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Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes’ statement that there were no slaves?
- a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.
- b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.
- c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.
- d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
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Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the f...
Reasons for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves in India:
Different from Greek counterparts:
- In Greek society, slaves were considered property and did not have any rights or freedoms.
- In contrast, in Indian society, slaves could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom.
- This made their position very different from their Greek counterparts and could be a reason why Megasthenes stated that there were no slaves in India.
Outcastes:
- While there were outcastes in Indian society who were considered to be of lower status and faced discrimination, they were not necessarily slaves.
- Slaves were a distinct group in Indian society and were treated differently.
Human treatment:
- While it is true that slaves in many societies were treated inhumanely, this was not necessarily the case in India.
- In fact, some sources suggest that slaves in India were treated relatively well and were often given important positions in households or armies.
Indistinguishable from hired laborers:
- While there were certainly hired laborers in India, there were also distinct groups of slaves who were considered to be different from other workers.
- Therefore, the position of slaves was not indistinguishable from that of hired laborers.
Conclusion:
- Based on the above analysis, it seems that the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves in India is that the position of slaves in Indian society was very different from their Greek counterparts.
Different from Greek counterparts:
- In Greek society, slaves were considered property and did not have any rights or freedoms.
- In contrast, in Indian society, slaves could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom.
- This made their position very different from their Greek counterparts and could be a reason why Megasthenes stated that there were no slaves in India.
Outcastes:
- While there were outcastes in Indian society who were considered to be of lower status and faced discrimination, they were not necessarily slaves.
- Slaves were a distinct group in Indian society and were treated differently.
Human treatment:
- While it is true that slaves in many societies were treated inhumanely, this was not necessarily the case in India.
- In fact, some sources suggest that slaves in India were treated relatively well and were often given important positions in households or armies.
Indistinguishable from hired laborers:
- While there were certainly hired laborers in India, there were also distinct groups of slaves who were considered to be different from other workers.
- Therefore, the position of slaves was not indistinguishable from that of hired laborers.
Conclusion:
- Based on the above analysis, it seems that the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves in India is that the position of slaves in Indian society was very different from their Greek counterparts.
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Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
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Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? for UPSC 2025 is part of UPSC preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus. Information about Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?.
Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? for UPSC 2025 is part of UPSC preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus. Information about Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?.
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ample number of questions to practice Existence of slaves is mentioned in Indian sources. Which one of the following was the most likely reason for Megasthenes statement that there were no slaves?a)Since they could own property, earn for themselves and even in some cases buy back their freedom, they were very different from their Greek counterparts.b)They formed part of the larger group of outcastes.c)The human treatment meted out to them made their position unrecognisable.d)The position of the slaves was indistinguishable from that of hired labourers.Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer? tests, examples and also practice UPSC tests.
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