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All questions of April 2024 for CUET Commerce Exam
In which of the following states is Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary located? - a)Rajasthan
- b)Odisha
- c)Meghalaya
- d)Arunachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following states is Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary located?
a)
Rajasthan
b)
Odisha
c)
Meghalaya
d)
Arunachal Pradesh
|
Anjana Dey answered |
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary Location
The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Significance of Arunachal Pradesh
- Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India known for its rich biodiversity and stunning natural landscapes.
- The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries and national parks, including the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It covers an area of approximately 337 sq km and is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
- The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife species, including the elusive red panda, Himalayan black bear, and various species of birds.
- The landscape of the sanctuary ranges from dense forests to alpine meadows, providing a unique habitat for a wide range of species.
Conservation Efforts
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is an important area for conservation efforts in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The sanctuary is managed by the state government and efforts are made to protect the biodiversity of the region.
- Conservation programs are implemented to safeguard the wildlife and their habitats within the sanctuary.
In conclusion, the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, making it a significant area for wildlife conservation in northeastern India.
The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Significance of Arunachal Pradesh
- Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India known for its rich biodiversity and stunning natural landscapes.
- The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries and national parks, including the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It covers an area of approximately 337 sq km and is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
- The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife species, including the elusive red panda, Himalayan black bear, and various species of birds.
- The landscape of the sanctuary ranges from dense forests to alpine meadows, providing a unique habitat for a wide range of species.
Conservation Efforts
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is an important area for conservation efforts in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The sanctuary is managed by the state government and efforts are made to protect the biodiversity of the region.
- Conservation programs are implemented to safeguard the wildlife and their habitats within the sanctuary.
In conclusion, the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, making it a significant area for wildlife conservation in northeastern India.
In a tropical cyclone, as you move from the edges towards the center, air pressure - a)remains constant
- b)increases significantly
- c)decreases significantly
- d)varies depending on the wind speed and direction
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In a tropical cyclone, as you move from the edges towards the center, air pressure
a)
remains constant
b)
increases significantly
c)
decreases significantly
d)
varies depending on the wind speed and direction
|
Gopal Ghosh answered |
Explanation:
Decreases significantly:
When moving from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly. This is a key characteristic of cyclones and is due to the intense low-pressure system at the center of the storm. As air converges towards the center, it rises rapidly, creating lower pressure at the surface.
Coriolis Effect:
The Coriolis effect, caused by the rotation of the Earth, also plays a role in the decreasing air pressure towards the center of the cyclone. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the right, causing it to spiral counterclockwise towards the center. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the left, resulting in a clockwise spiral towards the center.
Eye of the Cyclone:
At the very center of the cyclone is the "eye," which is a region of extremely low pressure and calm conditions. The eye is characterized by clear skies and light winds, providing a stark contrast to the intense winds and rainfall found in the eyewall surrounding it.
Wind Speed Gradient:
The decrease in air pressure towards the center of a cyclone also results in a gradient of wind speeds. The strongest winds are typically found in the eyewall, just outside the eye, where pressure is the lowest. As one moves towards the center, wind speeds decrease due to the lower pressure.
In conclusion, as one moves from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly, creating the distinct characteristics of these powerful storms.
Decreases significantly:
When moving from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly. This is a key characteristic of cyclones and is due to the intense low-pressure system at the center of the storm. As air converges towards the center, it rises rapidly, creating lower pressure at the surface.
Coriolis Effect:
The Coriolis effect, caused by the rotation of the Earth, also plays a role in the decreasing air pressure towards the center of the cyclone. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the right, causing it to spiral counterclockwise towards the center. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the left, resulting in a clockwise spiral towards the center.
Eye of the Cyclone:
At the very center of the cyclone is the "eye," which is a region of extremely low pressure and calm conditions. The eye is characterized by clear skies and light winds, providing a stark contrast to the intense winds and rainfall found in the eyewall surrounding it.
Wind Speed Gradient:
The decrease in air pressure towards the center of a cyclone also results in a gradient of wind speeds. The strongest winds are typically found in the eyewall, just outside the eye, where pressure is the lowest. As one moves towards the center, wind speeds decrease due to the lower pressure.
In conclusion, as one moves from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly, creating the distinct characteristics of these powerful storms.
Which of the following statements about cholera is true? - a)Cholera is caused by a virus.
- b)Cholera is transmitted through contaminated food and water.
- c)Cholera symptoms include high fever and cough.
- d)Cholera is easily treated with antibiotics.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about cholera is true?
a)
Cholera is caused by a virus.
b)
Cholera is transmitted through contaminated food and water.
c)
Cholera symptoms include high fever and cough.
d)
Cholera is easily treated with antibiotics.
|
T.S Academy answered |
- WHO prequalified the Euvichol-S vaccine for Cholera The WHO prequalified the Euvichol-S vaccine for Cholera, a simplified and cost-effective formulation of the oral cholera vaccine Euvichol-Plus.
- Meaning of Prequalification: “Prequalified” means that the vaccine has undergone a rigorous assessment by the WHO and has been deemed to meet international standards of quality, safety, and efficacy. The vaccine is suitable for procurement by United Nations agencies and other international organizations
- Cholera, caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria, is transmitted through contaminated food or water, with the highest number of cases reported in the Middle East and Africa. India reported 132 cases in 2023 (till July).
Which of the following statements regarding the Evershed Effect is true? - a)It describes the deflection of light passing through a magnetic field.
- b)It refers to the phenomenon where the absorption lines in a stellar spectrum are shifted due to the Doppler effect.
- c)It is a result of the differential rotation of the Sun's surface layers.
- d)It is observed as a radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements regarding the Evershed Effect is true?
a)
It describes the deflection of light passing through a magnetic field.
b)
It refers to the phenomenon where the absorption lines in a stellar spectrum are shifted due to the Doppler effect.
c)
It is a result of the differential rotation of the Sun's surface layers.
d)
It is observed as a radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots.
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
Explanation:
Overview of the Evershed Effect:
The Evershed Effect is a phenomenon observed in sunspots, which are dark regions on the Sun's surface caused by intense magnetic activity.
Description of the Evershed Effect:
- The Evershed Effect refers to the radial flow of gas across the solar surface within sunspots.
- This flow of gas is observed to move outward from the center of the sunspot, suggesting a motion of material from the center towards the outer regions.
Explanation of the Correct Statement:
The statement "It is observed as a radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots" is true because the Evershed Effect specifically describes this radial flow of material within sunspots. This flow is a result of the magnetic field's influence on the dynamics of the gas in these regions.
In conclusion, the Evershed Effect is related to the radial flow of gas within sunspots on the Sun's surface, and it is not related to other phenomena such as the deflection of light in a magnetic field or Doppler shifts in stellar spectra.
Overview of the Evershed Effect:
The Evershed Effect is a phenomenon observed in sunspots, which are dark regions on the Sun's surface caused by intense magnetic activity.
Description of the Evershed Effect:
- The Evershed Effect refers to the radial flow of gas across the solar surface within sunspots.
- This flow of gas is observed to move outward from the center of the sunspot, suggesting a motion of material from the center towards the outer regions.
Explanation of the Correct Statement:
The statement "It is observed as a radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots" is true because the Evershed Effect specifically describes this radial flow of material within sunspots. This flow is a result of the magnetic field's influence on the dynamics of the gas in these regions.
In conclusion, the Evershed Effect is related to the radial flow of gas within sunspots on the Sun's surface, and it is not related to other phenomena such as the deflection of light in a magnetic field or Doppler shifts in stellar spectra.
What is the significance of the “peace clause” at the World Trade Organization (WTO)? - a)It ensures that member countries engage in peaceful negotiations to resolve trade disputes.
- b)It prohibits member countries from engaging in any form of military conflict related to trade matters.
- c)It temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges regarding their domestic agricultural subsidies under certain conditions.
- d)It mandates that member countries establish peaceful resolutions to disputes arising from intellectual property rights violations.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of the “peace clause” at the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
a)
It ensures that member countries engage in peaceful negotiations to resolve trade disputes.
b)
It prohibits member countries from engaging in any form of military conflict related to trade matters.
c)
It temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges regarding their domestic agricultural subsidies under certain conditions.
d)
It mandates that member countries establish peaceful resolutions to disputes arising from intellectual property rights violations.
|
|
Nitin Unni answered |
Significance of the "peace clause" at the World Trade Organization (WTO)
The "peace clause" at the World Trade Organization (WTO) holds significant importance for member countries, especially developing nations. Let's delve into the details:
Temporary Exemption for Developing Countries
- The peace clause temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges related to their domestic agricultural subsidies.
- This exemption allows these countries to provide subsidies to their agricultural sector without facing immediate legal action under certain conditions.
- Developing countries can utilize this exemption to support their farmers, promote food security, and boost agricultural production without fear of immediate repercussions.
Promoting Development and Food Security
- By providing a temporary shield from legal challenges, the peace clause enables developing countries to strengthen their agricultural sectors.
- This, in turn, supports rural livelihoods, enhances food security, and contributes to overall economic development in these nations.
- The clause recognizes the importance of agriculture in the development process and allows developing countries to implement policies that benefit their farmers and communities.
Fostering Fair and Equitable Trade
- The peace clause helps level the playing field in international trade by acknowledging the unique challenges faced by developing countries.
- It promotes fair and equitable trade practices by allowing developing nations to support their agricultural sectors while gradually transitioning to more sustainable practices.
- This temporary exemption fosters a more inclusive and balanced trading system that takes into account the diverse needs and circumstances of all member countries.
In conclusion, the "peace clause" at the WTO plays a crucial role in supporting the development objectives of developing countries, promoting food security, and fostering fair and equitable trade practices within the global trading system.
The "peace clause" at the World Trade Organization (WTO) holds significant importance for member countries, especially developing nations. Let's delve into the details:
Temporary Exemption for Developing Countries
- The peace clause temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges related to their domestic agricultural subsidies.
- This exemption allows these countries to provide subsidies to their agricultural sector without facing immediate legal action under certain conditions.
- Developing countries can utilize this exemption to support their farmers, promote food security, and boost agricultural production without fear of immediate repercussions.
Promoting Development and Food Security
- By providing a temporary shield from legal challenges, the peace clause enables developing countries to strengthen their agricultural sectors.
- This, in turn, supports rural livelihoods, enhances food security, and contributes to overall economic development in these nations.
- The clause recognizes the importance of agriculture in the development process and allows developing countries to implement policies that benefit their farmers and communities.
Fostering Fair and Equitable Trade
- The peace clause helps level the playing field in international trade by acknowledging the unique challenges faced by developing countries.
- It promotes fair and equitable trade practices by allowing developing nations to support their agricultural sectors while gradually transitioning to more sustainable practices.
- This temporary exemption fosters a more inclusive and balanced trading system that takes into account the diverse needs and circumstances of all member countries.
In conclusion, the "peace clause" at the WTO plays a crucial role in supporting the development objectives of developing countries, promoting food security, and fostering fair and equitable trade practices within the global trading system.
Consider the following statements about UN Trade and Development”: - It was established in 1945 to promote international trade cooperation.
- It primarily focuses on agricultural development in developing countries.
- Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about UN Trade and Development”:
- It was established in 1945 to promote international trade cooperation.
- It primarily focuses on agricultural development in developing countries.
- Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
K.L Institute answered |
- Only statement 3 is correct.
- Context: UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development, has undergone a significant rebranding as “UN Trade and Development” to mark its 60th anniversary.
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is a permanent intergovernmental organization that promotes the interests of developing countries in world trade.
- It was established by the United Nations General Assembly on December 30, 1964 and has its headquarters in Geneva.
- UNCTAD’s work focuses on trade, development, finance, technology, investment, and sustainable development.
- It collects data, conducts research, and analyses policies to help countries frame policies in these areas.
- UNCTAD also outlines recommendations for realigning the global debt architecture with developing countries’ needs.
Which of the following statements about rogue waves is true? - a)Rogue waves are always caused by underwater earthquakes.
- b)Rogue waves are typically less than twice the height of surrounding waves.
- c)Rogue waves are more likely to occur in shallow waters.
- d)Rogue waves are unpredictable and can appear suddenly without warning.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about rogue waves is true?
a)
Rogue waves are always caused by underwater earthquakes.
b)
Rogue waves are typically less than twice the height of surrounding waves.
c)
Rogue waves are more likely to occur in shallow waters.
d)
Rogue waves are unpredictable and can appear suddenly without warning.
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
- Context: A University of Melbourne expedition to the Southern Ocean has uncovered that wind is a significant factor in the creation of massive rogue waves.
- About Rogue Waves:
- Rogue waves are large, unpredictable, and dangerous ocean waves that are at least twice the height of the surrounding waves.
- They can be formed when multiple wave crests pass through a single point, or from a combination of waves and currents.
- Rogue waves are rare, but they can be a threat to ocean liners, capital ships, and land structures.
Which of the following statements accurately describes GPS spoofing? - a)GPS spoofing is a method used to increase the accuracy of GPS signals.
- b)GPS spoofing involves sending fake GPS signals to deceive GPS receivers about the actual location.
- c)GPS spoofing is primarily used to reduce the power consumption of GPS devices.
- d)GPS spoofing is a feature that allows GPS devices to communicate with each other wirelessly.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes GPS spoofing?
a)
GPS spoofing is a method used to increase the accuracy of GPS signals.
b)
GPS spoofing involves sending fake GPS signals to deceive GPS receivers about the actual location.
c)
GPS spoofing is primarily used to reduce the power consumption of GPS devices.
d)
GPS spoofing is a feature that allows GPS devices to communicate with each other wirelessly.
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Context: Israel reportedly used GPS jamming to confuse Iran’s missile targeting teams ahead of Iran’s direct attack on Israel.
- GPS spoofing is a technique where fake GPS signals are broadcasted to deceive GPS receivers into believing that the spoofed location is the actual location. This can be used to mislead navigation systems, track someone’s location inaccurately, or even cause accidents by providing false navigation information. It is a malicious activity that undermines the integrity and reliability of GPS-based systems.
Consider the following statements: - Interest rates rise when inflation decreases.
- Lower interest rates typically encourage saving and discourage borrowing.
- Central banks adjust interest rates to regulate the money supply and stabilize economic activity.
- Rising interest rates have a stimulative effect on the housing market.
How many of the above statements about interest rates are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Interest rates rise when inflation decreases.
- Lower interest rates typically encourage saving and discourage borrowing.
- Central banks adjust interest rates to regulate the money supply and stabilize economic activity.
- Rising interest rates have a stimulative effect on the housing market.
How many of the above statements about interest rates are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
Interest Rates: Correct Statements
Interest rates play a crucial role in the functioning of an economy, impacting various aspects such as inflation, savings, borrowing, money supply, economic activity, and the housing market. Let's analyze the statements provided:
1. Interest rates rise when inflation decreases:
- This statement is incorrect. In reality, interest rates tend to rise when inflation increases. Central banks often raise interest rates to combat high inflation by reducing the money supply and curbing spending.
2. Lower interest rates typically encourage saving and discourage borrowing:
- This statement is correct. When interest rates are low, saving becomes less rewarding due to lower returns. On the other hand, borrowing becomes more attractive as the cost of borrowing decreases, stimulating economic activity.
3. Central banks adjust interest rates to regulate the money supply and stabilize economic activity:
- This statement is correct. Central banks use interest rates as a tool to control the money supply in the economy. By raising or lowering interest rates, they can influence borrowing, spending, and investment, thereby stabilizing economic activity.
4. Rising interest rates have a stimulative effect on the housing market:
- This statement is incorrect. Rising interest rates usually have a dampening effect on the housing market. Higher interest rates lead to increased mortgage costs, making it more expensive for individuals to buy homes. This can slow down the demand for housing and impact the overall housing market.
Therefore, out of the four statements provided, only the second statement about lower interest rates encouraging saving and discouraging borrowing is correct. It is important to understand the relationship between interest rates and various economic factors to make informed decisions and predictions about the economy.
Interest rates play a crucial role in the functioning of an economy, impacting various aspects such as inflation, savings, borrowing, money supply, economic activity, and the housing market. Let's analyze the statements provided:
1. Interest rates rise when inflation decreases:
- This statement is incorrect. In reality, interest rates tend to rise when inflation increases. Central banks often raise interest rates to combat high inflation by reducing the money supply and curbing spending.
2. Lower interest rates typically encourage saving and discourage borrowing:
- This statement is correct. When interest rates are low, saving becomes less rewarding due to lower returns. On the other hand, borrowing becomes more attractive as the cost of borrowing decreases, stimulating economic activity.
3. Central banks adjust interest rates to regulate the money supply and stabilize economic activity:
- This statement is correct. Central banks use interest rates as a tool to control the money supply in the economy. By raising or lowering interest rates, they can influence borrowing, spending, and investment, thereby stabilizing economic activity.
4. Rising interest rates have a stimulative effect on the housing market:
- This statement is incorrect. Rising interest rates usually have a dampening effect on the housing market. Higher interest rates lead to increased mortgage costs, making it more expensive for individuals to buy homes. This can slow down the demand for housing and impact the overall housing market.
Therefore, out of the four statements provided, only the second statement about lower interest rates encouraging saving and discouraging borrowing is correct. It is important to understand the relationship between interest rates and various economic factors to make informed decisions and predictions about the economy.
Which of the following statements best describes Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)? - a)It represents the total value of goods and services produced in an economy during a specific period.
- b)It refers to the change in the value of stocks and bonds traded in a financial market.
- c)It measures the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a particular time period.
- d)It denotes the total value of exports minus the total value of imports in an economy.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements best describes Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)?
a)
It represents the total value of goods and services produced in an economy during a specific period.
b)
It refers to the change in the value of stocks and bonds traded in a financial market.
c)
It measures the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a particular time period.
d)
It denotes the total value of exports minus the total value of imports in an economy.
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Context: Private investment in India, measured by Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) as a percentage of GDP, has seen a decline since 2011-12. Despite government efforts like corporate tax cuts, private investment hasn’t picked up.
- What is GFCF?
- Gross Fixed Capital Formation, measures the growth in fixed capital in an economy, including assets like buildings and machinery. It serves as an indicator of private sector investment willingness and includes government investment. GFCF is important because fixed capital boosts economic growth by increasing productivity and living standards. Developed economies tend to have more fixed capital per capita compared to developing ones.
Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction”? - a)In case of ambiguity, courts should interpret statutes in a way that advances the public interest.
- b)When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law.
- c)Courts should strictly adhere to the plain language of statutes without considering their underlying purpose.
- d)Statutes should be interpreted in a manner that favors one particular group over others.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction”?
a)
In case of ambiguity, courts should interpret statutes in a way that advances the public interest.
b)
When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law.
c)
Courts should strictly adhere to the plain language of statutes without considering their underlying purpose.
d)
Statutes should be interpreted in a manner that favors one particular group over others.
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Context: The Supreme Court, while refusing to condone a 5659-day delay in an appeal, outlined eight principles deciding an application for condonation of delay.
- The principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction” suggests that when interpreting statutes, courts should strive to achieve harmony and coherence in the law. This involves considering the legislative intent behind the statute and the purpose it seeks to achieve. Option A might seem plausible, but it doesn’t necessarily encompass the broader notion of considering legislative intent and purpose. Option C contradicts the principle by suggesting a strict adherence to the plain language of statutes without regard for their purpose or intent. Option D is incorrect as it goes against the idea of impartiality in legal interpretation. Therefore, option B is the most fitting choice as it aligns with the principle of harmonious construction by advocating for a holistic interpretation of statutes.
In India, which one of the following is mandated with facilitating monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property? - a)NITI Aayog
- b)Reserve Bank of India
- c)Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- d)Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In India, which one of the following is mandated with facilitating monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property?
a)
NITI Aayog
b)
Reserve Bank of India
c)
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
d)
Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
|
|
Shreya Desai answered |
Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM)
The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is mandated with facilitating monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property in India.
Role of DIPAM:
- DIPAM plays a crucial role in managing the disinvestment process of central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) in India.
- It is responsible for the strategic sale of government equity in non-strategic, loss-making, and sick CPSEs.
- DIPAM also handles the sale of enemy property, which refers to the assets left behind by people who migrated to Pakistan or China and are no longer Indian citizens.
Functions of DIPAM:
- Formulating policies related to disinvestment and strategic sale of CPSEs.
- Advising the government on the mode and extent of disinvestment.
- Implementing decisions related to disinvestment and stake sales.
- Managing the process of valuation, appointment of advisors, and transaction structure for disinvestment.
Importance of DIPAM:
- DIPAM plays a key role in promoting efficient use of resources by unlocking the value of non-core assets of CPSEs.
- It helps in improving the financial health of CPSEs by reducing government interference and encouraging private sector participation.
- The monetization of non-core assets through DIPAM also helps in generating revenue for the government, which can be utilized for various developmental purposes.
In conclusion, the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) plays a crucial role in facilitating the monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property in India.
The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is mandated with facilitating monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property in India.
Role of DIPAM:
- DIPAM plays a crucial role in managing the disinvestment process of central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) in India.
- It is responsible for the strategic sale of government equity in non-strategic, loss-making, and sick CPSEs.
- DIPAM also handles the sale of enemy property, which refers to the assets left behind by people who migrated to Pakistan or China and are no longer Indian citizens.
Functions of DIPAM:
- Formulating policies related to disinvestment and strategic sale of CPSEs.
- Advising the government on the mode and extent of disinvestment.
- Implementing decisions related to disinvestment and stake sales.
- Managing the process of valuation, appointment of advisors, and transaction structure for disinvestment.
Importance of DIPAM:
- DIPAM plays a key role in promoting efficient use of resources by unlocking the value of non-core assets of CPSEs.
- It helps in improving the financial health of CPSEs by reducing government interference and encouraging private sector participation.
- The monetization of non-core assets through DIPAM also helps in generating revenue for the government, which can be utilized for various developmental purposes.
In conclusion, the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) plays a crucial role in facilitating the monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property in India.
Plastic Overshoot Day 2024 Report was released by which organization? - a)World Health Organization (WHO)
- b)United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- c)Plastic Pollution Coalition
- d)Earth Action
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Plastic Overshoot Day 2024 Report was released by which organization?
a)
World Health Organization (WHO)
b)
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
c)
Plastic Pollution Coalition
d)
Earth Action
|
BT Educators answered |
- Released by Earth Action
- Key Findings: In 2024, it’s projected for September 5th globally and April 23rd in India. There has been over 7% rise in global plastic waste since 2021, with 12 countries responsible for 60% of mismanaged plastic waste, including China, India, and Russia.
- India is categorized as a Low-Waste-Producing Polluter with a high Mismanaged Waste Index (MWI)
- Plastic Overshoot Day (similar to Earth Overshoot Day) marks when global plastic waste surpasses the world’s capacity to manage it, leading to pollution.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Rampage missile? - a)The Rampage missile is a long-range ballistic missile.
- b)The Rampage missile is a supersonic air-to-ground missile designed for precision strikes against high-value targets.
- c)The Rampage missile is an anti-aircraft missile used for defense against incoming enemy aircraft.
- d)The Rampage missile is a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Rampage missile?
a)
The Rampage missile is a long-range ballistic missile.
b)
The Rampage missile is a supersonic air-to-ground missile designed for precision strikes against high-value targets.
c)
The Rampage missile is an anti-aircraft missile used for defense against incoming enemy aircraft.
d)
The Rampage missile is a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).
|
|
Ankita Gupta answered |
Overview of the Rampage missile:
The Rampage missile is a supersonic air-to-ground missile designed for precision strikes against high-value targets. It is manufactured by Israel Aerospace Industries and is known for its advanced technology and capabilities.
Key features of the Rampage missile:
- Supersonic speed: The Rampage missile travels at supersonic speeds, allowing it to quickly reach its target and minimize the risk of interception.
- Precision strike capability: It is designed to accurately hit high-value targets such as bunkers, command centers, and other fortified structures.
- Standoff range: The missile has a significant standoff range, enabling it to be launched from a safe distance away from the target.
- Versatility: The Rampage missile can be integrated with various aircraft platforms, increasing its versatility and operational effectiveness.
Applications of the Rampage missile:
The Rampage missile is used by air forces to conduct precision strikes against enemy targets. It is particularly effective in neutralizing heavily defended targets and infrastructure.
In conclusion, the Rampage missile is a potent weapon system that provides air forces with a high-precision strike capability against critical enemy assets.
The Rampage missile is a supersonic air-to-ground missile designed for precision strikes against high-value targets. It is manufactured by Israel Aerospace Industries and is known for its advanced technology and capabilities.
Key features of the Rampage missile:
- Supersonic speed: The Rampage missile travels at supersonic speeds, allowing it to quickly reach its target and minimize the risk of interception.
- Precision strike capability: It is designed to accurately hit high-value targets such as bunkers, command centers, and other fortified structures.
- Standoff range: The missile has a significant standoff range, enabling it to be launched from a safe distance away from the target.
- Versatility: The Rampage missile can be integrated with various aircraft platforms, increasing its versatility and operational effectiveness.
Applications of the Rampage missile:
The Rampage missile is used by air forces to conduct precision strikes against enemy targets. It is particularly effective in neutralizing heavily defended targets and infrastructure.
In conclusion, the Rampage missile is a potent weapon system that provides air forces with a high-precision strike capability against critical enemy assets.
Which of the following statements about Earth’s rotation is correct? - a)Earth rotates on its axis once every 23 hours and 54 minutes.
- b)Earth rotates counterclockwise when viewed from the North Pole.
- c)Earth's rotation speed is faster at the equator compared to the poles.
- d)Earth's rotation axis is perpendicular to its orbital plane.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about Earth’s rotation is correct?
a)
Earth rotates on its axis once every 23 hours and 54 minutes.
b)
Earth rotates counterclockwise when viewed from the North Pole.
c)
Earth's rotation speed is faster at the equator compared to the poles.
d)
Earth's rotation axis is perpendicular to its orbital plane.
|
|
BT Educators answered |
- Context: A recent study suggests that the accelerated melting of glaciers and ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica due to climate change is affecting Earth’s rotation, potentially postponing the need for a “negative leap second” to keep clocks aligned with Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
- Option 1 is Incorrect: Earth makes one complete rotation on its axis every 23 hours and 56 minutes, which is rounded up to 24 hours.
- Option 2 is Incorrect: Earth rotates counterclockwise when viewed from above the North Pole, not when viewed from the North Pole itself.
- Option 3 is correct: Earth’s rotation speed is indeed faster at the equator compared to the poles due to the larger circumference of the equator, resulting in a greater distance traveled in the same amount of time.
- Option 4 is Incorrect: Earth’s rotation axis is tilted at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees relative to its orbital plane around the Sun, not perpendicular.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Earth’s rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past.
Statement-II: This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth’s rotation.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Earth’s rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past.
Statement-II: This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth’s rotation.
Statement-I: Earth’s rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past.
Statement-II: This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth’s rotation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Earth rotates once in about 24 hours with respect to the Sun, but once every 23 hours, 56 minutes and 4 seconds with respect to other distant stars (see below). Earth’s rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past. This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth’s rotation.
What does the credit-deposit ratio measure in the banking sector? - a)The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total assets.
- b)The ratio of a bank's total deposits to its total liabilities.
- c)The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total deposits.
- d)The ratio of a bank's profits to its shareholders' equity.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the credit-deposit ratio measure in the banking sector?
a)
The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total assets.
b)
The ratio of a bank's total deposits to its total liabilities.
c)
The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total deposits.
d)
The ratio of a bank's profits to its shareholders' equity.
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: Banks in India are facing challenges in attracting deposits during the financial year 2023-24.
- The credit-deposit ratio is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending activities (credit) and its deposit base.
- It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its total deposits. The ratio indicates how much of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans.
- A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit, while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.
- It is an important measure of a bank’s liquidity and lending capacity.
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between a Cyclone and an Anticyclone? - a)Cyclones are characterized by inward spiraling winds and low-pressure centers, while anticyclones have outward spiraling winds and high-pressure centers.
- b)Cyclones are associated with calm weather conditions and clear skies, while anticyclones bring stormy weather and heavy precipitation.
- c)Cyclones typically rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, whereas anticyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- d)Cyclones form over landmasses and are driven by the cooling of air masses, while anticyclones form over warm ocean waters and are fueled by evaporation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between a Cyclone and an Anticyclone?
a)
Cyclones are characterized by inward spiraling winds and low-pressure centers, while anticyclones have outward spiraling winds and high-pressure centers.
b)
Cyclones are associated with calm weather conditions and clear skies, while anticyclones bring stormy weather and heavy precipitation.
c)
Cyclones typically rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, whereas anticyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
d)
Cyclones form over landmasses and are driven by the cooling of air masses, while anticyclones form over warm ocean waters and are fueled by evaporation.
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|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Context: Recent deadly storms that submerged Dubai and caused fatalities in Oman were likely exacerbated by climate change, with human-induced heat making the record rainfall 10-40% heavier, according to scientists.
- difference between Cyclone and Anticyclone:
Which of the following statements about the ‘Southern Ocean’ is accurate? - a)It is the smallest of the Earth's five oceans.
- b)The Southern Ocean is located entirely within the Antarctic Circle.
- c)It was officially recognized as a distinct ocean by the International Hydrographic Organization in 2000.
- d)The Southern Ocean is characterized by its warm waters and tropical climate.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about the ‘Southern Ocean’ is accurate?
a)
It is the smallest of the Earth's five oceans.
b)
The Southern Ocean is located entirely within the Antarctic Circle.
c)
It was officially recognized as a distinct ocean by the International Hydrographic Organization in 2000.
d)
The Southern Ocean is characterized by its warm waters and tropical climate.
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Dipika Joshi answered |
Recognition of the Southern Ocean:
The correct statement about the Southern Ocean is that it was officially recognized as a distinct ocean by the International Hydrographic Organization in 2000.
Explanation:
- The Southern Ocean is the newest recognized ocean in the world, as it was officially designated as a distinct body of water by the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) in 2000.
- Prior to this recognition, the Southern Ocean was considered to be part of the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans, but its unique characteristics, including the strong circumpolar current and the Antarctic convergence zone, led to its designation as a separate ocean.
- The Southern Ocean is located in the southern hemisphere surrounding Antarctica. It is the fourth largest of the Earth's five oceans, covering an area of approximately 20.3 million square kilometers.
- The waters of the Southern Ocean are known for their cold temperatures and unique marine ecosystems, including a variety of marine mammals such as seals and whales, as well as numerous species of seabirds.
- The recognition of the Southern Ocean as a distinct ocean has important implications for scientific research, conservation efforts, and maritime activities in the region.
The correct statement about the Southern Ocean is that it was officially recognized as a distinct ocean by the International Hydrographic Organization in 2000.
Explanation:
- The Southern Ocean is the newest recognized ocean in the world, as it was officially designated as a distinct body of water by the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) in 2000.
- Prior to this recognition, the Southern Ocean was considered to be part of the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific Oceans, but its unique characteristics, including the strong circumpolar current and the Antarctic convergence zone, led to its designation as a separate ocean.
- The Southern Ocean is located in the southern hemisphere surrounding Antarctica. It is the fourth largest of the Earth's five oceans, covering an area of approximately 20.3 million square kilometers.
- The waters of the Southern Ocean are known for their cold temperatures and unique marine ecosystems, including a variety of marine mammals such as seals and whales, as well as numerous species of seabirds.
- The recognition of the Southern Ocean as a distinct ocean has important implications for scientific research, conservation efforts, and maritime activities in the region.
Consider the following statements about Vaigai River: - It originates in Varusanadu Hills.
- The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river.
- Madurai city lies on this river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Vaigai River:
- It originates in Varusanadu Hills.
- The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river.
- Madurai city lies on this river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
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|
Divyansh Yadav answered |
Origin of Vaigai River:
- The Vaigai River originates in the Varusanadu Hills in the Western Ghats.
Vattaparai Falls:
- The Vattaparai Falls are indeed located on the Vaigai River, adding to the natural beauty of the region.
Madurai City:
- Madurai city lies on the banks of the Vaigai River, making it an important water source for the city and its inhabitants.
Therefore, all three statements provided in the question are correct. The Vaigai River plays a significant role in the geography and livelihoods of the areas it flows through, making it an important river in the region.
- The Vaigai River originates in the Varusanadu Hills in the Western Ghats.
Vattaparai Falls:
- The Vattaparai Falls are indeed located on the Vaigai River, adding to the natural beauty of the region.
Madurai City:
- Madurai city lies on the banks of the Vaigai River, making it an important water source for the city and its inhabitants.
Therefore, all three statements provided in the question are correct. The Vaigai River plays a significant role in the geography and livelihoods of the areas it flows through, making it an important river in the region.
Consider the following statements about the Group of Friends (GOF): - It was launched by India in 2022.
- It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Group of Friends (GOF):
- It was launched by India in 2022.
- It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Mahi Khanna answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: It was launched by India in 2022.
- This statement is incorrect. The Group of Friends (GOF) was not launched by India in 2022. The Group of Friends was actually established in 2010 by a group of countries with the aim of supporting and protecting United Nations peacekeepers.
Statement 2: It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
- This statement is correct. One of the main objectives of the Group of Friends is to promote accountability for crimes committed against United Nations peacekeepers, also known as Blue Helmets. The group works towards ensuring that those responsible for such crimes are held accountable for their actions.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
In summary, while the first statement is incorrect as the Group of Friends was not launched by India in 2022, the second statement is accurate as the group does aim to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
Statement 1: It was launched by India in 2022.
- This statement is incorrect. The Group of Friends (GOF) was not launched by India in 2022. The Group of Friends was actually established in 2010 by a group of countries with the aim of supporting and protecting United Nations peacekeepers.
Statement 2: It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
- This statement is correct. One of the main objectives of the Group of Friends is to promote accountability for crimes committed against United Nations peacekeepers, also known as Blue Helmets. The group works towards ensuring that those responsible for such crimes are held accountable for their actions.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
In summary, while the first statement is incorrect as the Group of Friends was not launched by India in 2022, the second statement is accurate as the group does aim to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
With reference to ‘Summit of the Future’ 2024, a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly, consider the following statements: - The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration.
- The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations.
- The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to ‘Summit of the Future’ 2024, a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly, consider the following statements:
- The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration.
- The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations.
- The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
- Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts.
- About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis.
- Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges.
The terms “INC-2 and INC-4” are mentioned in the news sometimes, are associated with the - a)International conventions on Chemical weapons
- b)WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements
- c)WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The terms “INC-2 and INC-4” are mentioned in the news sometimes, are associated with the
a)
International conventions on Chemical weapons
b)
WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements
c)
WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives
d)
None of the above
|
|
Naveen Kulkarni answered |
Explanation:
INC-2 and INC-4
- INC-2 and INC-4 do not refer to any specific international conventions or committees.
- These terms are not associated with the International conventions on Chemical weapons, WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements, or WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives.
- They are not related to any prominent global organizations or agreements.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D', None of the above. These terms may be specific to certain contexts or industries that are not widely known or recognized.
INC-2 and INC-4
- INC-2 and INC-4 do not refer to any specific international conventions or committees.
- These terms are not associated with the International conventions on Chemical weapons, WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements, or WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives.
- They are not related to any prominent global organizations or agreements.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D', None of the above. These terms may be specific to certain contexts or industries that are not widely known or recognized.
Consider the following: - Forward contracts
- Swaps
- Currency futures
- Currency options
How many of the above are an example of an exchange-traded currency derivative?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following:
- Forward contracts
- Swaps
- Currency futures
- Currency options
How many of the above are an example of an exchange-traded currency derivative?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
- Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the implementation of its new norms for the exchange-traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market.
- Futures and options are two of the most popular exchange-traded derivatives. Exchange-traded derivatives can be used to hedge exposure and to speculate on a wide range of financial assets, including commodities, equities, currencies, and even interest rates.
- Forward contracts are over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives, not exchange-traded.
- Swaps are also typically traded over-the-counter (OTC), not on regulated exchanges.
Which of the following statements about methanol is true? - a)It is primarily used as a fuel additive in gasoline.
- b)It is a saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula CH4.
- c)It is commonly known as wood alcohol.
- d)It is a greenhouse gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about methanol is true?
a)
It is primarily used as a fuel additive in gasoline.
b)
It is a saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula CH4.
c)
It is commonly known as wood alcohol.
d)
It is a greenhouse gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities.
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Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- Context: Health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitizers and aloe gels due to the risk of methanol exposure.
- Methanol, also known as methyl alcohol and wood alcohol, is a colorless, flammable, and poisonous liquid with a strong odor. It has a chemical formula of CH₃OH.
Which of the following statements best describes the impacts of Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR)? - a)Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity due to a larger workforce contributing to the economy.
- b)Decreased FLFPR results in reduced gender inequality as women have more time to focus on household responsibilities and caregiving.
- c)A higher FLFPR typically leads to lower fertility rates as women prioritize their careers over starting families.
- d)Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements best describes the impacts of Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR)?
a)
Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity due to a larger workforce contributing to the economy.
b)
Decreased FLFPR results in reduced gender inequality as women have more time to focus on household responsibilities and caregiving.
c)
A higher FLFPR typically leads to lower fertility rates as women prioritize their careers over starting families.
d)
Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
|
|
Dipika Joshi answered |
Impact of Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR)
Increased Economic Growth and Productivity:
- Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity as it expands the workforce and brings in diverse skills and perspectives.
- More women in the labor force mean more individuals contributing to the economy, leading to overall growth.
Reduced Gender Inequality:
- Higher FLFPR can contribute to reducing gender inequality by providing women with economic independence and opportunities for career advancement.
- It challenges traditional gender roles and stereotypes, promoting a more egalitarian society.
Lower Fertility Rates:
- Contrary to the statement, higher FLFPR does not necessarily lead to lower fertility rates. Women can balance careers and families, leading to more informed choices about family planning.
Impact on Poverty and Income Inequality:
- Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
- Increasing FLFPR can help alleviate poverty by providing more individuals with opportunities for economic empowerment.
In conclusion, the impacts of FLFPR are multifaceted, with the potential to drive economic growth, reduce gender inequality, and alleviate poverty. It is essential to create an enabling environment that supports women's participation in the labor force to harness these benefits fully.
Increased Economic Growth and Productivity:
- Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity as it expands the workforce and brings in diverse skills and perspectives.
- More women in the labor force mean more individuals contributing to the economy, leading to overall growth.
Reduced Gender Inequality:
- Higher FLFPR can contribute to reducing gender inequality by providing women with economic independence and opportunities for career advancement.
- It challenges traditional gender roles and stereotypes, promoting a more egalitarian society.
Lower Fertility Rates:
- Contrary to the statement, higher FLFPR does not necessarily lead to lower fertility rates. Women can balance careers and families, leading to more informed choices about family planning.
Impact on Poverty and Income Inequality:
- Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
- Increasing FLFPR can help alleviate poverty by providing more individuals with opportunities for economic empowerment.
In conclusion, the impacts of FLFPR are multifaceted, with the potential to drive economic growth, reduce gender inequality, and alleviate poverty. It is essential to create an enabling environment that supports women's participation in the labor force to harness these benefits fully.
As per the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: - Article 39(b) mandates the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
- Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
As per the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- Article 39(b) mandates the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
- Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Ankita Gupta answered |
Explanation:
Article 39(b) mandates the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good:
- This statement is correct as per the Constitution of India.
- Article 39 of the Indian Constitution contains principles of policy that direct the State to ensure social and economic justice.
- Article 39(b) specifically emphasizes the importance of distributing material resources in a way that benefits the common good of the community.
- The State is tasked with ensuring that resources are not concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or groups, but are distributed in a manner that serves the overall welfare of society.
Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment:
- This statement is not correct as it does not accurately reflect the content of Article 39(b).
- While Article 39(b) does indeed focus on the distribution of material resources, it does not explicitly mention the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
- The primary aim of Article 39(b) is to ensure that resources are utilized in a manner that benefits the common good, rather than focusing solely on preventing the concentration of wealth.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
Article 39(b) mandates the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good:
- This statement is correct as per the Constitution of India.
- Article 39 of the Indian Constitution contains principles of policy that direct the State to ensure social and economic justice.
- Article 39(b) specifically emphasizes the importance of distributing material resources in a way that benefits the common good of the community.
- The State is tasked with ensuring that resources are not concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or groups, but are distributed in a manner that serves the overall welfare of society.
Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment:
- This statement is not correct as it does not accurately reflect the content of Article 39(b).
- While Article 39(b) does indeed focus on the distribution of material resources, it does not explicitly mention the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
- The primary aim of Article 39(b) is to ensure that resources are utilized in a manner that benefits the common good, rather than focusing solely on preventing the concentration of wealth.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 only.
Which of the following statements regarding the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is correct? - a)WARM is primarily used for studying cosmic microwave background radiation.
- b)WARM monitors solar activity using ultraviolet light.
- c)WARM is a space-based telescope designed to observe distant galaxies.
- d)WARM is deployed to track and study solar active regions using white light observations.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements regarding the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is correct?
a)
WARM is primarily used for studying cosmic microwave background radiation.
b)
WARM monitors solar activity using ultraviolet light.
c)
WARM is a space-based telescope designed to observe distant galaxies.
d)
WARM is deployed to track and study solar active regions using white light observations.
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
Overview of WARM:
The White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is a scientific instrument used for tracking and studying solar active regions. It is specifically designed to observe the Sun using white light observations.
Functionality of WARM:
WARM is deployed to monitor solar activity by capturing images of the Sun in white light. By observing sunspots, flares, and other phenomena in white light, researchers can study the dynamics and evolution of solar active regions.
Importance of WARM:
Studying solar active regions is crucial for understanding solar behavior and its impact on space weather. Solar flares and eruptions from active regions can affect communication systems, satellites, and power grids on Earth.
Applications of WARM:
WARM's observations provide valuable data for researchers studying solar physics, space weather, and solar-terrestrial interactions. By monitoring changes in active regions over time, scientists can improve their understanding of solar processes and their effects on Earth.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) plays a significant role in tracking and studying solar active regions using white light observations. Its contributions to solar research are invaluable for advancing our knowledge of the Sun and its influence on our planet.
The White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is a scientific instrument used for tracking and studying solar active regions. It is specifically designed to observe the Sun using white light observations.
Functionality of WARM:
WARM is deployed to monitor solar activity by capturing images of the Sun in white light. By observing sunspots, flares, and other phenomena in white light, researchers can study the dynamics and evolution of solar active regions.
Importance of WARM:
Studying solar active regions is crucial for understanding solar behavior and its impact on space weather. Solar flares and eruptions from active regions can affect communication systems, satellites, and power grids on Earth.
Applications of WARM:
WARM's observations provide valuable data for researchers studying solar physics, space weather, and solar-terrestrial interactions. By monitoring changes in active regions over time, scientists can improve their understanding of solar processes and their effects on Earth.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) plays a significant role in tracking and studying solar active regions using white light observations. Its contributions to solar research are invaluable for advancing our knowledge of the Sun and its influence on our planet.
Consider the following pairs[GI product: State]: - Asharikandi Terracotta Craft: Kerala
- Pani Meteka Craft: Assam
- Sarthebari Metal Craft: Odisha
- Jaapi: Sikkim
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)Only three
- d)All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs[GI product: State]:
- Asharikandi Terracotta Craft: Kerala
- Pani Meteka Craft: Assam
- Sarthebari Metal Craft: Odisha
- Jaapi: Sikkim
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
Only three
d)
All four
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
All of the above GI products belongs to Assam [Asharikandi Terracotta Craft, Pani Meteka Craft, Sarthebari Metal Craft, Jaapi (Bamboo Headgear), Mishing Handloom Products]
Which one of the following statements is not correct? - a)Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
- b)Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
- c)Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
- d)Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a)
Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
b)
Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
c)
Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
d)
Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
|
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
- Global hepatitis report 2024
- Released by WHO
- India accounted for over 11% of the global burden of hepatitis B & C cases, ranking second after China.
- Hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by various factors, such as drugs, alcohol, and autoimmune disorders. Symptoms can range from jaundice and fever to chronic illness. The five main strains are A, B, C, D, and E, with B and C leading to chronic disease, liver cirrhosis, cancer, and death. While a vaccine exists for type B, none is available for type C
Which one of the following statements accurately describes the term ‘Polar Vortex’? - a)A phenomenon caused by the Earth's tilt on its axis, leading to extreme cold temperatures in polar regions.
- b)A high-pressure system that forms over the North and South Poles, causing a rapid decrease in temperature.
- c)A large-scale circulation pattern that typically forms during winter, trapping cold air within the Arctic region.
- d)An atmospheric disturbance characterized by a sudden shift in wind direction, leading to unpredictable weather patterns.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following statements accurately describes the term ‘Polar Vortex’?
a)
A phenomenon caused by the Earth's tilt on its axis, leading to extreme cold temperatures in polar regions.
b)
A high-pressure system that forms over the North and South Poles, causing a rapid decrease in temperature.
c)
A large-scale circulation pattern that typically forms during winter, trapping cold air within the Arctic region.
d)
An atmospheric disturbance characterized by a sudden shift in wind direction, leading to unpredictable weather patterns.
|
|
Dipika Joshi answered |
Explanation:
Polar Vortex:
The term 'Polar Vortex' refers to a large-scale circulation pattern that typically forms during winter, trapping cold air within the Arctic region. This phenomenon is not caused by the Earth's tilt on its axis or a high-pressure system over the poles. It is a natural occurrence related to the polar jet stream.
Formation and Characteristics:
- The polar vortex is a circulation of strong winds that normally surround the polar regions in the stratosphere.
- During winter, the polar vortex can weaken, causing it to become less stable and allowing portions of the cold air mass to break off and move southward.
Impact on Weather:
- When the polar vortex weakens, it can lead to cold outbreaks and extreme weather events in regions outside the Arctic, such as the United States and Europe.
- These cold air outbreaks can result in frigid temperatures, heavy snowfall, and other severe weather conditions.
Conclusion:
Understanding the concept of the polar vortex is crucial for predicting and preparing for extreme winter weather events. By recognizing its characteristics and impact on weather patterns, meteorologists can provide accurate forecasts and help communities stay safe during severe cold outbreaks.
Polar Vortex:
The term 'Polar Vortex' refers to a large-scale circulation pattern that typically forms during winter, trapping cold air within the Arctic region. This phenomenon is not caused by the Earth's tilt on its axis or a high-pressure system over the poles. It is a natural occurrence related to the polar jet stream.
Formation and Characteristics:
- The polar vortex is a circulation of strong winds that normally surround the polar regions in the stratosphere.
- During winter, the polar vortex can weaken, causing it to become less stable and allowing portions of the cold air mass to break off and move southward.
Impact on Weather:
- When the polar vortex weakens, it can lead to cold outbreaks and extreme weather events in regions outside the Arctic, such as the United States and Europe.
- These cold air outbreaks can result in frigid temperatures, heavy snowfall, and other severe weather conditions.
Conclusion:
Understanding the concept of the polar vortex is crucial for predicting and preparing for extreme winter weather events. By recognizing its characteristics and impact on weather patterns, meteorologists can provide accurate forecasts and help communities stay safe during severe cold outbreaks.
For the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has unveiled a revolutionary plan that offers the choice of “home voting,” which is accessible for - a)For all elderly citizens
- b)For all Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)
- c)Both (a) and (b)
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
For the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has unveiled a revolutionary plan that offers the choice of “home voting,” which is accessible for
a)
For all elderly citizens
b)
For all Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)
c)
Both (a) and (b)
d)
None of the above
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) has introduced a ground-breaking initiative for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, providing the option of home voting for elderly citizens above 85 years of age and Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) with a 40% benchmark disability.
- This initiative aims to enhance inclusivity and accessibility in the electoral process.
Consider the following statements: - The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI).
- About WCC:
- The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization. It acknowledges the contributions of local authorities, craftspeople, and communities to cultural, economic, and social development worldwide. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts.
The term “Mpox” sometimes mentioned in the news, is a/an/the - a)treatment for smallpox
- b)detoxifying agent
- c)strange plastic rock
- d)DNA virus
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The term “Mpox” sometimes mentioned in the news, is a/an/the
a)
treatment for smallpox
b)
detoxifying agent
c)
strange plastic rock
d)
DNA virus
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
- Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome.
- Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability.
Which tree among the following is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells? - a)Azadirachta indica
- b)Pterocarpus santalinus
- c)Indian Silver Oak
- d)Teak
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which tree among the following is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells?
a)
Azadirachta indica
b)
Pterocarpus santalinus
c)
Indian Silver Oak
d)
Teak
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
The Indian Silver Oak
The Indian Silver Oak tree is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells. This characteristic sets it apart from other trees and makes it a valuable asset in regions prone to drought.
Water Storage Ability
The Indian Silver Oak tree has developed a unique adaptation to store water beneath its thick bark. This allows the tree to retain moisture during periods of drought when water is scarce. The stored water acts as a reserve that can sustain the tree during dry spells, ensuring its survival even in challenging environmental conditions.
Importance during Dry Spells
During dry spells, when water sources are limited, the Indian Silver Oak's ability to hold water becomes crucial. The stored water provides a lifeline for the tree, enabling it to continue essential functions such as photosynthesis and growth. This resilience makes the tree a valuable resource in arid regions where water availability is a constant challenge.
Ecological Significance
The Indian Silver Oak's capacity to hold water not only benefits the tree itself but also has broader ecological significance. By serving as a reservoir during dry spells, the tree contributes to the ecosystem's overall resilience and stability. Other plants and organisms in the area may also benefit from the water stored by the Indian Silver Oak, highlighting its importance in the local environment.
In conclusion, the Indian Silver Oak's exceptional ability to hold water beneath its thick bark makes it a remarkable tree with significant ecological value, particularly in regions prone to drought. Its capacity to withstand dry spells and provide vital resources underscores the importance of conserving and protecting this unique species.
The Indian Silver Oak tree is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells. This characteristic sets it apart from other trees and makes it a valuable asset in regions prone to drought.
Water Storage Ability
The Indian Silver Oak tree has developed a unique adaptation to store water beneath its thick bark. This allows the tree to retain moisture during periods of drought when water is scarce. The stored water acts as a reserve that can sustain the tree during dry spells, ensuring its survival even in challenging environmental conditions.
Importance during Dry Spells
During dry spells, when water sources are limited, the Indian Silver Oak's ability to hold water becomes crucial. The stored water provides a lifeline for the tree, enabling it to continue essential functions such as photosynthesis and growth. This resilience makes the tree a valuable resource in arid regions where water availability is a constant challenge.
Ecological Significance
The Indian Silver Oak's capacity to hold water not only benefits the tree itself but also has broader ecological significance. By serving as a reservoir during dry spells, the tree contributes to the ecosystem's overall resilience and stability. Other plants and organisms in the area may also benefit from the water stored by the Indian Silver Oak, highlighting its importance in the local environment.
In conclusion, the Indian Silver Oak's exceptional ability to hold water beneath its thick bark makes it a remarkable tree with significant ecological value, particularly in regions prone to drought. Its capacity to withstand dry spells and provide vital resources underscores the importance of conserving and protecting this unique species.
Consider the following statements regarding Kallakkadal. - Kallakkadal are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds in the coastal environment.
- They occur along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast.
- Tsunami and Kallakkadal are similar types of waves with similar causes or mechanisms.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Kallakkadal.
- Kallakkadal are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds in the coastal environment.
- They occur along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast.
- Tsunami and Kallakkadal are similar types of waves with similar causes or mechanisms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Shail Chavan answered |
Understanding Kallakkadal
Kallakkadal refers to flash-flood events that occur in coastal areas, particularly along the Indian west coast. Analyzing the statements provided, we can determine the correctness of each.
Statement Analysis
- First Statement: "Kallakkadal are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds in the coastal environment."
- Correct: Kallakkadal events are characterized by sudden flooding that does not give much warning, often occurring with minimal changes in local wind patterns.
- Second Statement: "They occur along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast."
- Correct: Kallakkadal is indeed prevalent along the Indian west coast, where the geographical and climatic conditions contribute to such flash floods.
- Third Statement: "Tsunami and Kallakkadal are similar types of waves with similar causes or mechanisms."
- Incorrect: Tsunamis are seismic waves caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions, while Kallakkadal events are primarily meteorological phenomena linked to sudden heavy rainfall and localized flooding.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Two statements (first and second) are correct.
- One statement (third) is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', indicating that only two of the statements are accurate.
Kallakkadal refers to flash-flood events that occur in coastal areas, particularly along the Indian west coast. Analyzing the statements provided, we can determine the correctness of each.
Statement Analysis
- First Statement: "Kallakkadal are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds in the coastal environment."
- Correct: Kallakkadal events are characterized by sudden flooding that does not give much warning, often occurring with minimal changes in local wind patterns.
- Second Statement: "They occur along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast."
- Correct: Kallakkadal is indeed prevalent along the Indian west coast, where the geographical and climatic conditions contribute to such flash floods.
- Third Statement: "Tsunami and Kallakkadal are similar types of waves with similar causes or mechanisms."
- Incorrect: Tsunamis are seismic waves caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions, while Kallakkadal events are primarily meteorological phenomena linked to sudden heavy rainfall and localized flooding.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Two statements (first and second) are correct.
- One statement (third) is incorrect.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'B', indicating that only two of the statements are accurate.
Which of the following statements regarding the process to become a member of the United Nations (UN) is correct? - a)A country can become a UN member solely through a majority vote in the General Assembly.
- b)To become a UN member, a country must first submit an application to the Security Council, which then recommends admission to the General Assembly for a two-thirds majority vote.
- c)Any country can automatically become a UN member upon expressing its desire to join, without requiring approval from existing member states.
- d)Membership to the UN is restricted to countries that have been independent for at least 50 years and have demonstrated a commitment to peace and human rights.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements regarding the process to become a member of the United Nations (UN) is correct?
a)
A country can become a UN member solely through a majority vote in the General Assembly.
b)
To become a UN member, a country must first submit an application to the Security Council, which then recommends admission to the General Assembly for a two-thirds majority vote.
c)
Any country can automatically become a UN member upon expressing its desire to join, without requiring approval from existing member states.
d)
Membership to the UN is restricted to countries that have been independent for at least 50 years and have demonstrated a commitment to peace and human rights.
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: The United Nations Security Council president has referred the Palestinian Authority’s application for full UN membership to the committee on new member admissions.
- The correct statement is B. The process to become a UN member involves several steps. Firstly, a country must submit an application to the Security Council, which then reviews the application and makes a recommendation to the General Assembly. The General Assembly then votes on the admission of the country, requiring a two-thirds majority for approval. This process ensures that the decision to admit a new member is made by the collective will of existing member states.
Which of the following statements about cosmic rays is true? - a)Cosmic rays are composed solely of photons.
- b)Cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field.
- c)Cosmic rays travel at speeds faster than the speed of light.
- d)Cosmic rays originate solely from within our solar system.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about cosmic rays is true?
a)
Cosmic rays are composed solely of photons.
b)
Cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field.
c)
Cosmic rays travel at speeds faster than the speed of light.
d)
Cosmic rays originate solely from within our solar system.
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
Earth's Magnetic Field Deflects Cosmic Rays
Cosmic rays are high-energy particles, mainly protons, that travel through space at nearly the speed of light. One of the key characteristics of cosmic rays is that they are deflected by Earth's magnetic field. This is due to the fact that cosmic rays are charged particles, and as they enter Earth's magnetic field, they experience a force that causes them to change direction. This deflection phenomenon is known as geomagnetic cutoff.
Importance of Earth's Magnetic Field
Earth's magnetic field plays a crucial role in protecting our planet from the harmful effects of cosmic rays. By deflecting a significant portion of incoming cosmic rays, the magnetic field helps to shield Earth's surface and its inhabitants from the high levels of radiation that cosmic rays carry. This protection is essential for maintaining a habitable environment on Earth.
Impact on Technology and Astronauts
The deflection of cosmic rays by Earth's magnetic field also has implications for technology and space travel. For example, spacecraft traveling beyond Earth's magnetic field are exposed to higher levels of cosmic radiation, which can pose risks to both the spacecraft and its occupants. Understanding how cosmic rays interact with Earth's magnetic field is therefore crucial for ensuring the safety of astronauts and the success of space missions.
In conclusion, the statement that cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field is true. This deflection phenomenon is a key characteristic of cosmic rays and has important implications for both the protection of Earth and the safety of space exploration.
Cosmic rays are high-energy particles, mainly protons, that travel through space at nearly the speed of light. One of the key characteristics of cosmic rays is that they are deflected by Earth's magnetic field. This is due to the fact that cosmic rays are charged particles, and as they enter Earth's magnetic field, they experience a force that causes them to change direction. This deflection phenomenon is known as geomagnetic cutoff.
Importance of Earth's Magnetic Field
Earth's magnetic field plays a crucial role in protecting our planet from the harmful effects of cosmic rays. By deflecting a significant portion of incoming cosmic rays, the magnetic field helps to shield Earth's surface and its inhabitants from the high levels of radiation that cosmic rays carry. This protection is essential for maintaining a habitable environment on Earth.
Impact on Technology and Astronauts
The deflection of cosmic rays by Earth's magnetic field also has implications for technology and space travel. For example, spacecraft traveling beyond Earth's magnetic field are exposed to higher levels of cosmic radiation, which can pose risks to both the spacecraft and its occupants. Understanding how cosmic rays interact with Earth's magnetic field is therefore crucial for ensuring the safety of astronauts and the success of space missions.
In conclusion, the statement that cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field is true. This deflection phenomenon is a key characteristic of cosmic rays and has important implications for both the protection of Earth and the safety of space exploration.
Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an initiative of the
- a)Food and Agriculture Organization
- b)World Meteorological Organization
- c)United Nations Environment Programme
- d)World Resources Institute
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an initiative of the
a)
Food and Agriculture Organization
b)
World Meteorological Organization
c)
United Nations Environment Programme
d)
World Resources Institute
|
Valor Academy answered |
The World Resources Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch (GFW) in 1997 as an online platform offering data and tools to monitor forests. GFW provides access to near real-time information on global forest changes, enabling users to track and analyze forest dynamics worldwide.
Consider the following statements about the Suvidha portal: - This portal was developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
- It caters to permissions for foreign direct investments in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Suvidha portal:
- This portal was developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
- It caters to permissions for foreign direct investments in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
- Context: Since the announcement of General Elections 2024, over 73,000 applications have been received on the Suvidha Portal, with more than 44,600 requests approved.
- The portal ensures transparency and a level playing field for political parties and candidates by adhering to the First in First out principle.
- It caters to a wide range of permission requests such as organizing rallies, opening temporary party offices, and distributing pamphlets.
- The data available on the portal aids in scrutinizing election expenditures, contributing to greater accountability.
- The Suvidha portal is a technological solution created by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to facilitate fair and transparent elections.
“1 Million Youth Actions Challenge”(1MYAC) is an initiative led by the - a)World Economic Forum
- b)United Nations Environment Programme
- c)UN Climate Change Learning Partnership
- d)United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
“1 Million Youth Actions Challenge”(1MYAC) is an initiative led by the
a)
World Economic Forum
b)
United Nations Environment Programme
c)
UN Climate Change Learning Partnership
d)
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
- Context: The 1 Million Youth Actions Challenge (1MYAC) by the UN Climate Change Learning Partnership (UN CC:Learn) aims to mobilize youth aged 10 to 30 to take concrete actions for a sustainable future, with a goal of reaching 1,000,000 youth actions.
- It focuses on promoting four Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): clean water and sanitation, responsible consumption and production, climate action, and life on land.
- 1MYAC was founded by the Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC) and the RéSEAU.
- The One UN Climate Change Learning Partnership (UN CC:Learn) is a collaborative initiative of more than 30 multilateral organizations that support countries in designing and implementing climate change. UN CC:Learn offers information on climate change and free online courses.
What term describes the phenomenon where the frequency of atomic oscillations is used to define the length of a second? - a)Time dilation
- b)Atomic resonance
- c)Time standardization
- d)Atomic frequency standard
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What term describes the phenomenon where the frequency of atomic oscillations is used to define the length of a second?
a)
Time dilation
b)
Atomic resonance
c)
Time standardization
d)
Atomic frequency standard
|
Lohit Matani answered |
- Context: India is deploying atomic clocks nationwide to synchronize all digital devices with Indian Standard Time, enhancing uniformity and national security.
- Atomic frequency standard refers to the process of using the frequency of atomic oscillations, typically of cesium or other suitable atoms, to define the standard unit of time, the second.
Consider the following statements: - The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Avik Kapoor answered |
Explanation:
1. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative:
The first statement is incorrect. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was not launched by UNESCO in 2014. In fact, the World Craft City initiative was launched by the World Crafts Council (WCC) in 2002 to promote and protect traditional crafts and artisans around the world.
2. UNESCO's identification of Srinagar:
The second statement is also incorrect. UNESCO has not identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation. As of now, there has been no official announcement or confirmation from UNESCO regarding Srinagar's candidacy for the World Craft City designation.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
1. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative:
The first statement is incorrect. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was not launched by UNESCO in 2014. In fact, the World Craft City initiative was launched by the World Crafts Council (WCC) in 2002 to promote and protect traditional crafts and artisans around the world.
2. UNESCO's identification of Srinagar:
The second statement is also incorrect. UNESCO has not identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation. As of now, there has been no official announcement or confirmation from UNESCO regarding Srinagar's candidacy for the World Craft City designation.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.
Under the constitution concentration of wealth violates - a)The Right to equality
- b)The Directive principles of state policy
- c)The right to freedom
- d)The concept of welfare
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Under the constitution concentration of wealth violates
a)
The Right to equality
b)
The Directive principles of state policy
c)
The right to freedom
d)
The concept of welfare
|
|
Valor Academy answered |
- Context: The Maharashtra government informed the Supreme Court that the phrase “material resources of the community” encompasses both public and private resources, subject to judicial review for redistribution.
- The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy. Under Article 39 of the Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 is released by the - a)United Nations Environment Programme
- b)Food and Agriculture Organization
- c)Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 is released by the
a)
United Nations Environment Programme
b)
Food and Agriculture Organization
c)
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
d)
None of the above
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
- Released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The report co-authored with WRAP (Waste and Resources Action Programme) was published ahead of International Day of Zero Waste (observed annually on 30 March)
- Key Findings: Households across all continents wasted over 1 billion meals a day in 2022, while 783 million people were affected by hunger and a third of humanity faced food insecurity. Food Waste generates an estimated 8–10% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
- Issues: Due to the lack of robust cold chains, hotter countries generate more food waste per capita in households; Fragmented food system.
Consider the following statements about International Finance Corporation (IFC): - It is a sister organization of the International Monetary Fund.
- It is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.
- Its goals are to increase sustainable agriculture opportunities, improve healthcare and education.
How many of the above statements are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about International Finance Corporation (IFC):
- It is a sister organization of the International Monetary Fund.
- It is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.
- Its goals are to increase sustainable agriculture opportunities, improve healthcare and education.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- IFC—a sister organization of the World Bank and member of the World Bank Group—is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries. The Bank Group has set two goals for the world to achieve by 2030: end extreme poverty and promote shared prosperity in every country.
- The IFC is owned and governed by its member countries, but has its own executive leadership and staff that conduct its normal business operations.
- It is a corporation whose shareholders are member governments that provide paid-in capital and which have the right to vote on its matters.
- Functions:
- It offers an array of debt and equity financing services and helps companies face their risk exposures, while refraining from participating in a management capacity.
- The corporation also offers advice to companies on making decisions, evaluating their impact on the environment and society, and being responsible.
- It advises governments on building infrastructure and partnerships to further support private sector development.
- Since 2009, the IFC has focused on a set of development goals that its projects are expected to target. Its goals are to increase sustainable agriculture opportunities, improve healthcare and education, increase access to financing for microfinance and business clients, advance infrastructure, help small businesses grow revenues, and invest in climate health.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a Nostro account? - a)It is a bank account held by a bank in a foreign currency in another bank.
- b)It is a personal savings account held by an individual in a local bank.
- c)It is a credit card account provided by a local bank to its customers.
- d)It is a term deposit account held by a business in a local bank.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes a Nostro account?
a)
It is a bank account held by a bank in a foreign currency in another bank.
b)
It is a personal savings account held by an individual in a local bank.
c)
It is a credit card account provided by a local bank to its customers.
d)
It is a term deposit account held by a business in a local bank.
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
A nostro account is a bank account held in another country by a domestic bank, denominated in the currency of the overseas country.
Consider the following statements about CDP-SURAKSHA platform: - It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts.
- It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about CDP-SURAKSHA platform:
- It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts.
- It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Niharika Shah answered |
CDP-SURAKSHA Platform
Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. CDP-SURAKSHA platform aims to promote the growth of India's horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers' bank accounts. This platform helps in ensuring timely financial assistance to farmers, thereby boosting the horticulture sector.
Statement 2:
- The statement is correct. The CDP-SURAKSHA platform uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India for subsidy disbursal. These vouchers are electronic and prepaid, making the process more efficient and transparent.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The CDP-SURAKSHA platform plays a crucial role in supporting farmers in the horticulture sector by providing them with instant subsidy disbursal through e-RUPI vouchers.
Statement 1:
- The statement is correct. CDP-SURAKSHA platform aims to promote the growth of India's horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers' bank accounts. This platform helps in ensuring timely financial assistance to farmers, thereby boosting the horticulture sector.
Statement 2:
- The statement is correct. The CDP-SURAKSHA platform uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India for subsidy disbursal. These vouchers are electronic and prepaid, making the process more efficient and transparent.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The CDP-SURAKSHA platform plays a crucial role in supporting farmers in the horticulture sector by providing them with instant subsidy disbursal through e-RUPI vouchers.
Consider the following statements: - The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India.
- The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India.
- The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Sagar Chavan answered |
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
- **Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)**:
- The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy established by the Constitution of India. DPSPs are guidelines for the state to implement policies that promote the welfare of the people.
- While the Constitution of India provides for the prohibition of liquor as a directive principle, it is up to the state governments to decide whether or not to enforce it within their respective states.
- **Central Government's role**:
- The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
- The Central Government has the authority to regulate and control the import and export of goods, including liquor, through policies such as imposing tariffs to protect domestic industry or to generate revenue for the government.
In conclusion, both statements are correct as they pertain to different aspects of liquor regulation in India. The state governments enforce liquor prohibition as part of their responsibilities under DPSP, while the Central Government sets guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor.
Explanation:
- **Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)**:
- The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy established by the Constitution of India. DPSPs are guidelines for the state to implement policies that promote the welfare of the people.
- While the Constitution of India provides for the prohibition of liquor as a directive principle, it is up to the state governments to decide whether or not to enforce it within their respective states.
- **Central Government's role**:
- The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
- The Central Government has the authority to regulate and control the import and export of goods, including liquor, through policies such as imposing tariffs to protect domestic industry or to generate revenue for the government.
In conclusion, both statements are correct as they pertain to different aspects of liquor regulation in India. The state governments enforce liquor prohibition as part of their responsibilities under DPSP, while the Central Government sets guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor.
Consider the following statements about Dry Seeded Rice (DSR):
- It involves transplanting rice seedlings into flooded fields.
- It typically requires less water compared to traditional flooded rice cultivation.
- It is primarily practiced in regions with abundant rainfall.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Dry Seeded Rice (DSR):
- It involves transplanting rice seedlings into flooded fields.
- It typically requires less water compared to traditional flooded rice cultivation.
- It is primarily practiced in regions with abundant rainfall.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Akshita Datta answered |
Correct Answer: a) Only one
Explanation:
Transplanting Rice Seedlings into Flooded Fields:
The first statement is incorrect. Dry Seeded Rice (DSR) does not involve transplanting rice seedlings into flooded fields. In DSR, rice seeds are directly sown into non-flooded fields, eliminating the need for continuous flooding throughout the crop growth cycle.
Requires Less Water Compared to Traditional Flooded Rice Cultivation:
The second statement is correct. DSR typically requires less water compared to traditional flooded rice cultivation. By avoiding continuous flooding, DSR helps in reducing water usage and can be more sustainable in regions facing water scarcity.
Primarily Practiced in Regions with Abundant Rainfall:
The third statement is incorrect. DSR is actually more suited for regions with water scarcity or irregular rainfall patterns. It is a water-saving cultivation technique that can be beneficial in areas where water resources are limited.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided, only the second statement is correct in relation to Dry Seeded Rice (DSR).
Explanation:
Transplanting Rice Seedlings into Flooded Fields:
The first statement is incorrect. Dry Seeded Rice (DSR) does not involve transplanting rice seedlings into flooded fields. In DSR, rice seeds are directly sown into non-flooded fields, eliminating the need for continuous flooding throughout the crop growth cycle.
Requires Less Water Compared to Traditional Flooded Rice Cultivation:
The second statement is correct. DSR typically requires less water compared to traditional flooded rice cultivation. By avoiding continuous flooding, DSR helps in reducing water usage and can be more sustainable in regions facing water scarcity.
Primarily Practiced in Regions with Abundant Rainfall:
The third statement is incorrect. DSR is actually more suited for regions with water scarcity or irregular rainfall patterns. It is a water-saving cultivation technique that can be beneficial in areas where water resources are limited.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided, only the second statement is correct in relation to Dry Seeded Rice (DSR).
Chapter doubts & questions for April 2024 - General Test Preparation for CUET UG 2025 is part of CUET Commerce exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CUET Commerce exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CUET Commerce 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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General Test Preparation for CUET UG
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