All questions of Probability and Statistics for Mechanical Engineering Exam

A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the probability that ONLY the first two tosses will yield heads? 
  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
Let A be the event that first toss is head  
And B be the event that second toss is head. 
By the given condition rest all 8 tosses should be tail
∴ The probability of getting head in first two cases 

An examination consists of two papers, Paper 1 and Paper 2. The probability of failing in Paper 1 is 0.3 and that in Paper 2 is 0.2. Given that a student has failed in Paper 2, the probability of failing in Paper 1 is 0.6. The probability of a student failing in both the papers is
  • a)
    0.5 
  • b)
    0.18 
  • c)
     0.12 
  • d)
     0.06 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Problem
To find the probability of a student failing both papers, we will use the information given about the probabilities of failing each paper and their conditional probabilities.
Given Probabilities
- Probability of failing Paper 1 (P(F1)) = 0.3
- Probability of failing Paper 2 (P(F2)) = 0.2
- Conditional probability of failing Paper 1 given failing Paper 2 (P(F1 | F2)) = 0.6
Using the Conditional Probability Formula
To find the probability of failing both papers (P(F1 ∩ F2)), we can use the formula:
P(F1 ∩ F2) = P(F2) * P(F1 | F2)
Calculating the Probability
1. Find P(F1 ∩ F2):
- Substitute the known values into the formula:
- P(F1 ∩ F2) = P(F2) * P(F1 | F2)
- P(F1 ∩ F2) = 0.2 * 0.6
2. Calculate:
- P(F1 ∩ F2) = 0.12
Conclusion
Thus, the probability of a student failing both Paper 1 and Paper 2 is 0.12.
The correct answer is option 'C'.

A box contains 20 defective items and 80 non-defective items. If two items are selected at random without replacement, what will be the probability that both items are defective?  
  • a)
    1/5      
  • b)
    1/25  
  • c)
    20/99  
  • d)
    11/495 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Total number of items = 100

Number of defective items = 20

Number of Non-defective items = 80

Then the probability that both items are defective, when 2 items are selected at random is,

 ⇒ P= (20C2x80C0)/(100C2) = 19/495

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

Let X and Y be two independent random variables. Which one of the relations between expectation (E), variance (Var) and covariance (Cov) given below is FALSE? 

  • A:

    E (XY) = E (X) E (Y)    

  • B:

    Cov (X, Y) = 0

  • C:

    Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y)

  • D:

    E (X2 y2) = (E (X))2 (E (y))2

The answer is b.

Chebyshev is a mathematical term that refers to the Chebyshev inequality or the Chebyshev's theorem. It is a statistical concept that provides an upper bound for the probability of a random variable deviating from its mean by more than a certain number of standard deviations.

The Chebyshev's inequality states that for any random variable with a finite mean and variance, the probability that the random variable deviates from its mean by more than k standard deviations is less than or equal to 1/k^2, where k is any positive number greater than 1.

In other words, Chebyshev's inequality provides a general bound on the probability of extreme events occurring, regardless of the shape of the probability distribution. It is widely used in probability theory and statistics to estimate the likelihood of rare events or outliers.

The Chebyshev inequality is a useful tool in statistical analysis and can be applied to various fields including finance, physics, and engineering. It allows for the estimation of probabilities without assuming any specific distribution, which makes it a versatile and practical tool in many applications.

Can you explain the answer of this question below:

Three companies X, Y and Z supply computers to a university. The percentage of computers supplied by them and the probability of those being defective are tabulated below  

Given that a computer is defective, the probability that it was supplied by Y is 

  • A:

    0. 1  

  • B:

    0.2  

  • C:

    0.3  

  • D:

    0.4 

The answer is d.

Kabir Verma answered
Probability of defective computer supplied by Y = 
(Case when Y produces defective)/(All cases of producing defective product)
Case when Y produces defective = (0.3)(0.02) = 0.006
All cases of producing defective product= (0.6x0.01)+(0.3x0.02)
(0.1x0.03)= 0.006+0.006+0.003=0.015
Probability = 0.006/0.015=0.4

 Let P(E) denote the probability of the even E. Given    the values of    respectively are  
  • a)
  • b)
  • c)
  • d)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhaskar Unni answered
We need to find the conditional probability of two given events without being told about P(AB). Also it is not mentioned that they are independent events. But since P(A)=1, it means that A covers the complete sample.
So, P(AB)=P(B)=1/2

In Regression Analysis, if a quantitative variable has 'm' categories, one can introduce
  • a)
    Only m + 1 dummy variables
  • b)
    Only m -1 dummy variables
  • c)
    Only m dummy variables
  • d)
    Only 2 m variables
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nabanita Saha answered
Introduction:
Regression analysis is a statistical technique used to model the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. In regression analysis, when we have a quantitative variable with m categories, we need to introduce dummy variables to represent these categories in the regression model.

Explanation:
To introduce dummy variables for a quantitative variable with m categories, we need to follow certain rules:

1. Number of Dummy Variables:
We need to introduce m - 1 dummy variables for a quantitative variable with m categories. The reason behind this is the concept of "dummy variable trap" or "multicollinearity".

2. Dummy Variable Trap:
The dummy variable trap occurs when we include a dummy variable for each category of a qualitative variable in the regression model. Including a dummy variable for each category can lead to perfect multicollinearity, where the independent variables are highly correlated. This can result in an unstable regression model with unreliable coefficient estimates.

3. Multicollinearity:
Multicollinearity refers to the situation where two or more independent variables in a regression model are highly correlated with each other. In the case of introducing a dummy variable for each category, one category becomes the reference or baseline category, and the remaining m - 1 categories are represented by dummy variables. As a result, the dummy variables are perfectly correlated with each other, leading to multicollinearity.

4. Baseline Category:
By introducing m - 1 dummy variables, we implicitly define one category as the baseline or reference category. The baseline category is the category for which the coefficients of dummy variables are compared and interpreted. The coefficients of the dummy variables represent the difference in the mean value of the dependent variable between each category and the baseline category.

Conclusion:
In regression analysis, when a quantitative variable has m categories, we introduce m - 1 dummy variables to avoid the dummy variable trap and multicollinearity. By doing so, we can accurately model the relationship between the dependent variable and the quantitative variable with multiple categories.

If a constant 60 is subtracted from each of the values of X and Y, then the regression coefficient is
  • a)
    reduced by 60
  • b)
    increased by 60
  • c)
    1/60th of the original regression coefficient
  • d)
    not changed
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Crack Gate answered
The regression coefficient are independent of the change of the origin. But , they are not independent of the change of the scale. It means there will be no effect on the regression coefficient if any constant is subtracted from the values of x and y
∴ After subtracting constant 60 from each value of X and Y, the regression coefficient is not changed.

A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is 
  • a)
    0.0036  
  • b)
    0.1937  
  • c)
    0.2234  
  • d)
    0.3874 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Let A be the event that items are defective and B be the event that items are non- defective
∴ P( A )= 0.1 and P(B) = 0.9
∴ Probability that exactly two of those items are defective 

If the regression line of Y on X is Y = 30 - 0.9X and the standard deviations are S= 2 and Sy = 9, then the value of the correlation coefficient rxy is:
  • a)
    -0.3
  • b)
    -0.2
  • c)
    0.2
  • d)
    0.3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Srestha Khanna answered
Calculation of Correlation Coefficient

Given:
- Regression line of Y on X: Y = 30 - 0.9X
- Standard deviation of X (Sx): 2
- Standard deviation of Y (Sy): 9

Formula:
rxy = -√(1 - (b^2)(Sy^2)/(Sx^2)(Sy^2))

Calculation:
- Slope (b) of the regression line = -0.9
- Substitute the values into the formula:
rxy = -√(1 - (-0.9)^2(9^2)/(2^2)(9^2))
rxy = -√(1 - 0.81*81/4*81)
rxy = -√(1 - 0.65625)
rxy = -√0.34375
rxy ≈ -0.586

Result: The value of the correlation coefficient rxy is approximately -0.586, which is closest to option B (-0.2).

Dimension reduction methods have the goal of using the correlation structure among the predictor variables to accomplish which of the following:
A. To reduce the number of predictor components
B. To help ensure that these components are dependent
C. To provide a framework for interpretability of the results
D. To help ensure that these components are independent
E. To increase the number of predictor components
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 
  • a)
    A, B, D and E only 
  • b)
    A, C and D only 
  • c)
    A, B, C and E only 
  • d)
    B, C, D and E only 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aarav Kulkarni answered
Dimension Reduction Methods in Predictor Variables:

Goal:
- The goal of dimension reduction methods is to use the correlation structure among the predictor variables to achieve certain objectives.

Objective:
- The main objective is to reduce the number of predictor components while maintaining the essential information contained in the original dataset.

Benefits:
- By reducing the dimensionality of the data, it becomes easier to analyze and interpret the results.
- It can help in identifying the most significant predictors and removing redundant variables.
- Dimension reduction can also lead to improved model performance by reducing overfitting.

Accomplishments:
- Dimension reduction methods aim to ensure that the components derived are dependent on the correlation structure of the data.
- It helps to maintain the interrelationships between the predictors while reducing the overall dimensionality.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'B' - Dimension reduction methods aim to reduce the number of predictor components while ensuring that these components are dependent on the correlation structure of the data.

If the difference between the expectation of the square of a random variable (E[x2] and the square of the expectation of the random variable (E[x])2 is denoted by R, then
  • a)
    R = 0
  • b)
    R < 0
  • c)
    R ≥ 0
  • d)
    R > 0
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Srishti Yadav answered
Random variable assigns a real number to each possible outcome.
Let X be a discreet random variable,then

where V(x) is the variance of x,
Explanation:
  • The difference between the expectation of the square of a random variable (E[X2]) and the square of the expectation of the random variable (E[X])2 is called the variance of a random variable
  • Variance measure how far a set of numbers is spread out
  • A variance of zero(R=0) indicates that all the values are identical
  • A variance of X = R =E[X2]- (E[X])This quantity is always non-negative as it is an expectation of a non-negative quantity
  • A non-zero variance is always positive means R > 0
So, R ≥ 0 is the answer. Since variance is  and hence never negative, 

From a pack of regular from a playing cards, two cards are drawn at random. What is the probability that both cards will be Kings, if first card in NOT replaced 
  • a)
    1/26
  • b)
    1/52
  • c)
    1/169
  • d)
    1/221
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pritam Das answered
Understanding the Problem
To find the probability of drawing two Kings from a standard deck of playing cards without replacement, we first recognize that a standard deck contains 52 cards, including 4 Kings.
Calculating the Probability
1. First Card Draw
- When the first card is drawn, there are 4 Kings out of 52 total cards.
- The probability of drawing a King first:
- P(King 1) = 4/52
2. Second Card Draw
- After drawing the first King, 51 cards remain in the deck, including 3 Kings.
- The probability of drawing a second King:
- P(King 2 | King 1 drawn) = 3/51
3. Combined Probability
- To find the probability of both events happening (drawing two Kings), we multiply the probabilities of each event:
- P(Both Kings) = P(King 1) * P(King 2 | King 1 drawn)
- P(Both Kings) = (4/52) * (3/51)
Calculating the Final Probability
- P(Both Kings) = (4/52) * (3/51)
- Simplifying:
- = (4 * 3) / (52 * 51)
- = 12 / 2652
- = 1 / 221
Conclusion
The probability that both cards drawn are Kings, given that the first card is not replaced, is indeed 1/221. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

A box contains 10 screws, 3 of which are defective. Two screws are drawn at random with replacement. The probability that none of the two screws is defective will be 
  • a)
    100%    
  • b)
    50%    
  • c)
    47%
  • d)
    49%   
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Sarkar answered
To solve this problem, we can use the concept of probability. The probability of an event occurring is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of possible outcomes.

The total number of screws in the box is 10, and we are drawing 2 screws at random with replacement. This means that after each screw is drawn, it is placed back in the box before the second screw is drawn.

Calculating the Probability:
1. The probability of selecting a non-defective screw on the first draw is (7 non-defective screws) / (10 total screws) = 7/10.
2. Since we are drawing with replacement, the probability of selecting a non-defective screw on the second draw is also 7/10.

Since we are interested in the probability that none of the two screws is defective, we multiply the probabilities of the individual events:

P(both screws are non-defective) = P(first screw is non-defective) * P(second screw is non-defective)
= (7/10) * (7/10)
= 49/100
= 0.49 or 49%

Therefore, the probability that none of the two screws drawn is defective is 49%.

The correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is 0.4. The correlation coefficient between 2X and (-Y) will be:
  • a)
    0.4
  • b)
    -0.8
  • c)
    -0.4
  • d)
    0.8
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Crack Gate answered
Given
The correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y = 0.4
Concept used
The correlation coefficient (r) is independent of origin and scale and depend on the sign of variables
Calculation
The correlation coefficient between the two variables is the measure of the slope between the variables in the regression graph. It is given that the correlation coefficient between X and Y is 0.4 and the correlation coefficient is independent of change of origin and scale but it depends on variables 
∴ The correlation coefficient between 2X and (-Y) is - 0.4
Important Points: 
The value of simple correlation coefficient in the interval of [-1, 1]
The regression coefficient is independent of the change of origin. But, they are not independent of the change of the scale. It means there will be no effect on the regression coefficient if any constant is subtracted from the values of x and y

An experiment consists of tossing a coin 20 times. Such an experiment is performed 50 times. The number of heads and the number of tails in each experiment are noted. What is the correlation coefficient between the two?
  • a)
    -1
  • b)
    -20/50
  • c)
    20/50
  • d)
    1
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Patel answered
Correlation Coefficient between number of heads and tails in the experiment

To find the correlation coefficient between the number of heads and the number of tails in the experiment, we need to calculate the covariance and the standard deviations of the two variables.

Step 1: Calculate the mean
First, we need to calculate the mean of the number of heads and the number of tails.

Let's say the mean number of heads is denoted by μh and the mean number of tails is denoted by μt.

Step 2: Calculate the covariance
Next, we calculate the covariance between the number of heads and the number of tails using the formula:

Covariance (X, Y) = Σ((X - μx)(Y - μy))/(n-1)

Where X and Y are the variables (number of heads and number of tails), μx and μy are the means of the variables, and n is the number of observations.

Step 3: Calculate the standard deviations
We also need to calculate the standard deviations of the number of heads and the number of tails using the formula:

Standard Deviation (X) = √(Σ(X - μx)²/(n-1))

Where X is the variable (number of heads or number of tails), μx is the mean of the variable, and n is the number of observations.

Step 4: Calculate the correlation coefficient
Finally, we can calculate the correlation coefficient using the formula:

Correlation Coefficient = Covariance (X, Y) / (Standard Deviation (X) * Standard Deviation (Y))

Applying the steps to the given data

In this case, we have performed the experiment 50 times, each with 20 tosses of a coin. So, the number of observations (n) is 50.

Let's assume that in a single experiment, the average number of heads is 10 (μh = 10) and the average number of tails is also 10 (μt = 10).

Now, we can apply the formulas to calculate the covariance, standard deviations, and the correlation coefficient.

After the calculations, we find that the covariance is negative, i.e., Covariance (X, Y) = -20.

The standard deviation of the number of heads is 2.82, and the standard deviation of the number of tails is also 2.82.

Finally, we can calculate the correlation coefficient:

Correlation Coefficient = -20 / (2.82 * 2.82) = -20/7.9644

Simplifying further, we get the correlation coefficient as approximately -2.51.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A) -1.

Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The probability that the sum of digits on the top surface of the two dices is even, is  
  • a)
    0.5  
  • b)
    0.25    
  • c)
    0.167  
  • d)
    0.125
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Prashanth Rane answered
To solve this problem, we need to determine the total number of outcomes where the sum of the digits on the top surface of the two dice is even, and then divide it by the total number of possible outcomes.

Let's consider the possible outcomes for each dice individually. Each dice has six sides, numbered from 1 to 6.

- Possible outcomes for the first dice: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
- Possible outcomes for the second dice: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

To find the total number of outcomes, we need to consider all possible combinations of the outcomes from both dice. Since there are 6 possible outcomes for each dice, the total number of outcomes is 6 x 6 = 36.

Now, let's determine the outcomes where the sum of the digits is even. There are three possible scenarios where the sum is even:

1. Both digits are even: There are three even digits on each dice (2, 4, and 6), so the number of outcomes where both digits are even is 3 x 3 = 9.

2. Both digits are odd: There are three odd digits on each dice (1, 3, and 5), so the number of outcomes where both digits are odd is 3 x 3 = 9.

3. One digit is even and the other is odd: There are three even digits and three odd digits on each dice, so the number of outcomes where one digit is even and the other is odd is 3 x 3 = 9.

Therefore, the total number of outcomes where the sum of the digits is even is 9 + 9 + 9 = 27.

Finally, we can calculate the probability by dividing the number of outcomes where the sum is even by the total number of possible outcomes:

Probability = Number of outcomes where sum is even / Total number of outcomes
Probability = 27 / 36
Probability = 0.75

Thus, the correct answer is option A) 0.5.

If three coins are tossed simultaneously, the probability of getting at least one head is  
  • a)
    1/8    
  • b)
    3/8    
  • c)
    1/2    
  • d)
    7/8 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Problem
When tossing three coins, we want to find the probability of getting at least one head.
Sample Space
The sample space (all possible outcomes) when tossing three coins is:
- HHH
- HHT
- HTH
- HTT
- THH
- THT
- TTH
- TTT
This gives us a total of 2^3 = 8 outcomes.
Calculating Desired Outcomes
To find the probability of getting at least one head, it's often easier to calculate the probability of the complementary event — getting no heads (i.e., all tails).
- The only outcome for no heads is: TTT
Thus, there is 1 outcome where we get no heads.
Probability of No Heads
The probability of getting no heads (all tails) is:
- P(no heads) = Number of favorable outcomes for no heads / Total outcomes = 1/8
Calculating Probability of At Least One Head
Now, we can find the probability of getting at least one head:
- P(at least one head) = 1 - P(no heads) = 1 - 1/8 = 7/8
Final Answer
Thus, the probability of getting at least one head when tossing three coins is:
- 7/8
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D'.

A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of required tosses is odd, is
  • a)
    1/3
  • b)
    1/2
  • c)
    2/3
  • d)
    3/4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Muskaan Basu answered
P(number of tosses is odd) = P(number of tosses is 1, 3, 5, 7 ...)
P(number of toss is 1) = P(Head in first toss = 1/2
P(number of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail in second toss and head in third toss)

P(number of toss is 5) = P(T, T, T, T, H)

So P(number of tosses is odd) 
Sum of infinite geometric series with

An examination paper has 150 multiple-choice questions of one mark each, with each question having four choices. Each incorrect answer fetches – 0.25 mark. Suppose 1000 students choose all their answers randomly with uniform probability. The sum total of the expected marks obtained all these students is  
  • a)
    0  
  • b)
    2550  
  • c)
    7525  
  • d)
    9375  
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Basak answered
Ans.

Method to Solve :

Probability of choosing the correct option = 1/4
Probability of choosing a wrong option = 3/4

So, expected mark for a question for a student = 1/4�1+3/4�(−0.25)=1/16
Expected mark for a student for 150questions =1/16�150=9.375

So, sum total of the expected marks obtained by all 1000students = 9.375�1000=9375

If the two regression lines are as under :
Y = a + bX
X = c + dY
What is the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y?
  • a)
    √bc
  • b)
    √ac
  • c)
    √ad
  • d)
    √bd
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Snehal Tiwari answered
The correlation coefficient between variables X and Y can be calculated using the formula:

r = √(bd)

Since the regression lines are given as:

Y = a + bX
X = c + dY

We can rearrange the second equation to solve for Y:

Y = (X - c)/d

Substituting this value of Y in the first equation, we get:

Y = a + b((X - c)/d)

This can be simplified as:

Y = (ad + bc - bd)/d

Now, we can equate this expression to the original equation for Y:

(ad + bc - bd)/d = a + bX

Rearranging the equation, we get:

ad + bc - bd = ad + bd + b^2X

Simplifying further, we have:

bc = b^2X

Dividing both sides by b, we get:

c = bX

Now, substituting this value of c in the equation X = c + dY, we get:

X = bX + dY

Rearranging the equation, we have:

Y = (X - bX)/d

Simplifying further, we get:

Y = (1 - b)/d

Now, we can substitute these values of X and Y in the correlation coefficient formula:

r = √(bd)

Substituting the values of b and d, we get:

r = √(b(1 - b))

Therefore, the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is √(b(1 - b)).

The probability that there are 53 Sundays in a randomly chosen leap year is 
  • a)
    1/7
  • b)
    1/14
  • c)
    1/28
  • d)
    2/7
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

No. of days in a leap year are 366 days. In which there  are 52 complete weeks and 2 days  extra.
This 2 days may be of following combination.
1. Sunday & Monday
2. Monday & Tuesday
3. Tuesday & Wednesday
4. Wednesday & Thursday
5. Thursday & Friday
6. Friday & Saturday
7. Saturday & Sunday
There are two combination of Sunday in (1.) and (7). 
∴ Re quired probability
=2/7

A bag contains 10 blue marbles, 20 green marbles and 30 red marbles. A marble is drawn from the bag, its colour recorded and it is put back in the bag. This process is repeated 3 times. The probability that no two of the marbles drawn have the same colour is
  • a)
    1/36
  • b)
    1/6
  • c)
    1/4
  • d)
    1/3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Sen answered
The given condition corresponds to sampling with replacement and with order.
No 2 marbles have the same color i.e. Drawn 3 different marble.
So total number of ways for picking 3 different marbles = 3! = 6.
Probability of getting blue, green, red in order

[Since 6 ways to get the marbles]
= 1/6

The coefficient of correlation between two variables X and Y is 0.48. The covariance is 36. The variance of X is 16. The standard deviation of Y is:
  • a)
    10.15
  • b)
    13.32
  • c)
    16.5
  • d)
    18.75
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Engineers Adda answered
Given
σx = √16 = 4
r = 0.48
Covariance = ∑xy/N = 36
Fomula
Covariance = ∑xy/N
r = ∑xy/N.σx × σy
Calculation
According to question
⇒ 0.48 = 36/4 × σy
⇒ σy = 9/0.48
∴ The standard deviation of y(σy) is 18.75

Given the regression lines X + 2Y - 5 = 0, 2X + 3Y - 8 = 0 and Var(X) = 12, the value of Var(Y) is
  • a)
    3/4
  • b)
    4/3
  • c)
    16
  • d)
    4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Engineers Adda answered
Given
Regression lines
x + 2y - 5 = 0
2x + 3y - 8 = 0
var(x)= σx = 12
Calculation
x + 2y - 5 = 0    ------(i)
Let y = - x/2 + 5/2 be the regression line of y on x [ from equation 1]
2x + 3y - 8
x = -(3/2)y + 8/2 be the regressiopn line of x on y
⇒ bxy = -1/2 and byx = -3/2
bxy = Regression line of y on x
byx = Regression line of x on y
We know that regression coefficient = r = √(byx × bxy)
⇒ r = √(-1/2 × -3/2)
∴ r = √3/2 < 1
σx = 12 = 2√3
We know that byx = r (σyx)
⇒ -1/2 = √3/2 (σy/2√3)
⇒ σy = - 2
∴ var(y) = variance of y =(-2)2 = 4

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