since SP rounded to the nearest 10 is 140, its exact population is approximately from 137 (a little more than that) to 143 (a little less than that) (2% of 140 is less than 3).
Since MB rounded to the nearest 10 is 80, its exact population is approximately from 78 (a little more than that) to 82 (a little less than that) (2% of 80 is less than 2).
Thus:
137 + 78 < SP + MB < 143 + 82
215 < SP + MB < 225
Rounded to the nearest 10, the combined population is 220. Sufficient.
(1) The exact population figures of San Pepe and Maple Beach are each within 2% of the rounded figures above.
Since SP rounded to the nearest 10 is 140, its exact population is approximately from 137 (a little more than that) to 143 (a little less than that) (2% of 140 is less than 3).
Since MB rounded to the nearest 10 is 80, its exact population is approximately from 78 (a little more than that) to 82 (a little less than that) (2% of 80 is less than 2).
Thus:
137 + 78 < SP + MB < 143 + 82
215 < SP + MB < 225
Rounded to the nearest 10, the combined population is 220. Sufficient.
(2) The approximate population figure for San Pepe was rounded up, whereas the figure for Maple Beach was rounded down.
135 < SP < 140
80 < MB < 85
Thus:
215 < SP + MB < 225
Rounded to the nearest 10, the combined population is 220. Sufficient.
135 < SP < 140
80 < MB < 85
Thus:
215 < SP + MB < 225
Rounded to the nearest 10, the combined population is 220. Sufficient.
Correct Answer: D.
Of the 115 members at the Shady Hills Country Club, some play only tennis, some play only golf, some play only lawn bowling, some play tennis and golf, some play tennis and lawn bowling, some play golf and lawn bowling, and 10 members play all 3. How many members play tennis?(1) The number of members who play tennis and lawn bowling is 3 times the number of members who play tennis and golf and the total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90.
(2) 40 members play only golf and 10 members play only lawn bowling.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Of the 115 members at the Shady Hills Country Club, some play only tennis, some play only golf, some play only lawn bowling, some play tennis and golf, some play tennis and lawn bowling, some play golf and lawn bowling, and 10 members play all 3. How many members play tennis?
(1) The number of members who play tennis and lawn bowling is 3 times the number of members who play tennis and golf and the total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90.
(2) 40 members play only golf and 10 members play only lawn bowling.
(2) 40 members play only golf and 10 members play only lawn bowling.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
We need t = z + x + y + 10 or we need the value of x + y + z
(1) The number of members who play tennis and lawn bowling is 3 times the number of members who play tennis and golf and the total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90.
Please refer to the fig. above:
Tennis and bowling is 3 times Tennis and golf
y + 10 = 3(x + 10) ..(i)
Total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90
(p + x + 10 + q) + (y + 10 + q + r) - (10 + q) = 90 .... (A or B = A + B - Both)
p + x + 10 + q + y + r = 90 ..(ii)
(z + x + 10 + y) + p + q + r = 115 ...(iii)
Using (ii) (iii) we can get z but we still cannot get x + y.
INSUFF.
(2) 40 members play only golf and 10 members play only lawn bowling.
(1) The number of members who play tennis and lawn bowling is 3 times the number of members who play tennis and golf and the total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90.
Please refer to the fig. above:
Tennis and bowling is 3 times Tennis and golf
y + 10 = 3(x + 10) ..(i)
Total number of members who play golf or lawn bowling is 90
(p + x + 10 + q) + (y + 10 + q + r) - (10 + q) = 90 .... (A or B = A + B - Both)
p + x + 10 + q + y + r = 90 ..(ii)
(z + x + 10 + y) + p + q + r = 115 ...(iii)
Using (ii) (iii) we can get z but we still cannot get x + y.
INSUFF.
(2) 40 members play only golf and 10 members play only lawn bowling.
So p = 40 and r = 10
Clearly using stem and this statement we still cannot get x + y + z.
INSUFF.
Combined (1+2)
Using both the statements and the three equations (i) (ii) and (iii) we still cannot get x + y
INSUFF.
Using both the statements and the three equations (i) (ii) and (iii) we still cannot get x + y
INSUFF.
Correct Answer: E
On a farm with a total of 72 animals, some are goats, and the rest are cows. If there is at least one goat and at least one cow, what is the positive difference between the number of vaccinated goats and vaccinated cows?
(1) One-fourth of the goats and one-ninth of the cows are vaccinated.
(2) The ratio of vaccinated goats to vaccinated cows is 9 to 4.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
- c)BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
On a farm with a total of 72 animals, some are goats, and the rest are cows. If there is at least one goat and at least one cow, what is the positive difference between the number of vaccinated goats and vaccinated cows?
(1) One-fourth of the goats and one-ninth of the cows are vaccinated.
(2) The ratio of vaccinated goats to vaccinated cows is 9 to 4.
(1) One-fourth of the goats and one-ninth of the cows are vaccinated.
(2) The ratio of vaccinated goats to vaccinated cows is 9 to 4.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
c)
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
(1) One-fourth of the goats and one-ninth of the cows are vaccinated.
Assuming there are g goats and 72 - g cows, the positive difference between the number of vaccinated goats and vaccinated cows would be |g/4 - (72 - g)/9| = |13g/36 - 8|. Since the difference must be an integer, 13g/36 must be an integer, meaning that g, the number of goats, must be a multiple of 36. Given that 0 < g < 72, the only possible value of g is 36, making the difference equal to |13g/36 - 8| = 5. Sufficient.
Alternatively, assuming the number of vaccinated goats is m and the number of vaccinated cows is n, we’d get 4m + 9n = 72. From this, we can deduce that m must be a multiple of 9 (for 4m + (a multiple of 9) to equal a multiple of 9). The only non-negative value of m that works is m = 9, giving n = 4, and the difference of m - n = 9 - 4 = 5. Sufficient.
Assuming there are g goats and 72 - g cows, the positive difference between the number of vaccinated goats and vaccinated cows would be |g/4 - (72 - g)/9| = |13g/36 - 8|. Since the difference must be an integer, 13g/36 must be an integer, meaning that g, the number of goats, must be a multiple of 36. Given that 0 < g < 72, the only possible value of g is 36, making the difference equal to |13g/36 - 8| = 5. Sufficient.
Alternatively, assuming the number of vaccinated goats is m and the number of vaccinated cows is n, we’d get 4m + 9n = 72. From this, we can deduce that m must be a multiple of 9 (for 4m + (a multiple of 9) to equal a multiple of 9). The only non-negative value of m that works is m = 9, giving n = 4, and the difference of m - n = 9 - 4 = 5. Sufficient.
(2) The ratio of vaccinated goats to vaccinated cows is 9 to 4.
If the number of vaccinated goats and cows are 9 and 4, respectively, the difference would be 5. However, if those numbers are 18 and 8, the difference would be 10. We already have two different answers; hence, this statement is not sufficient.
Answer: A
If the number of vaccinated goats and cows are 9 and 4, respectively, the difference would be 5. However, if those numbers are 18 and 8, the difference would be 10. We already have two different answers; hence, this statement is not sufficient.
Answer: A
Techniques
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direction after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.Personnel
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required; however, only 25 members can partake in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.Price
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs between $40 and $75 per session, depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session. Individual direction costs $15 per visit.Based on the given information, determine whether each of the statements is justified.
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.- a)Justified, Not justified, Not justified
- b)Not justified, Justified, Justified
- c)Justified, Justified, Not justified
- d)Not justified, Justified, Not justified
- e)Justified, Not justified, Justified
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Techniques
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direction after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direction after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
Personnel
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required; however, only 25 members can partake in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required; however, only 25 members can partake in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.
Price
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs between $40 and $75 per session, depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session. Individual direction costs $15 per visit.
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs between $40 and $75 per session, depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session. Individual direction costs $15 per visit.
Based on the given information, determine whether each of the statements is justified.
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.
a)
Justified, Not justified, Not justified
b)
Not justified, Justified, Justified
c)
Justified, Justified, Not justified
d)
Not justified, Justified, Not justified
e)
Justified, Not justified, Justified
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EduRev GMAT answered |
I. An individual who is experienced in fitness and has taken 3 group classes can choose to pay for the individual direction membership.
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direct after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
Therefore, statement I. is not justified.
At a gym there are three different paths an individual can take to obtaining membership. The first option is personal training. The second option is group fitness classes and the last option is individual direction. Members are only allowed to partake in individual direct after 5 personal training sessions and 10 group fitness classes.
Therefore, statement I. is not justified.
II. An individual who has a budget of $160 a month to spend on fitness after going through the personal training and group sessions can attend 8 classes per month.
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs any where between $40 and $75 per session depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session and individual direction costs $15 per visit.
8 classes a month×$20=$160
Therefore, statement II. is justified.
The price of membership depends on the technique the individual chooses. Personal training costs any where between $40 and $75 per session depending on the trainer. Group fitness classes cost $20 per session and individual direction costs $15 per visit.
8 classes a month×$20=$160
Therefore, statement II. is justified.
III. Tina has completed all the necessary requirements to have an individual direction membership; Tina would make the 26th member of this type.
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required however, only 25 members can part take in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.
Therefore, statement III. is not justified.
For personal training, there must be one trainer per individual. For group fitness classes there must be one trainer per eight individuals. For individual direction, no trainer is required however, only 25 members can part take in individual direction at a time. At this particular gym there are 12 trainers.
Therefore, statement III. is not justified.
The number of people in the world who natively speak Language A is 330 million. The number of people in the world who natively speak Language B is 260 million. Language experts who chart the growth of both languages claim that in five years, the number of persons who natively speak Language A will be approximately 450 million, and the number of persons who natively speak Language B will be approximately 300 million.In the table below, identify the average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers, and then identify the difference between Language A’s and Language B’s average annual growth rates. Make only two selections, one in each column.
LANGUAGE A: 24,000,000 DIFFERENCE BETWEEN LANGUAGE A AND LANGUAGE B: 16,000,000- a)6 million, 8 million
- b)24 million, 8 million
- c)12 million, 48 million
- d)24 million, 16 million
- e)8 million, 24 million
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The number of people in the world who natively speak Language A is 330 million. The number of people in the world who natively speak Language B is 260 million. Language experts who chart the growth of both languages claim that in five years, the number of persons who natively speak Language A will be approximately 450 million, and the number of persons who natively speak Language B will be approximately 300 million.
In the table below, identify the average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers, and then identify the difference between Language A’s and Language B’s average annual growth rates. Make only two selections, one in each column.
LANGUAGE A: 24,000,000 DIFFERENCE BETWEEN LANGUAGE A AND LANGUAGE B: 16,000,000
a)
6 million, 8 million
b)
24 million, 8 million
c)
12 million, 48 million
d)
24 million, 16 million
e)
8 million, 24 million
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EduRev GMAT answered |
(A) LANGUAGE A
average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers = (450 - 330) / 5 = 24 million
average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers = (450 - 330) / 5 = 24 million
(B) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN LANGUAGE A AND LANGUAGE B
average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers = (450 - 330) / 5 = 24 million
average annual rate of growth of Language b native speakers = (300 - 260) / 5 = 8 million
HENCE, THE DIFFERENCE = 24 million - 8 million = 16 million
average annual rate of growth of Language A native speakers = (450 - 330) / 5 = 24 million
average annual rate of growth of Language b native speakers = (300 - 260) / 5 = 8 million
HENCE, THE DIFFERENCE = 24 million - 8 million = 16 million
Lyric Poetry
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.Lyric Poets 
For each of the following statements about the newly discovered manuscripts, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
- a)Yes, Yes, Yes
- b) Yes, No, Yes
- c)No, No, No
- d)Yes, No No
- e)No, No, Yes
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Lyric Poetry
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
Lyric Poets
For each of the following statements about the newly discovered manuscripts, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
a)
Yes, Yes, Yes
b)
Yes, No, Yes
c)
No, No, No
d)
Yes, No No
e)
No, No, Yes
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Statement 1: The statement is inferable: lyric poetry was composed in the 7th century BCE or later, so it comes after the year 700 BCE.
Answer: Yes
Answer: Yes
Statement 2: The statement is not inferable. Though concerned with the present, lyric poems did at times use Greece’s mythical past as their backdrop. Thus, a poem referring to Greece’s mythical past could have been composed by one of the major lyric poets.
Answer: No
Answer: No
Statement 3: The given information tells you that love poems were mainly (if not exclusively) written as solo songs. The table of poets does not list any poet who wrote solo songs after the 6th century. Thus, the newly discovered love songs were probably not composed in the 5th century.
Answer: Yes
Answer: Yes
The graph shows how the solubility of various chemicals varies with temperature. The solubility is measured as grams of dissolved chemical (solute) per 100 grams of water.
Under the assumption that the curves shown continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, use the drop-down menus to complete each of the following statements in the manner that most accurately reflects the information provided.
1. At 60°C, the most soluble of the chemicals is most likely__________.
2. There is most likely a temperature above 100°C at which NH4Cl is exactly as soluble as ___________.- a)1. SO2
2. KCl - b)1. KI
2. KClO3 - c)1. HCl
2. NH3 - d)1. SO2
2. NaCl - e)1. KClO3 2. NaNO3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The graph shows how the solubility of various chemicals varies with temperature. The solubility is measured as grams of dissolved chemical (solute) per 100 grams of water.
Under the assumption that the curves shown continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, use the drop-down menus to complete each of the following statements in the manner that most accurately reflects the information provided.
1. At 60°C, the most soluble of the chemicals is most likely__________.
2. There is most likely a temperature above 100°C at which NH4Cl is exactly as soluble as ___________.
Under the assumption that the curves shown continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, use the drop-down menus to complete each of the following statements in the manner that most accurately reflects the information provided.
1. At 60°C, the most soluble of the chemicals is most likely__________.
2. There is most likely a temperature above 100°C at which NH4Cl is exactly as soluble as ___________.
a)
1. SO2
2. KCl
2. KCl
b)
1. KI
2. KClO3
2. KClO3
c)
1. HCl
2. NH3
2. NH3
d)
1. SO2
2. NaCl
2. NaCl
e)
1. KClO3
2. NaNO3
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EduRev GMAT answered |
By following the gridline at 60°C, the visible line indicating the solubility of NaNO3 is highest on the graph. However, the line for KI extends above the scale shown on the graph. So, given the assumption that the curves continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, the information given indicates that KI is the most soluble at 60°C.
The correct answer is KI.
The vertical distance between the solubility curves for KClO3 and NH4Cl decreases as the temperature increases, thus the difference in solubility between KClO3 and NH4Cl decreases as the temperature increases. Assuming that the curves continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, the vertical distance between them will eventually be zero, thereby indicating that there is a temperature at which the two chemicals are equally soluble. By contrast, the solubility curves for KCl and NaCl have increasingly greater vertical distances from that of NH4Cl as the temperature increases. Thus the differences in the solubilities of either KCl or NaCl as compared to that of NH4Cl would continue to increase as the temperature increases.
The correct answer is KClO3.
The correct answer is KI.
The vertical distance between the solubility curves for KClO3 and NH4Cl decreases as the temperature increases, thus the difference in solubility between KClO3 and NH4Cl decreases as the temperature increases. Assuming that the curves continue in the same general shape beyond the plotted area, the vertical distance between them will eventually be zero, thereby indicating that there is a temperature at which the two chemicals are equally soluble. By contrast, the solubility curves for KCl and NaCl have increasingly greater vertical distances from that of NH4Cl as the temperature increases. Thus the differences in the solubilities of either KCl or NaCl as compared to that of NH4Cl would continue to increase as the temperature increases.
The correct answer is KClO3.
Each type A machine fills 400 cans per minute,each Type B machine fills 600 cans per minute,and each Type C machine installs 2,400 lids per minute.A lid is installed on each can that is filled and on no can that is not filled.For a particular minute,what is the total number of machines working?(1) A total of 4,800 cans are filled that minute
(2) For that minute,there are 2 Type B machines working for every Type C machine working- a)Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not.
- b)Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but Statement 1 alone is not.
- c)Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient.
- d)Each statement alone is sufficient.
- e)Neither statement is sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Each type A machine fills 400 cans per minute,each Type B machine fills 600 cans per minute,and each Type C machine installs 2,400 lids per minute.A lid is installed on each can that is filled and on no can that is not filled.For a particular minute,what is the total number of machines working?
(1) A total of 4,800 cans are filled that minute
(2) For that minute,there are 2 Type B machines working for every Type C machine working
(2) For that minute,there are 2 Type B machines working for every Type C machine working
a)
Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not.
b)
Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but Statement 1 alone is not.
c)
Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient.
d)
Each statement alone is sufficient.
e)
Neither statement is sufficient.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
We are given that each Type A machine fills 400 cans per minute, each Type B machine fills 600 cans per minute, and each Type C machine installs 2,400 lids per minute.
We need to determine the total number of machines working for a particular minute. If we let a = the number of Type A machines needed, b = the number of Type B machines needed, and c = the number of Type C machines needed, we need to determine the value of a + b + c.
Statement One Alone:
A total of 4,800 cans are filled that minute.
Since a Type C machine installs 2,400 lids per minute, we know that we need 2 Type C machines (i.e., c = 2) to install 4,800 lids after the 4,800 cans are filled in that minute.
Since each Type A machine fills 400 cans per minute and each Type B machine fills 600 cans per minute, we have:
400a + 600b = 4,800
4a + 6b = 48
2a + 3b = 24
However, since we only have one equation but we have two variables, the values of a and b are not unique. For example, a = 12 and b = 0 OR a = 0 and b = 8.
Statement one alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement Two Alone:
For that minute, there are 2 Type B machines working for every Type C machine working.\
Thus, b/c = 2/1, i.e., b = 2c; however we still cannot determine a + b + c. Statement two alone is not sufficient.
Statements One and Two Together:
From statement one, we know that c = 2 and 2a + 3b = 24, and from statement two, we know that b = 2c. Since c = 2 and b = 2c, we see that b = 4.
Next we can substitute 4 for b in the equation 2a + 3b = 24:
2a + 3(4) = 24
2a + 12 = 24
2a = 12
a = 6
Thus a + b + c = 6 + 4 + 2 = 12. We need 12 machines for that particular minute.
2a + 3(4) = 24
2a + 12 = 24
2a = 12
a = 6
Thus a + b + c = 6 + 4 + 2 = 12. We need 12 machines for that particular minute.
On Christmas Eve, Santa and 5 of his elves need to deliver 210 presents to 7 towns, with each one requiring exactly 30 presents. Each trip to a town and back takes 1 hour, several trips can be made simultaneously, and each one requires at least Santa or two elves. Santa can deliver at most 15 presents per trip, and each elf can deliver at most 10 presents per trip.
Based on the information above, select for T1 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents with Santa and T2 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents without Santa.
- a)T1 = 2
T2 = 3 - b)T1 = 3
T2 = 4 - c)T1 = 6
T2 = 7 - d)T1 = 7
T2 = 6 - e)T1 = 4
T2 = 5
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
On Christmas Eve, Santa and 5 of his elves need to deliver 210 presents to 7 towns, with each one requiring exactly 30 presents. Each trip to a town and back takes 1 hour, several trips can be made simultaneously, and each one requires at least Santa or two elves. Santa can deliver at most 15 presents per trip, and each elf can deliver at most 10 presents per trip.
Based on the information above, select for T1 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents with Santa and T2 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents without Santa.
Based on the information above, select for T1 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents with Santa and T2 the number of minimum hours it will take to deliver all 210 presents without Santa.
a)
T1 = 2
T2 = 3
T2 = 3
b)
T1 = 3
T2 = 4
T2 = 4
c)
T1 = 6
T2 = 7
T2 = 7
d)
T1 = 7
T2 = 6
T2 = 6
e)
T1 = 4
T2 = 5
T2 = 5
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The graph shows the number of shipments handled by each of 6 delivery companies over the past 5 years.
Select from each drop-down menu the option that creates the most accurate statement based on the information provided.
Over the past 5 years, the Delivery Company (i)_______ handled exactly 60% more shipments than Delivery Company (ii)________.- a)(i) Company C, (ii) Company B
- b)(i) Company E, (ii) Company A
- c)(i) Company D, (ii) Company B
- d)(i) Company E, (ii) Company C,
- e)(i) Company B, (ii) Company A
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The graph shows the number of shipments handled by each of 6 delivery companies over the past 5 years.
Select from each drop-down menu the option that creates the most accurate statement based on the information provided.
Over the past 5 years, the Delivery Company (i)_______ handled exactly 60% more shipments than Delivery Company (ii)________.
a)
(i) Company C, (ii) Company B
b)
(i) Company E, (ii) Company A
c)
(i) Company D, (ii) Company B
d)
(i) Company E, (ii) Company C,
e)
(i) Company B, (ii) Company A
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The correct answer is Company D handled exactly 60% more shipments than Delivery Company B.
To solve this question, we need to find 2 numbers such that 1.6 * x = y, where x and y are both whole numbers.
When multiplied by 1.6, only muliples of 5 (e.g. 5,10,15, etc.) result in a while number.
Only Company B satisfies this criteria with x =5.
Therefore, y must be 1.6 * 5 = 8.
To solve this question, we need to find 2 numbers such that 1.6 * x = y, where x and y are both whole numbers.
When multiplied by 1.6, only muliples of 5 (e.g. 5,10,15, etc.) result in a while number.
Only Company B satisfies this criteria with x =5.
Therefore, y must be 1.6 * 5 = 8.
The chart shows the breakdown of the world’s population of people age 100 or older. Each portion represents the percentage of those people who live on a particular continent.For each statement, select the option from the drop-down menu that completes the statement as accurately as possible according to the information provided.
1. There are approximately ______ as many people age 100 or older in Asia and Europe combined than in South America.
2. If there are 18,600 people aged 100 or older living in South America, then there are approximately _____ people aged 100 or older living in North America.- a)Blank 1: 4 times, Blank 2: 4,600
- b)Blank 1: 7 times, Blank 2: 36,700
- c)Blank 1: 11 times, Blank 2: 73,300
- d)Blank 1: 5 times Blank 2: 150,100
- e)Blank 1: 6 times Blank 2: 160,100
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The chart shows the breakdown of the world’s population of people age 100 or older. Each portion represents the percentage of those people who live on a particular continent.
For each statement, select the option from the drop-down menu that completes the statement as accurately as possible according to the information provided.
1. There are approximately ______ as many people age 100 or older in Asia and Europe combined than in South America.
2. If there are 18,600 people aged 100 or older living in South America, then there are approximately _____ people aged 100 or older living in North America.
1. There are approximately ______ as many people age 100 or older in Asia and Europe combined than in South America.
2. If there are 18,600 people aged 100 or older living in South America, then there are approximately _____ people aged 100 or older living in North America.
a)
Blank 1: 4 times, Blank 2: 4,600
b)
Blank 1: 7 times, Blank 2: 36,700
c)
Blank 1: 11 times, Blank 2: 73,300
d)
Blank 1: 5 times Blank 2: 150,100
e)
Blank 1: 6 times Blank 2: 160,100
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. There are approximately 11 times as many people age 100 or older in Asia and Europe combined than in South America.
People aged 100 or older in Asia and Europe is 40% + 27.5% ≈ 66
66% = 6.2%x (Where x signifies the total no. of people) ≈11
2. If there are 18,600 people aged 100 or older living in South America, then there are approximately 73300 people aged 100 or older living in North America.
People aged 100 or older in Asia and Europe is 40% + 27.5% ≈ 66
66% = 6.2%x (Where x signifies the total no. of people) ≈11
2. If there are 18,600 people aged 100 or older living in South America, then there are approximately 73300 people aged 100 or older living in North America.
The designers of a video game hired 100 game testers to play the game to determine whether the level of difficulty was appropriate. Each of the 100 testers made at most 25 attempts to complete each of the game's 15 levels (Levels 1–15). When a tester completed a level, he or she then made no further attempts at that level. For each of the levels, the table shows, among the testers who completed the level, the total number of testers whose number of attempts to complete that level fell in various ranges.
For each of the following statistical measures, select Must be 20 or less for every level if, based on the information provided, the measure must be at most 20 for each of the 15 levels. Otherwise, select Could be greater than 20 for one or more.
- a)1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level - b)1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level - c)1. Could be greater than: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level - d)1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The designers of a video game hired 100 game testers to play the game to determine whether the level of difficulty was appropriate. Each of the 100 testers made at most 25 attempts to complete each of the game's 15 levels (Levels 1–15). When a tester completed a level, he or she then made no further attempts at that level. For each of the levels, the table shows, among the testers who completed the level, the total number of testers whose number of attempts to complete that level fell in various ranges.
For each of the following statistical measures, select Must be 20 or less for every level if, based on the information provided, the measure must be at most 20 for each of the 15 levels. Otherwise, select Could be greater than 20 for one or more.
a)
1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
b)
1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
c)
1. Could be greater than: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
d)
1. Could be greater than: Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
2. Must be 20 or less: Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
3. Could be greater than: Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. Mean of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level.
- Check if any of the levels has more number of attempts in 15-20 and 20-25 attempts than the sum of all other columns.
- When you scan the table, the level 14 stands out as there are 3 in 11-15 attempts , 2 in 16-20 attempts and 4 in 21-25 attempts.
- So, the max mean would be when all the testers took the maximum attempt in each case, so 3 took 15 attempts, 2 took 20 attempts and 4 took 25 attempts.
Could be greater than 20.
2. Median of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
- Check if any of the levels has more number of attempts in 20-25 attempts than the sum of all other columns.
- When you scan the table, no level has sum of numbers under 1-5, 6-10, 11-15 and 16-20 attempts less than that under 21-25.
- Thus median will always be 20 or less......Equal to or less than 20
3. Range of the total number of attempts to complete for all testers who completed the level
- If any level has been finished be some tester in 1-5 attempts while there are some more who have finished it in 20-25 attempts, the maximum range could be 25-1 = 24.
- There are many under this case: Level 3, 4, 5, 7, 9-15
Could be greater than 20
Alejandra is designing a game of chance. For one part of the game, a player is to randomly choose 3 marbles, without replacement, from a box containing B blue marbles, R red marbles, and no other marbles. Alejandra correctly determined the positive integers B and R so that the number of possible selections in which 1 blue marble and 2 red marbles are chosen is twice the number of possible selections in which 2 blue marbles and 1 red marble are chosen.
The positive integers B and R that Alejandra determined must be such that B is the number that is __ 1 __ and R is the number that is __ 2 __.
Based on the information provided, select for 1 and for 2 the options that create the most accurate statement. Make only two selections, one in each column.
- a)1:
2: 2B-1 - b)1:
2: B-2 - c)1:
2: R+2 - d)1: 2B-1
2: 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Alejandra is designing a game of chance. For one part of the game, a player is to randomly choose 3 marbles, without replacement, from a box containing B blue marbles, R red marbles, and no other marbles. Alejandra correctly determined the positive integers B and R so that the number of possible selections in which 1 blue marble and 2 red marbles are chosen is twice the number of possible selections in which 2 blue marbles and 1 red marble are chosen.
The positive integers B and R that Alejandra determined must be such that B is the number that is __ 1 __ and R is the number that is __ 2 __.
Based on the information provided, select for 1 and for 2 the options that create the most accurate statement. Make only two selections, one in each column.
The positive integers B and R that Alejandra determined must be such that B is the number that is __ 1 __ and R is the number that is __ 2 __.
Based on the information provided, select for 1 and for 2 the options that create the most accurate statement. Make only two selections, one in each column.
a)
1:
2: 2B-1
2: 2B-1
b)
1:
2: B-2
2: B-2
c)
1:
2: R+2
2: R+2
d)
1: 2B-1
2:
2:
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EduRev GMAT answered |
R−1 = 2B − 2
R = 2B − 1
A rectangle has a Length : Width ratio of 3 : 1. From the table below, select a combination of Perimeter and Area that satisfies such a relationship.
- a)Perimeter: 36
Area: 72 - b)Perimeter: 16
Area: 8 - c)Perimeter: 8
Area: 16 - d)Perimeter: 32
Area: 48 - e)Perimeter: 72
Area: 36
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A rectangle has a Length : Width ratio of 3 : 1. From the table below, select a combination of Perimeter and Area that satisfies such a relationship.
a)
Perimeter: 36
Area: 72
Area: 72
b)
Perimeter: 16
Area: 8
Area: 8
c)
Perimeter: 8
Area: 16
Area: 16
d)
Perimeter: 32
Area: 48
Area: 48
e)
Perimeter: 72
Area: 36
Area: 36
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EduRev GMAT answered |
A rectangle has a Length : Width ratio of 3 : 1. From the table below, select a combination of Perimeter and Area that satisfies such a relationship.
Perimeter of a Rectangle = 2(l+b)
We are given Lenght/Breadth = 3/1; Length(l) = 3* Breadth (b)
Perimeter = 2(4 b) = 8 b
Area = l*b = 3 b2
From the options, Perimeter = 8 (4) = 32; Area = 3 * 16 = 48
Email #1
Email from project manager to financial officer
August 3, 9:43 a.m.
Did all three bids arrive on time last night? We need to minimize delays on construction, so if the contractors have submitted their estimates and our research team has compiled reports on the contractors’ histories, we should make a decision on which firm to hire by the end of the day.Email #2
Email from financial officer in response to the project manager’s August 3, 9:43 a.m. email
August 3, 10:12 a.m.
Appaloosa Construction sent us a bid of $1.35 million. Its bid is the highest of the three, but its track record is spotless; none of the past 10 major projects it has worked on has gone over budget by more than 4 percent. Breton Construction did manage to underbid them—its representative claims that it can do the project for $1.25 million. However, in the past two years, Breton oversaw two different projects that went over budget by a full 25 percent. If our project were to exceed Breton’s estimate by a comparable percentage, we would run out of funds before completion. Finally, Campolina Construction presented a $1.1 million plan, and its track record is as good as Appaloosa’s. Unfortunately, although Appaloosa and Breton can both start tomorrow, Campolina would be unable to begin work until August 25, so we cannot accept Campolina’s low bid.Email #3
Email from project manager in response to the financial officer’s August 3, 10:12 a.m. email
August 3, 10:38 a.m.
Even though Breton’s work could potentially cost less than either of the other two, that savings does not justify the risk of being unable to complete the project. But as far as Campolina is concerned, you’re not considering the actual cost of a delay. It’s true that we are losing money at a constant rate each day we don’t start building. But even after factoring in the losses of waiting until August 25, the estimated cost of working with Campolina still ends up $50,000 below Appaloosa’s bid.Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three emails support the inferences as stated? Choose Yes if the statement can be accurately inferred; otherwise, choose No.
- a)In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No - b)In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No - c)In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No - d)In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: yes - e)In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Email #1
Email from project manager to financial officer
August 3, 9:43 a.m.
Did all three bids arrive on time last night? We need to minimize delays on construction, so if the contractors have submitted their estimates and our research team has compiled reports on the contractors’ histories, we should make a decision on which firm to hire by the end of the day.
Email from project manager to financial officer
August 3, 9:43 a.m.
Did all three bids arrive on time last night? We need to minimize delays on construction, so if the contractors have submitted their estimates and our research team has compiled reports on the contractors’ histories, we should make a decision on which firm to hire by the end of the day.
Email #2
Email from financial officer in response to the project manager’s August 3, 9:43 a.m. email
August 3, 10:12 a.m.
Appaloosa Construction sent us a bid of $1.35 million. Its bid is the highest of the three, but its track record is spotless; none of the past 10 major projects it has worked on has gone over budget by more than 4 percent. Breton Construction did manage to underbid them—its representative claims that it can do the project for $1.25 million. However, in the past two years, Breton oversaw two different projects that went over budget by a full 25 percent. If our project were to exceed Breton’s estimate by a comparable percentage, we would run out of funds before completion. Finally, Campolina Construction presented a $1.1 million plan, and its track record is as good as Appaloosa’s. Unfortunately, although Appaloosa and Breton can both start tomorrow, Campolina would be unable to begin work until August 25, so we cannot accept Campolina’s low bid.
Email from financial officer in response to the project manager’s August 3, 9:43 a.m. email
August 3, 10:12 a.m.
Appaloosa Construction sent us a bid of $1.35 million. Its bid is the highest of the three, but its track record is spotless; none of the past 10 major projects it has worked on has gone over budget by more than 4 percent. Breton Construction did manage to underbid them—its representative claims that it can do the project for $1.25 million. However, in the past two years, Breton oversaw two different projects that went over budget by a full 25 percent. If our project were to exceed Breton’s estimate by a comparable percentage, we would run out of funds before completion. Finally, Campolina Construction presented a $1.1 million plan, and its track record is as good as Appaloosa’s. Unfortunately, although Appaloosa and Breton can both start tomorrow, Campolina would be unable to begin work until August 25, so we cannot accept Campolina’s low bid.
Email #3
Email from project manager in response to the financial officer’s August 3, 10:12 a.m. email
August 3, 10:38 a.m.
Even though Breton’s work could potentially cost less than either of the other two, that savings does not justify the risk of being unable to complete the project. But as far as Campolina is concerned, you’re not considering the actual cost of a delay. It’s true that we are losing money at a constant rate each day we don’t start building. But even after factoring in the losses of waiting until August 25, the estimated cost of working with Campolina still ends up $50,000 below Appaloosa’s bid.
Email from project manager in response to the financial officer’s August 3, 10:12 a.m. email
August 3, 10:38 a.m.
Even though Breton’s work could potentially cost less than either of the other two, that savings does not justify the risk of being unable to complete the project. But as far as Campolina is concerned, you’re not considering the actual cost of a delay. It’s true that we are losing money at a constant rate each day we don’t start building. But even after factoring in the losses of waiting until August 25, the estimated cost of working with Campolina still ends up $50,000 below Appaloosa’s bid.
Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three emails support the inferences as stated? Choose Yes if the statement can be accurately inferred; otherwise, choose No.
a)
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
b)
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
c)
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
d)
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: yes
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: yes
e)
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.: No
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.: No
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EduRev GMAT answered |
- In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction.
Answer: No
Based on the emails, the time contractors would spend on construction is not explicitly mentioned as a key factor in their decision. Therefore, this statement cannot be accurately inferred. - The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project.
Answer: Yes
The emails indicate that there is a disagreement between the project manager and the financial officer about which contractor is the best choice for the project. - The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid.
Answer: No
The emails do not mention the project manager being willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid. Therefore, this statement is not supported by the information.
Hence, the correct options are:
In making their decision, the project manager and the financial officer considered how much time the contractors would spend on construction: No
The project manager and the financial officer disagree about the best choice of contractors for completing the project: Yes
The project manager is willing to wait a few days before deciding on Campolina’s bid: No
Percentage of Professions Requiring Selected Protective Gear, 2015
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)For each of the following statements, select Would help explain if it would, if true, help explain some of the information in the table. Otherwise, select Would not help explain.
- a)Would help explain: Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain: Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain: About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas. - b)Would help explain: Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain: About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
Would not help explain: Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do. - c)Would help explain: Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain: Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain: About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas. - d)Would help explain: About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
Would help explain: Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain: Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Percentage of Professions Requiring Selected Protective Gear, 2015
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)
For each of the following statements, select Would help explain if it would, if true, help explain some of the information in the table. Otherwise, select Would not help explain.
a)
Would help explain:
Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain:
Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain:
About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
b)
Would help explain:
Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain:
About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
Would not help explain:
Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
c)
Would help explain:
Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
Would help explain:
Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain:
About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
d)
Would help explain:
About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas.
Would help explain:
Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do.
Would not help explain:
Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. We see that the percentage of Surgeons and even Paramedics wearing protective gear is higher than the veterinarian across all types of gears. This can be explained by "Humans catch diseases from other humans much more easily than from animals." Hence, the first statement "Would Help Explain" the information in the table.
2. We see that a higher percent of Construction Workers wear earplugs or hearing protection compared to Paramedics. This could be explained by "Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do." Hence, the second statement "Would Help Explain" the information in the table.
3. There is no information in the table that can be explained by "About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas." Hence, the third statement "Would Not Help Explain" the information in the table.
2. We see that a higher percent of Construction Workers wear earplugs or hearing protection compared to Paramedics. This could be explained by "Ambulance sirens are loud, but they don't damage people's hearing as much as power tools do." Hence, the second statement "Would Help Explain" the information in the table.
3. There is no information in the table that can be explained by "About 10% of janitors earn extra pay for cleaning hazardous areas." Hence, the third statement "Would Not Help Explain" the information in the table.
If machine X ran continuously at a uniform rate to fill a production order, at what time did the machine finish filling the order?(1) Machine X had filled 2/3 of the order by 10:00 a.m. and 5/6 of the order by 10:30 a.m.(2) Machine X had filled 1/6 of the order by 8:30 a.m. and 1/3 of the order by 9:00 a.m.
- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If machine X ran continuously at a uniform rate to fill a production order, at what time did the machine finish filling the order?
(1) Machine X had filled 2/3 of the order by 10:00 a.m. and 5/6 of the order by 10:30 a.m.
(2) Machine X had filled 1/6 of the order by 8:30 a.m. and 1/3 of the order by 9:00 a.m.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Statement (1)
- At 10:00 a.m., machine X had completed 2/3 of the order.
- At 10:30 a.m., machine X had completed 5/6 of the order.
From this, we can determine the rate of the machine:
- In 30 minutes, it completed (5/6 - 2/3) = (10/12 - 8/12) = 2/12 = 1/6 of the order.
- This means the machine fills 1/6 of the order every 30 minutes.
- Since 5/6 of the order was completed by 10:30 a.m., the remaining 1/6 will take another 30 minutes, so the order is completed at 11:00 a.m
Sufficient.
Statement (2)
- At 8:30 a.m., machine X had completed 1/6 of the order.
- At 9:00 a.m., machine X had completed 1/3 of the order.
From this, we can determine the rate:
- In 30 minutes, it completed (1/3 - 1/6) = (2/6 - 1/6) = 1/6 of the order.
- Since the machine fills 1/6 of the order every 30 minutes, we can compute the completion time.
Sufficient.
Option D
- At 10:00 a.m., machine X had completed 2/3 of the order.
- At 10:30 a.m., machine X had completed 5/6 of the order.
From this, we can determine the rate of the machine:
- In 30 minutes, it completed (5/6 - 2/3) = (10/12 - 8/12) = 2/12 = 1/6 of the order.
- This means the machine fills 1/6 of the order every 30 minutes.
- Since 5/6 of the order was completed by 10:30 a.m., the remaining 1/6 will take another 30 minutes, so the order is completed at 11:00 a.m
Sufficient.
Statement (2)
- At 8:30 a.m., machine X had completed 1/6 of the order.
- At 9:00 a.m., machine X had completed 1/3 of the order.
From this, we can determine the rate:
- In 30 minutes, it completed (1/3 - 1/6) = (2/6 - 1/6) = 1/6 of the order.
- Since the machine fills 1/6 of the order every 30 minutes, we can compute the completion time.
Sufficient.
Option D
The above table shows, for different cities, the percentage of population of a city which is a regular visitor to different locations in the city. For example: 85% of the people in Atlanta are regular visitors to department stores, and 12% of the people in New York are regular visitors to public parks.
Select Would Explain if the statement explains some of the information in the table. Otherwise, select Would not Explain.
- a)Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain - b)Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain - c)Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain - d)Part 1: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain - e)Part 1: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The above table shows, for different cities, the percentage of population of a city which is a regular visitor to different locations in the city. For example: 85% of the people in Atlanta are regular visitors to department stores, and 12% of the people in New York are regular visitors to public parks.
Select Would Explain if the statement explains some of the information in the table. Otherwise, select Would not Explain.
a)
Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
b)
Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
c)
Part 1: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain
d)
Part 1: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Explain
Part 3: Would Explain
e)
Part 1: Would Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
Part 2: Would Not Explain
Part 3: Would Not Explain
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EduRev GMAT answered |
A. A majority of people living in these cities do not have easy access to a public park.
>>ACCESS – cant not be commented ; maybe these visitors are not interested to go even after having access
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
B. The proportion of residents that live in the proximity of a movie theater is lower in Dallas than that in Boston and Los Angeles.
>>Dallas= 41% ; boston = 50% and LA= 31%
But it is hard to mention the number of residents in total
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
C. The proportion if people who prefer to spend time indoors is greater in Dallas than in Chicago.
>>Dallas indoors= it is not right to explain that 82% in departmental stores are same people or different people moving to theatres, restaurants or public parks
Similarly for Chicago ; no detail infromtion is given
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
>>ACCESS – cant not be commented ; maybe these visitors are not interested to go even after having access
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
B. The proportion of residents that live in the proximity of a movie theater is lower in Dallas than that in Boston and Los Angeles.
>>Dallas= 41% ; boston = 50% and LA= 31%
But it is hard to mention the number of residents in total
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
C. The proportion if people who prefer to spend time indoors is greater in Dallas than in Chicago.
>>Dallas indoors= it is not right to explain that 82% in departmental stores are same people or different people moving to theatres, restaurants or public parks
Similarly for Chicago ; no detail infromtion is given
WOULD NOT EXPLAIN
At a certain factory, the number of first-shift workers is 2/3 the number of second-shift workers. Every day, each second-shift worker can make 4/3 as many light bulbs as each first-shift worker.
In the first column, identify a possible number of total light bulbs made on one day by the two shifts combined; in the second column, identify the corresponding number of total light bulbs that the first-shift workers made on the same day. Make only two selections, one in each column.
- a)Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 36
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 12 - b)Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 3
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6 - c)Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 12
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6 - d)Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 12
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 24
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
At a certain factory, the number of first-shift workers is 2/3 the number of second-shift workers. Every day, each second-shift worker can make 4/3 as many light bulbs as each first-shift worker.
In the first column, identify a possible number of total light bulbs made on one day by the two shifts combined; in the second column, identify the corresponding number of total light bulbs that the first-shift workers made on the same day. Make only two selections, one in each column.
In the first column, identify a possible number of total light bulbs made on one day by the two shifts combined; in the second column, identify the corresponding number of total light bulbs that the first-shift workers made on the same day. Make only two selections, one in each column.
a)
Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 36
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 12
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 12
b)
Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 3
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6
c)
Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 12
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 6
d)
Total Bulbs for Both Shifts: 12
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 24
Total First-Shift Bulbs: 24
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Let number of second shift workers be n
Then number of first shift workers = 2n/3
Let b the number of bulbs made by each worker in the first shift
Then number of bulbs made by each worker in the second shift is 4b/3
Total bulbs made by first shift workers: 2nb/3
Tota bulbs made by second shift workers: 4nb/3
Total bulbs by both: 6nb/3 => 2nb
Now try substituting value of 2nb (first column) to find nb and get 2nb/3 (second column)
If 2nb =3, nb. = 3/2 not possible => eliminate
If 2nb = 6, nb = 3 => 2/3 nb = 2 which is not present => eliminate
If 2nb = 12, nb = 6 => 2/3 nb = 4, again not present => eliminate
If 2nb = 24, nb = 12 => 2/3nb = 8, again not present => eliminate
Therefore only 36 should fit in. Let's check
2nb = 36 => nb = 18 => 2/3nb = 12
Hence Total Bulbs for Both Shifts (Column 1) = 36
Total First-Shift Bulbs (Column 2) = 12
Then number of first shift workers = 2n/3
Let b the number of bulbs made by each worker in the first shift
Then number of bulbs made by each worker in the second shift is 4b/3
Total bulbs made by first shift workers: 2nb/3
Tota bulbs made by second shift workers: 4nb/3
Total bulbs by both: 6nb/3 => 2nb
Now try substituting value of 2nb (first column) to find nb and get 2nb/3 (second column)
If 2nb =3, nb. = 3/2 not possible => eliminate
If 2nb = 6, nb = 3 => 2/3 nb = 2 which is not present => eliminate
If 2nb = 12, nb = 6 => 2/3 nb = 4, again not present => eliminate
If 2nb = 24, nb = 12 => 2/3nb = 8, again not present => eliminate
Therefore only 36 should fit in. Let's check
2nb = 36 => nb = 18 => 2/3nb = 12
Hence Total Bulbs for Both Shifts (Column 1) = 36
Total First-Shift Bulbs (Column 2) = 12
In 2010, there were four used-car dealers in City Z. The graphic shows the monthly sales data for 2010 for two of those dealers as well as the citywide average for used-car dealers for those months.Based on the given information, use the drop-down menus to most accurately complete the following statements.
1. ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive accounted for ____half of all used-car sales in City Z for 2010.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly _____ cars.- a)Less than, 23
- b)Exactly, 52
- c)More than, 46
- d)Less than, 58
- e)Exactly, 46
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In 2010, there were four used-car dealers in City Z. The graphic shows the monthly sales data for 2010 for two of those dealers as well as the citywide average for used-car dealers for those months.
Based on the given information, use the drop-down menus to most accurately complete the following statements.
1. ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive accounted for ____half of all used-car sales in City Z for 2010.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly _____ cars.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly _____ cars.
a)
Less than, 23
b)
Exactly, 52
c)
More than, 46
d)
Less than, 58
e)
Exactly, 46
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive accounted for_______half of all used-car sales in City Z for 2010.
Since the white circles (connected by blue lines) and the filled squares (connected by black lines) in the graph are consistently at or above the empty squares (connected by dotted lines), it follows that both ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive were at or above the citywide average for every single month in 2010. Thus their combined sales must have been greater than the combined sales of the two dealers not included in the graph. Therefore ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive must have accounted for more than half of all used-car sales in City Z in 2010.
The correct answer is more than.
Since the white circles (connected by blue lines) and the filled squares (connected by black lines) in the graph are consistently at or above the empty squares (connected by dotted lines), it follows that both ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive were at or above the citywide average for every single month in 2010. Thus their combined sales must have been greater than the combined sales of the two dealers not included in the graph. Therefore ABC Cars and XYZ Automotive must have accounted for more than half of all used-car sales in City Z in 2010.
The correct answer is more than.
2. In June 2010, the two used-car dealers that are not specified by the graphic sold a total of exactly______________cars.
In June 2010, the citywide average was 26 cars. This means that the four dealers sold a combined 4(26) = 104 cars. Of those 104 cars, ABC Cars sold 30 and XYZ Automotive sold 28. This implies that the other two dealers sold 104 − 30 − 28 = 46 cars.
The correct answer is 46.
In June 2010, the citywide average was 26 cars. This means that the four dealers sold a combined 4(26) = 104 cars. Of those 104 cars, ABC Cars sold 30 and XYZ Automotive sold 28. This implies that the other two dealers sold 104 − 30 − 28 = 46 cars.
The correct answer is 46.
If r and s are positive integers, what is the remainder when r + s is divided by 3?(1) rs is divisible by 9
(2) s is divisible by 3- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
If r and s are positive integers, what is the remainder when r + s is divided by 3?
(1) rs is divisible by 9
(2) s is divisible by 3
(2) s is divisible by 3
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
E should be the option
First of all, if we divide some number by 3, we can have only 3 remainders which are 0,1,2; i.e, either the number is of the form 3k or 3k+1 or 3k+2.
Now we have to find the remainder of r+s and we are provided with 2 statements.
Statement 1: rs is divisible by 9.
r=4 s=9
rs=36
r+s=13 ; remainder 1 when divided by 3
r=4 s=9
rs=36
r+s=13 ; remainder 1 when divided by 3
r=3 s=6 rs=18
r+s = 9; remiander 0 when divided by 3
r+s = 9; remiander 0 when divided by 3
Multiple possibilities. Not sufficient
Statement 2: s is divisible by 3
s=3 r=1
r+s=4; remainder 1 when divided by 3
s=3 r=2
r+s=5; remainder 2 when divided by 3
r+s=5; remainder 2 when divided by 3
Again multiple possibilities. Not sufficient
If both statements are clubbed together:
rs is divisible by 9 and s is of the form 3k
r=3, s=6, rs=18=9*2, r+s=9; remainder 0
rs is divisible by 9 and s is of the form 3k
r=3, s=6, rs=18=9*2, r+s=9; remainder 0
r=4, s=18, rs=72=9*8, r+s=22; remainder 1
So again doesn't give specific answer.
Not sufficient
Not sufficient
So Neither of them individually or together is sufficient.
Hence, option E should be correct
Lyric Poetry
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.Lyric Poets
For each of the following statements about a newly discovered poem that was composed in the choliambic meter, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
- a)No, Yes, No
- b)Yes, No, Yes
- c)Yes, Yes, Yes
- d)No, No, No
- e)Yes, Yes, No
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
Lyric Poetry
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
A team of classicists is examining some newly discovered manuscripts of ancient Greek lyric poetry, keeping in mind the following background information: Lyric poetry is a broad term used to describe the poems that were not epics or drama, and which were composed from roughly the 7th century BCE through the middle of the 5th century BCE.
The content of these poems spanned a wide range. While the Greck epics and tragedies dealt almost exclusively with the myths of Greece’s past, lyric poetry, though at times using a mythic background, kept its focus mostly on the present. Stylistically, lyric poetry had a wide variety, as well. Choral songs, such as eulogies, dithyrambs, dirges, and victory odes, were performed by a chorus and an accompanying instrument, usually on public occasions. Solo songs, also accompanied by an instrument, were typically of a more personal nature, with love as their chief subject. Alcaeus’ poetry provided a partial exception as solo songs go, for he also composed songs about politics as well as hymns to the gods.
Besides choral and solo songs, lyric poetry included elegiac and iambic poems, which may or may not have been performed to music. Elegiac poems are defined by meter, and the elegiac couplet, and were usually political or ethical exhortations. Iambic poems were usually polemics, or monologues of a satirical or salacious nature, often, but not always, composed in the iambic meter. Archilochus used iambics and trochaics for his poetry, whereas Hipponax was unique in his use of the choliambic meter.
Lyric Poets
For each of the following statements about a newly discovered poem that was composed in the choliambic meter, select Yes if it can be reasonably inferred from the given information. Otherwise, select No.
a)
No, Yes, No
b)
Yes, No, Yes
c)
Yes, Yes, Yes
d)
No, No, No
e)
Yes, Yes, No
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Statement 1: Hipponax is mentioned as perhaps the only composer of choliambics, and he was a composer of iambic poetry, which is not love poetry. Thus, this statement can be inferred.
Answer: Yes
Answer: Yes
Statement 2: This statement is inferable: Hipponax lived in the 6th century.
Answer: Yes
Answer: Yes
Statement 3: This statement cannot be inferred. The given information says that iambic poetry may or may not have been performed to music, and since this choliambic poem was probably by Hipponax, who was a composer of iambic poetry, this poem may or may not have been performed to music.
Answer: No
Answer: No
Which year had the total number of workers equal to the total number of workers the factory had in the year 2007?- a)2008
- b)2003
- c)2006
- d)2005
- e)2004
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which year had the total number of workers equal to the total number of workers the factory had in the year 2007?
a)
2008
b)
2003
c)
2006
d)
2005
e)
2004
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Total no. of employee the factory had in 2008 = 505 + 75 + 36 + 130 + 75 = 821.
In 2007 the total no. employees = 500 + 80 + 35 + 132 + 74 = 821. This satisfies the given condition.
In 2007 the total no. employees = 500 + 80 + 35 + 132 + 74 = 821. This satisfies the given condition.
Managing Director Message from the Managing Director of a theater company to the Artistic DirectorI have information about six theaters that could be suitable for our upcoming production. Their capacities range from 142 seats to 199 seats, and their rental rates range from $6000 per week to $12,000 per week. Location ac-counts for much of the difference in prices: Theaters in Center City are pricier than the others. On the other hand, we are likely to sell more tickets in a centrally located theater than in one of the others. Judging by our recent productions, I think that we should be able to achieve 50% of our weckly box office potential (that is, 50% of what we would earn in a weck if we sold all tickets to all performances at the maximum price) in Center City. Otherwise, 40% is a more reasonable expectation.Take a look at the attached table for more details.
For each of the following theaters, select Yes if the managing director believes it is reasonable that each week the theater company will be able to earn more than $13,000 above the weekly rental price at that theater. Otherwise, select No.
- a)The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic No
- b)The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
- c)The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic No
- d)The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
- e)The Lark Yes, The Tulip Yes, The Attic Yes
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Managing Director
Message from the Managing Director of a theater company to the Artistic Director
I have information about six theaters that could be suitable for our upcoming production. Their capacities range from 142 seats to 199 seats, and their rental rates range from $6000 per week to $12,000 per week. Location ac-counts for much of the difference in prices: Theaters in Center City are pricier than the others. On the other hand, we are likely to sell more tickets in a centrally located theater than in one of the others. Judging by our recent productions, I think that we should be able to achieve 50% of our weckly box office potential (that is, 50% of what we would earn in a weck if we sold all tickets to all performances at the maximum price) in Center City. Otherwise, 40% is a more reasonable expectation.
Take a look at the attached table for more details.
For each of the following theaters, select Yes if the managing director believes it is reasonable that each week the theater company will be able to earn more than $13,000 above the weekly rental price at that theater. Otherwise, select No.
a)
The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic No
b)
The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
c)
The Lark Yes, The Tulip No, The Attic No
d)
The Lark No, The Tulip No, The Attic Yes
e)
The Lark Yes, The Tulip Yes, The Attic Yes
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The Lark
Weekly Rental = $6500
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Weekly Rental = $6500
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Amount abover weekly Rental = 18900-6500 = $12400 < $13000 ie. NO
The Tulip
Weekly Rental = $11,000
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Weekly Rental = $11,000
Revenue @40% as it's not at center = $18900
Amount abover weekly Rental = 18900-11000 = $7900 < $13000 ie. NO
The Attic
Weekly Rental = $10,000
Revenue @50% as it's at center = $23,625
Weekly Rental = $10,000
Revenue @50% as it's at center = $23,625
Amount abover weekly Rental = 23625-10000 = $13625 > $13000 ie. YES
ABC Office Supply offers a discount on orders over $500. It applies the discount before calculating sales tax. Its most recent orders were for $1,086 and $693 in goods. After ABC applied the discount and added sales tax, the invoices for the two orders showed final charges of $1,106.50 and $706.08, respectively. Determine the discount rate (as a percentage of the order) and the tax rate (as a percentage of the discounted order).
Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 7.25%- a)Discount rate: 3% Tax rate: 7.25%
- b)Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 8%
- c)Discount rate: 8% Tax rate: 5%
- d)Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 3%
- e)Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 7.25%
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
ABC Office Supply offers a discount on orders over $500. It applies the discount before calculating sales tax. Its most recent orders were for $1,086 and $693 in goods. After ABC applied the discount and added sales tax, the invoices for the two orders showed final charges of $1,106.50 and $706.08, respectively. Determine the discount rate (as a percentage of the order) and the tax rate (as a percentage of the discounted order).
Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 7.25%
a)
Discount rate: 3% Tax rate: 7.25%
b)
Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 8%
c)
Discount rate: 8% Tax rate: 5%
d)
Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 3%
e)
Discount rate: 5% Tax rate: 7.25%
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Both invoices are about 1.9% higher than the price of the goods:
This suggests that the tax rate is higher than the discount rate and that the difference between the rates will be in the neighborhood of 2%. This estimate makes a systematic trial and error possible. Trying a 3% discount and 5% tax comes close but is a bit low. A discount of 5% and a tax rate of 7.25% fits the bill.
This suggests that the tax rate is higher than the discount rate and that the difference between the rates will be in the neighborhood of 2%. This estimate makes a systematic trial and error possible. Trying a 3% discount and 5% tax comes close but is a bit low. A discount of 5% and a tax rate of 7.25% fits the bill.
Chris has the option to order parts from either of two suppliers. Supplier A offers free shipping but prices items an average of 3.5% higher than Supplier B. Supplier B offers the lower prices but will add a shipping charge to all orders. The shipping charge is $7.50 on orders less than $200, $12.50 on orders from $200 to $500, and $15 on orders over $500. Chris finds Supplier A to be more economical for small purchases but wonders if there is an order size for which Supplier B would be cheaper.
Find the smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which an identical order from Supplier B would be cheaper. If an order costs $401.50 from Supplier A, what will the same order cost from Supplier B?
- a)$401.50 , $400.42
- b)$357.14 , $414.00
- c)$357.14 , $400.42
- d)$369.64 , $400.42
- e)$369.64 , $388.00
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Chris has the option to order parts from either of two suppliers. Supplier A offers free shipping but prices items an average of 3.5% higher than Supplier B. Supplier B offers the lower prices but will add a shipping charge to all orders. The shipping charge is $7.50 on orders less than $200, $12.50 on orders from $200 to $500, and $15 on orders over $500. Chris finds Supplier A to be more economical for small purchases but wonders if there is an order size for which Supplier B would be cheaper.
Find the smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which an identical order from Supplier B would be cheaper. If an order costs $401.50 from Supplier A, what will the same order cost from Supplier B?
Find the smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which an identical order from Supplier B would be cheaper. If an order costs $401.50 from Supplier A, what will the same order cost from Supplier B?
a)
$401.50 , $400.42
b)
$357.14 , $414.00
c)
$357.14 , $400.42
d)
$369.64 , $400.42
e)
$369.64 , $388.00
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EduRev GMAT answered |
(A) Smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which Supplier B would be cheaper
All values are in the range excess of $350; so, the shipping cost (Supplier B) will be $12.50
The smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which Supplier B would be cheaper;
implies 3.5 % excess value (in case of Supplier A) = Shipping charge (Supplier )
ie, 3.5 % of item price = $12.50
Item price = $12.50 / 0.0350
= $357.14
Hence, Order value = $357.14 + 12.50
= $369.64
All values are in the range excess of $350; so, the shipping cost (Supplier B) will be $12.50
The smallest value of an order from Supplier A for which Supplier B would be cheaper;
implies 3.5 % excess value (in case of Supplier A) = Shipping charge (Supplier )
ie, 3.5 % of item price = $12.50
Item price = $12.50 / 0.0350
= $357.14
Hence, Order value = $357.14 + 12.50
= $369.64
(B) Supplier B’s charge for a $401.50 order from Supplier A
If Supplier A charges $401.50 for the order; then
Item price = $401.50 / 1.0350 (since, the order cost will be 3.5% excess for Supplier A)
= $387.92
Hence,
Order Cost for Supplier B = $387.92 + $12.50 (ie, Shipping charge)
= $400.42
If Supplier A charges $401.50 for the order; then
Item price = $401.50 / 1.0350 (since, the order cost will be 3.5% excess for Supplier A)
= $387.92
Hence,
Order Cost for Supplier B = $387.92 + $12.50 (ie, Shipping charge)
= $400.42
STOCKS CLASSIFICATIONHoly Faith Broking Company classifies stocks of listed companies on the basis of two parameters.
Stock Valuation Classification
TOP – ‘TOP’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “highest percentage increase in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
BOTTOM - ‘BOTTOM’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “lowest percentage increase or highest percent decrease, as the case may be, in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
Stable Cow - A stock whose TOP is less than 15% and BOTTOM is more than 8%.
Volatile Bull - A stock whose TOP is more than 30% and BOTTOM is less than 10%.
Volatile Bear - A stock whose TOP is less than 10% and BOTTOM is less than -10%.
Profit Generation Capability
Struggler - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit between 1% to 5% of its revenue. (Both inclusive)
Dessert - A stock whose issuing company makes a loss of more than 1% of its revenue.
Rain Maker - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit of more than 10% of its revenue.CHARTS
The two graphs given below are for stocks of companies A, B, C, and D. The first graph shows mean of daily values of “percentage increase or decrease in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period. The second graph represents revenue to expense ratio (data label on the bubble) & revenue for these four companies. Centers of bubbles represent revenue of the company (on Y axis).
Select the company pair below whose combined revenue to combined expense ratio is the least?
- a)AC
- b)CD
- c)BC
- d)AB
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
STOCKS CLASSIFICATION
Holy Faith Broking Company classifies stocks of listed companies on the basis of two parameters.
Stock Valuation Classification
TOP – ‘TOP’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “highest percentage increase in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
BOTTOM - ‘BOTTOM’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “lowest percentage increase or highest percent decrease, as the case may be, in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
Stable Cow - A stock whose TOP is less than 15% and BOTTOM is more than 8%.
Volatile Bull - A stock whose TOP is more than 30% and BOTTOM is less than 10%.
Volatile Bear - A stock whose TOP is less than 10% and BOTTOM is less than -10%.
Profit Generation Capability
Struggler - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit between 1% to 5% of its revenue. (Both inclusive)
Dessert - A stock whose issuing company makes a loss of more than 1% of its revenue.
Rain Maker - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit of more than 10% of its revenue.
Stock Valuation Classification
TOP – ‘TOP’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “highest percentage increase in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
BOTTOM - ‘BOTTOM’ is termed as the mean of daily values of “lowest percentage increase or highest percent decrease, as the case may be, in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period.
Stable Cow - A stock whose TOP is less than 15% and BOTTOM is more than 8%.
Volatile Bull - A stock whose TOP is more than 30% and BOTTOM is less than 10%.
Volatile Bear - A stock whose TOP is less than 10% and BOTTOM is less than -10%.
Profit Generation Capability
Struggler - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit between 1% to 5% of its revenue. (Both inclusive)
Dessert - A stock whose issuing company makes a loss of more than 1% of its revenue.
Rain Maker - A stock whose issuing company makes a profit of more than 10% of its revenue.
CHARTS
The two graphs given below are for stocks of companies A, B, C, and D. The first graph shows mean of daily values of “percentage increase or decrease in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period. The second graph represents revenue to expense ratio (data label on the bubble) & revenue for these four companies. Centers of bubbles represent revenue of the company (on Y axis).
The two graphs given below are for stocks of companies A, B, C, and D. The first graph shows mean of daily values of “percentage increase or decrease in the stock price over last day’s closing price” over a period. The second graph represents revenue to expense ratio (data label on the bubble) & revenue for these four companies. Centers of bubbles represent revenue of the company (on Y axis).
Select the company pair below whose combined revenue to combined expense ratio is the least?
a)
AC
b)
CD
c)
BC
d)
AB
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EduRev GMAT answered |
We should be wary of the fact that the question asks for combined revenue to combined expense ratio. We must not simply add their R/E ratios. From chart 2, we get their respective R/E values.
We need not calculate combined revenue and combined expense for each of the options. Logically, R/E ratios for C and D lie in bottom two, hence their combined revenue, and combined expense will also be least. So the answer is CD. The table below shows that combined revenue to combined expense ratio for CD will be the lowest. It lies between 1~0.9.
We need not calculate combined revenue and combined expense for each of the options. Logically, R/E ratios for C and D lie in bottom two, hence their combined revenue, and combined expense will also be least. So the answer is CD. The table below shows that combined revenue to combined expense ratio for CD will be the lowest. It lies between 1~0.9.
A company that designs websites primarily for minority-owned businesses conducted a survey of minority-owned businesses in the United States that do not currently have a website. The survey was designed to help determine what respondents see as the potential benefits of adding a website. The results of that survey are shown in the table.
For each of the following conclusions, select Supported if it is supported by the information in the table. Otherwise, select Not supported.
- a)Supported, Supported, Not supported
- b)Not supported, Supported, Not supported
- c)Supported, Not supported, Not supported
- d)Not supported, Not supported, Not supported
- e)Supported, Supported, Supported
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A company that designs websites primarily for minority-owned businesses conducted a survey of minority-owned businesses in the United States that do not currently have a website. The survey was designed to help determine what respondents see as the potential benefits of adding a website. The results of that survey are shown in the table.
For each of the following conclusions, select Supported if it is supported by the information in the table. Otherwise, select Not supported.
a)
Supported, Supported, Not supported
b)
Not supported, Supported, Not supported
c)
Supported, Not supported, Not supported
d)
Not supported, Not supported, Not supported
e)
Supported, Supported, Supported
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EduRev GMAT answered |
A majority of the respondents believe adding a website could benefit their businesses.: Supported
Fewer than 25% of the respondents who believe a website could help expand their customer base also believe a website could help them maintain their current market share.: Supported
Only a small proportion of the respondents are concerned that they are losing market share.: Not supported
Fewer than 25% of the respondents who believe a website could help expand their customer base also believe a website could help them maintain their current market share.: Supported
Only a small proportion of the respondents are concerned that they are losing market share.: Not supported
a, b, k, s are different non-zero integers, 2/a + 4/b = k/s and k/s is maximally reduced. Does s = ab?1. a and b are primes
2. a and b have gcd = 1- a)Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not.
- b)Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but Statement 1 alone is not.
- c)Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient.
- d)Each statement alone is sufficient.
- e)Neither statement is sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
a, b, k, s are different non-zero integers, 2/a + 4/b = k/s and k/s is maximally reduced. Does s = ab?
1. a and b are primes
2. a and b have gcd = 1
2. a and b have gcd = 1
a)
Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not.
b)
Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but Statement 1 alone is not.
c)
Both statements together are sufficient, but neither alone is sufficient.
d)
Each statement alone is sufficient.
e)
Neither statement is sufficient.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Since k/s in its simplest form, s must be the denominator in its irreducible form, which is ab/gcd(2b + 4a,ab).
Statement 1: If a and b are primes, their product ab has no common factors with 2a + 4b (except possibly 2, but that won't affect the full fraction’s reducibility). Hence, s = ab.
Statement 2: If gcd (a, b) = 1, the same reasoning applies, as gcd(2b + 4a, ab) will still be 1. Thus, s = ab.
Since each statement alone guarantees the answer, the correct choice is D.
Since each statement alone guarantees the answer, the correct choice is D.
Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three sources support the inference as stated?
- a)Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: No - b)Part 1: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3:Yes - c)Part 1: No
Part 2: Yes
Part 3:No - d)Part 1: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes - e)Part 1: NO
Part 2: NO
Part 3: Yes
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three sources support the inference as stated?
a)
Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: No
b)
Part 1: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3:Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3:Yes
c)
Part 1: No
Part 2: Yes
Part 3:No
Part 2: Yes
Part 3:No
d)
Part 1: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes
e)
Part 1: NO
Part 2: NO
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: NO
Part 3: Yes
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Part 1: The median retail cost of the product line is $20.40.
The median retail cost of product is $34.
Hence, the answer is No.
Part 2: Loyal members who purchase online save more than 50% off the cost of their total purchases and shipping compared to nonmembers.
Let x be the shipping cost.
Let's consider a member and a non member purchase 1 unit of Renew Soap.
Cost for member = 27
Cost for non member = 45 + x
Savings of a member compared to a non member = 18 + x
Translating the question statement: Is (18 + x) more than 50% of (45 + x)
Is (18 + x) > (45 + x)/2
Is (18+x)/(45+x) > 1/2
We can clearly see that the answer is No.
Hence, the final answer is No.
Part 3: The minimum purchase amount within the 6-month introductory period is less than the $50.00 charge issued to accounts that are canceled early.
The minimum amount within the 6 month introductory period = Price of Detox Tea * 6 = 10.2 *6 = $61.2
Hence, the answer is No.
The median retail cost of product is $34.
Hence, the answer is No.
Part 2: Loyal members who purchase online save more than 50% off the cost of their total purchases and shipping compared to nonmembers.
Let x be the shipping cost.
Let's consider a member and a non member purchase 1 unit of Renew Soap.
Cost for member = 27
Cost for non member = 45 + x
Savings of a member compared to a non member = 18 + x
Translating the question statement: Is (18 + x) more than 50% of (45 + x)
Is (18 + x) > (45 + x)/2
Is (18+x)/(45+x) > 1/2
We can clearly see that the answer is No.
Hence, the final answer is No.
Part 3: The minimum purchase amount within the 6-month introductory period is less than the $50.00 charge issued to accounts that are canceled early.
The minimum amount within the 6 month introductory period = Price of Detox Tea * 6 = 10.2 *6 = $61.2
Hence, the answer is No.
Each of three botanists made a hypothesis regarding specimens of a particular plant species: - Botanist 1: Any individual specimen possessing the gene for curly stems has either the gene for long roots or the gene for purple flowers, or both.
- Botanist 2: Any individual specimen possessing the gene for long roots has either the gene for flat leaves or the gene for round seeds, or both.
- Botanist 3: No individual specimen that possesses either the gene for curly stems or the gene for flat leaves or both has the gene for purple flowers.
The discovery of an individual specimen of the plant species in question having the gene for __1__ but NOT the gene for __2__ would show that at least one of the three hypotheses described is incorrect.
Choose for 1 and for 2 the characteristics that would most accurately complete the statement, based on the information given. Make only two selections, one in each column.- a)1- curly stems, 2- long roots
- b)1- flat leaves, 2- long roots
- c)1- purple flowers, 2- curly stems
- d)1- round seeds, 2- curly stems
- e)1- long roots, 2- round seeds
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Each of three botanists made a hypothesis regarding specimens of a particular plant species:
- Botanist 1: Any individual specimen possessing the gene for curly stems has either the gene for long roots or the gene for purple flowers, or both.
- Botanist 2: Any individual specimen possessing the gene for long roots has either the gene for flat leaves or the gene for round seeds, or both.
- Botanist 3: No individual specimen that possesses either the gene for curly stems or the gene for flat leaves or both has the gene for purple flowers.
The discovery of an individual specimen of the plant species in question having the gene for __1__ but NOT the gene for __2__ would show that at least one of the three hypotheses described is incorrect.
Choose for 1 and for 2 the characteristics that would most accurately complete the statement, based on the information given. Make only two selections, one in each column.
Choose for 1 and for 2 the characteristics that would most accurately complete the statement, based on the information given. Make only two selections, one in each column.
a)
1- curly stems, 2- long roots
b)
1- flat leaves, 2- long roots
c)
1- purple flowers, 2- curly stems
d)
1- round seeds, 2- curly stems
e)
1- long roots, 2- round seeds
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EduRev GMAT answered |
curly stems - flat leaves: not against the hypothesis, as curly stem could have round seed, and not necessarily flat leaves → eliminate
curly stems - long roots: correct, as we know curly stem can have either long root or purple flowers or both (according to Botanist 1), but according to Botanist 3, curly stem cannot have purple flower. That leaves us with the only choice: curly stem must have long root. And now, if the curly stems don't even have the long root, then that's a big paradox.
curly stems - purple flowers: not against the hypo - it's actually the idea of Botanist 3. → eliminate
curly stems - round seeds: not against the hypothesis, as curly stem could have flat leaves, and not necessarily round seeds → eliminate
and so on...
For each of six archaeological excavation sites, the table shows whether pottery, jewelry, or statuettes were found at that site.
For each of the following statements about the sites in the table, choose the options if the statement is accurate based on the information provided.
- a)Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found. - b)No - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found. - c)Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found. - d)Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found. - e)No - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
For each of six archaeological excavation sites, the table shows whether pottery, jewelry, or statuettes were found at that site.
For each of the following statements about the sites in the table, choose the options if the statement is accurate based on the information provided.
a)
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
b)
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
c)
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
d)
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
Yes - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Yes - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
e)
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
No - Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
No - Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. Jewelry was found only at sites where statuettes were not found.
Sort the table as per 'Jewelery'.
Check if every site that had yes for Jewelery had a no for statuettes.
A, D and F have a yes for jewelery and each of them has a no for statuettes.
So, YES
Sort the table as per 'Jewelery'.
Check if every site that had yes for Jewelery had a no for statuettes.
A, D and F have a yes for jewelery and each of them has a no for statuettes.
So, YES
2. Jewelry was found only at sites where pottery was also found.
Sort the table as per 'Jewelery' again.
Check if every site that had yes for Jewelery had a yes for pottery.
A, D and F have a yes for jewelery and each of them has a yes for pottery.
So, YES
Does not matter that C has a yes for pottery but a no for jewelery, because we are concerned with only the opposite, that is there should be no site of jewelery where pottery was not found.
Sort the table as per 'Jewelery' again.
Check if every site that had yes for Jewelery had a yes for pottery.
A, D and F have a yes for jewelery and each of them has a yes for pottery.
So, YES
Does not matter that C has a yes for pottery but a no for jewelery, because we are concerned with only the opposite, that is there should be no site of jewelery where pottery was not found.
3. Statuettes were found at each site where pottery was not found.
Sort the table as per 'Pottery'.
Check if every site that had no for pottery had a yes for satuettes.
B and E have a no for pottery and each of them has a yes for satuettes.
So, YES
Does not matter what happens at sites where pottery was found. We are concerned only with sites that did not have pottery, and those are B and E.
Sort the table as per 'Pottery'.
Check if every site that had no for pottery had a yes for satuettes.
B and E have a no for pottery and each of them has a yes for satuettes.
So, YES
Does not matter what happens at sites where pottery was found. We are concerned only with sites that did not have pottery, and those are B and E.
The annual rainfall in a city over the past 50 years is its historical average rainfall (HAR). The graph above shows the annual rainfall in City X over a seven-year period. All figures are rounded to the nearest integer.Is it true that the rounded HAR for City X is 47 mm or greater?
(1) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was greater than the HAR in exactly two of the consecutive years.
(2) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was less than the HAR in exactly four of the years.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
- c)BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The annual rainfall in a city over the past 50 years is its historical average rainfall (HAR). The graph above shows the annual rainfall in City X over a seven-year period. All figures are rounded to the nearest integer.
Is it true that the rounded HAR for City X is 47 mm or greater?
(1) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was greater than the HAR in exactly two of the consecutive years.
(2) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was less than the HAR in exactly four of the years.
(1) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was greater than the HAR in exactly two of the consecutive years.
(2) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was less than the HAR in exactly four of the years.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
c)
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
HAR is over 50 years, while what is given in the graph is rainfall over 7 consecutive years. Based on the graph, we are asked whether HAR is at least 47mm.
(1) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was greater than the HAR in exactly two of the consecutive years.
So we look at the highest rainfall. The question becomes easy as the two highest rainfalls have been in two consecutive years, year 3 and year 4.
This further tells us that the rainfall in year 2, which would otherwise be part of the above mentioned two consecutive years, making two consecutive years as three consecutive years, was not more than the HAR.
Thus, rainfall of 47mm is not more than the HAR or, in other words, HAR is at least 47mm.
Sufficient
(1) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was greater than the HAR in exactly two of the consecutive years.
So we look at the highest rainfall. The question becomes easy as the two highest rainfalls have been in two consecutive years, year 3 and year 4.
This further tells us that the rainfall in year 2, which would otherwise be part of the above mentioned two consecutive years, making two consecutive years as three consecutive years, was not more than the HAR.
Thus, rainfall of 47mm is not more than the HAR or, in other words, HAR is at least 47mm.
Sufficient
(2) In the seven-year period in City X, the annual rainfall was less than the HAR in exactly four of the years.
The four least rainfall have been in year 1, 5, 6 and 7, so HAR is surely more than 35.
The trap comes now: the next higher rainfall shown is 47, and one could mark this too sufficient.
But HAR need not be one of the rainfalls mentioned on graph, so HAR could be anything greater than 35 but less than 47, inclusive.
Insufficient
The four least rainfall have been in year 1, 5, 6 and 7, so HAR is surely more than 35.
The trap comes now: the next higher rainfall shown is 47, and one could mark this too sufficient.
But HAR need not be one of the rainfalls mentioned on graph, so HAR could be anything greater than 35 but less than 47, inclusive.
Insufficient
Answer is (A)
For every dollar of sales charged to a certain bank credit card, a department store must pay $0.003 to the bank that issued the credit card. What percentage of the department store's sales transactions last month were credit card transactions?
(1) The store made 2,000 sales last month.
(2) The store took in a total of $250,000 last month and paid $300 to the bank that issued the credit card.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
- c)BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
Correct answer is option 'E'. Can you explain this answer?
For every dollar of sales charged to a certain bank credit card, a department store must pay $0.003 to the bank that issued the credit card. What percentage of the department store's sales transactions last month were credit card transactions?
(1) The store made 2,000 sales last month.
(2) The store took in a total of $250,000 last month and paid $300 to the bank that issued the credit card.
(1) The store made 2,000 sales last month.
(2) The store took in a total of $250,000 last month and paid $300 to the bank that issued the credit card.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
c)
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
We need Credit card transactions / total transactions:
(1) The store made 2,000 sales last month.
We do not know that total number of credit card transactions:
INSUFF.
(1) The store made 2,000 sales last month.
We do not know that total number of credit card transactions:
INSUFF.
(2) The store took in a total of $250,000 last month and paid $300 to the bank that issued the credit card.
Using this we can calculate the total number of credit card transactions.
However it is not possibe to get the overall total number of transactions:
INSUFF.
1+2
From 1 we know the total number of transactions
From 2 we know the total number dollars that we got using credit card. (300/.003)
However we still did not know the number of credit card transactions.
INSUFF.
Ans E
Using this we can calculate the total number of credit card transactions.
However it is not possibe to get the overall total number of transactions:
INSUFF.
1+2
From 1 we know the total number of transactions
From 2 we know the total number dollars that we got using credit card. (300/.003)
However we still did not know the number of credit card transactions.
INSUFF.
Ans E
The graph shows the percentage of children in particular grade levels that participated in the six afterschool activities offered by a school in 2017. No child was allowed to participate in more than one sport activity (soccer, tennis, track) or more than one non-sport activity (math team, band, debate team) but children were allowed to participate in one activity from each category (sport or non-sport). Every child had to participate in at least one of the six activities.For each of the following, use the drop-down menu to create the most accurate statement on the basis of the chart:
3. Approximately ______ percent of 8th graders in 2017 participated in exactly one of the six after-school activities.
4. In 2017 there ______ in which more students participated in sport activities than non-sport activities.- a)Blank 1: 5
Blank 2: were no grade levels - b)Blank 1: 10
Blank 2: was one grade level - c)Blank 1: 15
Blank 2: were two grade levels - d)Blank 1: 15
Blank 2: were three grade levels - e)Blank 1: 20
Blank 2: were four grade levels
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The graph shows the percentage of children in particular grade levels that participated in the six afterschool activities offered by a school in 2017. No child was allowed to participate in more than one sport activity (soccer, tennis, track) or more than one non-sport activity (math team, band, debate team) but children were allowed to participate in one activity from each category (sport or non-sport). Every child had to participate in at least one of the six activities.
For each of the following, use the drop-down menu to create the most accurate statement on the basis of the chart:
3. Approximately ______ percent of 8th graders in 2017 participated in exactly one of the six after-school activities.
4. In 2017 there ______ in which more students participated in sport activities than non-sport activities.
3. Approximately ______ percent of 8th graders in 2017 participated in exactly one of the six after-school activities.
4. In 2017 there ______ in which more students participated in sport activities than non-sport activities.
a)
Blank 1: 5
Blank 2: were no grade levels
Blank 2: were no grade levels
b)
Blank 1: 10
Blank 2: was one grade level
Blank 2: was one grade level
c)
Blank 1: 15
Blank 2: were two grade levels
Blank 2: were two grade levels
d)
Blank 1: 15
Blank 2: were three grade levels
Blank 2: were three grade levels
e)
Blank 1: 20
Blank 2: were four grade levels
Blank 2: were four grade levels
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EduRev GMAT answered |
- Approximately 15 percent of 8th graders in 2017 participated in exactly one of the six after-school activities:
- From the graph, the percentage of 8th graders participating in one activity is approximately 15%. This corresponds to Blank 1.
- In 2017, there were two grade levels in which more students participated in sport activities than non-sport activities:
- The two grade levels where more students participated in sports activities (soccer, tennis, or track) than non-sport activities (math team, band, or debate team) are the 7th grade and 12th grade. Hence, Blank 2 is "were two grade levels".
The correct answer is Option C:
Blank 1: 15
Blank 2: were two grade levels
Poisoning from ingesting poisonous plants or mushrooms is a common issue, with particular significance in certain regions. For instance, tropical areas often serve as hotspots due to the prevalence of native poisonous plant species, sometimes used intentionally. In temperate regions, such as Europe and parts of North America, mushroom poisoning frequently results from accidental misidentification during foraging or wild cultivation. Certain types of plant or mushroom poisoning have relatively high fatality rates, particularly in cases of delayed treatment. However, these fatality rates vary by region; in some Western countries, the fatality rate for mushroom poisoning is relatively low.
Based on this information, select for Poisoning by mushrooms the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by mushrooms, and select for Poisoning by plants the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by plants. Make only two selections, one for each column.
- a)Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour. - b)Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour. - c)Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef. - d)Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef. - e)Poisoning by mushrooms A person in North America observing from a distance the ritual burning of fungi, including a type of toxic mushroom.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Sicily, who is allergic to mushrooms, requesting mushrooms to be removed from a pizza before eating.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Poisoning from ingesting poisonous plants or mushrooms is a common issue, with particular significance in certain regions. For instance, tropical areas often serve as hotspots due to the prevalence of native poisonous plant species, sometimes used intentionally. In temperate regions, such as Europe and parts of North America, mushroom poisoning frequently results from accidental misidentification during foraging or wild cultivation. Certain types of plant or mushroom poisoning have relatively high fatality rates, particularly in cases of delayed treatment. However, these fatality rates vary by region; in some Western countries, the fatality rate for mushroom poisoning is relatively low.
Based on this information, select for Poisoning by mushrooms the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by mushrooms, and select for Poisoning by plants the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by plants. Make only two selections, one for each column.
Based on this information, select for Poisoning by mushrooms the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by mushrooms, and select for Poisoning by plants the statement that describes the situation in which an individual is most at risk of poisoning by plants. Make only two selections, one for each column.
a)
Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour.
b)
Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour.
c)
Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
d)
Poisoning by mushrooms: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
e)
Poisoning by mushrooms A person in North America observing from a distance the ritual burning of fungi, including a type of toxic mushroom.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Sicily, who is allergic to mushrooms, requesting mushrooms to be removed from a pizza before eating.
Poisoning by Plants: A person in Sicily, who is allergic to mushrooms, requesting mushrooms to be removed from a pizza before eating.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Poisoning by mushrooms
- A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family.
Foraging wild mushrooms poses a high risk of poisoning due to potential misidentification, a common cause of mushroom poisoning in temperate regions.
Poisoning by plants
- A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour.
There is a high risk of poisoning because self-identifying and consuming tree bark, especially in an equatorial forest with potentially unfamiliar plant species, is inherently dangerous.
Analysis of other options
- A person in Eastern Asia eating soup that contains rare and exotic vegetables prepared by an experienced chef.
There is a low risk of poisoning because an experienced chef is unlikely to use toxic ingredients, even in a soup containing rare or exotic vegetables.
- A person in Sicily, who is allergic to mushrooms, requesting mushrooms to be removed from a pizza before eating.
There is no risk of poisoning because mushrooms are avoided entirely, making this irrelevant for both mushroom and plant poisoning.
- A person in North America observing the ritual burning of fungi, including a type of mushroom known to be highly toxic.
There is a low risk of poisoning because observing from a distance minimizes exposure to any potentially harmful fumes, making this largely irrelevant for both mushroom and plant poisoning.
Correct answer:
Poisoning by mushrooms "A person in a rural area of Europe collecting mushrooms from the wilderness and using them to prepare a salad for his family."
Poisoning by Plants "A person in an equatorial forest consuming tree bark he personally identified as possibly having hallucinogenic properties during a self-guided tour."
The 400 students at Watermelon Sugar High School can choose up to 3 electives from the following classes: an art class, a business class, and a computer class. Half of the students chose the art class, half of the students chose the business class, and half of the students chose the computer class.
If 96 of the students have signed up for all three electives, select from the available options the least possible and greatest possible number of students who could have signed up for exactly two of the three electives. Make only two selections, one in each column.
- a)Least: 8
Greatest: 156 - b)Least: 10
Greatest: 200 - c)Least: 12
Greatest: 205 - d)Least: 15
Greatest: 250
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The 400 students at Watermelon Sugar High School can choose up to 3 electives from the following classes: an art class, a business class, and a computer class. Half of the students chose the art class, half of the students chose the business class, and half of the students chose the computer class.
If 96 of the students have signed up for all three electives, select from the available options the least possible and greatest possible number of students who could have signed up for exactly two of the three electives. Make only two selections, one in each column.
If 96 of the students have signed up for all three electives, select from the available options the least possible and greatest possible number of students who could have signed up for exactly two of the three electives. Make only two selections, one in each column.
a)
Least: 8
Greatest: 156
Greatest: 156
b)
Least: 10
Greatest: 200
Greatest: 200
c)
Least: 12
Greatest: 205
Greatest: 205
d)
Least: 15
Greatest: 250
Greatest: 250
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Total = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) - P(A and B) - P(B and C) - P(A and C) - 2*P(A and B and C)
400 = 200 + 200 + 200 - P(A and B) - P(B and C) - P(A and C) - 2 * 96
P(A and B) + P(B and C) + P(A and C) = 8
This is the minimum value required to satisfy the given numbers.
To maximize, all singular selections set should be 0,
P(A) = P(singular A) + P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(A and B and C)
200 = 0 + P(A and B) + P(A and C) + 96
P(A and B) + P(A and C) = 104 --- (1)
similarly,
P(B and C) + P(A and C) = 104 --- (2)
P(A and B) + P(B and C) = 104 --- (3)
From (1), (2) and (3), summing up,
2(P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(B and C)) = 312
P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(B and C) = 156
Hence, least value is 8 and greatest value is 156.
400 = 200 + 200 + 200 - P(A and B) - P(B and C) - P(A and C) - 2 * 96
P(A and B) + P(B and C) + P(A and C) = 8
This is the minimum value required to satisfy the given numbers.
To maximize, all singular selections set should be 0,
P(A) = P(singular A) + P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(A and B and C)
200 = 0 + P(A and B) + P(A and C) + 96
P(A and B) + P(A and C) = 104 --- (1)
similarly,
P(B and C) + P(A and C) = 104 --- (2)
P(A and B) + P(B and C) = 104 --- (3)
From (1), (2) and (3), summing up,
2(P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(B and C)) = 312
P(A and B) + P(A and C) + P(B and C) = 156
Hence, least value is 8 and greatest value is 156.
A gallery displayed and sold works of art by five different artists. The table gives a list of all the pieces that were displayed.
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true based on the information in the table. Otherwise, select No.
- a)No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper. - b)No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%. - c)No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850. - d)No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A gallery displayed and sold works of art by five different artists. The table gives a list of all the pieces that were displayed.
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)
(Sort ↕ the table by clicking on the headers)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true based on the information in the table. Otherwise, select No.
a)
No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
b)
No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
c)
No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
No: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
Yes: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
d)
No: If a piece sold for more than $2000, the probability that it was by Masterson was 33%.
No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
No: The median sale price among the pieces that sold was $1850.
Yes: Works on canvas sold for a higher average price than did works on paper.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Statement 1: Fifteen of the 16 pieces sold. The eighth highest sale price is the median of the set of sale prices. This price is $1800.
Answer: No
Statement 2: The probability that a piece by Masterson sold for more than $2000 is 33%, but that’s not what the question is asking. Five pieces in total sold for more than $2000, and two of them were by Masterson, so the probability is 2 out of 5, or 40%.
Answer: No
Statement 3: This will take some doing, since there’s no neat way to sort the table in order to get all the canvas and paper works grouped neatly together. It is also not easy to eyeball the table and judge whether paper or canvas works had a higher average sale price so you should calculate the actual averages. Sorting by material helps a little. Six pieces were on canvas. Their average sale price was:
Answer: Yes
Answer: No
Statement 2: The probability that a piece by Masterson sold for more than $2000 is 33%, but that’s not what the question is asking. Five pieces in total sold for more than $2000, and two of them were by Masterson, so the probability is 2 out of 5, or 40%.
Answer: No
Statement 3: This will take some doing, since there’s no neat way to sort the table in order to get all the canvas and paper works grouped neatly together. It is also not easy to eyeball the table and judge whether paper or canvas works had a higher average sale price so you should calculate the actual averages. Sorting by material helps a little. Six pieces were on canvas. Their average sale price was:
Answer: Yes
The operation denoted by the symbol # is defined for all real numbers p and r as p#r equals the larger of p and r. For example, 5#3 = 5. Which one of the distinct numbers x, y and z is the largest?
(1) (x#y)#z = x#z
(2) (x#z)#y = z#y- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The operation denoted by the symbol # is defined for all real numbers p and r as p#r equals the larger of p and r. For example, 5#3 = 5. Which one of the distinct numbers x, y and z is the largest?
(1) (x#y)#z = x#z
(2) (x#z)#y = z#y
(1) (x#y)#z = x#z
(2) (x#z)#y = z#y
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question ask
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
(1) When X and Y are together: X turns out to be greater than Y, hence we get to see X#Z on the RHS so X>Y but no information on relation of X and Z - INSUFFICIENT
(2) When X and Z are together: Z turns out to be greater than X, hence we get to see Z#Y on the RHS so Z>X but no information on relation of Z and Y - INSUFFICIENT
Considering both - So X>Y and Z>X hence the relation is Z>X>Y
(2) When X and Z are together: Z turns out to be greater than X, hence we get to see Z#Y on the RHS so Z>X but no information on relation of Z and Y - INSUFFICIENT
Considering both - So X>Y and Z>X hence the relation is Z>X>Y
Multiple Sleep Latency TestThe multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is the most widely used objective assessment procedure for excessive daytime sleepiness. It consists of a series of five nap opportunities given every two hours in a sleep laboratory. The patient lies in a darkened, sound-attenuated room for up to 20 minutes and is instructed to fall asleep. The average latency to sleep onset over all nap opportunities provides an index of sleep propensity.
As a general guideline, only mean sleep latencies shorter than 8 minutes on an MSLT are considered abnormal, and latencies shorter than 5 minutes are taken to indicate severe excessive daytime sleepiness. A patient with a mean sleep latency of 2 minutes or less on an MSLT is unlikely to be exaggerating a complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness, to suffer from fatigue rather than sleepiness, or to be free of any sleep disorder.Patient Data - Ramesh is a 34-year-old man with no major health problems who takes no prescription medicines.
- Sara is a 23-year-old woman with asthma who takes a prescription stimulant daily for treatment.
- Angel is a 72-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who takes a prescription anti-depressant daily.
- John is an 11-year-old child who has been diagnosed with ADD, but does not take any prescription medications.
- Steve is a 54-year-old man with mild heart disease who takes several over-the-counter supplements.
MSLT Results
NOTE: Data given is time until sleep in minutes and seconds. Results may be misleading if they are affected by patient age (different criteria apply for children under 16), noise in the sleep center, patient anxiety during the test, or atypical sleep on the previous night. Use of prescription medications such as stimulants or antidepressants can also lead to misleading results.Based on the information presented, some of the patients have MSLT data that could be misleading and others do not. For the following statements, select Yes if the scenario provided would change that status for any of the five patients. Otherwise select No.
- a)Part 1: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes - b)Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes - c)Part 1: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes - d)Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Multiple Sleep Latency Test
The multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is the most widely used objective assessment procedure for excessive daytime sleepiness. It consists of a series of five nap opportunities given every two hours in a sleep laboratory. The patient lies in a darkened, sound-attenuated room for up to 20 minutes and is instructed to fall asleep. The average latency to sleep onset over all nap opportunities provides an index of sleep propensity.
As a general guideline, only mean sleep latencies shorter than 8 minutes on an MSLT are considered abnormal, and latencies shorter than 5 minutes are taken to indicate severe excessive daytime sleepiness. A patient with a mean sleep latency of 2 minutes or less on an MSLT is unlikely to be exaggerating a complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness, to suffer from fatigue rather than sleepiness, or to be free of any sleep disorder.
As a general guideline, only mean sleep latencies shorter than 8 minutes on an MSLT are considered abnormal, and latencies shorter than 5 minutes are taken to indicate severe excessive daytime sleepiness. A patient with a mean sleep latency of 2 minutes or less on an MSLT is unlikely to be exaggerating a complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness, to suffer from fatigue rather than sleepiness, or to be free of any sleep disorder.
Patient Data
- Ramesh is a 34-year-old man with no major health problems who takes no prescription medicines.
- Sara is a 23-year-old woman with asthma who takes a prescription stimulant daily for treatment.
- Angel is a 72-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who takes a prescription anti-depressant daily.
- John is an 11-year-old child who has been diagnosed with ADD, but does not take any prescription medications.
- Steve is a 54-year-old man with mild heart disease who takes several over-the-counter supplements.
MSLT Results
NOTE: Data given is time until sleep in minutes and seconds. Results may be misleading if they are affected by patient age (different criteria apply for children under 16), noise in the sleep center, patient anxiety during the test, or atypical sleep on the previous night. Use of prescription medications such as stimulants or antidepressants can also lead to misleading results.
Based on the information presented, some of the patients have MSLT data that could be misleading and others do not. For the following statements, select Yes if the scenario provided would change that status for any of the five patients. Otherwise select No.
a)
Part 1: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
b)
Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
c)
Part 1: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: Yes
Part 3: Yes
d)
Part 1: No
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
Part 2: No
Part 3: Yes
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EduRev GMAT answered |
1. [no] There was a major noise disturbance in the sleep center on 6/17/17.
- Sara was tested on that date and she already had misleading data. So, her status of whether she has misleading data does not change (she had misleading data before, and now after the noise she still has misleading data, even if the actual data changes further)
2. [no] None of the patients who had a sleep test after 6/17 suffered from anxiety during the test.
- Steve anyway does not suffer from anxiety. For Angel and John, data was not reliable before either due to other reasons. So, status does not change.
3. [yes] All of the patients less than 50 years of age had atypical sleep the night before the test.
- This will change Ramesh and Steve's data from "not misleading" to "misleading".
- Sara was tested on that date and she already had misleading data. So, her status of whether she has misleading data does not change (she had misleading data before, and now after the noise she still has misleading data, even if the actual data changes further)
2. [no] None of the patients who had a sleep test after 6/17 suffered from anxiety during the test.
- Steve anyway does not suffer from anxiety. For Angel and John, data was not reliable before either due to other reasons. So, status does not change.
3. [yes] All of the patients less than 50 years of age had atypical sleep the night before the test.
- This will change Ramesh and Steve's data from "not misleading" to "misleading".
If the information contained in all three sources is correct, the member price of
an item that retails for $65.00 will be closest to:- a)$26.00
- b)$28.70
- c)$32.40
- d)$39.00
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
If the information contained in all three sources is correct, the member price of
an item that retails for $65.00 will be closest to:
a)
$26.00
b)
$28.70
c)
$32.40
d)
$39.00
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EduRev GMAT answered |
Member Price = 60% of 65 = $39
Hence, the answer is $39.
Hence, the answer is $39.
Throughout a certain decade in a European city, the mean monthly rents for studio apartments varied yearly, from a low of €804 to a high of €1,173. Those for one-bedroom apartments also varied yearly, from a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497. But some individual studio apartments rented for as little as €420 in some years, and some one-bedroom apartments rented for up to €2,262. To visually assess how the ratio of mean monthly rents for studio apartments to those for one-bedroom apartments varied yearly over the decade, Maria requires a graph with the following characteristics. The graph will have two axes of equal length, with mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis and mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis, and with the same scale on both axes. For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
From the following options, select for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and select for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two selections, one in each column.
- a)Horizontal axis - €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis - €800 to €1,200 - b)Horizontal axis - €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500 - c)Horizontal axis - €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500 - d)Horizontal axis - €1,100 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €400 to €1,100 - e)Horizontal axis - €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis - €1,000 to €2,300
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Throughout a certain decade in a European city, the mean monthly rents for studio apartments varied yearly, from a low of €804 to a high of €1,173. Those for one-bedroom apartments also varied yearly, from a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497. But some individual studio apartments rented for as little as €420 in some years, and some one-bedroom apartments rented for up to €2,262. To visually assess how the ratio of mean monthly rents for studio apartments to those for one-bedroom apartments varied yearly over the decade, Maria requires a graph with the following characteristics. The graph will have two axes of equal length, with mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis and mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis, and with the same scale on both axes. For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
From the following options, select for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and select for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two selections, one in each column.
From the following options, select for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and select for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two selections, one in each column.
a)
Horizontal axis - €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis - €800 to €1,200
Vertical axis - €800 to €1,200
b)
Horizontal axis - €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500
c)
Horizontal axis - €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €0 to €1,500
d)
Horizontal axis - €1,100 to €1,500
Vertical axis - €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis - €400 to €1,100
e)
Horizontal axis - €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis - €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis - €1,000 to €2,300
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EduRev GMAT answered |
The graph must have the following characteristics:
- two axes of equal length
- mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis
- mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis
- the same scale on both axes
- For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
The passage provides several values. However, the graph will show only mean rents. So, the only values that matter are the following:
Studio apartments:
a low of €804 to a high of €1,173
a low of €804 to a high of €1,173
One-bedroom apartments:
a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497
a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497
So, the axis for studio apartments must go at least from around 800 to around 1,200, and the axis for one-bedroom aparments must go at least from around 1,000 to around 1500.
- €0 to €1,500
- €400 to €1,100
- €800 to €1,200
- €1,000 to €2,300
- €1,100 to €1,500
One of the characteristics of the graph is that it has two axes of equal length. Scanning the choices, we see that only two are of the same length: €800 to €1,200 and €1,100 to €1,500.
€800 to €1,200 would work for studio apartments since it allows for a low of €804 and a high of €1,173.
However, €1,100 to €1,500 does not work for one-bedroom apartments since it does not allow for the low of €1,060.
So, it must be the case that one of the choices works for both axes since only by using one choice for both can we get axes of equal length and include all the values.
(Also, by the way, if one choice works for both, that choice must be the correct answer since the question cannot be answerable in two ways.)
To have the points for all the values of mean rents, the axes must go at least from a low of around 800 to a high of around 1,500. The only choice that includes both of those values is €0 to €1,500.
So, the correct answer for both Horizontal axis and Vertical axis is €0 to €1,500.
Answer: €0 to €1,500, €0 to €1,500
€800 to €1,200 would work for studio apartments since it allows for a low of €804 and a high of €1,173.
However, €1,100 to €1,500 does not work for one-bedroom apartments since it does not allow for the low of €1,060.
So, it must be the case that one of the choices works for both axes since only by using one choice for both can we get axes of equal length and include all the values.
(Also, by the way, if one choice works for both, that choice must be the correct answer since the question cannot be answerable in two ways.)
To have the points for all the values of mean rents, the axes must go at least from a low of around 800 to a high of around 1,500. The only choice that includes both of those values is €0 to €1,500.
So, the correct answer for both Horizontal axis and Vertical axis is €0 to €1,500.
Answer: €0 to €1,500, €0 to €1,500
Throughout a certain decade in a European city, the mean monthly rents for studio apartments varied yearly, from a low of €804 to a high of €1,173. Those for one-bedroom apartments also varied yearly, from a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497. But some individual studio apartments rented for as little as €420 in some years, and some one-bedroom apartments rented for up to €2,262. To visually assess how the ratio of mean monthly rents for studio apartments to those for one-bedroom apartments varied yearly over the decade, Maria requires a graph with the following characteristics. The graph will have two axes of equal length, with mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis and mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis, and with the same scale on both axes. For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
From the following options, choose for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and choose for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two choose, one in each column.- a)Horizontal axis- €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis- €1,000 to €2,300 - b)Horizontal axis- €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis- €400 to €1,100 - c)Horizontal axis- €800 to €1,200
Vertical axis- €800 to €1,200 - d)Horizontal axis- €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €0 to €1,500 - e)Horizontal axis- €1,100 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €1,100 to €1,500
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Throughout a certain decade in a European city, the mean monthly rents for studio apartments varied yearly, from a low of €804 to a high of €1,173. Those for one-bedroom apartments also varied yearly, from a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497. But some individual studio apartments rented for as little as €420 in some years, and some one-bedroom apartments rented for up to €2,262. To visually assess how the ratio of mean monthly rents for studio apartments to those for one-bedroom apartments varied yearly over the decade, Maria requires a graph with the following characteristics. The graph will have two axes of equal length, with mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis and mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis, and with the same scale on both axes. For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
From the following options, choose for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and choose for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two choose, one in each column.
From the following options, choose for Horizontal axis a range for the points on the horizontal axis and choose for Vertical axis a range for the points on the vertical axis that together would satisfy Maria's requirements for the graph. Make only two choose, one in each column.
a)
Horizontal axis- €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis- €1,000 to €2,300
Vertical axis- €1,000 to €2,300
b)
Horizontal axis- €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis- €400 to €1,100
Vertical axis- €400 to €1,100
c)
Horizontal axis- €800 to €1,200
Vertical axis- €800 to €1,200
Vertical axis- €800 to €1,200
d)
Horizontal axis- €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €0 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €0 to €1,500
e)
Horizontal axis- €1,100 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €1,100 to €1,500
Vertical axis- €1,100 to €1,500
|
|
EduRev GMAT answered |
The graph must have the following characteristics:
- two axes of equal length
- mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis
- mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis
- the same scale on both axes
- For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
The passage provides several values. However, the graph will show only mean rents. So, the only values that matter are the following:
Studio apartments:
a low of €804 to a high of €1,173
One-bedroom apartments:
a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497
- two axes of equal length
- mean rents for one-bedroom apartments shown on the horizontal axis
- mean rents for studio apartments shown on the vertical axis
- the same scale on both axes
- For each year, mean rents will be plotted as a point.
The passage provides several values. However, the graph will show only mean rents. So, the only values that matter are the following:
Studio apartments:
a low of €804 to a high of €1,173
One-bedroom apartments:
a low of €1,060 to a high of €1,497
So, the axis for studio apartments must go at least from around 800 to around 1,200, and the axis for one-bedroom apartments must go at least from around 1,000 to around 1500.
€0 to €1,500
€400 to €1,100
€800 to €1,200
€1,000 to €2,300
€1,100 to €1,500
€0 to €1,500
€400 to €1,100
€800 to €1,200
€1,000 to €2,300
€1,100 to €1,500
One of the characteristics of the graph is that it has two axes of equal length. Scanning the choices, we see that only two are of the same length: €800 to €1,200 and €1,100 to €1,500.
€800 to €1,200 would work for studio apartments since it allows for a low of €804 and a high of €1,173.
However, €1,100 to €1,500 does not work for one-bedroom apartments since it does not allow for the low of €1,060.
So, it must be the case that one of the choices works for both axes since only by using one choice for both can we get axes of equal length and include all the values.
(Also, by the way, if one choice works for both, that choice must be the correct answer since the question cannot be answerable in two ways.)
To have the points for all the values of mean rents, the axes must go at least from a low of around 800 to a high of around 1,500. The only choice that includes both of those values is €0 to €1,500.
So, the correct answer for both Horizontal axis and Vertical axis is €0 to €1,500.
Answer: €0 to €1,500, €0 to €1,500
€800 to €1,200 would work for studio apartments since it allows for a low of €804 and a high of €1,173.
However, €1,100 to €1,500 does not work for one-bedroom apartments since it does not allow for the low of €1,060.
So, it must be the case that one of the choices works for both axes since only by using one choice for both can we get axes of equal length and include all the values.
(Also, by the way, if one choice works for both, that choice must be the correct answer since the question cannot be answerable in two ways.)
To have the points for all the values of mean rents, the axes must go at least from a low of around 800 to a high of around 1,500. The only choice that includes both of those values is €0 to €1,500.
So, the correct answer for both Horizontal axis and Vertical axis is €0 to €1,500.
Answer: €0 to €1,500, €0 to €1,500
In a spelling competition, competitors were required to spell 108 different words. How many of these words contained the letter T but did not contain the letter U?(1) Every word that contained the letter Q also contained the letter U, and every word that did not contain the letter Q did contain the letter T.
(2) 1/3 of the words contained the letter U.- a)Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- b)Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
- c)BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- d)EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
- e)Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In a spelling competition, competitors were required to spell 108 different words. How many of these words contained the letter T but did not contain the letter U?
(1) Every word that contained the letter Q also contained the letter U, and every word that did not contain the letter Q did contain the letter T.
(2) 1/3 of the words contained the letter U.
(2) 1/3 of the words contained the letter U.
a)
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
b)
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
c)
BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
d)
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
e)
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.
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EduRev GMAT answered |
(1) Every word that contained the letter Q also contained the letter U, and every word that did not contain the letter Q did contain the letter T.
If we only knew the number of words with the letter Q we could answer the question. But we don't.
INSUFF.
INSUFF.
(2) 1/3 of the words contained the letter U.
Thus 2/3 of 108 or 73 words did not contain U. But we know nothing of T.
INSUFF.
Thus 2/3 of 108 or 73 words did not contain U. But we know nothing of T.
INSUFF.
Combined (1 + 2)
Total words = words with Q + words without Q
Words with Q = Words with U = 36 ...from statement (2)
Words without Q and U = 108 -36 = 72 → Contained T
SUFF.
Total words = words with Q + words without Q
Words with Q = Words with U = 36 ...from statement (2)
Words without Q and U = 108 -36 = 72 → Contained T
SUFF.
Correct Answer: C
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