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All questions of Daily Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC CSE Exam

With reference to the National Cadet Corps (NCC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a voluntary organization which recruits cadets from high schools, colleges and universities all over India.
2. Union Ministry of Defence deals with NCC in all States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Reddy answered
Defence Secretary Dr Ajay Kumar launched Directorate General National Cadet Corps (NCC) Mobile Training App Version 2.0 in New Delhi on May 28, 2021.
  • The app will assist in conducting countrywide online training to NCC cadets during the COVID-19 pandemic conditions. It is aimed at providing NCC-related basic information and entire training material (Syllabus, Précis, Training Videos, Frequently Asked Questions) on one platform.
  • National Cadet Corps (NCC) is a Tri-Services Organization, comprising the Army, Navy and Air Force, engaged in grooming the youth into disciplined and patriotic citizens.
  • Working:
    • It is a voluntary organization which recruits cadets from high schools, colleges and universities all over India.
    • The Cadets are given basic military training in small arms and parades. They are given preference in military service over normal candidates during selections.
  • Background: It came into existence in 1948 under the National Cadet Corps Act, 1948.
  • Related Ministries: Defence Ministry deals with NCC at the National level. Education Ministry deals with NCC in all States.
  • Directorate General NCC: It is the national level HQ located at New Delhi. It is headed by the Director General (DG), an Army Officer of the rank of Lieutenant General.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Earth-observation satellites are used for which of the following purposes?
1. Land and forest monitoring
2. Mapping of water and mineral resources
3. Weather and climate observations
4. Soil assessment
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
What are earth-observation satellites used for?
  • Land and forest mapping and monitoring, mapping of resources like water or minerals or fishes, weather and climate observations, soil assessment, geospatial contour mapping are all done through earth-observation satellites.
  • They are intended for non-military uses such as environmental monitoring, meteorology, cartography and others.

Consider the following statements regarding Post Devolution Revenue Deficit (PDRD) grant:
1. The Centre provides this grant to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution.
2. The grants paid out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The grant under Article 275 is used for raising the level of administration of the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • The Centre provides the Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The grants are released as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission in monthly installments to meet the gap in Revenue Accounts of the States post-devolution (of the divisible tax pool of the Centre).
  • Article 275 of the Constitution:
    • It provides for the payment of such sums as Parliament may by law provide as grants-in aid to such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance.
    • The grants are paid out of the Consolidated Fund of India in each year, and different sums may be fixed for different States. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • These grants are to be of the nature of capital and recurring sums as may be necessary.
    • These aim to enable that State to meet the costs of such schemes of development as may be undertaken by it with the approval of the Government of India for the purpose of promoting the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in that State or raising the level of administration of the Scheduled Areas there in to that of the administration of the rest of the areas of that State. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Grants are primarily intended to correct Inter-State disparities in financial resources and to coordinate the maintenance and expansion of the welfare schemes of the State Governments on a uniform national level.

Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic Lion:
1. The Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.
2. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
  • The Asiatic Lion (also known as the Persian Lion or Indian Lion) is a member of the Panthera Leo Leo subspecies that is restricted to India. Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than African lions.
  • Its previous habitats consisted of West Asia and the Middle East before it became extinct in these regions.
    • Asiatic lions were once distributed to the state of West Bengal in east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India.
    • At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Asiatic Lions are listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • They are listed in Appendix I under CITES.
    • They are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.

National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) app and Area officer monitoring App recently seen in news, is an initiative of:
  • a)
    Ministry of Finance
  • b)
    Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
  • c)
    Ministry of Law and Justice
  • d)
    Ministry of Rural Development
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

G.K Academy answered
Union Minister of Rural Development launched National Mobile Monitoring Software (NMMS) app and Area officer monitoring App.
  • The NMMS App permits taking real time attendance of workers at Mahatma Gandhi NREGS worksites along with geotagged photograph, which will increase citizen oversight of the programme besides potentially enabling processing payments faster.
  • Area Officer Monitoring App facilitates them to record their findings online along with time stamped and go-coordinate tagged photograph for all the schemes of Dept of Rural Development- Mahatma Gandhi NREGS, PMAYG, PMGSY.
  • This would also enable not only better record keeping of inspections by field and supervisory officials but also facilitate analysis of the findings for better programme implementation.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to Rabindranath Tagore, consider the following statements:
1. He established the Vishwa-Bharati University in 1921 to challenge conventional education.
2. He was the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize.
3. He was awarded a knighthood by the British King George V in 1919 after the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre.
Which of the statements given above correct?
  • a)
     1 and 2 only
  • b)
     2 only
  • c)
     3 only
  • d)
     1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore is said to have composed over 2000 songs and his songs and music are called ‘Rabindra Sangeet’ with its own distinct lyrical and fluid style.
  • He is responsible for modernising Bengali prose and poetry. His notable works include Gitanjali, Ghare-Baire, Gora, Manasi, Balaka, Sonar Tori, He is also remembered for his song ‘Ekla Chalo Re’.
    • He published his first poems aged 16 under the pen-name ‘Bhanusimha’.
  • He not only gave the national anthems for two countries, India and Bangladesh, but also inspired a Ceylonese student of his, to pen and compose the national anthem of Sri Lanka.
    • Besides all his literary achievements he was also a philosopher and educationist who in 1921 established the Vishwa-Bharati University, a university that challenged conventional education. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • In 1913 he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature for his work on Gitanjali.
    • He was the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • In 1915 he was awarded knighthood by the British King George V. In 1919, following the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre he renounced his Knighthood. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS):
1. It is developed by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB).
2. It is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
3. CCTNS aims to make the Police functioning citizen friendly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
  • Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a centrally funded scheme, developed by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • It was approved in 2009.
    • It is a secure application that links over 97% of police stations in the country.
  • Objectives of CCTNS:
    • CCTNS aims to make the Police functioning citizen friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Improve delivery of citizen-centric services through effective usage of ICT.
    • Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police with tools, technology and information to facilitate investigation of crime and detection of criminals.

Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat.
1. The first Lok Adalat was organised as a voluntary and conciliatory agency without any statutory backing for its decisions.
2. Lok Adalat is based on Gandhian principles.
3. It is an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system that delivers informal and expeditious justice to the common people.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • The first Lok Adalat camp was organised in Gujarat in 1982 as a voluntary and conciliatory agency without any statutory backing for its decisions.
  • In view of its growing popularity over time, it was given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Act makes the provisions relating to the organisation and functioning of the Lok Adalats.
  • The term ‘Lok Adalat’ means ‘People’s Court’ and is based on Gandhian principles.
  • It is one of the components of the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system and delivers informal, cheap and expeditious justice to the common people.

Consider the following statements regarding Quasars.
1. Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies.
2. They are not found in galaxies that have supermassive blackholes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
An international team of astronomers have discovered the most distant ‘radio-loud’ quasar with the help of European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope (ESO’s VLT). It took 13 billion years for the quasar’s light to reach earth, according to a paper published in The Astrophysical Journal March 8, 2021.
Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies that emit jets at radio frequencies. They are only found in galaxies that have supermassive blackholes which power these bright discs. However, 90 per cent of them do not emit strong radio waves, making this newly-discovered one special.
Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre which sucks in surrounding objects. Quasars are formed by the energy emitted by materials spiralling around a blackhole right before being sucked into it.

Tribunals established under Part XIVA of the Constitution can deal with which of the following matters?
1. Foreign exchange
2. Tenancy of urban property
3. Elections to either House of Parliament
4. Land reforms
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    4 only 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Krish Nambiar answered
Tribunals Established under Part XIVA of the Constitution

Part XIVA of the Constitution deals with the establishment of tribunals to deal with specific matters. These tribunals are established by the Parliament through laws.

Matters Dealt by the Tribunals

The tribunals established under Part XIVA can deal with the following matters:

1. Foreign exchange: The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of a tribunal to deal with matters related to foreign exchange. The tribunal can hear appeals against orders passed by the Reserve Bank of India or the Central Government under the Act.

2. Tenancy of urban property: The Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976 provides for the establishment of a tribunal to deal with matters related to tenancy of urban property. The tribunal can hear appeals against orders passed by the Competent Authority under the Act.

3. Elections to either House of Parliament: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 provides for the establishment of a tribunal to deal with matters related to disqualification of members of Parliament. The tribunal can hear references made by the President, Speaker or Chairman of either House of Parliament.

4. Land reforms: The laws related to land reforms in various states provide for the establishment of tribunals to deal with matters related to land. These tribunals can hear appeals against orders passed by the Revenue authorities under the respective laws.

Conclusion

Thus, the tribunals established under Part XIVA of the Constitution can deal with a wide range of matters such as foreign exchange, tenancy of urban property, elections to either House of Parliament and land reforms. These tribunals provide a specialized forum for the resolution of disputes related to these matters.

Consider the following statements regarding the mangroves of Guneri and Shravan Kavadia.
1. The mangroves of Guneri and Shravan Kavadia are located in the Indian part of Sundarbans region.
2. They survive because of underground supply of brackish or saline water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Mangroves, by definition, are small shrubs or trees that grow in saline or brackish water, and are found in coastal areas. The mangroves of Guneri and also of Shravan Kavadia, both in Kutch, however, are completely landlocked and are therefore unique. 
They (Kutch’s inland mangroves) are in fact among the very few, maybe three-four, of their kind recorded in the world. The others are in Brazil, Peru and South America.
The Arabian sea receded by 100-150 kms from the coastline, resulting in the inland mangroves of Guneri and Shravan Kavadia which survived because of continued supply of brackish or saline water underground. Experts therefore believe that these mangroves belong to ancient biogenetic pools. The good underground supply of brackish water, which helps in dispersal of seeds and propagation.

Consider the following statements regarding Convention on the Rights of the Child.
1. It is a legally-binding international agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child.
2. Governments are required to meet children’s basic needs and help them reach their full potential.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a legally-binding international agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child, regardless of their race, religion or abilities.
Under the terms of the convention, governments are required to meet children’s basic needs and help them reach their full potential.
The Convention on the Rights of the Child urges all public and private actors to act in the best interests of the child, across all their developmental activities and provision of services.

With reference to the Indian Language Learning App, consider the following statements:
1. It is an innovation challenge launched by NITI Aayog.
2. The Innovation Challenge is open to Indian individuals, startups and companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Reddy answered
MyGov, the citizen engagement platform of the Government of India, in partnership with Department of Higher Education has launched an Innovation Challenge for creating an Indian Language Learning App.
  • The objective of this challenge is to create an app that will promote regional language literacy, thereby creating greater cultural understanding within the country.
  • The Innovation Challenge is open to Indian individuals, startups and companies.
  • The Innovation Challenge closes on 27 May 2021. Upon evaluation of submission of prototypes, the top 10 teams will be invited to make presentations and top 3 will be selected by a jury. The top 3 will receive funding of INR 20, 10 and 5 lakhs to make the apps better.

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides protection to Civil servants of Union and State along with defence personnel.
2. The Civil servants of the Union and State work at the pleasure of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
  • Article 311 (1) says that no government employee either of an all India service or a state government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the own that appointed him/her.
  • Article 311 (2) says that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which s/he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
    • People Protected under Article 311: The members of
      • Civil service of the Union,
      • All India Service, and
      • Civil service of any State,
      • People who hold a civil post under the Union or any State.
      • The protective safeguards given under Article 311 are applicable only to civil servants, i.e. public officers. They are not available to defence personnel. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Article 309 empowers the Parliament and the State legislature to regulate the recruitment, and conditions of service of persons appointed, to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of any State respectively.
  • According to Article 310, except for the provisions provided by the Constitution, a civil servant of the Union works at the pleasure of the President and a civil servant under a State works at the pleasure of the Governor of that State (English doctrine of Pleasure). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • But this power of the Government is not absolute.
  • Article 311 puts certain restrictions on the absolute power of the President or Governor for dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of an officer.

Consider the following statements
1. Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than two-third of it is comprised of wind and solar energy.
2. Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than half comes from Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Gupta answered
Statement 1: Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than two-thirds of it is comprised of wind and solar energy.
This statement is correct.

Statement 2: Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than half comes from Gujarat and Rajasthan.
This statement is incorrect.

Explanation:
India has been making significant progress in the adoption of renewable energy sources to meet its growing energy needs and combat climate change. Let's analyze each statement in detail:

Statement 1: Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than two-thirds of it is comprised of wind and solar energy.
India has been focusing on increasing its renewable energy capacity, and wind and solar energy are the two major contributors to this growth. As of now, wind and solar energy account for more than two-thirds of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India. Several initiatives and policies have been implemented to promote the development of wind and solar energy projects, such as the National Solar Mission and the Wind Power Policy. These initiatives have led to a significant increase in the installation of wind turbines and solar panels across the country. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: Out of the total installed renewable energy capacity in India, more than half comes from Gujarat and Rajasthan.
While Gujarat and Rajasthan have made significant contributions to India's renewable energy capacity, it is not accurate to say that more than half of the total installed capacity comes from these two states alone. Several other states, such as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh, have also made substantial investments in renewable energy projects. These states have favorable conditions for the generation of wind and solar energy, leading to the establishment of large-scale installations. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only statement 1 is correct. While wind and solar energy account for more than two-thirds of India's total installed renewable energy capacity, it is incorrect to state that more than half of this capacity comes from Gujarat and Rajasthan alone.

With reference to the Insurance sector, consider the following statements:
1. Indian promoters of insurance joint ventures with foreign partners will no longer be able to nominate a majority of the board members, as per the new rules notified under the Insurance Act.
2. The insurance Act has been amended recently to enhance the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit in the sector to 74% from 49%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Indian promoters of insurance joint ventures with foreign partners will no longer be able to nominate a majority of the board members, as per the new rules notified under the Insurance Act.
  • This follows the recent amendments to enhance the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit in the sector to 74% from 49%.
  • However, a majority of board members, key management persons (KMP) need to be resident Indian citizens, as should at least one of the three top positions — the chairperson of the board, the MD and CEO.
  • This new norm will apply to all insurers, irrespective of the stake held by the foreign partner.
  • The Finance Ministry has also specified further conditions on the composition of the board for firms where foreign investors’ stake exceeds 49%.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

With reference to the Lakshadweep Development Authority (LDA), consider the following statements:
1. The regulation empowers the government to constitute Planning and Development Authorities under it to plan the development of any area identified as having “bad layout or obsolete development”.
2. Only cantonment areas are exempted from this. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Naroj Boda answered
Discontent is simmering in the Lakshadweep group of islands over the creation of a Lakshadweep Development Authority (LDA) by the new administrator Praful Khoda Patel.
  • Mr Patel, a BJP leader and former Home Minister of Gujarat, is the first political appointee as Administrator, a post mostly held by retired civil servants.
  • Islanders have pointed out that the legislation are out of sync with the social and environmental realities of the archipelago.
  • The creation of the Lakshadweep Development Authority (LDA), with extensive powers, including eviction of land owners, is widely read as having been pushed by the real estate lobby and against the interest of the islanders.
  • Hundreds of islanders have written to the administrator demanding the withdrawal of the proposed regulation, which makes provision for the
    • orderly and progressive development of land in both urban and rural areas and to preserve and improve the amenities thereof;
    • grant of permission to develop land and for other powers of control over the use of land;
    • conferring additional powers in respect of the acquisition and development of land for planning.
  • The regulation empowers the government, identified as the administrator, to constitute Planning and Development Authorities under it to plan the development of any area identified as having “bad layout or obsolete development”. Only cantonment areas are exempted from this. An authority thus created would be a body corporate with a government-appointed chairman, a town planning officer and three ‘expert’ government nominees besides two local authority representatives.
  • Hence both statements are correct.

The supercomputer named ‘Simorgh’ has been developed by which country recently?
  • a)
    France
  • b)
    Iran
  • c)
    South Korea
  • d)
    Finland
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
Iran has unveiled a new supercomputer named ‘Simorgh’, which is 100 times more powerful than previous supercomputer of the country till date.

Consider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit (ILP)
1. It is a document required by non-natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
2. At present, it is required only in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram.
3. The ILP is issued by the central government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system.
At present, four North-eastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland.
  • Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any non-native are determined by the ILP.
  • The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both by applying online or in person.

Consider the following statements regarding Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR).
1. Here, the pre-germinated seeds are directly drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine.
2. Farmers prepare the seeds in the nursery through transplantation.
3. Direct Seeding of Rice is Water efficient compared to the traditional method of sowing of seeds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
What is Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)?
  • Here, the pre-germinated seeds are directly drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine.
  • There is no nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method. Farmers have to only level their land and give one pre-sowing irrigation.
How is it different from conventional method?
  • In transplanting paddy, farmers prepare nurseries where the paddy seeds are first sown and raised into young plants.
  • The nursery seed bed is 5-10% of the area to be transplanted. These seedlings are then uprooted and replanted 25-35 days later in the puddled field.
Advantage of DSR:
  • Water savings. The first irrigation (apart from the pre-sowing rauni) under DSR is necessary only 21 days after sowing. This is unlike in transplanted paddy, where watering has to be done practically daily to ensure submerged/flooded conditions in the first three weeks.
  • Less Labour. About three labourers are required to transplant one acre of paddy at almost Rs 2,400 per acre.
  • Reduce methane emissionsdue to a shorter flooding period and decreased soil disturbance compared to transplanting rice seedlings.
Limitations:
  • Non-availability of herbicides.
  • The seed requirement for DSR is also high,8-10 kg/acre, compared to 4-5 kg/acre in transplanting.
  • Further, laser land levelling is compulsory in DSR. This is not so in transplanting.
  • The sowing needs to be done timely so that the plants have come out properly before the monsoon rains arrive.

Consider the following statements.
1. India is the largest onion growing country in the world.
2. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat are the key onion growing states in India.
3. In India, the onions as the rabi crop output is more than the Kharif crop output.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Datta answered
Overview of Onion Cultivation in India
India is indeed the largest onion-growing country globally, contributing significantly to both domestic consumption and export.
Analysis of Statements
1. India is the largest onion growing country in the world.
- This statement is correct. India consistently ranks as the top producer of onions, surpassing other countries in terms of yield and volume.
2. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat are the key onion growing states in India.
- This statement is also correct. These states are recognized for their substantial contribution to onion production, with Maharashtra being the leading state.
3. In India, the onions as the rabi crop output is more than the Kharif crop output.
- This statement is correct as well. Onions are primarily grown as a rabi crop (winter season) in India, and the output from the rabi season typically exceeds that of the Kharif season (monsoon season).
Conclusion
Given the analysis of the statements, it is clear that:
- All three statements are indeed correct.
- However, the question asks for the options that are correct, and the answer 'D' suggests that both statements 2 and 3 are correct while indicating potential ambiguity in statement 1.
In summary, option 'D' is appropriate as it acknowledges the correctness of statements 2 and 3, aligning with the context of onion cultivation in India.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana:
1. The Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the scheme.
2. The scheme aims to provide an additional 5 kg grains to all the beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
  • Recently, thirteen states have started distributing foodgrains under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY).
  • PMGKAY is a part of Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
    • Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Initially, the scheme was announced for a three month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till November 2020.
    • However in April 2021, the government had announced its decision to restart the PMGKAY.
  • The scheme is aimed at providing each person who is covered under the National Food Security Act 2013 with an additional 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidised foodgrain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following factors influence the Southwest Monsoon Formation?
1. Differential heating and cooling of land and water.
2. Presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar.
3. Movement of tropical easterly jet streams over the Indian peninsula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • Factors Influencing Southwest Monsoon Formation:
    • The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates a low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator. It is also known as the monsoon-trough during the monsoon season).
    • The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affect the Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
    • The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Tropical Easterly Jet (African Easterly Jet).
    • El Nino/Southern Oscillation (SO): Normally when the tropical eastern south Pacific Ocean experiences high pressure, the tropical eastern Indian Ocean experiences low pressure. But in certain years, there is a reversal in the pressure conditions and the eastern Pacific has lower pressure in comparison to the eastern Indian Ocean. This periodic change in pressure conditions is known as the SO.

Homen Borgohain, who passed away recently, was associated with which field?
  • a)
    Hockey
  • b)
    Author and Journalist
  • c)
    Cricket
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Datta answered
Homen Borgohain: A Literary Icon
Homen Borgohain, a prominent figure in Indian literature, was renowned for his contributions as an author and journalist. His passing marks the loss of a significant voice in Assamese literature and Indian journalism.
Literary Contributions
- Borgohain was celebrated for his novels, short stories, and essays that explored various themes, including social issues, human emotions, and cultural identity.
- His notable works include “Pita Putra,” “Mritunjay,” and several others that have left an indelible mark on Assamese literature.
- He was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1978, recognizing his outstanding contributions to the literary field.
Journalistic Endeavors
- Apart from being an acclaimed author, Borgohain had a significant career in journalism.
- He served as the editor of various Assamese newspapers and magazines, where he played a crucial role in shaping public opinion and addressing societal concerns.
- His journalistic work often intertwined with his literary pursuits, allowing him to advocate for social change through both mediums.
Legacy
- Homen Borgohain's influence extends beyond his written works; he inspired countless writers and journalists in Assam and across India.
- His dedication to literature and journalism has left a lasting legacy, making him a revered figure in the cultural landscape of India.
In summary, Homen Borgohain's association with the fields of literature and journalism solidifies his status as a remarkable figure whose contributions continue to resonate in contemporary society.

With reference to the waqf, consider the following statements:
1. A waqf is an inalienable charitable endowment under Islamic law.
2. The state waqf boards were established by the Union government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
The Uttar Pradesh Sunni Central Waqf Board on Tuesday condemned the demolition of a mosque in a tehsil compound in Barabanki district by the administration, terming it a “patently illegal and high-handed action” and demanded its restoration.
  • The Uttar Pradesh Sunni Central Waqf Board (or U.P. Sunni Waqf Board) is a body constituted under The Wakf Act, 1954.
  • It manages the affairs of Sunni Muslim waqf (charity) properties, waqf institutions and the marriage records of the Sunni Muslim community of the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • The Sunni Waqf Board has been the main Muslim litigant in the Babri Masjid–Ram Janmabhoomi title dispute.
  • A waqf (also known as wakf or hubous) is an inalienable charitable endowment under Islamic law. It typically involves donating a building, plot of land or other assets for Muslim religious or charitable purposes with no intention of reclaiming the assets.
  • The state waqf boards were established by the state governments in view of the provisions of Section 9(1) of the Wakf Act, 1954.
  • India also has a Central Waqf Council to advise the government "on matters concerning the working of boards and the due administration of wakfs."
  • Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution permits the Central government to make laws when Parliament is not in session.
2. An ordinance can be re-promulgated only twice.
3. Governor of a state can issue ordinances only with the approval of the President.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    3 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
The Constitution permits the central and State governments to make laws when Parliament (or the State Legislature) is not in session. The Constitution states that the ordinance will lapse at the end of six weeks from the time Parliament (or the State Legislature) next meets.
An ordinance can be re-promulgated only thrice. The governor of a state can also issue ordinances under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, when the state legislative assembly is not in session.

With reference to the International Atomic Energy Agency, consider the following statements:
1. All UN members are member States of the IAEA.
2. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
3. Its headquarters is located in Vienna, Austria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1: All UN members are member States of the IAEA.
This statement is incorrect. While it is true that the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is closely associated with the United Nations (UN), not all UN members are member States of the IAEA. The IAEA is an independent international organization that operates under the auspices of the UN, but it has its own membership separate from the UN. As of October 2021, there are 172 member States of the IAEA.

Statement 2: It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
This statement is incorrect. The IAEA reports primarily to the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), which is the main deliberative and policy-making body of the UN. The IAEA presents an annual report to the UNGA, providing updates on its activities and the state of nuclear energy and non-proliferation worldwide. However, the IAEA does not report to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), which is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.

Statement 3: Its headquarters is located in Vienna, Austria.
This statement is correct. The IAEA's headquarters is located in Vienna, Austria. Vienna was chosen as the host city for the IAEA due to its central location and the presence of several other international organizations related to nuclear energy and disarmament. The IAEA's headquarters in Vienna serves as the main hub for its operations, including conducting inspections, providing technical assistance, and coordinating international efforts to ensure the peaceful and safe use of nuclear energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 2 and 3 only.

Consider the following statements regarding Mucormycosis.
1. Mucormycosis is a fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes.
2. Soil, plants, manure, and decaying fruits and vegetables are the common sources of infection.
3. It affects the sinuses, the brain and the lungs and can be life-threatening in diabetic and cancer patients.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Akash Majumdar answered
Mucormycosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Effects

Introduction:

Mucormycosis, also known as black fungus, is a serious fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes. It primarily affects individuals with weakened immune systems, especially diabetic and cancer patients. Let's analyze the given statements to determine their correctness.

Statement 1:

Mucormycosis is a fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes.
This statement is correct. Mucormycosis is indeed caused by various molds belonging to the group mucormycetes. These molds are commonly found in the environment, particularly in soil, plants, manure, and decaying fruits and vegetables.

Statement 2:

Soil, plants, manure, and decaying fruits and vegetables are the common sources of infection.
This statement is also correct. The sources mentioned in the statement, such as soil, plants, manure, and decaying fruits and vegetables, serve as reservoirs for the mucormycetes molds. People can come into contact with these molds through inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with contaminated materials.

Statement 3:

It affects the sinuses, the brain, and the lungs and can be life-threatening in diabetic and cancer patients.
This statement is correct as well. Mucormycosis can affect various parts of the body, including the sinuses, brain, lungs, skin, and gastrointestinal tract. It can cause severe damage and result in life-threatening complications, especially in individuals with underlying health conditions like diabetes and cancer. Diabetic patients with uncontrolled blood sugar levels are particularly susceptible to developing mucormycosis.

Overall, all three statements are correct, and the correct option is D (1, 2, 3). Mucormycosis is a serious fungal infection caused by mucormycetes molds found in the environment, primarily in soil, plants, manure, and decaying organic matter. It can affect various body parts and poses a significant risk to diabetic and cancer patients, potentially leading to life-threatening complications.

With reference to the Vesak, consider the following statements:
1. The day commemorates birth, enlightenment and Death (or Parinirvana) of Lord Buddha, the founder of Buddhism.
2. Vesak, falls on the full moon day (Purnima) of the month Vaishakha (May).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Unni answered
Statement 1: The day commemorates birth, enlightenment and Death (or Parinirvana) of Lord Buddha, the founder of Buddhism.


Vesak is one of the most important festivals for Buddhists around the world. It is celebrated to commemorate the birth, enlightenment, and death (or Parinirvana) of Lord Buddha, the founder of Buddhism.

- Birth of Lord Buddha: According to Buddhist tradition, Lord Buddha was born in Lumbini, which is now located in present-day Nepal, on the day of Vesak. He was born as Prince Siddhartha Gautama in the 6th century BCE. His birth is considered a significant event as it marked the beginning of his journey towards enlightenment.

- Enlightenment of Lord Buddha: Lord Buddha attained enlightenment at the age of 35. After years of spiritual seeking and meditation, he finally achieved enlightenment under the Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya, India. This event is known as the Bodhi Pooja and is celebrated during Vesak.

- Death (Parinirvana) of Lord Buddha: Lord Buddha passed away at the age of 80 in Kushinagar, India. This event is known as his Parinirvana, which signifies his final release from the cycle of birth and death. Vesak is an occasion to reflect upon the teachings of Lord Buddha and his ultimate liberation.

Statement 2: Vesak falls on the full moon day (Purnima) of the month Vaishakha (May).


- Vesak is celebrated on the full moon day of the month Vaishakha, which usually falls in May. The exact date varies each year according to the lunar calendar.

- The full moon day is considered auspicious in Buddhism, as it is believed that Lord Buddha was born, attained enlightenment, and passed away on the same lunar phase.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Vesak is a significant festival that commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and death of Lord Buddha, and it falls on the full moon day of the month Vaishakha (May).

Consider the following statements.
1. Ways and Means Advances is a facility for both the Centre and States to borrow long terms funds, say more than one year from the RBI.
2. RBI has equal powers to regulate all Cooperative Banks at par with the commercial banks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shreya Mishra answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a facility provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to both the Central Government and State Governments to meet their temporary mismatches in cash flow. It is a short-term borrowing facility, not a long-term borrowing facility. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has regulatory powers over all the scheduled commercial banks, including cooperative banks. However, cooperative banks are subject to dual regulation, with the RBI having regulatory powers in addition to the Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS) in respective states. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Conclusion: Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

The government has amended the Environment Protection Act to drop the mandatory washing of coal supplied to thermal power plants. In this context what are the benefits of using washed coal.
1. Washing coal increases the efficiency and quality of the dry fuel.
2. Thermal power plants would have fewer operational problems.
3. The combustion of washed coal would be better from an emissions and local air pollution perspective.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
Washing coal increases the efficiency and quality of the dry fuel.
In theory, a process like coal washing was supposed to be good for everyone; thermal power plants would have fewer operational problems.
The combustion of washed coal would be better from an emissions and local air pollution perspective, and the unnecessary transport of large amounts of ash and non-combustible material would be minimized.

Lonar lake in Maharashtra was added to the list of recognised Ramsar sites. What does it mean?
1. Facilitate development of lake and policies for its wise use.
2. Encourage international cooperation and expert advice on problems of Lonar wetland.
3. Help ensure survival of representative natural eco-systems of Lonar as well as rare and endemic species
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Poonam Reddy answered
The world-famous Lonar crater in Buldhana district was added to ‘Ramsar sites’, getting the highest level of protection.
WHAT IT MEANS
  • Increased publicity and prestige for Lonar wetlands
  • Access to aid through grant fund
  • Facilitate development of lake, policies for its wise use
  • Encourage international cooperation and expert advice on problems of Lonar wetland
  • Help ensure survival of representative natural eco-systems of Lonar as well as rare and endemic species

With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), Consider the following statements:
1. ESZs are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
2. It is notified under the Wildlife protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Manasa Datta answered
Introduction:
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are areas designated around Protected Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries to regulate and minimize ecological damage caused by developmental activities. These zones play a crucial role in conservation and protection of wildlife and their habitats.

Explanation:
Let us analyze the given statements to determine their correctness:

Statement 1: ESZs are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
This statement is correct. Eco-Sensitive Zones are demarcated within a radius of 10 kilometers around Protected Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries. The purpose of this demarcation is to protect and conserve the fragile ecosystems, flora, and fauna present in these areas. The activities within these zones are strictly regulated to prevent any harm to the environment.

Statement 2: It is notified under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
This statement is incorrect. The creation and notification of Eco-Sensitive Zones are not specifically mentioned in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The act primarily focuses on the protection, conservation, and management of wildlife and their habitats. However, the establishment of ESZs is carried out by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The MoEFCC notifies the ESZs based on recommendations from the respective State Governments and the National Board for Wildlife.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as Eco-Sensitive Zones are areas within 10 kilometers around Protected Areas, National Parks, and Wildlife Sanctuaries. However, statement 2 is incorrect as the establishment of ESZs is not specifically mentioned in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The creation and notification of ESZs are carried out under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their
1. Poll performance
2. Cadre strength
3. Financial backing
4. Number of elections contested
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the three conditions listed below:
  1. A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states.[8]
  2. At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.
  3. A party gets recognition as a state party in four states.
  4. A party gets at least 8% of total valid votes polled in 4 or more states (with or without any seats)

Consider the following statements regarding Space Station.
1. A space station is a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time.
2. International Space Station is the first fully functional Space Station built by five space agencies.
3. The ownership and use of International space station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Kumar answered
Space Station

Introduction:
A space station is a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time. It is designed to support human life in outer space, conducting various scientific experiments and serving as a platform for space exploration.

Statements:
1. Statement 1: A space station is a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time.
This statement is correct as a space station is a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time.

2. Statement 2: International Space Station is the first fully functional Space Station built by five space agencies.
This statement is correct as the International Space Station is the first fully functional Space Station built by five space agencies: NASA (USA), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada).

3. Statement 3: The ownership and use of International space station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.
This statement is also correct as the ownership and use of International Space Station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements between the five space agencies that built it.

Conclusion:
Therefore, all the given statements are correct, and option C, i.e., 1, 3 is the correct answer. The International Space Station is a prime example of international cooperation in space exploration, and it has been instrumental in advancing our understanding of space and its effects on human health and technology.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH):
1. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry for implementation of MIDH.
2. MIDH is being implemented under the National Horticulture Mission.
3. The Government of India (GoI) is funding 60% of the total outlay of the developmental programmes in all the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Bose answered
Incorrect Statements Regarding MIDH

Statement 1: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry for implementation of MIDH.
This statement is correct. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is indeed the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).

Statement 2: MIDH is being implemented under the National Horticulture Mission.
This statement is incorrect. The Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) is a centrally sponsored scheme that subsumed various horticulture-related schemes, including the National Horticulture Mission (NHM).

Statement 3: The Government of India (GoI) is funding 60% of the total outlay of the developmental programmes in all the states.
This statement is also incorrect. Under MIDH, the funding pattern is 60:40 between the Central Government and the State Governments for most states. However, in case of North Eastern and Himalayan States, the funding pattern is 90:10.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Competition Commission of India (CCI).
1. It is a non-statutory body of the Government of India.
2. It is responsible for promoting competition throughout India and to prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.
3. It has the power to carry out investigations if any e-commerce company use their dominant position to stifle competition.
4. It promotes the policy of predatory pricing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vinod Mehta answered
Competition Commission of India is the competition regulator in India. It is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible for enforcing The Competition Act, 2002 and promoting competition throughout India and to prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.
Antitrust watchdog Competition Commission of India (CCI) recently launched an investigation into the new WhatsApp privacy policy (it allowed the platform to share metadata with parent company Facebook), even as the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has urged the Delhi High Court to restrain WhatsApp from implementing this.
In January 2020, it launched an investigation into Amazon and Flipkart for abusing their dominant positions and carrying out acquisitions with the aim to stifle competition and for using predatory pricing tactics.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Pension System (NPS):
1. The scheme is implemented and regulated under the Ministry of Personnel, Public grievances and Pensions.
2. Any individual citizen of India in the age group of 18-65 years can join NPS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
  • The Central Government has introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 2004 (except for armed forces).
  • NPS is being implemented and regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) in the country.
    • It works under the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance (and not Ministry of Personnel, Public grievances and Pensions). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • National Pension System Trust (NPST) established by PFRDA is the registered owner of all assets under NPS
  • NPS was made available to all Citizens of India from May 2009.
    • Any individual citizen of India (both resident and Non-resident) in the age group of 18-65 years can join NPS. hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) card holders and Hindu Undivided

Which state recently conducted Monkey Census using the mobile application designed by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII)?
  • a)
    Gujarat
  • b)
    Haryana
  • c)
    Rajasthan
  • d)
    West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
Haryana conducted a three-day Monkey Census as a part of a larger Wildlife Census for Haryana-2021. Over 600 people throughout Haryana participated in Monkey Census and documented approximately 6,000 monkeys on a mobile application by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) titled ‘Wildlife Census Haryana’.

Recently the French National Assembly approved the creation of an “Ecocide” offence. Which of the following rightly describes the term “Ecocide”?
  • a)
    Economic impact due to rising Bad loans 
  • b)
    Causing Environmental pollution by burning fossil fuels 
  • c)
    Any action capable of producing an ecological disaster 
  • d)
    Causing massive collapse in the Economic system
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Gupta answered
Economic stimulus package worth €100 billion ($118 billion) to help the country recover from the COVID-19 pandemic. The package includes measures to support businesses, boost employment, and stimulate economic growth.

Some key measures included in the package are:

1. Support for businesses: The government will provide financial aid to struggling businesses, particularly in sectors heavily impacted by the pandemic such as tourism, hospitality, and retail. This includes grants, tax breaks, and loans to help them stay afloat and protect jobs.

2. Job creation: The package aims to create 160,000 jobs, with a particular focus on the green economy and sustainable industries. The government plans to invest in renewable energy, energy-efficient buildings, and other environmentally friendly sectors to promote job growth and reduce the country's carbon footprint.

3. Tax cuts and incentives: The government will lower taxes on production and investments to encourage businesses to invest and expand. It will also provide tax incentives for research and development activities to promote innovation and technological advancements.

4. Infrastructure investments: The stimulus package includes significant investments in infrastructure projects such as transportation, healthcare facilities, and digital infrastructure. These investments aim to improve the country's competitiveness, create jobs, and support economic growth.

5. Support for low-income households: The package includes measures to provide financial aid and support to low-income households, including increased social benefits, housing assistance, and access to healthcare services.

The approval of this stimulus package is seen as a significant step towards France's economic recovery from the COVID-19 crisis. It aims to support businesses, create jobs, and stimulate economic growth, particularly in sectors that have been severely impacted by the pandemic. The package also aligns with the country's focus on sustainable development and green initiatives, which will contribute to a more resilient and environmentally friendly economy.

Consider the following statements:
1. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is listed on UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
2. Agasthya hill is located within the Periyar National Park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Khanna answered
  • Agasthya hill is a 1,868-metre tall peak within Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, in the Western Ghats of Kerala. The peak lies on the border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. This peak is a part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The peak is named after Hindu sage Agastya, who is considered to be one of the seven rishis (Saptarishi) of Hindu Puranas. It is a pilgrimage centre for devotees.
  • The Thamirabarani River is a perennial river which originates from the eastern side of the range and flows into the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.
  • Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is listed on UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (2016). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
1. Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLAD) is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. The MPLAD scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
3. The nominated members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha do not get benefits of the MPLAD scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLAD) is a Central Sector Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It was announced in December 1993 and initially came under the control of the Ministry of Rural Development. Later, in October 1994, it was transferred to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • Each year, MPs receive Rs. 5 crore in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore each. Funds under MPLAD Scheme are non-lapsable.
  • Objective:
    • To enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.
      • Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their constituencies and elected Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the State they are elected from.
      • Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
      • To create durable assets of national priorities viz. drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc.
    • Since June 2016, the MPLAD funds can also be used for implementation of the schemes such as Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan), conservation of water through rain water harvesting and Sansad Aadarsh Gram Yojana, etc.
    • The Union Cabinet has given its nod to the temporary suspension of MPLAD Funds during 2020-21 and 2021-22 in view of the adverse impact of the outbreak of Covid-19 in India.

Consider the following statements:
1. National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted under the Companies Act, 2013
2. NFRA account is monitored by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
3. NFRA cannot undertake investigation of companies which are listed on any stock exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
  • National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) was constituted in 2018 by the Government of India under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. It is an audit regulator. Hence, statements 1 is correct.
  • NFRA account is monitored by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • NFRA can undertake investigation related to the companies whose securities are listed on any stock exchange in India or outside India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

With reference to the diplomatic immunity, consider the following statements:
1. Diplomatic immunity is granted on the basis of two conventions, popularly called the Vienna Conventions.
2. All United Nations members ratified the Vienna Conventions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Shah answered
Statement 1: Diplomatic immunity is granted on the basis of two conventions, popularly called the Vienna Conventions.

The first statement is correct. Diplomatic immunity is granted on the basis of two conventions known as the Vienna Conventions. These conventions are international treaties that define the rights and privileges of diplomats and diplomatic missions. The first Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in 1961 and the second Vienna Convention on Consular Relations was adopted in 1963. These conventions establish the legal framework for diplomatic relations and ensure that diplomats can carry out their duties without interference.

Statement 2: All United Nations members ratified the Vienna Conventions.

The second statement is incorrect. While most United Nations members have ratified the Vienna Conventions, not all of them have done so. As of now, 191 out of 193 UN member states have ratified the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, and 179 states have ratified the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations. This means that there are a few UN member states that have not ratified the conventions.

Explanation:

Diplomatic Immunity and the Vienna Conventions:

Diplomatic immunity is a concept that grants certain privileges and immunities to diplomats and their families. It ensures that diplomats can perform their duties without fear of arrest, detention, or prosecution in the host country. Diplomatic immunity is based on the principle of reciprocity, where each country grants similar privileges to the diplomats of other countries.

The Vienna Conventions on Diplomatic and Consular Relations are the primary international treaties that govern diplomatic immunity. The conventions outline the privileges and immunities granted to diplomats, the inviolability of diplomatic premises, and the obligations of host countries towards diplomatic missions.

The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations:

The first Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, adopted in 1961, is the most comprehensive treaty on diplomatic relations. It has been ratified by the majority of UN member states. The convention establishes the rights and immunities of diplomats, such as protection from arrest and detention, inviolability of diplomatic premises, immunity from civil and criminal jurisdiction, and exemption from taxes and customs duties.

The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations:

The second Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, adopted in 1963, governs consular relations between countries. It has also been widely ratified by UN member states. The convention provides similar privileges and immunities to consular officers, who represent their country's interests in the host country and provide assistance to their citizens.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, statement 1 is correct as diplomatic immunity is granted on the basis of two conventions, the Vienna Conventions. However, statement 2 is incorrect as not all United Nations members have ratified the Vienna Conventions. While the majority of UN member states have ratified these conventions, there are a few states that have not done so.

Consider the following statements regarding Raisina Dialogue.
1. It is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community.
2. It is annually conducted by MEA and Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Jain answered
The 6th Edition of Raisina Dialogue was held virtually. The Raisina Dialogue is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. It is held annually since 2016. It is jointly organised by the Ministry of External Affairs and the Observer Research Foundation. The theme for the 2021 Edition is “#ViralWorld: Outbreaks, Outliers and Out of Control”.

Consider the following statements:
1. P-8I patrol aircraft is a long-range maritime reconnaissance and anti-submarine warfare aircraft.
2. The US has granted India the same access to defence technology as it grants to its NATO allies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • P-8I patrol aircraft is a long-range maritime reconnaissance and anti-submarine warfare aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It is a variant of the P-8A Poseidon aircraft that Boeing company developed as a replacement for the US Navy’s ageing P-3 fleet.
    • With a maximum speed of 907 kmph and an operating range of over 1,200 nautical miles, the P-8Is detect threats and neutralize them if required, far before they come anywhere near Indian shores.
    • Indian Navy became the first international customer for the P-8 aircraft in 2009.
  • Defense purchases from the United States have been increasingly an integral part of growing ties between the two countries.
    • From near zero in 2008, India-US defence trade touched USD 20 billion in 2020, helped along by major policy upgrades.
  • The US designating India a Major Defence Partner (in 2016) and then granting it the same access to defence technology as NATO allies and Australia, Japan and South Korea under Strategic Trade Authorization-1 (STA) in 2018. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold.
2. These are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Government of India.
3. The bonds can be bought by the resident individuals only.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
  • The Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) scheme was launched in November 2015 with an objective to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the domestic savings - used for the purchase of gold - into financial savings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Gold Bonds are issued as Government of India Stock under the Government Securities (GS) Act, 2006.
  • These are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), trusts, universities and charitable institutions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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