All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the FAME India Phase II scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. The implementing agency is Department of Heavy Industry.
  2. The phase II of FAME-India Scheme has been extended for a period of two years after 31st March 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Saini answered
Implementing agency:
- The implementing agency for the FAME India Phase II scheme is the Department of Heavy Industry.

Extension of Phase II:
- The phase II of the FAME-India (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles in India) Scheme has been extended for a period of two years after 31st March 2022.

Explanation:
The FAME India scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2015 with an aim to promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles in the country. It is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020, which seeks to achieve national fuel security by promoting electric and hybrid vehicles.

Implementing agency:
- The Department of Heavy Industry, under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises, is the implementing agency for the FAME India scheme. It is responsible for formulating policies and implementing programs related to the automobile industry in India.

Extension of Phase II:
- The phase II of the FAME India scheme was initially implemented for a period of three years from 1st April 2019 to 31st March 2022. However, considering the need to further promote electric and hybrid vehicles in the country, the government has decided to extend the scheme for an additional period of two years after 31st March 2022.
- This extension will provide continued support to the automobile industry and encourage the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by providing incentives and subsidies to manufacturers and buyers.
- The extension of Phase II reflects the government's commitment to promoting sustainable and green mobility solutions in India. It also aligns with India's broader goal of reducing dependence on fossil fuels and mitigating the adverse effects of vehicular pollution on the environment.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the FAME India Phase II scheme is implemented by the Department of Heavy Industry and has been extended for a period of two years after 31st March 2022. This extension aims to promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles in the country and support the automobile industry in transitioning towards sustainable and environmentally-friendly mobility solutions.

Consider the following statements regarding the Moment Magnitude Scale:
  1. It is a logarithmic scale that measures the total amount of energy released by an earthquake.
  2. It is based on the total moment release of the earthquake, which is a product of the distance a fault moved and the force required to move it. 
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
An extremely large earthquake with a magnitude 7.8 out of 10 on the moment magnitude scale occurred in the southeast of Turkey, near the border with Syria.
About Moment Magnitude Scale:
  • It is a logarithmic scale that measures the total amount of energy released by an earthquake.
  • It is the only scale capable of reliably measuring the magnitudes of the largest, most destructive earthquakes (that is, greater than magnitude 8).
  • It was developed in the 1970s by Japanese seismologist Hiroo Kanamori and American seismologist Thomas C. Hanks.
  • How is it calculated?
  • The moment magnitude scale is based on the total moment release of the earthquake. 
  • Moment is a product of the distance a fault moved and the force required to move it. 
  • It is derived from modeling recordings of the earthquake at multiple stations. 
  • Moment magnitude estimates are about the same as Richter magnitudes for small to large earthquakes. But only the moment magnitude scale is capable of measuring M8 (read "magnitude 8") and greater events accurately.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Lymphatic Filariasis, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a neglected tropical disease.
  2. It is transmitted to humans through flies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lymphatic Filariasis:

- Lymphatic Filariasis is a neglected tropical disease caused by parasitic worms.
- It is also known as elephantiasis because it causes severe swelling and enlargement of body parts.
- The disease is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
- The parasites live in the lymphatic system of the human body and cause blockages, leading to chronic disability and disfigurement.
- It is estimated that over 120 million people are affected by lymphatic filariasis worldwide.
- The disease is endemic in many tropical and subtropical regions of the world, including India.
- The World Health Organization (WHO) has targeted the elimination of lymphatic filariasis as a public health problem by 2020.

Statements:

1. It is a neglected tropical disease.

- This statement is correct.
- Lymphatic filariasis is considered a neglected tropical disease because it primarily affects poor and marginalized populations in developing countries.
- The disease has been largely ignored by the global health community, and there has been a lack of investment in research, prevention, and treatment.

2. It is transmitted to humans through flies.

- This statement is incorrect.
- Lymphatic filariasis is not transmitted through flies but through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
- The mosquitoes that transmit the disease are usually active at night and breed in stagnant water.
- Preventive measures include the use of mosquito nets, insecticide spraying, and the treatment of infected individuals.

Conclusion:

- In conclusion, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect.
- Lymphatic filariasis is a neglected tropical disease that primarily affects poor communities in tropical and subtropical regions.
- The disease is transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes and can cause severe swelling and disability.
- Prevention and treatment measures are available, and efforts are being made to eliminate the disease as a public health problem.

Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
  1. Pre-agricultural level of technology is one of the criteria for the identification of PVTGs.
  2. More than 40 per cent of all the tribal groups in India are classified as PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Criteria for Identification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)

• Pre-agricultural level of technology is one of the criteria for the identification of PVTGs.

• They usually live in remote and isolated areas, have a stagnant or declining population, and have a subsistence level of economy.

• They have distinctive culture, language, and practices that are different from the mainstream population.

• They are highly dependent on the forest and other natural resources for their livelihood.

Classification of Tribal Groups in India

• As per the Constitution of India, Scheduled Tribes (STs) are those tribes or tribal communities who are scheduled in the Constitution of India.

• More than 40 per cent of all the tribal groups in India are classified as PVTGs.

• Currently, there are 75 PVTGs in India, which are spread across 18 states.

• PVTGs are identified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, based on the recommendations of State Governments and Union Territories.

Conclusion

Both statements are given in the question are correct. Pre-agricultural level of technology is one of the criteria for the identification of PVTGs. More than 40 per cent of all the tribal groups in India are classified as PVTGs. PVTGs are highly dependent on the forest and other natural resources for their livelihood, and they have a subsistence level of economy. They have distinctive culture, language, and practices that are different from the mainstream population. They usually live in remote and isolated areas, have a stagnant or declining population. There are 75 PVTGs in India, which are spread across 18 states.

With reference to the FAIRY Robot, consider the following statements:
  1. It is controlled by a light source like a laser beam.
  2. It can be used as a pollinating agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Tampere University researchers recently developed a Dandelion seed-inspired flying robot that could potentially replace pollinators.
  • The FAIRY robot, which is based on the Light Responsive Materials Assembly, is a tiny lightweight robot that floats in the wind.
  • Surprisingly, the robot can be controlled by a light source like a laser beam or an LED.
  • Researchers could use light to change the shape of the robot, allowing it to adapt to the direction of the wind.
  • A soft actuator made of light-responsive liquid crystalline elastomer powers the polymer assembly robot inspired by dandelion seeds.
  • As a result, the researchers were able to stimulate the actuator's bristles to open or close by using visible light.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Rice bran, consider the following statements:
  1. It is one of the main byproducts in the process of the rice milling.
  2. It is a good source of unsaturated fats, vitamin E, and other important nutrients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

China has started promoting Rice bran as the staple food amid the ongoing food shortage in the country.
About Rice bran:
  • Rice bran is one of the main byproducts in the process of the rice milling.
  • It is the outer brown layer of brown rice and is separated during the milling process.
  • The bran fraction contains 14-18% oil. 
  • Rice bran oil is a good source of unsaturated fats, vitamin E, and other important nutrients.
  • It is currently mostly used as animal feed.
  • The health effects of RB including antidiabetic, lipid-lowering, hypotensive, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory effects, while its consumption also improves bowel function. 
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Silent Valley National Park, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in the Southwestern corner of Nilgiris.
  2. A perennial river Kunthipuzha passes through the eastern side of the park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Dey answered
Silent Valley National Park is located in the Southwestern corner of Nilgiris. The park is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to several endangered species. Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness.

1. It is located in the Southwestern corner of Nilgiris.
This statement is correct. Silent Valley National Park is indeed located in the Southwestern corner of the Nilgiri Hills, which are part of the Western Ghats mountain range. The park is situated in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India.

2. A perennial river Kunthipuzha passes through the eastern side of the park.
This statement is incorrect. The correct name of the river that passes through the eastern side of Silent Valley National Park is Kunthipuzha, not Kunthipuzha. Kunthipuzha is a perennial river that originates from the Nilgiri Hills and flows through the park, adding to its natural beauty. The river is known for its crystal-clear waters and is an important water source for the flora and fauna in the park.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to TAPAS unmanned aerial vehicle, consider the following statements:
  1. It is developed by the European Space Agency.
  2. It is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance surveillance vehicle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: It is developed by the European Space Agency.
The first statement is incorrect. The TAPAS (Tactical Airborne Platform for All-weather and All-terrain Synthetic Aperture Radar) unmanned aerial vehicle is not developed by the European Space Agency (ESA). It is actually developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. The TAPAS UAV is a part of the Rustom series of UAVs developed by DRDO.

Statement 2: It is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance surveillance vehicle.
The second statement is correct. The TAPAS UAV is indeed a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) surveillance vehicle. It is designed to operate at medium altitudes and for long durations, allowing it to conduct surveillance and reconnaissance missions effectively. It is equipped with advanced sensors and can gather intelligence, monitor borders, conduct aerial surveys, and perform other surveillance tasks.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. The TAPAS unmanned aerial vehicle is not developed by the European Space Agency but by the Defence Research and Development Organisation of India. However, statement 2 accurately describes the TAPAS UAV as a Medium Altitude Long Endurance surveillance vehicle.

The Government carries out Disinvestment to achieve which of the following goals?
  1. Encourage open market to have wide share in ownership
  2. Reduce Financial burden on Government
  3. Introduce competition with market discipline
  4. Depoliticise essential services
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3
  • b)
    1, 3, 4
  • c)
    2, 3, 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Arjun Saha answered
Encouraging open market to have wide share in ownership:
- Disinvestment allows private investors to purchase shares of public sector companies, increasing the market share of ownership.
- This helps in promoting a wider distribution of wealth and resources in the economy.

Reducing financial burden on Government:
- By selling off its stake in public sector companies, the government can generate funds to reduce its fiscal deficit.
- This helps in freeing up resources for more productive use and reducing the burden on the government to finance these companies.

Introducing competition with market discipline:
- Disinvestment brings in private sector participation, which introduces competition in the market.
- This competition leads to improved efficiency, innovation, and better services for consumers as companies strive to perform better in a competitive environment.

Depoliticising essential services:
- Disinvestment helps in reducing government interference in the functioning of public sector companies.
- This leads to a more efficient and transparent management of these companies, making them less susceptible to political influence and ensuring better service delivery to the public.

Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia.
  1. Euthanasia refers to the practice of an individual deliberately ending their life, oftentimes to get relief from intolerable pain and suffering.
  2. Active euthanasia refers to withdrawing life support or treatment that is essential to keep a terminally ill person alive.
  3. In India, both the law and Supreme Court order bans the practice of Euthanasia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Euthanasia refers to the practice of an individual deliberately ending their life, oftentimes to get relief from an incurable condition, or intolerable pain and suffering. Euthanasia, which can be administered only by a physician, can be either ‘active’ or ‘passive’.
Active euthanasia involves an active intervention to end a person’s life with substances or external force, such as administering a lethal injection. Passive euthanasia refers to withdrawing life support or treatment that is essential to keep a terminally ill person alive.
Passive euthanasia was legalised in India by the Supreme Court in 2018, contingent upon the person having a ‘living will’ or a written document that specifies what actions should be taken if the person is unable to make their own medical decisions in the future.
In case a person does not have a living will, members of their family can make a plea before the High Court to seek permission for passive euthanasia.

With reference to the Sansad Ratna Awards, consider the following statements:
  1. It is awarded to both Lok sabha and Rajya sabha members of the parliament.
  2. It is decided only based on the attendance of the members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohini Desai answered
Recently, the Prime Minister of India congratulated fellow Members of Parliament who will be conferred the Sansad Ratna Awards 2023.
  • The Sansad Ratna Awards were instituted in 2010, inspired by the teachings of former President APJ Abdul Kalam, who launched the first edition of the Award function in Chennai.
  • The Jury Committee has chosen a total of 13 MPs and two parliamentary committees for the award, with a lifetime award being presented for the first 2023 awards.
  • The jury committee comprises “eminent Parliamentarians and (members of) civil society”.
  • The nominations were based on an MP’s cumulative performance in Parliament, from the beginning of the 17th Lok Sabha until the end of Winter Session 2022.
  • Factors that the decision is based on include questions asked, private members’ Bills introduced, debates initiated, attendance, funds utilised, etc.
  • The performance data of the members have been sourced from information provided by PRS Legislative Research.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT), consider the following statements:
  1. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the Central Authority of India that deals with requests under this treaty.
  2. India has signed this treaty only with USA till now.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Recently, India and Saudi Arabia discussed signing a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT) to obtain formal assistance from each other in investigations related to criminal cases.
What is this treaty?
  • It is a mechanism whereby countries cooperate to provide and obtain formal assistance in the prevention, suppression, investigation and prosecution of crime to ensure that the criminals do not escape or sabotage the due process of law for want of evidence available in different countries.
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs is the Central Authority of India for dealing with requests for mutual legal assistance in criminal matters. 
  • Section 105 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) explains the reciprocal arrangements to be made by the Central Government with the Foreign Governments about the service of summons/warrants/judicial processes.
  • India has so far signed MLATs with 45 countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements Tax buoyancy and Tax Elasticity:
  1. Tax Elasticity refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
  2. Tax buoyancy refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sinjini Desai answered
Tax Buoyancy and Tax Elasticity:

Tax Buoyancy and Tax Elasticity are two important concepts in the field of economics that measure the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in various factors. Let's understand each concept separately and then analyze the given statements.

Tax Buoyancy:

Tax buoyancy refers to the changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate. It measures the elasticity of tax revenue with respect to changes in the tax rate. In simple terms, it tells us how much tax revenue will increase or decrease when the tax rate is increased or decreased.

If tax revenue increases more than proportionally to the increase in the tax rate, it is considered as a buoyant tax system. On the other hand, if tax revenue increases less than proportionally to the increase in the tax rate, it is considered as a non-buoyant or inelastic tax system.

Tax Elasticity:

Tax elasticity, on the other hand, refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP (Gross Domestic Product). It measures the percentage change in tax revenue in response to a percentage change in GDP. Tax elasticity helps in understanding the impact of economic growth on tax revenue.

If tax revenue grows at a higher rate than GDP growth, it is considered as a elastic tax system. Conversely, if tax revenue grows at a lower rate than GDP growth, it is considered as an inelastic tax system.

Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1: Tax Elasticity refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
This statement is correct as tax elasticity does measure the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.

Statement 2: Tax buoyancy refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in tax rate.
This statement is incorrect. Tax buoyancy measures the changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate, not changes in tax revenue.

Since statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

With reference to the free float of stocks, consider the following statements:
  1. It refers to the shares of a company that can be publicly traded and are not restricted.
  2. The free float methodology gives a more accurate reflection of market movements and stocks actively available for trading in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Recently, index provider MSCI said it has cut the free-float designations of four securities of India's Adani group.
  • The free float is also known as Public float which refers to the shares of a company that can be publicly traded and are not restricted.
  • It generally excludes promoters' holding, government / strategic holding and other locked-in shares, which will not come to the market for trading in the normal course. 
  • Free Float Methodology is used to provide a more accurate reflection of market movements and stocks actively available for trading in the market.
  • The free-float methodology has been adopted by many of the world's major indexes.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Kilonova, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a cosmic event that occurs when a neutron star smashes into another neutron star.
  2. It releases heavy metals like gold, silver, and selenium into outer space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Recently, researchers have confirmed the detection of a star system that will one day end in a kilonova.
  • A kilonova is a cosmic event that occurs when a neutron star smashes into another neutron star or a black hole.
  • It releases heavy metals like gold, silver, and selenium into outer space at tremendous velocities, as well as radiation.
  • A kilonova radiation also accompanies a gamma-ray burst, one of the most energetic cosmic events ever known.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements:
  1. It is one of the highest civilian honours of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day. 
  2. Government servants except doctors and scientists are not eligible for these Awards.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Prime Minister urged the citizens of the country to read about the lives and stories of people who have been conferred with the prestigious 'Padma' Awards during his first 'Mann Ki Baat' radio programme of 2023.
Key facts about Padma Awards:
  • The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day
  • The award seeks to recognize works of distinction and is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines. 
  • Padma Awards were instituted in the year 1954
  • The award is given in three categories, namely,
  • Padma Vibhushan: for exceptional and distinguished service;
  • Padma Bhushan: for distinguished service of a high order; and
  • Padma Shri: for distinguished service.
  • Award: The awardees are presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
  • Eligibility:
  • All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
  • Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards.
  • The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously.
  • The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the Black-necked stork:
  1. It is a tall long-necked bird found in the Indian Subcontinent, Southeast Asia and Australia.
  2. It is classified as “Critically Endangered” under the IUCN red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Rane answered
Correct Answer: a) 1 only
1. It is a tall long-necked bird found in the Indian Subcontinent, Southeast Asia and Australia:
- This statement is correct. The Black-necked stork (Ephippiorhynchus asiaticus) is indeed a tall long-necked bird that is found in the Indian Subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia.
2. It is classified as "Critically Endangered" under the IUCN red list:
- This statement is incorrect. The Black-necked stork is actually classified as "Least Concern" on the IUCN Red List, not as "Critically Endangered." This means that the species is not currently facing a high risk of extinction.

With reference to the Kawal Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in the state of Telangana.
  2. It is bordered by the Godavari river catchment area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
During the recent Asian Water Bird Census (AWC) 2023, more than 340 birds of various species, were counted in the water bodies within the core area of the Kawal Tiger Reserve.
  • Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in North Eastern part of Telangana (Old Adilabad district) having the Godavari river on one side and the Maharashtra border on the other side.
  • Government of India declared Kawal wildlife sanctuary as Tiger Reserve in 2012.
  • This sanctuary is the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.
  • It is a central Indian Tiger Landscape having – a southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest.
  • Flora: It consists of predominantly teak and bamboo are found here.
  • Fauna: Mammal species that have been sighted include tiger, leopard, Indian gaur, cheetal, sambar, nilgai etc.
Hence both statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Stem Cells:
  1. Stem cells have the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body.
  2. No other cell, apart from Stem Cells has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Kanpur’s GSVM Medical College has claimed that that it is the first one in the country to cure blindness through stem cell transplants.
About Stem Cells:
  • These are cells with the potential to develop into many different types of cells in the body.
  • Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells.
  • These daughter cells become either new stem cells or specialized cells (differentiation) with a more specific function, such as blood cells, brain cells, heart muscle cells or bone cells.
  • No other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
  • They serve as a repair system for the body.
  • Stem cells are present inside different types of tissue. Scientists have found stem cells in tissues, including the brain, bone marrow, blood, and blood vessels, etc.
  • There are two types of stem cells.
  • Embryonic stem cells:
  • These stem cells come from embryos that are 3 to 5 days old.
  • These are pluripotent stem cells, meaning they can divide into more stem cells or can become any type of cell in the body. 
  • Adult stem cells:
  • These stem cells are found in small numbers in most adult tissues, such as bone marrow or fat.
  • Compared with embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells have a more limited ability to give rise to various cells of the body.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the planet Venus, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a very cold planet in the solar system.
  2. It spins clockwise on its axis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
An advisor to the space science programme recently said that the Indian Space Research Organisation is yet to receive approval from the Indian government for the Venus mission and that the mission could as a result be postponed to 2031.
Key facts about Venus
  • Venus is often called "Earth’s twin" because they’re similar in size and structure, but Venus has extreme surface heat and a dense, toxic atmosphere.
  • It rotates very slowly on its axis – one day on Venus lasts 243 Earth days.
  • The thick atmosphere of Venus traps heat creating a runaway greenhouse effect – making it the hottest planet in our solar system.
  • Phosphine, a possible indicator of microbial life, has been observed in the clouds of Venus.
  • Unlike the other planets in our solar system, Venus spins clockwise on its axis.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the Prepaid Payment Instruments, consider the following statements:
  1. These are payment instruments that facilitate the purchase of only specific goods and services.
  2. The open system payment Instruments are issued only by the banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishabh Malik answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: These are payment instruments that facilitate the purchase of only specific goods and services.
- This statement is incorrect. Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are not limited to specific goods and services. They can be used for a wide range of transactions, including payment for goods and services, funds transfer, and withdrawal of cash.

Statement 2: The open system payment Instruments are issued only by the banks.
- This statement is correct. Open system PPIs are issued by banks and non-bank entities authorized by the Reserve Bank of India. These instruments can be used for purchase of goods and services, funds transfer, and cash withdrawal.
Therefore, the correct answer is 2 Only as per the provided statements.

With reference to the Periyar Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
  1. It is drained by the rivers Mullayar and Periyar.
  2. It is located in the southern region of the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Overview of Periyar Tiger Reserve
The Periyar Tiger Reserve is a prominent wildlife sanctuary located in the Western Ghats of India. It is well-known for its diverse flora and fauna, making it an essential habitat for various species, including tigers.
Statement Analysis
- Statement 1: It is drained by the rivers Mullayar and Periyar.
- This statement is correct. The Periyar River is a significant waterway in the reserve, and the Mullayar River also contributes to the drainage system, playing a crucial role in the ecosystem.
- Statement 2: It is located in the southern region of the Western Ghats.
- This statement is also correct. The Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the southern part of the Western Ghats, primarily in Kerala.
Conclusion
Since both statements about the Periyar Tiger Reserve are accurate, the correct answer to the question is option C: Both 1 and 2.
Significance of the Reserve
- Biodiversity: The reserve is home to numerous species, including elephants, deer, and various birds, contributing to its rich biodiversity.
- Conservation Efforts: The park plays a vital role in conservation efforts, helping protect endangered species and maintaining ecological balance.
In summary, the Periyar Tiger Reserve is an essential ecological zone in the Western Ghats, and both statements regarding its drainage and location are indeed correct.

With reference to the Bhitarkanika National Park, consider the following statements:
  1. It is home to the largest congregation of endangered Salt Water Crocodiles.
  2. The river Vamsadhara passes through this national park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Shah answered
Answer:

Introduction:
Bhitarkanika National Park is a renowned national park located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha, India. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is considered a significant habitat for various species, including the endangered Salt Water Crocodile. In this context, we will evaluate the given statements to determine their accuracy.

Statement 1: It is home to the largest congregation of endangered Salt Water Crocodiles.
The first statement is correct. Bhitarkanika National Park is indeed home to the largest congregation of endangered Salt Water Crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus) in India. These crocodiles, also known as estuarine crocodiles or marine crocodiles, thrive in the mangrove ecosystem of the park. The park provides a suitable habitat for their breeding, nesting, and basking activities. The Salt Water Crocodile is the largest living reptile and is classified as endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The river Vamsadhara passes through this national park.
The second statement is incorrect. The river Vamsadhara does not pass through Bhitarkanika National Park. The park is primarily situated in the deltaic regions of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers, which are major river systems in Odisha. These rivers contribute to the unique ecosystem of the park, creating a suitable environment for diverse flora and fauna. However, the river Vamsadhara is located in the neighboring Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh and does not flow through Bhitarkanika National Park. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, Bhitarkanika National Park is indeed home to the largest congregation of endangered Salt Water Crocodiles, making statement 1 correct. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the river Vamsadhara does not pass through this national park.

Consider the following statements regarding White-tailed deer:
  1. They are found in North America from southern Canada through Central America.
  2. They are classified as 'Endangered' under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Malavika Datta answered
Statement 1: They are found in North America from southern Canada through Central America.
Statement 2: They are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red list.

Explanation:

1. White-tailed deer distribution:
White-tailed deer (Odocoileus virginianus) are indeed found in North America, as mentioned in statement 1. Their range extends from southern Canada, throughout the United States, and into Central America. They are highly adaptable mammals that can thrive in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and even suburban areas. White-tailed deer are known for their iconic white underside of their tail, which they raise as a warning signal when they sense danger.

2. Conservation status:
Contrary to statement 2, White-tailed deer are not classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List. The IUCN Red List is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species. It categorizes species into various categories, ranging from Least Concern to Extinct, based on their population size, trends, and threats they face.

The White-tailed deer is actually categorized as a species of "Least Concern" by the IUCN. This classification indicates that the species is widespread and abundant, with stable populations and no immediate threat of extinction. While specific subspecies or localized populations of White-tailed deer may face certain conservation concerns, the species as a whole is not classified as Endangered.

In conclusion, only statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. White-tailed deer are found in North America, ranging from southern Canada through Central America, but they are not classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.

Consider the following statements regarding Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS):
  1. All Indian citizens above the age of 55 years are eligible for SCSS.
  2. Individuals are allowed to operate more than one account under SCSS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
The maximum investment limit for the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) has been increased from Rs 15 lakh to Rs 30 lakh in Budget 2023.
About Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS):
  • SCSS was launched with the main aim of providing senior citizens in India a regular income after they attain the age of 60 years old.
  • Who is eligible?
  • Indian citizens above the age of 60 years.
  • Retirees in the age bracket of 55-60 years who have opted for Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS) or Superannuation.
  • Retired defence personnel above 50 years and below 60 years of age.
  • Maturity: It has a maturity period of five years. But, a depositor can extend one's maturity period for another three years.
  • Number of accounts: Individuals are allowed to operate more than one account by themselves or open a joint account with their spouse.
  • Deposit Limits: Eligible investors can make a lump sum deposit
  • Minimum Deposit– Rs. 1,000 (and in multiples thereof)
  • Maximum Deposit– Rs. 15 Lakh or the amount received on retirement, whichever is lower(Increased to Rs 30 lakh in Budget 2023).
  • Interest Payment: Under SCSS, the interest amount is paid to the accountholders quarterly.
  • Premature withdrawalAfter one year of opening the account, premature withdrawal is allowed.
  • Deposits in SCSS qualify for deduction u/s 80-C of Income Tax Act.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the GNB1 Encephalopathy, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a kind of neurological disorder which affects individuals in the foetus stage.
  2. A single nucleotide mutation is the reason for this disease. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras, Tel Aviv University and Columbia University are studying a rare genetic brain disease called "GNB1 Encephalopathy" and trying to develop a drug to treat it effectively.
  • It is a kind of brain disease or neurological disorder which affects individuals in the foetus stage.
  •  A single nucleotide mutation in the GNB1 gene that makes one of the G-proteins, the "Gβ1 protein," causes this disease.
  • Symptoms: Delayed physical and mental development, intellectual disabilities, and frequent epileptic seizures are among the early of the disease.
  • Less than 100 cases of GNB1 Encephalopathy have been recorded worldwide. However, the actual number of affected children is probably higher since diagnosis for this genetic disorder is not widely available due to the requirement of sophisticated and expensive procedures.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to Lithium, consider the following statements:
  1. Lithium is a silver-white metal belonging to the alkali metal group of chemical elements.
  2. It has the highest density of all metals.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Datta answered
Answer:

Statement 1: Lithium is a silver-white metal belonging to the alkali metal group of chemical elements.

This statement is correct. Lithium is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal and is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It belongs to the alkali metal group, which is the first column of the periodic table.

Statement 2: It has the highest density of all metals.

This statement is not correct. Lithium does not have the highest density of all metals. In fact, lithium has a relatively low density compared to many other metals. Its density is about 0.534 grams per cubic centimeter, which is lower than the densities of metals like platinum, osmium, and iridium.

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Summary:
Lithium is a silver-white metal belonging to the alkali metal group of chemical elements. However, it does not have the highest density of all metals.

Consider the following statements regarding the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE):
  1. It is conducted by the Pratham NGO in all States and Union territories.
  2. It covers all higher educational institutions located in Indian Territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Singh answered
The correct answer is option 'B': 2 only.

Explanation:
The All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) is a survey conducted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, and not by the Pratham NGO. Pratham NGO is an organization that focuses on education and conducts its own surveys and research, but it is not involved in the AISHE. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

On the other hand, statement 2 is correct. The AISHE covers all higher educational institutions located in Indian territory. It aims to collect data and provide a comprehensive picture of the higher education sector in the country. The survey covers universities, colleges, and other institutions offering post-secondary education.

The AISHE collects information on various aspects of higher education, including enrollment, programs, faculty, infrastructure, and finances. It helps in monitoring the growth and development of the higher education sector, identifying gaps and challenges, and formulating policies for its improvement.

The survey is conducted annually and the data collected is used for policy planning, resource allocation, and decision-making. It also serves as a valuable source of information for researchers, policymakers, and other stakeholders in the education sector.

In conclusion, the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) is conducted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, and it covers all higher educational institutions located in Indian territory. Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding the Aspirational Blocks Programme:
  1. It aims to improve the performance of blocks lagging on various development parameters.
  2. It will cover 500 districts, of which over half are in 6 states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepa Iyer answered
The government has recently launched the Aspirational Blocks Programme, covering 500 blocks for the saturation of essential government services.
Aspirational Blocks Programme:
  • It aims to improve the performance of blocks lagging on various development parameters.
  • This will enable holistic development in those areas that require added assistance.
  • The programme will cover 500 districts across 31 states and Union Territories initially.
    • Over half of these blocks are in 6 states—Uttar Pradesh (68 blocks), Bihar (61), Madhya Pradesh (42), Jharkhand (34), Odisha (29), and West Bengal (29). 
It is on the lines of the Aspirational District Programme that was launched in 2018 and covers 112 districts across the country.
Hence both statements are correct.
29 blocks likely to be covered under ABP in Odisha

Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Accelerator Fund:
  1. It will be set up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs exclusively in urban areas.
  2. It aims to bring innovative and affordable solutions to challenges faced by farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Asha Tiwari answered
Statement Analysis:

Statement 1: It will be set up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs exclusively in urban areas.

Statement 2: It aims to bring innovative and affordable solutions to challenges faced by farmers.

Correct statement(s):

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Agriculture Accelerator Fund is not exclusively for agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in urban areas. It is open to all innovative agri-startups regardless of the location or the age of the entrepreneur.

Statement 2 is correct because the main objective of the Agriculture Accelerator Fund is to bring innovative and affordable solutions to challenges faced by farmers.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 2 only.

Explanation:

The Agriculture Accelerator Fund is an initiative of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW), Government of India, to support agri-startups in the country. The fund is open to all innovative startups working in the agriculture sector, regardless of their location or the age of the entrepreneur.

The Agriculture Accelerator Fund aims to provide financial support and mentorship to agri-startups to help them develop innovative and affordable solutions to the challenges faced by farmers. The fund will also help startups to scale up their operations and reach out to a larger market.

In conclusion, the Agriculture Accelerator Fund is a great initiative by the Government of India to support agri-startups and bring innovative solutions to the agriculture sector.

Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
  • a)
    Karnataka
  • b)
    Maharashtra
  • c)
    Odisha
  • d)
    Rajasthan
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Mehul Malik answered
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary in Maharashtra

Introduction:
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the Thane district of Maharashtra. It is named after the Tansa River, which flows through the sanctuary.

Importance:
The sanctuary is an important habitat for various species of flora and fauna, including leopards, hyenas, Indian giant squirrels, and various species of birds. It is also home to several species of fish, reptiles, and amphibians.

Recent news:
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary was recently in the news when the Maharashtra Forest Department announced plans to construct an eco-tourism centre in the sanctuary. The proposed centre is expected to attract tourists and help generate revenue for the local community.

Location:
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Thane district of Maharashtra. It is situated approximately 80 km from Mumbai and covers an area of approximately 320 square kilometers.

Conclusion:
Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary is an important protected area in Maharashtra that is home to a wide variety of wildlife. The proposed eco-tourism centre is expected to provide a boost to the local economy while also promoting wildlife conservation in the region.

With reference to Countervailing duty (CVD), consider the following statements:
  1. It is imposed to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
  2. World Trade Organization (WTO) does not permit the imposition of CVD as it is trade distorting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
The commerce ministry has recommended the imposition of countervailing duty on imports of a chemical used in making personal care products from Indonesia, Malaysia, and Thailand as it was impacting the domestic industry.
About Countervailing duty (CVD):
  • It is a specific form of duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
  • CVD is thus an import tax by the importing country on imported products.
  • Why is CVD imposed?
  • Foreign governments sometimes provide subsidies to their producers to make their products cheaper and boost their demand in other countries.
  • To avoid flooding the market in the importing country with these goods, the government of the importing country imposes CVD, charging a specific amount on the import of such goods.
  • The duty nullifies and eliminates the price advantage enjoyed by an imported product.
  • The duty raises the price of the imported product, bringing it closer to its true market price
  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) permits the imposition of CVD by its member countries.
  • Who administers CVD in India?
  • The countervailing measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD), in the commerce and industry ministry’s department of commerce. 
  • While the department of commerce recommends the CVD, the department of revenue in the finance ministry acts upon the recommendation within three months and imposes such duties.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Mammatus clouds, consider the following statements:
  1. They are usually formed in association with large cumulonimbus clouds.
  2. They are formed only in the equatorial region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Bose answered
Explanation:
There are two statements given regarding Mammatus clouds, and we need to determine which one is correct.
- They are usually formed in association with large cumulonimbus clouds: This statement is correct. Mammatus clouds are often associated with cumulonimbus clouds, which are large, dense, and vertically developed clouds that are known to produce thunderstorms, heavy rain, and other severe weather conditions. Mammatus clouds typically form on the underside of these cumulonimbus clouds and are often seen after a storm has passed.
- They are formed only in the equatorial region: This statement is incorrect. Mammatus clouds can form in various regions around the world, not just in the equatorial region. These unique cloud formations can be observed in different latitudes and climates, depending on the atmospheric conditions that lead to their formation.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A) 1 Only, as the first statement is accurate while the second statement is not.

With reference to the Indo-Tibetan Border Police, consider the following statements:
  1. It is one of the Central Armed Police Forces of India.
  2. It works under the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) approved the raising of seven new battalions of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) force.
  • Indo-Tibetan Border Police is one of the Central Armed Police Forces of India.
  • It is a specialized mountain force and most of the officers and men are professionally trained mountaineers and skiers.
  • Origin: It was raised in 1962, in the wake of the Sino-Indian War of 1962 for deployment along India's border with China's Tibet Autonomous Region.
  • Status: ITBP was initially raised under the CRPF Act. However, in 1992, parliament enacted the ITBPF Act and the rules there under were framed in 1994.
  • The motto of the Force: “Shaurya-Dridhata-Karma Nishtha” (Valour – Determination – Devotion to Duty).
  • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Quasicrystals, consider the following statements:
  1. The atoms in quasicrystals are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular intervals.
  2. They have poor heat conductivity, which makes them good insulators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anuj Nair answered
Quasicrystals are a type of crystal whose atoms are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular intervals. These crystals have some unique properties that make them different from regular crystals. Let us look at the two statements given in the question and see whether they are correct or not.

1. The atoms in quasicrystals are arranged in a pattern that repeats itself at irregular intervals.

This statement is correct. Quasicrystals have a unique structure that does not repeat itself in a regular pattern. In regular crystals, the atoms are arranged in a repeating pattern that forms a lattice. However, in quasicrystals, the atoms are arranged in a pattern that is ordered but not periodic. This means that there is no repeating unit that can be used to describe the crystal structure.

2. They have poor heat conductivity, which makes them good insulators.

This statement is also correct. Quasicrystals have a complex structure that makes it difficult for heat to move through them. This property makes them good insulators. In fact, quasicrystals have some of the lowest thermal conductivities of any solid material. This makes them useful in applications where insulation is required, such as in thermoelectric devices.

In conclusion, both statements given in the question are correct. Quasicrystals have a unique structure that does not repeat itself in a regular pattern, and they have poor heat conductivity, which makes them good insulators.

With reference to Digital television receivers, consider the following statements:
  1. The Bureau of Indian Standards has published an Indian Standard Specification for television.
  2. The receiver works on an analog signal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Recently, The Bureau of Indian Standards BIS publishes standards for digital television receivers with built-in satellite tuners.
  • The Bureau of Indian Standards has published three significant Indian Standards in the area of Electronics.
  • The first standard is Indian Standard for digital television receivers with built-in satellite tuners. 
  • The technical Committee has published an Indian Standard IS 18112:2022 Specification for television with built-in satellite tuners.
  • The TVs manufactured as per this Indian standard would enable reception of Free-To-Air TV and Radio channels just by connecting a dish antenna with LNB mounted on a suitable place, at the rooftop/side wall of the building.
  • This would facilitate the transmission of knowledge about government initiatives, schemes, the educational content of Doordarshan and the repository of Indian cultural programs to reach and benefit a wide segment of the population in the country at large.
What are Digital television receivers?
  • In this television in which the signals are transmitted in digital form and decoded by the television receiver.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to the Young Professionals Scheme, consider the following statements:
  1. This scheme is signed between India and Japan.
  2. Under this scheme degree-holding citizens aged between 18 and 30 to live and work in each other’s countries for two years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Jain answered
Overview of the Young Professionals Scheme
The Young Professionals Scheme is an initiative aimed at promoting cultural exchange and professional development between countries. In this context, it is essential to evaluate the accuracy of the statements provided regarding the scheme between India and Japan.
Statement Analysis
  • Statement 1: "This scheme is signed between India and Japan."
    - This statement is incorrect. The Young Professionals Scheme is not specifically between India and Japan. Instead, it is a broader program that includes various countries, including Australia and Canada, but not exclusively India and Japan.
  • Statement 2: "Under this scheme degree-holding citizens aged between 18 and 30 can live and work in each other’s countries for two years."
    - This statement is correct. The scheme allows degree-holding citizens from participating countries to engage in work opportunities, fostering professional growth and cultural exchange for a duration of up to two years.

Conclusion
Given the evaluation of both statements, only the second statement is accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is option B (2 Only).
This highlights the importance of verifying the specifics of international agreements, as they can often be misinterpreted or confused with similar initiatives.

With reference to the Nilgiri Tahr, consider the following statements:
  1. It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
  2. It is listed as Vulnerable under IUCN Red List of threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
Recently, the Tamil Nadu government launched an initiative for the conservation of the Nilgiri Tahr at Rs 25 crore.
  • Under The Nilgiri Tahr project, the Tamil Nadu government plans to
  • Develop a better understanding of the Nilgiri Tahr population through surveys and radio telemetry studies
  • Reintroduce the Tahrs to their historical habitat
  • Address proximate threats
  • Increase public awareness of the species
  • The project is to be implemented for 5 year period from 2022 to 2027.
What is Nilgiri Tahr?
  • Nilgiri Tahr is the only Caprinae species found in the tropical mountains of southern India.
  • Habitat: They are endemic to the Western Ghats and used to inhabit a large part of the Western Ghats between Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN - Endangered
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972 - Schedule I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Pangong lake:
  1. It is a landlocked lake situated in the Sikkim Himalayas.
  2. It is a very deep freshwater lake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Sarkar answered
Pangong Lake:

Pangong Tso or Pangong Lake is a high altitude lake situated in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a popular tourist destination and is known for its scenic beauty.

Statements:

1. It is a landlocked lake situated in the Sikkim Himalayas.

This statement is incorrect. Pangong Lake is situated in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, not in the Sikkim Himalayas.

2. It is a very deep freshwater lake.

This statement is correct. Pangong Lake is a deep freshwater lake with an average depth of about 100 meters.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Perform, Achieve & Trade (PAT) Scheme:
  1. PAT scheme aims at reducing Specific Energy Consumption(SEC) in energy-intensive sectors.
  2. It is implemented by the National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) under the aegis of the Ministry of Power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shail Unni answered
And Trade (PAT) scheme in India:

1. The PAT scheme was launched in 2012 by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in order to promote energy efficiency in industries.
2. Under the scheme, energy-intensive industries are given targets for reducing their energy consumption.
3. Industries that achieve their energy consumption targets are issued energy saving certificates (ESCerts) which can be traded on the energy exchange.
4. The scheme has been successful in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainable development in the industrial sector.

Which of the statements above are true?

1. The PAT scheme was launched in 2012 by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in order to promote energy efficiency in industries.
2. Under the scheme, energy-intensive industries are given targets for reducing their energy consumption.
3. Industries that achieve their energy consumption targets are issued energy saving certificates (ESCerts) which can be traded on the energy exchange.
4. The scheme has been successful in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainable development in the industrial sector.

All of the statements above are true.

With reference to the Juno Probe, consider the following statements:
  1. It was launched by the European Space agency.
  2. The main goal of this probe is to study the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B' - 2 Only.

Statement 1: It was launched by the European Space Agency.
This statement is incorrect. The Juno probe was not launched by the European Space Agency (ESA), but by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) of the United States. The probe was launched on August 5, 2011, from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida.

Statement 2: The main goal of this probe is to study the origin and evolution of Jupiter.
This statement is correct. The primary objective of the Juno probe is to study the origin and evolution of Jupiter, the largest planet in our solar system. Juno is designed to investigate the planet's composition, gravity field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere, among other aspects. By studying Jupiter, scientists hope to gain insights into the formation and evolution of gas giant planets, as well as the early history of our solar system.

Juno carries a suite of scientific instruments, including a microwave radiometer, a magnetometer, an energetic particle detector, and a gravity science experiment, which will help in achieving its scientific goals. The spacecraft is also equipped with solar panels to generate power during its mission.

Juno entered Jupiter's orbit on July 5, 2016, and has been collecting valuable data about the planet since then. It has provided scientists with unprecedented information about Jupiter's atmospheric composition, magnetic field, and internal structure. The probe has also revealed new details about the planet's iconic storms, such as the Great Red Spot.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 Only. The Juno probe was launched by NASA, not the European Space Agency, and its main goal is to study the origin and evolution of Jupiter.

With reference to the Hubble Space Telescope, consider the following statements:
  1. It was launched by the European Space agency.
  2. It was launched into low Earth orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Samarth Unni answered
Explanation:


The correct answer is option B - 2 Only.

Statements Analysis:


1. It was launched by the European Space Agency:
The Hubble Space Telescope was not launched by the European Space Agency. It was actually launched by NASA, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration of the United States.

2. It was launched into low Earth orbit:
This statement is correct. The Hubble Space Telescope was launched into low Earth orbit in 1990 aboard the Space Shuttle Discovery (Mission STS-31). It orbits the Earth at an altitude of about 547 kilometers (340 miles) above the Earth's surface.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, and the correct answer is option B - 2 Only.

With reference to the Pallas cats, consider the following statements:
  1. It is mainly found in the montane grasslands and steppes of Central Asia.
  2. It is listed as the Least concerned under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Rane answered
Explanation:

1. Montane grasslands and steppes of Central Asia:
- The Pallas cat, also known as the manul, is mainly found in the montane grasslands and steppes of Central Asia.
- These regions are characterized by cold, arid climates and sparse vegetation, which provide an ideal habitat for the Pallas cat.

2. IUCN Red List status:
- The Pallas cat is listed as the Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
- This means that the species is not currently facing any major threats to its population and is considered to be relatively stable in terms of numbers.

Therefore, both statements are correct. The Pallas cat is indeed found in the montane grasslands and steppes of Central Asia, and it is listed as the Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.

With reference to the Biligiri Rangan Hills, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in northwest of the Western Ghats.
  2. The Kapila and Cauvery Rivers flow through these hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranjal Kumar answered
Biligiri Rangan Hills

Located in the southern Indian state of Karnataka, Biligiri Rangan Hills is a range of hills situated at the confluence of the Eastern and Western Ghats. The hills are also known as BR Hills and form a part of the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary.

Statements

1. It is located in the northwest of the Western Ghats.

The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast of India and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. However, the Biligiri Rangan Hills are not located in the northwest of the Western Ghats. They are situated at the confluence of the Eastern and Western Ghats.

Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. The Kapila and Cauvery Rivers flow through these hills.

The Kapila and Cauvery Rivers are two important rivers that flow through the southern Indian state of Karnataka. The Biligiri Rangan Hills are located in Karnataka and are also the source of several rivers including Kapila and Cauvery.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Answer

As statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is incorrect, the correct answer is option (c) Both 1 and 2.

With reference to the Very Short Range Air Defence System, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a man-portable air defence system.
  2. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) headed by Defence Minister accorded Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) to critical procurements for the defence forces, including that of the Very Short Range Air Defence System or VSHORAD (IR Homing) missile system.
  • It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS).
  • These are short-range, lightweight and portable surface-to-air missiles that can be fired by individuals or small groups to destroy aircraft or helicopters.
  • They are having a maximum range of 8 kilometres and can engage targets at altitudes of 4.5 km.
  • The missile incorporates many novel technologies including a miniaturized Reaction Control System (RCS) and integrated avionics, which have been successfully proven during the tests.
  • The RCS is responsible for attitude control and steering by the use of thrusters and is also capable of providing small amounts of thrust in any desired direction or combination of directions.
  • Designed and developed: DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian Industry Partners.
Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Yaya Tso Lake, consider the following statements:
  1. It is located in the Ladhak Region.
  2. It is a large breeding site for the black-necked crane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Das answered
Yaya Tso Lake
The Yaya Tso Lake is a prominent lake located in the Ladakh region of India. It is surrounded by the beautiful and picturesque landscape of the Himalayas. This lake is of great ecological importance and serves as a breeding ground for various species of birds, including the black-necked crane.

Statement 1: It is located in the Ladakh Region
This statement is correct. The Yaya Tso Lake is indeed situated in the Ladakh region. Ladakh is a region in the northernmost part of India, located in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It is known for its breathtaking beauty and unique geographical features, including high-altitude lakes like Yaya Tso.

Statement 2: It is a large breeding site for the black-necked crane
This statement is also correct. The Yaya Tso Lake serves as a significant breeding site for the black-necked crane. The black-necked crane (Grus nigricollis) is a rare and endangered bird species that is found in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas. It is known for its distinctive black neck and white feathers. The Yaya Tso Lake provides a suitable habitat for these cranes to breed and raise their young ones.

The black-necked crane is considered a flagship species for the conservation of wetlands and high-altitude ecosystems. It is highly dependent on wetland habitats for its survival. The Yaya Tso Lake, with its pristine waters and surrounding wetlands, provides an ideal breeding ground for these cranes. The lake offers abundant food resources and a peaceful environment for the cranes to nest and rear their chicks.

Conservation efforts have been undertaken to protect the black-necked crane and its habitat in the Ladakh region. The Yaya Tso Lake is a crucial part of these conservation initiatives. Strict regulations and guidelines are in place to ensure the preservation of the lake and its surrounding ecosystem.

Overall, both statements are correct. The Yaya Tso Lake is located in the Ladakh region and serves as a significant breeding site for the black-necked crane.

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