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If f (x) = x3– 4x + p, and f (0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?a)–1 < p < 2b)0< p < 3c)–2 < p < 1d)–3 < p < 0Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? for Quant 2024 is part of Quant preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared
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If f (x) = x3– 4x + p, and f (0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?a)–1 < p < 2b)0< p < 3c)–2 < p < 1d)–3 < p < 0Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?, a detailed solution for If f (x) = x3– 4x + p, and f (0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?a)–1 < p < 2b)0< p < 3c)–2 < p < 1d)–3 < p < 0Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? has been provided alongside types of If f (x) = x3– 4x + p, and f (0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?a)–1 < p < 2b)0< p < 3c)–2 < p < 1d)–3 < p < 0Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer? theory, EduRev gives you an
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