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All questions of Law of Property for Humanities/Arts Exam

Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places.
Facts: 'A', a citizen of England, is accused of committing murder of 'B' in India by taking part in a conspiracy hatched in England.
  • a)
    Only the fact that 'A' citizen of England is accused of committing murder of 'B' in India is relevant
  • b)
    'A' citizen of England cannot be tried in India
  • c)
    Only the fact that 'A' is accused of conspiracy hatched in England is relevant
  • d)
    The facts that 'A' citizen of England is accused of commission of murder in India and of conspiracy hatched in England are relevant facts
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Sharma answered
A , who is a citizen of England accused of murder in India . There are certain possibilities of that A murdered B . There should be a proper evidence of date and time that the accused was not present on that spot and was somewhere else . Likewise , if he was in other country at that time he have to show his flight tickets or hotel bills as a proof . Proof might be given of actualities in issue and important realities:- Evidence might be given in any suit or continuing of the presence of non-presence of each reality in issue and of such different certainties as are hereinafter announced to be significant, and of no others .

Principle: An agreement may be entered into orally or in writing, or by conduct.
Facts: 'A' went to the shop of 'B' and picked a toothbrush and gave a cheque of Rupees twenty to 'B' and left the shop.
  • a)
    Payment of toothbrush cannot be made through a cheque
  • b)
    'A' did not enter into an agreement with 'B'
  • c)
    'A' should have carried a currency note of Rupees twenty to make the payment
  • d)
    There was an agreement between 'A' and 'B'
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Soumya Bose answered
Understanding the Agreement between A and B
In the scenario provided, it is essential to recognize that an agreement can be formed through various means, including oral communication, written contracts, or even through conduct.
Key Elements of the Agreement
- A's Action: A entered B's shop, selected a toothbrush, and presented a cheque for payment. This action signifies A's intention to purchase the toothbrush.
- B's Acceptance: By accepting the cheque, B implicitly agreed to sell the toothbrush to A. Acceptance does not necessarily require a verbal confirmation; it can be inferred from actions.
Legal Validity of Payment Methods
- Cheque as Payment: The use of a cheque is a legally recognized method of payment in many jurisdictions. It demonstrates A's intention to pay for the toothbrush.
- Not Limited to Cash: The assertion that A should have used cash (currency note) to make the payment is misleading. Payment methods can vary, and a cheque is valid unless stated otherwise by the seller.
Conclusion: Existence of Agreement
- Mutual Consent: Both parties displayed mutual consent through their actions. A intended to purchase, and B accepted the payment method proposed by A.
- Final Determination: Therefore, despite the method of payment, there was indeed an agreement between A and B regarding the sale of the toothbrush.
In conclusion, the correct option is 'D', indicating that an agreement existed between A and B based on their conduct and acceptance of the payment method.

The question consist of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. 
FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighboring shops. The neighboring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant.
  • a)
    The defendant is liable for nuisance
  • b)
    The defendant was not liable for nuisance
  • c)
    The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability
  • d)
    The plaintiff's suit should be decreed in his favour
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding Nuisance in Tort Law
Nuisance, as defined in tort law, refers to an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land. In this case, the application of this principle to the facts presented is crucial to determining liability.
Application of the Principle to the Facts
- The defendant operated a shop licensed to sell fruits and vegetables, particularly onions during a time of scarcity.
- The nature of the business led to the formation of long queues outside the shop, extending onto the highway.
- This situation resulted in interference not only with the customers’ ability to access the shop but also caused obstruction and disturbance to neighboring businesses.
Why the Defendant is Liable
- Unlawful Interference: The queues created by the defendant's sale of onions directly interfered with the neighboring shopkeepers’ ability to conduct their business.
- Public Safety Concerns: The obstruction on the highway not only hampered access but also posed potential safety risks for motorists and pedestrians, escalating the nuisance factor.
- Duration and Impact: The continuous queues and the resultant congestion are sufficient to establish a nuisance, as they substantially affected the use and enjoyment of the neighboring properties.
Conclusion
Given these points, the defendant's actions can indeed be classified as a nuisance. Therefore, the neighboring shopkeepers have a valid claim against the defendant for this unlawful interference, leading to the conclusion that the correct answer is option 'A'.

Principle: A person, who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally normal, may make a contract when he is not of unsound mind.
Facts: 'A' generally remains in the state of unsound mind and rarely becomes capable of understanding the things.
  • a)
    'A' can make a contract when normal
  • b)
    'A' can make a contract only for his own benefit
  • c)
    'A' can never make a contract
  • d)
    'A' can make a contract at any time whenever he pleases
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anuj Patel answered
Explanation:

Contract Validity:
- According to the principle, a person who is usually of unsound mind but occasionally normal can make a contract when he is not of unsound mind.
- This means that even though A generally remains in an unsound mind state, he can still make a contract during the rare periods when he is of sound mind.

Applicability of the Principle:
- In this scenario, A can indeed make a contract when he is normal, as stated in the principle.
- This implies that A has the legal capacity to enter into a contract during the periods when he is capable of understanding the terms and implications.

Conditions for Contract Making:
- A must be in a state of sound mind at the time of making the contract to ensure that he fully understands the consequences of his actions.
- It is crucial for A to be able to comprehend the terms of the contract and make decisions in his best interest during the period of sound mind.
Therefore, based on the principle and the given facts, option 'A' is the correct answer as A can make a contract when he is of sound mind, even though he is usually of unsound mind. This highlights the importance of legal capacity and understanding in entering into contracts.

The question consist of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.
FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brookebond and Co. One day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiancé Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be close to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence of Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car and suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brookebond and Co.
  • a)
    Brookebond and Co., shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of employment at the time of accident
  • b)
    Brookebond and Co., shall not be liable, Sanjay was not in the course of employment when he took Ruhina inside the car.
  • c)
    Ruhina got into the car at her own risk, and therefore, she cannot sue anybody.
  • d)
    None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Gupta answered
Normally, the tortfeasor is liable for his tort. But in some cases, a person may be held liable for the tort committed by another. A master is vicariously liable for the tort of his servant, principal for the tort of his agent and partners for the tort of a partner. This is known as vicarious liability in tort.
In a Master-Servant relationship, the master employs the services of the servant and he works on the command of master, and thus, a special relationship exists between the two, and in case of a tort committed by the servant, his master is also held liable.
The following are the essential conditions to be followed for the vicarious liability of master to arise: –
1. The servant has committed an act which amounts to a tort;
2. Such a tortious act is committed by the servant during the course of his employment under the master.
In the above case, given that Sanjay was an employee of Brookebond and Co., the company shall be liable to compensate for damages to Ruhina. Hence, option (A) is correct.

Principle: A person is said to have committed assault when an apprehension is caused in the mind of a person that he is about to use physical force against his body.
Facts: 'A' abuses 'B' while he was sitting in a moving train, by aggressively shaking his fists when 'B' was standing on the railway platform at a distance.
  • a)
    'A' has caused apprehension of assult in the mind of 'B'
  • b)
    'A' has committed assault against 'B'
  • c)
    A has not committed assault against 'B'
  • d)
    'A' has caused fear of assault in the mind of 'B'
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:
Assault is defined as causing apprehension in the mind of a person that physical force is about to be used against their body. In this case, A was standing on the railway platform at a distance from B, who was sitting in a moving train. A shook his fists aggressively towards B.

Reasoning:
- A did not physically touch B or make any direct physical contact with him.
- B was at a distance and in a moving train, which means there was no immediate threat of physical force being used against him.
- The action of shaking fists aggressively may have caused fear or discomfort to B, but it did not meet the criteria of assault as per the principle mentioned.
Therefore, as per the given facts and the definition of assault, it can be concluded that A did not commit assault against B in this situation.

Principle: Import means bringing some consignment into India from a foreign country.
Facts: A consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India. However, this consignment never crossed the Indian custom barrier nor did it enter into the stream of commerce in India.
  • a)
    The consignment will only be imported into India when it enters into the stream of commerce in India
  • b)
    The consignment was not imported into India
  • c)
    The consignment was imported into India
  • d)
    The consignment will only be imported into India when it crosses the Indian custom barrier.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kajal Singh answered
Principle: Import refers to the act of bringing a consignment from a foreign country into India.

Facts:
- A consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India.
- However, this consignment never crossed the Indian custom barrier nor entered into the stream of commerce in India.

Explanation:
The given information states that a consignment from Sri Lanka has entered the territorial waters of India. However, it is important to understand the concept of import and the conditions that need to be met for a consignment to be considered imported into India.

Definition of Import:
Import refers to the act of bringing goods or commodities into a country from a foreign country. For a consignment to be considered imported into India, it should fulfill the following conditions:

1. Entry into the stream of commerce: The consignment should enter into the flow of trade or commerce in India. This means that the goods should be made available for sale or distribution within the country.

2. Passing the Indian custom barrier: The consignment should cross the Indian custom barrier, which is the point where goods are inspected and cleared by customs officials. This is an essential step to regulate imports and ensure compliance with customs regulations.

Analysis of Options:
a) The consignment will only be imported into India when it enters into the stream of commerce in India: This option is incorrect as it overlooks the requirement of crossing the Indian custom barrier.

b) The consignment was not imported into India: This option is incorrect as the consignment entered the territorial waters of India, which can be considered as the initial step towards import.

c) The consignment was imported into India: This option is correct as it aligns with the fact that the consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India.

d) The consignment will only be imported into India when it crosses the Indian custom barrier: This option is incorrect as it overlooks the possibility of the consignment being considered imported even if it does not cross the Indian custom barrier.

Conclusion:
Based on the given principle and facts, the correct answer is option 'C' - The consignment was imported into India. Although the consignment did not cross the Indian custom barrier or enter into the stream of commerce in India, its entry into the territorial waters of India is sufficient to be considered as imported.

Principle: Consent is a good defence in a civil action for tort but the act should be the same for which consent was given.
Facts: 'B' was formally invited by 'A' to his house. 'B' after sitting for some time in drawing room, moved to the bed room of the house. 'A' used 'B' for trespass.
  • a)
    'B' has interfered with privacy of 'A'
  • b)
    'B' has committed no trespass as he entered the house with 'A's consent
  • c)
    'B' has offended 'A' by moving to bed room
  • d)
    'B' has committed trespass as there was no consent of 'A' for entry in the Bed room
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Bose answered
Answer:

Principle: Consent is a good defense in a civil action for tort, but the act should be the same for which consent was given.

Facts:
- A formally invited B to his house.
- B, after sitting for some time in the drawing room, moved to the bedroom of the house.
- A accused B of trespassing.

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B': B has committed no trespass as he entered the house with A's consent.

Reasoning:

1. Consent as a Defense: In civil law, consent is generally considered a good defense against claims of tort. If a person gives their consent for an act, it can serve as a defense against any legal action related to that act.

2. Principle Application: According to the principle mentioned, consent can be used as a defense in a civil action for tort. However, for this defense to be valid, the act for which consent was given must be the same as the act in question.

3. Formal Invitation: In the given facts, it is stated that A formally invited B to his house. This implies that A gave his explicit consent for B to enter the house.

4. Act of Trespass: B, after sitting in the drawing room for some time, moved to the bedroom of the house. A accuses B of trespassing for entering the bedroom without consent.

5. Consent and Trespass: As per the principle, consent should be for the same act in question. In this case, A consented to B entering the house by giving a formal invitation. Therefore, B did not commit trespass when entering the bedroom as the consent given by A covered B's entry into the house.

6. Conclusion: Based on the principle and the facts provided, it can be concluded that B has committed no trespass as he entered the house with A's consent. Option 'B' is the correct answer.

The question consist of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.
PRINCIPLE : Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft.
FACT: RAMU cuts down a tree on RINKU'S ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU's possession without RINKU's constant. A could not take the tree away.
  • a)
    RAMU can be prosecuted for theft
  • b)
    RAMU cannot be prosecuted for theft
  • c)
    RAMU can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
  • d)
    RAMU has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Dey answered
Understanding the Principle
- The principle states that theft occurs when someone intends to take someone else's movable property without their consent.
- The act of moving the property with the intention of stealing it constitutes theft, even if the property is not successfully taken away.
Analyzing the Fact
- In this scenario, Ramu cuts down a tree on Rinku's property.
- Ramu's intention is to dishonestly take the tree out of Rinku's possession without Rinku's consent.
- Although Ramu could not take the tree away, his actions demonstrate a clear intent to commit theft.
Application of Principle to Fact
- Ramu's act of cutting down the tree signifies a movement of property (the tree) that belongs to Rinku.
- His intention to take the tree without consent fulfills the criteria outlined in the principle.
- Even if the tree is not removed from the property, the act of cutting it down shows a definitive attempt to take it dishonestly.
Conclusion
- Given that Ramu intended to commit theft and attempted to move the property, he can indeed be prosecuted for theft.
- Therefore, option 'A' is correct: Ramu can be prosecuted for theft, as he has fulfilled both the intent and the act required for theft under the principle provided.

Where statute law and common law conflict __________.
  • a)
    Statute law prevails
  • b)
    Common law prevails
  • c)
    The matter will be referred to equity for a decision
  • d)
    The matter will be referred to High Court for a decision
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ruchi Joshi answered
Understanding the Conflict Between Statute Law and Common Law
When statute law and common law conflict, statute law prevails. This principle is rooted in the hierarchy of laws within the legal system.
What is Statute Law?
- Statute law consists of laws enacted by legislative bodies, such as Parliament or Congress.
- These laws are written, codified, and formally documented, providing a clear legal framework.
What is Common Law?
- Common law is developed through judicial decisions and precedents rather than written statutes.
- It evolves over time as courts interpret laws and establish legal principles.
Why Statute Law Prevails?
- Legislative Authority: Statutes are created by elected representatives, reflecting the will of the people. This gives them greater authority than common law, which is judicially created.
- Clarity and Certainty: Statute law offers definitive rules that guide behavior, while common law can be more ambiguous and subject to interpretation.
- Legal Hierarchy: In legal systems like those in the UK and the US, statutes take precedence over common law. When there is a direct conflict, the statute is enforced.
Implications of This Principle
- Courts are obligated to apply the statute, ensuring consistency in the application of law.
- This ensures that legislative intent is honored, promoting stability and predictability in the legal system.
In summary, when conflicts arise between statute law and common law, statute law prevails due to its authoritative nature, clarity, and the principles governing the legal hierarchy.

Principle: Whoever takes away any moveable thing form the land of any person without that person's consent, he is said to have committed theft.
Facts: During his visit to the house of 'C', 'A' asked 'B' the son of 'C', to accompany 'A' to the forest. Neither 'A' nor 'B' informed 'C' in his regard. 'B' accompained 'A' to the forest.
  • a)
    'A' has committed theft as soon as the entered the house of 'C'
  • b)
    'A' has not committed theft
  • c)
    'A' has committed theft
  • d)
    'A' has not committed theft till 'B' did not accompany him
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Harshitha Basu answered
Understanding the Principle of Theft
The principle of theft states that taking a moveable item from another person's property without their consent constitutes theft. In this scenario, we must analyze the actions of A and B regarding C's property.
Key Points of the Scenario
- Involvement of A and B: A invited B (the son of C) to accompany him to the forest without informing C.
- Consent of C: C, the owner of the house and the property, was not aware of A's invitation to B.
- Presence of B: B, being the son of C, had the capacity to consent to accompany A, but there is no indication that he had the authority to grant permission for A to take anything from C's property.
Analysis of A's Actions
- Entry into C's Property: A's entry into C's house is not theft in itself, as he did not take anything at that moment.
- B's Accompaniment: Although B accompanied A, this does not imply that A had the right to take anything from C's property.
Conclusion
- No Theft Committed: A has not committed theft simply by entering the house or even by having B accompany him. Theft would only occur if A actually took a moveable item from C's property without consent.
- Final Verdict: Therefore, the correct answer is that A has not committed theft (option 'B') until he actually takes something without consent.
In summary, A's actions do not fulfill the criteria of theft as outlined in the principle, making option 'B' the accurate choice.

Principles:
(i) A person is said to abet the doing of a thing when he instigates any other person to do that thing.
(ii) Mere acquiescence, however, does not amount to instigation.
Facts: 'A' says to 'B': I am going to kill 'C'. "And and B' replies."Do as you wish and take the consequences"; whereafter 'A' kills 'C'.
  • a)
    'B' has not abetted 'A' to kill 'C'
  • b)
    'B' has abetted 'A' by conspiracy
  • c)
    'B' abetted 'A' to kill 'C'
  • d)
    'B' is jointly liable with 'A' for killing 'C'
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshat Sen answered
B does not respond and does not take any action to stop A from killing C. A goes ahead and kills C.

Analysis:
Based on the given principles, to be considered as abetting, A needs to instigate B to kill C. Mere acquiescence, which means silently accepting or agreeing without actively instigating, does not amount to instigation.

In this scenario, A simply informs B about their intention to kill C but does not actively encourage or provoke B to take any action. B does not respond or take any action to stop A from killing C. B's silence or lack of response does not amount to instigation.

Therefore, based on the given principles, A cannot be considered as having abetted the killing of C.

Joint heirs to a property are called _______.
  • a)
    Co-heirs
  • b)
    Coparceners
  • c)
    Successors
  • d)
    Joint owners
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Sharma answered
Joint heirs to a property are called as Coparceners. They share equal rights and liabilities over the property. The coparceners jointly inherit the property and they have unity of possession and community of interest in joint family property. Hence the correct answer is B. 

A registered instrument has to be attested by at least ___ persons.
  • a)
    1
  • b)
    4
  • c)
    2
  • d)
    3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mayank Goyal answered
Explanation:

In order for an instrument to be considered registered, it must fulfill certain legal requirements. One of these requirements is that the instrument must be attested by at least two persons.


Attestation of a Registered Instrument:

Attestation refers to the act of witnessing the signing of a legal document. It serves as proof that the document was executed in the presence of competent witnesses. The purpose of attestation is to prevent fraud and ensure the authenticity and validity of the document.


Legal Validity:

By requiring a registered instrument to be attested by at least two persons, the law aims to ensure that there are reliable witnesses who can testify to the execution of the document. This helps to establish the legal validity of the instrument and provides a safeguard against any potential disputes or challenges to its authenticity.


Number of Attestors:

The question specifically asks for the minimum number of persons required to attest a registered instrument. The correct answer, therefore, is option C - two persons.


It is important to note that while the minimum requirement is two persons, it is possible for an instrument to be attested by more than two persons. This can provide additional evidence of its authenticity and lend further credibility to the document.


Overall, the attestation of a registered instrument by at least two persons is a legal requirement designed to ensure the validity and reliability of the document.

The MRTP act has been amended in the year ______.
  • a)
    1974
  • b)
    1982
  • c)
    1991
  • d)
    1969
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Sharma answered
The MRTP Act, 1969 was amended in 1991 as a part of the new economic reforms set in motion by the Government of that day. The amendments reset the objectives enshrined in the original statute of 1969. The MRTP Act, before the 1991amendments sought to curb such power arising out of a monopoly.

Matters relating to property are governed by _______
  • a)
    Transfer of Property Act, 1882
  • b)
    Law of Property, 1985
  • c)
    Law of Property and transfer, 1982
  • d)
    Transfer of Property Act 1982
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajat Iyer answered
Transfer of Property Act, 1882

The correct answer is option 'A' - Transfer of Property Act, 1882. This Act is a legislation enacted by the British colonial government in India, which continues to be in force today. It governs matters relating to property, including the transfer of property, rights and liabilities associated with property, and the creation and operation of various types of property interests.

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is a comprehensive law that consolidates and amends the laws relating to the transfer of property. It provides a legal framework for the transfer of immovable property, such as land, houses, and buildings, as well as certain rights and interests in such property. The Act also governs the transfer of movable property of value exceeding a specified amount.

Key Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
1. Definition of Transfer: The Act defines various terms related to property transfer, such as transfer of property, immovable property, movable property, and transfer of actionable claims.

2. Modes of Transfer: It lays down the various modes of transfer, such as sale, gift, mortgage, lease, exchange, and actionable claims. Each mode has specific requirements and procedures that need to be followed for a valid transfer.

3. Rights and Liabilities of Parties: The Act outlines the rights and liabilities of the transferor (person transferring the property) and the transferee (person receiving the property). It also addresses the rights and liabilities of subsequent transferees, co-owners, and third parties.

4. Restrictions on Transfer: The Act imposes certain restrictions on the transfer of property, such as restrictions on alienation by specific individuals or under specific circumstances. These restrictions may be based on personal laws, statutory provisions, or public policy considerations.

5. Creation and Operation of Interests: The Act provides for the creation and operation of various interests in property, such as easements, charges, leases, and mortgages. It sets out the rights and obligations associated with these interests and the procedures for their creation and enforcement.

Importance of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is of great importance as it provides a clear legal framework for property transactions in India. It ensures transparency, certainty, and enforceability of property rights. The Act protects the interests of both the transferor and the transferee by laying down the rights and liabilities of the parties involved. It also helps in preventing disputes and litigation related to property transfers.

Moreover, the Act has been amended over the years to keep up with changing social and economic situations. It has been interpreted and clarified through various judicial decisions, which have further contributed to its effectiveness and relevance.

In conclusion, the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is the legislation that governs matters relating to property in India. It provides a comprehensive legal framework for property transfers, rights, and liabilities associated with property, and the creation and operation of various property interests. The Act plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of property transactions and protecting the interests of all parties involved.

Principle: Copyright law protects only work. 'Work' means cinemato graphic film but does not include performance by an actor in a cine matographic film.
Facts: Alia Bhatt acted in a movie
  • a)
    The acting of Alia Bhatt cannot be protected under copyright law
  • b)
    The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law as professional work
  • c)
    The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work
  • d)
    The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected as film producer's work
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Gupta answered
In the present case, the acting of Alia Bhatt cannot be protected under copyright law. The object of copyright law is to support creators, writers, specialists and fashioners to make unique works by compensating them with the select appropriate for a restricted period to misuse the work for the fiscal increase.
Federal copyright law protects original creative works such as paintings, writing, architecture, movies, software, photos, dance, and music. A work must meet certain minimum requirements to qualify for copyright protection. The length of protection also varies depending on when the work was created or first published.

Principle: False imprisonment is a tort(wrong) which means the total restraint of a person's liberty without lawful justification.
Facts: A part of a public road had been closed for spectators of a boat race. 'P' wanted to enter but he was prevented by 'D' and other policemen because he had not paid the admission fee. 'P' was able to enter the enclosure by other means but was unable to go where he wanted to go. The policemen refused access to where he wanted to go but allowed him to remain where he was or to go back. 'P' remained.
Within the enclosure and refused to leave. Subsequently, 'P' sued 'D' for false imprisonment.
  • a)
    It was a case of false imprisonment, but 'D' could not be made liable for it
  • b)
    'D' could not be made liable for false imprisonment as he has not touched him
  • c)
    'D' could be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did restrict P's movements
  • d)
    'D' could not be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did not totally restrict P's movements
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Mehta answered
To constitute false imprisonment, certain factors such as probable cause for imprisonment, knowledge of the plaintiff for the imprisonment , intention of the defendant while causing imprisonment and period of the confinement matters. For imprisonment, it is necessary that the person should be confined in such an area from where there are no possible ways of escape except the will of the person who is confining the person within that area. In the above case, all the elements were not satisfied to constitute the offence of false imprisonment.
Hence, Option D is correct.

Law is an "essentially and exclusively a social fact" whose definition of law is this?
  • a)
    Duguit
  • b)
    Jeremy Benthan
  • c)
    Savigny
  • d)
    Keisen
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Gupta answered
Leon Duguit was a French jurist. He was one of the most popular and revolutionary legal scholar and thinker of his time. Various legal natural theories and philosophies are given by him. He has stated the law as essentially and exclusively a social fact. He also stated several theories about morality with law. 

Which section of TPA talks about Doctrine of Election?
  • a)
    25
  • b)
    35
  • c)
    45
  • d)
    55
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kritika Saha answered
The correct answer is option 'B' (35).

The section of the TPA (The Pentateuchal Analysis) that talks about the Doctrine of Election is section 35. The Doctrine of Election is an important theological concept found in the Bible, particularly in the Old Testament. It refers to the belief that God chooses certain individuals, groups, or nations for a specific purpose or role in His plan for salvation and redemption.

The Doctrine of Election in the TPA is discussed in detail in section 35, which focuses on the book of Genesis. In this section, the author delves into the narrative and themes of Genesis to explore the concept of election and God's chosen people.

Key Points:
- The Doctrine of Election is a theological concept found in the Bible.
- It refers to the belief that God chooses certain individuals, groups, or nations for a specific purpose.
- Section 35 of the TPA discusses the Doctrine of Election in relation to the book of Genesis.
- This section explores the narrative and themes of Genesis to understand God's chosen people.

Analysis of Section 35:
In section 35 of the TPA, the author begins by examining the story of Adam and Eve and the consequences of their disobedience. This sets the stage for understanding the concept of election and God's plan for redemption.

The author then delves into the story of Cain and Abel, highlighting how God accepted Abel's offering but rejected Cain's. This demonstrates the concept of election, as God chose Abel's offering over Cain's.

Furthermore, the author explores the story of Noah and the flood, emphasizing how Noah and his family were chosen by God to be saved from the destruction. This is another example of election, as God elected Noah and his family to continue the human race.

The section also discusses the story of Abraham and his descendants. Abraham was chosen by God to be the father of a great nation, and his descendants, the Israelites, were elected as God's chosen people. This covenant between God and Abraham's descendants is a central aspect of the Doctrine of Election.

Conclusion:
Section 35 of the TPA focuses on the Doctrine of Election in the book of Genesis. It explores various narratives and themes to understand God's chosen people and His plan for salvation and redemption. This section provides valuable insights into the theological concept of election and its significance in the Bible.

Which of the following is NOT one of the duties of the seller?
  • a)
    Disclose defects in property known to seller
  • b)
    Produce all documents of title to the buyer
  • c)
    Provide discount on the price to the buyer
  • d)
    Answer all questions put by buyer with regard to the property
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Swara Patel answered
Explanation:

Providing discount on the price to the buyer is NOT one of the duties of the seller.

Disclose defects in property known to seller: It is the duty of the seller to disclose any known defects in the property to the buyer to ensure transparency and avoid any legal issues in the future.

Produce all documents of title to the buyer: The seller is responsible for providing all necessary documents of title to the buyer, such as the deed, to prove ownership of the property.

Answer all questions put by buyer with regard to the property: The seller is required to answer all questions posed by the buyer regarding the property to the best of their knowledge in order to facilitate a smooth transaction.
In conclusion, while the seller is obligated to fulfill various duties during a property transaction, providing a discount on the price to the buyer is not one of them.

Principle: An agreement without free consent can be enforces only at the option of the party whose consent was not free.
Facts: A obtains the consent of 'B' to enter into an agreement by putting a gun on the head of B's girlfriend.
  • a)
    'B' can enforce the agreement
  • b)
    'B' cannot enforce the agreement
  • c)
    Neither 'A' nor 'B' can enforce the agreement
  • d)
    'A' can enforce the agreement
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Mehta answered
'B' can enforce the agreement. 
The clear illustration is consent obtained by point of a pistol , or by threatening to cause hurt. It is clear that coercion as thus defined implies a committing or threatening to commit some act which is a contract to law. Hence this agreement is void on the exception of B as he can either uphold the contract or reject it. Like in the case of Chikham Amiraju V Chikham Seshamma. 

TPA deals with -
  1. Moveable property,
  2. Immoveable property
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The Transfer of Property Act (TPA) deals with the transfer of property in India. It governs the transfer of both movable and immovable property.

1. Movable Property:
Movable property refers to any property that can be moved or transferred from one place to another. It includes assets such as cash, stocks, vehicles, furniture, jewelry, etc. The TPA provides rules and regulations for the transfer of movable property. It specifies the various modes of transfer, such as sale, gift, exchange, lease, etc., and outlines the rights and responsibilities of the parties involved in the transfer.

2. Immovable Property:
Immovable property, on the other hand, refers to property that cannot be moved or transferred easily. It includes land, buildings, houses, and other structures permanently attached to the land. The TPA also governs the transfer of immovable property. It lays down the procedures for the transfer of ownership, registration of property, rights and liabilities of the parties, and other related matters.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Transfer of Property Act (TPA) deals with both movable and immovable property. It provides the legal framework for the transfer of property in India, including the rules and regulations for the transfer of movable and immovable assets. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - TPA deals with moveable property and immoveable property.

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