All Exams >
CLAT >
Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly >
All Questions
All questions of June 2024 for CLAT Exam
Consider the following statements: - The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) aims to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents.
- The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requires disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications.
- The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) preserves and utilizes animal genetic diversity in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) aims to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents.
- The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requires disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications.
- The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) preserves and utilizes animal genetic diversity in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Kaavya Basak answered |
Explanation:
Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
- The statement regarding TKDL aiming to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents is correct. TKDL is a digital database that documents traditional knowledge related to medicinal formulations to prevent the grant of patents on existing knowledge.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005
- The statement about the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requiring disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications is also correct. The amendment mandates the disclosure of the source of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge in patent applications.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)
- The statement regarding the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect. The NBPGR primarily focuses on conserving plant genetic resources in the country and does not deal with animal genetic diversity.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided:
- Only two statements are correct, which are about TKDL and the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
- The statement about the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect.
Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL)
- The statement regarding TKDL aiming to preserve medicinal formulations to prevent erroneous patents is correct. TKDL is a digital database that documents traditional knowledge related to medicinal formulations to prevent the grant of patents on existing knowledge.
- Therefore, this statement is correct.
Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005
- The statement about the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005, requiring disclosure of the origin of biological resources in patent applications is also correct. The amendment mandates the disclosure of the source of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge in patent applications.
- Hence, this statement is correct.
National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)
- The statement regarding the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect. The NBPGR primarily focuses on conserving plant genetic resources in the country and does not deal with animal genetic diversity.
- Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided:
- Only two statements are correct, which are about TKDL and the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
- The statement about the NBPGR preserving and utilizing animal genetic diversity in India is incorrect.
‘Pravaah Portal’, recently seen in the news, is launched by which institution? - a)Small Industries Development Bank of India
- b)National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- c)Reserve Bank of India
- d)NITI Aayog
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Pravaah Portal’, recently seen in the news, is launched by which institution?
a)
Small Industries Development Bank of India
b)
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
c)
Reserve Bank of India
d)
NITI Aayog
|
Sushant Yadav answered |
Pravaah Portal launched by Reserve Bank of India
Pravaah Portal:
The Pravaah Portal is an initiative launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to monitor the flow of credit to the micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in the country.
Key Features:
- The portal provides insights into the credit flow to the MSME sector, which plays a crucial role in the growth of the economy.
- It helps in tracking the credit disbursed by banks and other financial institutions to the MSMEs.
- The portal aims to promote transparency and accountability in the lending process to the MSME sector.
Significance:
- The MSME sector is considered the backbone of the Indian economy, contributing significantly to employment generation and GDP growth.
- By monitoring the credit flow to the MSMEs through the Pravaah Portal, the RBI can assess the effectiveness of various policies aimed at boosting credit availability to this crucial sector.
Overall, the Pravaah Portal is a significant step taken by the Reserve Bank of India to ensure that adequate credit reaches the MSME sector, which is essential for driving economic growth and creating employment opportunities.
Pravaah Portal:
The Pravaah Portal is an initiative launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to monitor the flow of credit to the micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in the country.
Key Features:
- The portal provides insights into the credit flow to the MSME sector, which plays a crucial role in the growth of the economy.
- It helps in tracking the credit disbursed by banks and other financial institutions to the MSMEs.
- The portal aims to promote transparency and accountability in the lending process to the MSME sector.
Significance:
- The MSME sector is considered the backbone of the Indian economy, contributing significantly to employment generation and GDP growth.
- By monitoring the credit flow to the MSMEs through the Pravaah Portal, the RBI can assess the effectiveness of various policies aimed at boosting credit availability to this crucial sector.
Overall, the Pravaah Portal is a significant step taken by the Reserve Bank of India to ensure that adequate credit reaches the MSME sector, which is essential for driving economic growth and creating employment opportunities.
Kendu leaves are primarily used in the production of which of the following products? - a)Paper
- b)Bidi
- c)Tea
- d)Furniture
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Kendu leaves are primarily used in the production of which of the following products?
a)
Paper
b)
Bidi
c)
Tea
d)
Furniture
|
Bhaskar Roy answered |
Kendu Leaves in the Production of Bidis
Kendu leaves, also known as tendu or bidi leaves, are primarily used in the production of bidis, which are small, hand-rolled cigarettes popular in India. Here's how kendu leaves are utilized in the bidi-making process:
1. Wrapping Material
- Kendu leaves are used as the outer wrapping material for bidis.
- The leaves are dried and then rolled around a mixture of tobacco and other ingredients to form the bidi.
2. Flavor and Aroma
- Kendu leaves add a distinct flavor and aroma to bidis when burned.
- Smokers often appreciate the unique taste and fragrance that kendu leaves provide.
3. Traditional Practice
- Bidi-making using kendu leaves has been a traditional practice in many regions of India.
- The use of kendu leaves in bidi production has cultural and historical significance.
4. Economic Importance
- The bidi industry provides employment and income for many individuals involved in various stages of production.
- Kendu leaves play a crucial role in sustaining this industry and supporting livelihoods.
In conclusion, kendu leaves are predominantly used in the production of bidis, serving as the wrapping material that imparts flavor and aroma to these hand-rolled cigarettes. This practice holds cultural significance and contributes to the economic well-being of many communities in India.
Kendu leaves, also known as tendu or bidi leaves, are primarily used in the production of bidis, which are small, hand-rolled cigarettes popular in India. Here's how kendu leaves are utilized in the bidi-making process:
1. Wrapping Material
- Kendu leaves are used as the outer wrapping material for bidis.
- The leaves are dried and then rolled around a mixture of tobacco and other ingredients to form the bidi.
2. Flavor and Aroma
- Kendu leaves add a distinct flavor and aroma to bidis when burned.
- Smokers often appreciate the unique taste and fragrance that kendu leaves provide.
3. Traditional Practice
- Bidi-making using kendu leaves has been a traditional practice in many regions of India.
- The use of kendu leaves in bidi production has cultural and historical significance.
4. Economic Importance
- The bidi industry provides employment and income for many individuals involved in various stages of production.
- Kendu leaves play a crucial role in sustaining this industry and supporting livelihoods.
In conclusion, kendu leaves are predominantly used in the production of bidis, serving as the wrapping material that imparts flavor and aroma to these hand-rolled cigarettes. This practice holds cultural significance and contributes to the economic well-being of many communities in India.
Consider the following statements: - The WIPO treaty aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's rich biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the WIPO treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The WIPO treaty aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's rich biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the WIPO treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants regarding the origin of genetic resources in claimed inventions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
- The WIPO treaty indeed aims to harmonize the rights of biodiverse countries and traditional wisdom with global Intellectual Property Rights.
- India's biodiversity and traditional knowledge gain recognition and protection under the treaty.
- The treaty includes a disclosure requirement for patent applicants to disclose the origin of genetic resources in their inventions.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Assertion (A): The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity.
Reason (R): These disparities are due to the increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct. The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 highlights that the largest gender disparities persist in Political Empowerment and Economic Participation & Opportunity, and these disparities are due to factors such as increased caregiving responsibilities on women and lower representation in leadership roles.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? - a)The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
- b)The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
- c)The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
- d)The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a)
The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b)
The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c)
The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
d)
The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
|
Kunal Menon answered |
Understanding Federalism in Indian Polity
In the context of Indian polity, federalism refers to the distribution of powers between the central government and constituent units, such as states. Among the options provided, the independence of the judiciary is a crucial indicator of India's federal character.
Key Features of Federalism
- Independence of the Judiciary:
- The judiciary in India operates independently of the executive and legislative branches.
- This independence ensures that laws enacted by the central and state governments are interpreted fairly, protecting the rights of both the Union and state citizens.
- It acts as a guardian of the Constitution, resolving disputes between the states and the central government, thus maintaining the federal equilibrium.
Analysis of Other Options
- Union Legislature's Representation:
- While the Union Legislature includes elected representatives, it does not necessarily indicate federalism. The central government's powers may overshadow state interests.
- Union Cabinet and Regional Parties:
- The presence of regional party representatives in the Union Cabinet reflects political diversity but doesn't directly relate to the federal structure.
- Enforceability of Fundamental Rights:
- While the enforceability of Fundamental Rights is a vital aspect of democracy, it applies uniformly across the country, which does not specifically indicate a federal nature.
Conclusion
In summary, the independence of the judiciary is a fundamental feature that underscores the federal character of Indian polity. It ensures a balanced power dynamic, protects the rights of states, and maintains the integrity of the Constitution.
In the context of Indian polity, federalism refers to the distribution of powers between the central government and constituent units, such as states. Among the options provided, the independence of the judiciary is a crucial indicator of India's federal character.
Key Features of Federalism
- Independence of the Judiciary:
- The judiciary in India operates independently of the executive and legislative branches.
- This independence ensures that laws enacted by the central and state governments are interpreted fairly, protecting the rights of both the Union and state citizens.
- It acts as a guardian of the Constitution, resolving disputes between the states and the central government, thus maintaining the federal equilibrium.
Analysis of Other Options
- Union Legislature's Representation:
- While the Union Legislature includes elected representatives, it does not necessarily indicate federalism. The central government's powers may overshadow state interests.
- Union Cabinet and Regional Parties:
- The presence of regional party representatives in the Union Cabinet reflects political diversity but doesn't directly relate to the federal structure.
- Enforceability of Fundamental Rights:
- While the enforceability of Fundamental Rights is a vital aspect of democracy, it applies uniformly across the country, which does not specifically indicate a federal nature.
Conclusion
In summary, the independence of the judiciary is a fundamental feature that underscores the federal character of Indian polity. It ensures a balanced power dynamic, protects the rights of states, and maintains the integrity of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia:1. RELOS will facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies like fuel, rations, and spare parts during joint military operations.2. The RELOS agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks.3. The agreement is intended to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia:
1. RELOS will facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies like fuel, rations, and spare parts during joint military operations.
2. The RELOS agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks.
3. The agreement is intended to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
S.S Career Academy answered |
All three statements accurately describe the various aspects and strategic significance of the RELOS agreement between India and Russia.
1. Statement 1 is correct: The RELOS agreement will indeed facilitate the replenishment of essential supplies such as fuel, rations, and spare parts, which is crucial for sustaining continuous military operations.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The agreement allows both countries to utilize each other's military bases and logistics networks, enhancing operational efficiency and reach.
3. Statement 3 is correct: One of the strategic intentions behind the RELOS agreement is to counterbalance the influence of the United States and China in the region, providing a strategic edge to both India and Russia.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D
Consider the following statements regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860 and forms the basis of India's criminal justice system.2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.3. The Supreme Court in the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they have done.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:
1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860 and forms the basis of India's criminal justice system.
2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.
3. The Supreme Court in the State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988, held that reasonable wages must be paid to prisoners for the work or labour they have done.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Milan Malik answered |
1. The Indian Penal Code (IPC)
- The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was indeed enacted in 1860 and serves as the foundation of India's criminal justice system. It defines various offenses and prescribes punishments for them.
- The IPC covers a wide range of criminal activities from theft to murder, providing a comprehensive framework for law enforcement and judicial proceedings in India.
2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India
- Article 246 of the Constitution of India delineates the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
- It places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List, which means that these subjects fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the central government.
3. State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988
- In the case of State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat, the Supreme Court ruled that prisoners must be paid reasonable wages for the work they perform while incarcerated.
- This decision was a significant step towards ensuring fair treatment of prisoners and recognizing their right to compensation for their labor.
Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are correct as they accurately reflect key aspects of the Criminal Justice System in India, while statement 2 does not accurately represent the distribution of powers related to the CJS as per the Constitution of India.
- The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was indeed enacted in 1860 and serves as the foundation of India's criminal justice system. It defines various offenses and prescribes punishments for them.
- The IPC covers a wide range of criminal activities from theft to murder, providing a comprehensive framework for law enforcement and judicial proceedings in India.
2. Article 246 of the Constitution of India
- Article 246 of the Constitution of India delineates the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
- It places the police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List, which means that these subjects fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the central government.
3. State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat Case, 1988
- In the case of State of Gujarat v. High Court of Gujarat, the Supreme Court ruled that prisoners must be paid reasonable wages for the work they perform while incarcerated.
- This decision was a significant step towards ensuring fair treatment of prisoners and recognizing their right to compensation for their labor.
Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are correct as they accurately reflect key aspects of the Criminal Justice System in India, while statement 2 does not accurately represent the distribution of powers related to the CJS as per the Constitution of India.
She was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty; British historian John Keay called her ‘The Philosopher Queen’ for her insightful political observations. She was - a)Rani Durgavati
- b)Rani Chennamma
- c)Keladi Chennamma
- d)Rani Ahilyabai
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
She was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty; British historian John Keay called her ‘The Philosopher Queen’ for her insightful political observations. She was
a)
Rani Durgavati
b)
Rani Chennamma
c)
Keladi Chennamma
d)
Rani Ahilyabai
|
Kalyan Kulkarni answered |
Rani Ahilyabai - The Philosopher Queen
Rani Ahilyabai was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty in India. British historian John Keay referred to her as 'The Philosopher Queen' due to her insightful political observations and leadership qualities.
Leadership in the Holkar Dynasty
Rani Ahilyabai ruled the Malwa region of India with great wisdom and compassion. She was known for her just and fair governance, as well as her efforts to promote peace and prosperity in her kingdom.
Architectural Patronage
Rani Ahilyabai was also known for her patronage of architecture and construction. She commissioned numerous temples, ghats, and other public works that still stand as a testament to her legacy.
Legacy
Rani Ahilyabai's reign is remembered as a golden age in the history of the Holkar dynasty. Her commitment to good governance, religious tolerance, and public welfare earned her widespread admiration both during her lifetime and in the centuries that followed.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Rani Ahilyabai was a remarkable ruler who left a lasting impact on Indian history. Her political acumen, compassion, and leadership make her a figure worth studying and celebrating.
Rani Ahilyabai was a prominent ruler of the Holkar dynasty in India. British historian John Keay referred to her as 'The Philosopher Queen' due to her insightful political observations and leadership qualities.
Leadership in the Holkar Dynasty
Rani Ahilyabai ruled the Malwa region of India with great wisdom and compassion. She was known for her just and fair governance, as well as her efforts to promote peace and prosperity in her kingdom.
Architectural Patronage
Rani Ahilyabai was also known for her patronage of architecture and construction. She commissioned numerous temples, ghats, and other public works that still stand as a testament to her legacy.
Legacy
Rani Ahilyabai's reign is remembered as a golden age in the history of the Holkar dynasty. Her commitment to good governance, religious tolerance, and public welfare earned her widespread admiration both during her lifetime and in the centuries that followed.
Conclusion
In conclusion, Rani Ahilyabai was a remarkable ruler who left a lasting impact on Indian history. Her political acumen, compassion, and leadership make her a figure worth studying and celebrating.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India:
1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.
2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.
3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.
4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
1. Article 246: Places police, public order, courts, prisons, and reformatories in the Union List.- Incorrect. Article 246 places these items in the State List, not the Union List.
2. Section 161 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973: Allows the investigation officer to question anyone who may know about the case and write down their statement.- Correct. Section 161 CrPC allows the investigation officer to question any person who is supposed to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case and to record their statement.
3. National Police Commission (NPC): Recommended that there must be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes.- Correct. The NPC recommended that there should be an enquiry in cases of custodial death or rapes to prevent abuse of power.
4. Krishnan Iyer Committee: Recommended the appointment of women staff in the police for handling child offenders.- Correct. The Krishnan Iyer Committee recommended the appointment of women staff in the police force specifically for dealing with child offenders to ensure better handling of such cases.
Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)A is incorrect but R is correct
- b)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
- c)A is correct but R is incorrect
- d)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Assertion (A): The "One Belt, One Road" initiative focuses on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason (R): The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
A is incorrect but R is correct
b)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
c)
A is correct but R is incorrect
d)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
|
Ias Masters answered |
Assertion is incorrect: The "One Belt, One Road" initiative does not solely focus on reviving the Silk Route for trade.
Reason is correct: The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Reason is correct: The initiative includes various infrastructure projects to enhance connectivity across multiple regions.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Shounak Desai answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
- This statement is correct as deforestation and construction activities can destabilize soil and increase the likelihood of landslides.
- The removal of trees can reduce the strength of the soil, making it more susceptible to erosion and landslides.
- Construction activities such as road-building can alter natural drainage patterns and increase the risk of landslides.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
- This statement is also correct as human activities play a significant role in increasing landslide vulnerability.
- Activities such as deforestation, construction, mining, and improper land use practices can all contribute to the destabilization of slopes and increase the risk of landslides.
Explanation of the Correct Answer:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it highlights the role of human activities in causing landslides in Northeast India.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Statement-I: Landslides in Northeast India are primarily caused by deforestation and construction activities.
- This statement is correct as deforestation and construction activities can destabilize soil and increase the likelihood of landslides.
- The removal of trees can reduce the strength of the soil, making it more susceptible to erosion and landslides.
- Construction activities such as road-building can alter natural drainage patterns and increase the risk of landslides.
Statement-II: Human activities are significant contributors to landslide vulnerability in this region.
- This statement is also correct as human activities play a significant role in increasing landslide vulnerability.
- Activities such as deforestation, construction, mining, and improper land use practices can all contribute to the destabilization of slopes and increase the risk of landslides.
Explanation of the Correct Answer:
- Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
- Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it highlights the role of human activities in causing landslides in Northeast India.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department (IMD):1. In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.2. A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C.3. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the criteria for defining heatwaves by the India Meteorological Department (IMD):
1. In hilly regions, a heatwave is defined when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.
2. A severe heatwave in the plains is declared when the actual maximum temperature is above 45°C.
3. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is defined when the temperature departure from normal is 7°C or more.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
- Statement 1: Correct. The IMD defines a heatwave in hilly regions when the maximum temperature reaches at least 30°C or more.
- Statement 2: Incorrect. A severe heatwave in the plains is defined when the actual maximum temperature is above 47°C, not 45°C.
- Statement 3: Incorrect. In coastal areas, a severe heatwave is not specifically defined by the temperature departure of 7°C or more. The IMD criteria for severe heatwaves in coastal areas involve different parameters.
Thus, only statement 1 is correct.
What is the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures?- a)To enhance the comfort of passengers during train journeys
- b)To prevent train collisions through advanced technology
- c)To improve the speed of trains on congested routes
- d)To reduce ticketing errors in railway booking systems
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Kavach System in the context of Indian Railways safety measures?
a)
To enhance the comfort of passengers during train journeys
b)
To prevent train collisions through advanced technology
c)
To improve the speed of trains on congested routes
d)
To reduce ticketing errors in railway booking systems
|
T.S Academy answered |
The Kavach System in Indian Railways is designed to prevent train collisions through advanced technology. By utilizing components like Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology integrated into tracks and equipping the driver's cabin with RFID readers and brake interface equipment, the system acts as a vigilant watchdog over the existing signalling system, alerting the loco pilot and applying brakes if necessary to prevent overshooting signals. This technological advancement aims to significantly enhance the safety and security of India's railway network, reducing the risk of accidents and ensuring a safer travel experience for passengers.
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Indian music system:1. The roots of Indian music stretch back to the Sama Veda, where slokas were harmonized with music.2. Haripala coined the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music, marking the distinction between northern and southern musical traditions.3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Carnatic Ragas under the 'Thaat' system.- a)1 Only
- b)2 and 3 Only
- c)1 and 2 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Indian music system:
1. The roots of Indian music stretch back to the Sama Veda, where slokas were harmonized with music.
2. Haripala coined the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music, marking the distinction between northern and southern musical traditions.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande played a pivotal role in systematizing Carnatic Ragas under the 'Thaat' system.
a)
1 Only
b)
2 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 2 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Swati Sharma answered |
Overview of Indian Music Evolution
The Indian music system has a rich historical foundation, evolving over centuries. Let's analyze the statements regarding its evolution:
1. Roots in the Sama Veda
- The roots of Indian music indeed trace back to the Sama Veda.
- This ancient text harmonized slokas (verses) with music, showcasing the early integration of melody and rhythm.
2. Haripala and the Distinction of Music Traditions
- The statement regarding Haripala is incorrect.
- While he contributed to musicology, he did not coin the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music. These distinctions evolved over time due to regional differences in style, rather than being attributed to a single individual.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande's Contribution
- This statement is also incorrect.
- Pandit Bhatkhande is known for his significant role in systematizing Hindustani music, introducing the 'Thaat' system.
- He did not focus on the Carnatic Ragas but rather on Hindustani music, thus highlighting a misunderstanding in the statement.
Conclusion
Given this evaluation:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 Only.
The Indian music system has a rich historical foundation, evolving over centuries. Let's analyze the statements regarding its evolution:
1. Roots in the Sama Veda
- The roots of Indian music indeed trace back to the Sama Veda.
- This ancient text harmonized slokas (verses) with music, showcasing the early integration of melody and rhythm.
2. Haripala and the Distinction of Music Traditions
- The statement regarding Haripala is incorrect.
- While he contributed to musicology, he did not coin the terms Hindustani and Carnatic music. These distinctions evolved over time due to regional differences in style, rather than being attributed to a single individual.
3. Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande's Contribution
- This statement is also incorrect.
- Pandit Bhatkhande is known for his significant role in systematizing Hindustani music, introducing the 'Thaat' system.
- He did not focus on the Carnatic Ragas but rather on Hindustani music, thus highlighting a misunderstanding in the statement.
Conclusion
Given this evaluation:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C': 1 Only.
Consider the following statements about the Global Plastics Treaty: - The treaty aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries.
- The treaty was adopted by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2024.
- The treaty focuses solely on reducing single-use plastics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Global Plastics Treaty:
- The treaty aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries.
- The treaty was adopted by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2024.
- The treaty focuses solely on reducing single-use plastics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- The Global Plastics Treaty, initiated in 2021, is a pivotal international effort aimed at combating plastic pollution on a global scale. Established during the fifth UN Environment Assembly in Nairobi, Kenya, the treaty has progressed through various meetings worldwide, including Dakar, Senegal; Uruguay; Paris, France; Nairobi, Kenya; and Canada, with the final meeting set for South Korea.
- It aims to reduce plastic pollution by setting legally binding targets for all member countries. The goal is to create a unified international approach to tackle plastic waste.
- While the treaty does address single-use plastics, it is not limited to this aspect alone. The treaty encompasses broader measures, including plastic waste management and the promotion of circular economy practices.
Consider the following statements: - Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty.
- Severe child food poverty leads to the availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households.
- In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty.
- Severe child food poverty leads to the availability of nutrient-rich foods and a healthy diet.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
- Statement 1 is correct: Severe child food poverty affects children from both poor and non-poor households.
- Statement 2 is correct: In India, 40% of children under 5 face severe child food poverty.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of nutrient-rich foods and an unhealthy diet.
Consider the following statements: - The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis.
- India is a permanent member of the G7.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis.
- India is a permanent member of the G7.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Akshita Mukherjee answered |
Explanation:
The correct answer is option B, which is "Only two".
- The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada: This statement is correct. The G7 is an intergovernmental organization consisting of seven of the world's largest advanced economies, including France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis: This statement is also correct. The G7, originally G6, was established in 1975 in response to the oil crisis of 1973. The group aimed to provide a forum for major industrialized democracies to discuss and coordinate economic policies.
- India is a permanent member of the G7: This statement is incorrect. India is not a member of the G7. The G7 consists of the seven aforementioned countries, and India is not included in this group. India is, however, a member of the G20, which is a broader forum that includes major advanced and emerging economies.
Therefore, only the first two statements are correct, making option B the correct answer.
The correct answer is option B, which is "Only two".
- The G7 consists of France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada: This statement is correct. The G7 is an intergovernmental organization consisting of seven of the world's largest advanced economies, including France, Germany, Italy, the UK, Japan, the USA, and Canada.
- The G7 was formed in response to the 1973 oil crisis: This statement is also correct. The G7, originally G6, was established in 1975 in response to the oil crisis of 1973. The group aimed to provide a forum for major industrialized democracies to discuss and coordinate economic policies.
- India is a permanent member of the G7: This statement is incorrect. India is not a member of the G7. The G7 consists of the seven aforementioned countries, and India is not included in this group. India is, however, a member of the G20, which is a broader forum that includes major advanced and emerging economies.
Therefore, only the first two statements are correct, making option B the correct answer.
The “Colombo Process” is associated with which of the following? - a)Economic cooperation among South Asian countries
- b)Migration and development in Asia
- c)Environmental protection in the Indian Ocean region
- d)Cultural exchange programs in Southeast Asia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The “Colombo Process” is associated with which of the following?
a)
Economic cooperation among South Asian countries
b)
Migration and development in Asia
c)
Environmental protection in the Indian Ocean region
d)
Cultural exchange programs in Southeast Asia
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Context: India has assumed the chair of the Colombo Process for 2024-26, the first time since the forum’s inception in 2003.
- About Colombo Process
- The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process focused on managing overseas employment and contractual labour. It comprises 12 Asian member states, including Bangladesh and Sri Lanka, with India as a founding member. Priority areas include skills and qualification recognition and fostering ethical recruitment practices. The UN’s International Organization for Migration provides technical and administrative support.
Consider the following statements:
- The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
- The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
- The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
- The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
- The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Sneha Bajaj answered |
Explanation:
Statement 1: The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
This statement is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker is not appointed by the President of the country. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves. Therefore, this statement is not correct.
Statement 2: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
This statement is correct. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves. The Deputy Speaker is chosen through a voting process by the members of the assembly.
Statement 3: The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
This statement is also incorrect. The Deputy Speaker plays an important role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings in the absence of the Speaker and performs all the duties and functions of the Speaker during that time.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, which states that the Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
Statement 1: The Deputy Speaker is appointed by the President of the country.
This statement is incorrect. The Deputy Speaker is not appointed by the President of the country. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves. Therefore, this statement is not correct.
Statement 2: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
This statement is correct. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves. The Deputy Speaker is chosen through a voting process by the members of the assembly.
Statement 3: The Deputy Speaker has no role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker.
This statement is also incorrect. The Deputy Speaker plays an important role in the legislative proceedings in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings in the absence of the Speaker and performs all the duties and functions of the Speaker during that time.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, which states that the Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the legislative assembly from among themselves.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.
Statement-I: The PESA Act was enacted in 1996 to provide self-governance for people living in tribal areas through traditional village assemblies known as Gram Sabhas.
Statement-II: The PESA Act primarily focuses on empowering urban local bodies in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
|
T.S Academy answered |
Statement-I correctly explains the purpose and enactment of the PESA Act, highlighting its focus on self-governance in tribal areas through Gram Sabhas. On the other hand, Statement-II inaccurately suggests that the PESA Act primarily empowers urban local bodies, which is incorrect as the Act specifically pertains to tribal areas and their governance structures.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Special Category Status (SCS) was introduced to assist states with geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.\
Reason (R): The SCS provides states with higher financial assistance from the central government.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Special Category Status (SCS) was introduced to assist states with geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.\
Reason (R): The SCS provides states with higher financial assistance from the central government.
Assertion (A): The Special Category Status (SCS) was introduced to assist states with geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.\
Reason (R): The SCS provides states with higher financial assistance from the central government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
Lohit Matani answered |
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) correctly explains why SCS was introduced—to provide states with higher financial assistance to address geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Pair 1 is correct. The National Health Claim Exchange aims to centralize health insurance claims.
- Pair 2 is correct. The Regional Rapid Transit System aims to improve urban transportation in the NCR.
- Pair 3 is correct. The Gati Shakti Terminal policy aims to enhance logistics infrastructure.
- Pair 4 is incorrect. Proportional Representation is related to electoral systems, not local governance.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-I: The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II: The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Statement-I is correct. The HCES provides data for calculating Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
Statement-II is correct. The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as the coverage of the survey does not directly explain the calculation of MPCE, which is based on the data collected.
Statement-II is correct. The HCES covers the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as the coverage of the survey does not directly explain the calculation of MPCE, which is based on the data collected.
Consider the following statements: - The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is conducted every 5 years by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is conducted every 5 years by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The HCES is conducted every 5 years by the NSO.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Milk and Milk Products expenditure is highest in northern states like Haryana and Rajasthan.
- Statement 3 is correct. Non-food expenditure has shown an increasing trend over the years.
Consider the following statements: - The NOTA option was introduced following a Supreme Court directive in 2013.
- NOTA votes are counted as valid votes and can alter election outcomes.
- The People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) advocated for voter secrecy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The NOTA option was introduced following a Supreme Court directive in 2013.
- NOTA votes are counted as valid votes and can alter election outcomes.
- The People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) advocated for voter secrecy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The NOTA option was introduced following a Supreme Court directive in 2013.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. NOTA votes are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter election outcomes.
- Statement 3 is correct. The People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) advocated for voter secrecy.
Consider the following statements: - The Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) aims to reduce air pollution and encourage public transport use.
- The RRTS project includes the Delhi-Meerut, Delhi-Panipat, and Delhi-Alwar corridors.
- The Gravity Model is associated with the idea that settlements develop around central locations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) aims to reduce air pollution and encourage public transport use.
- The RRTS project includes the Delhi-Meerut, Delhi-Panipat, and Delhi-Alwar corridors.
- The Gravity Model is associated with the idea that settlements develop around central locations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
- Statement 1 is correct. The RRTS aims to reduce air pollution and encourage public transport use.
- Statement 2 is correct. The RRTS project includes the Delhi-Meerut, Delhi-Panipat, and Delhi-Alwar corridors.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Gravity Model posits that interaction between places is influenced by population and distance, not that settlements develop around central locations (which is Central Place Theory).
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
- Pair 1 is correct. The NHCX is implemented by the IRDAI.
- Pair 2 is correct. The Smart Cities Mission is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- Pair 3 is correct. The Bharatmala Project is implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
- Pair 4 is incorrect. PM-eBus Sewa is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.
Assertion (A): The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn meetings in the absence of quorum.
Reason (R): The Speaker ensures order and decorum during the proceedings of the House.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
K.L Institute answered |
Both statements are correct. The Speaker adjourns meetings in the absence of quorum and ensures order and decorum during the proceedings. However, ensuring order and decorum is not the reason for adjourning meetings due to lack of quorum.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty establishes global benchmarks for the protection of genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
Statement-II: These benchmarks ensure that all countries have the same level of protection for their genetic resources and traditional knowledge.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty establishes global benchmarks for the protection of genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
Statement-II: These benchmarks ensure that all countries have the same level of protection for their genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
Statement-I: The WIPO treaty establishes global benchmarks for the protection of genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
Statement-II: These benchmarks ensure that all countries have the same level of protection for their genetic resources and traditional knowledge.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
Statement-I is correct; the WIPO treaty does establish global benchmarks.
Statement-II is incorrect because the benchmarks aim to harmonize protection levels, but actual protection may vary by country based on their implementation.
Statement-II is incorrect because the benchmarks aim to harmonize protection levels, but actual protection may vary by country based on their implementation.
Consider the following statements: - The NSE is the largest stock exchange in India in terms of total market capitalization.
- The NSE was established in 1992 and started trading in 1994.
- The NSE introduced electronic screen-based trading in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The NSE is the largest stock exchange in India in terms of total market capitalization.
- The NSE was established in 1992 and started trading in 1994.
- The NSE introduced electronic screen-based trading in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
- S1 is Correct – The NSE is the largest stock exchange in India in terms of total market capitalization, often surpassing the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
- S2 is Correct – The NSE was established in 1992 and started its trading operations in 1994.
- S3 is Correct – The NSE introduced electronic screen-based trading in India, which was a significant shift from the traditional open outcry system.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)All three pairs
- d)None of the pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
All three pairs
d)
None of the pairs
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: UNESCO's Greening Curriculum Guidance is part of the Greening Education Partnership.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: The "Path to Peace" Summit is related to Russia-Ukraine conflict resolution.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 50th G7 Summit was held in Italy.
Consider the following statements about PM Awas Yojana: - PMAY was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- PMAY includes both urban and rural housing schemes.
- The scheme provides interest subsidies on home loans.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about PM Awas Yojana:
- PMAY was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- PMAY includes both urban and rural housing schemes.
- The scheme provides interest subsidies on home loans.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Lakshya Ias answered |
PM Awas Yojana:
- It was initiated in 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- Scheme type PMAY is a centrally sponsored scheme (Both the Union and the State governments financially contribute to it)
- The scheme has two components: PMAY-Urban and PMAY-Rural, which cater to the urban and rural areas respectively
- Objective
- Rehabilitation of slum dwellers with private developers’ participation
- Promotion of affordable housing for the weaker sections through Credit Linked Subsidy Schemes (CLSS)
Providing subsidy for Beneficiary-led Construction (BLC).
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Greening Education Partnership aims to transform 50% of educational institutions into Green Schools by 2030.
Reason (R): The partnership involves 80 member states and is structured around four pillars.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
- b)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
- c)A is correct but R is incorrect
- d)A is incorrect but R is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Greening Education Partnership aims to transform 50% of educational institutions into Green Schools by 2030.
Reason (R): The partnership involves 80 member states and is structured around four pillars.
Assertion (A): The Greening Education Partnership aims to transform 50% of educational institutions into Green Schools by 2030.
Reason (R): The partnership involves 80 member states and is structured around four pillars.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
b)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
c)
A is correct but R is incorrect
d)
A is incorrect but R is correct
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Assertion is correct: The Greening Education Partnership aims to transform 50% of educational institutions into Green Schools by 2030.
Reason is correct: The partnership involves 80 member states and is structured around four pillars, explaining the aim.
Reason is correct: The partnership involves 80 member states and is structured around four pillars, explaining the aim.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of nutrient-rich foods and an unhealthy diet.
Reason (R): UNICEF defines child food poverty as children's inability to access nutritious diets under 5.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
- b)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
- c)A is correct but R is incorrect
- d)A is incorrect but R is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of nutrient-rich foods and an unhealthy diet.
Reason (R): UNICEF defines child food poverty as children's inability to access nutritious diets under 5.
Assertion (A): Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of nutrient-rich foods and an unhealthy diet.
Reason (R): UNICEF defines child food poverty as children's inability to access nutritious diets under 5.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
b)
Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation for A
c)
A is correct but R is incorrect
d)
A is incorrect but R is correct
|
|
Academic Studio answered |
- Assertion is correct: Severe child food poverty leads to a lack of nutrient-rich foods and an unhealthy diet.
- Reason is correct: UNICEF defines child food poverty as children's inability to access nutritious diets under 5, explaining the cause of severe child food poverty.
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of ‘grey-zone warfare’? - a)Grey-zone warfare involves traditional military engagements between states using conventional armed forces.
- b)Grey-zone warfare is characterized by the use of covert operations, economic pressure, cyber attacks, and misinformation to achieve strategic objectives without triggering a full-scale war.
- c)Grey-zone warfare exclusively relies on diplomatic negotiations and peaceful resolutions to conflicts between nations.
- d)Grey-zone warfare refers to the development and deployment of advanced nuclear weapons as a means of deterrence.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of ‘grey-zone warfare’?
a)
Grey-zone warfare involves traditional military engagements between states using conventional armed forces.
b)
Grey-zone warfare is characterized by the use of covert operations, economic pressure, cyber attacks, and misinformation to achieve strategic objectives without triggering a full-scale war.
c)
Grey-zone warfare exclusively relies on diplomatic negotiations and peaceful resolutions to conflicts between nations.
d)
Grey-zone warfare refers to the development and deployment of advanced nuclear weapons as a means of deterrence.
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Grey-zone warfare refers to a strategy employed by states and non-state actors to achieve their strategic objectives through ambiguous, unconventional methods that fall below the threshold of open warfare. This includes a combination of military, political, economic, and cyber tools to destabilize and influence adversaries while avoiding direct military confrontation. These activities are often designed to be deniable or difficult to attribute, thereby complicating the targeted nation’s response and maintaining the aggressor’s strategic ambiguity. Unlike traditional warfare, grey-zone tactics exploit the space between war and peace, creating challenges for conventional defense and deterrence strategies.
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
- b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
- c)Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
- d)Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.
Assertion (A): Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R): Granting Special Category Status automatically leads to higher industrial development.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A)
b)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
c)
Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
d)
Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
|
|
Upsc Toppers answered |
Assertion (A) is correct. Bihar is seeking Special Category Status to address its significant socio-economic challenges.
Reason (R) is incorrect. Granting Special Category Status does not automatically lead to higher industrial development. It provides higher financial assistance and other benefits, but industrial development depends on several other factors, including policy measures and investment climate.
Reason (R) is incorrect. Granting Special Category Status does not automatically lead to higher industrial development. It provides higher financial assistance and other benefits, but industrial development depends on several other factors, including policy measures and investment climate.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-I: NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
Statement-I is correct. NOTA votes in Indian elections are counted as 'invalid votes' and do not alter the election outcomes.
Statement-II is correct. The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as NOTA being 'invalid votes' is a procedural detail and not the reason for its introduction.
Statement-II is correct. The Supreme Court mandated the introduction of NOTA in 2013 to empower voters.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as NOTA being 'invalid votes' is a procedural detail and not the reason for its introduction.
How has the Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) impacted forest conservation efforts in India?- a)Increased deforestation rates in villages with mandated ST representation
- b)Decreased conflict around mining activities in PESA villages
- c)Strengthened the ability of Scheduled Tribes to resist deforestation
- d)Led to a decrease in economic incentives for ST communities
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
How has the Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) impacted forest conservation efforts in India?
a)
Increased deforestation rates in villages with mandated ST representation
b)
Decreased conflict around mining activities in PESA villages
c)
Strengthened the ability of Scheduled Tribes to resist deforestation
d)
Led to a decrease in economic incentives for ST communities
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) has strengthened the ability of Scheduled Tribes (STs) to resist large-scale commercial activities like mining that can cause deforestation, leading to a greater reduction in deforestation in PESA villages near mines. This act has granted STs greater political representation, allowing them a say in how forests are managed and increasing economic incentives for ST communities in protecting the forest.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India is solely based on the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enacted in 1860.
Statement-II:
Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
- d)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India is solely based on the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enacted in 1860.
The Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India is solely based on the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enacted in 1860.
Statement-II:
Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List.
Article 246 of the Constitution of India places the police, public order, courts, prisons, reformatories, and other allied institutions in the State List.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
d)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
|
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct in stating that the Criminal Justice System (CJS) in India is not solely based on the Indian Penal Code (IPC) enacted in 1860. While the IPC forms a significant part of the legal framework, the CJS in India encompasses various laws, procedures, and institutions beyond just the IPC. Statement-II, on the other hand, incorrectly suggests that Article 246 of the Constitution places all these institutions in the State List. However, the distribution of powers between the Union and the States concerning these matters is more nuanced and involves concurrent and exclusive lists as per the Constitution.
What is the primary purpose of the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia?- a)Enhancing economic trade relations
- b)Streamlining military logistics support
- c)Facilitating cultural exchanges
- d)Promoting scientific collaborations
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia?
a)
Enhancing economic trade relations
b)
Streamlining military logistics support
c)
Facilitating cultural exchanges
d)
Promoting scientific collaborations
|
BT Educators answered |
The primary aim of the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) between India and Russia is to streamline military logistics support, making joint operations and long-distance missions more efficient and cost-effective for both countries. This agreement plays a crucial role in enhancing military cooperation and ensuring smoother utilization of logistics networks for both nations.
Consider the following statements:
- Trans fatty acids are naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables.
- Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease.
- Trans fatty acids are produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Trans fatty acids are naturally found in large quantities in fruits and vegetables.
- Consumption of trans fatty acids has been shown to reduce the risk of heart disease.
- Trans fatty acids are produced during the hydrogenation of vegetable oils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
Trans fatty acids, also known as trans fats, are a type of unsaturated fat that occur in small amounts in nature but are largely produced industrially. They are formed during the process of hydrogenation, which is used to solidify liquid vegetable oils. This process changes the chemical structure of the fats, resulting in the creation of trans fats. Unlike other types of fats, trans fats are not essential and do not promote good health. In fact, their consumption has been linked to an increased risk of heart disease, which is why health experts recommend limiting their intake.
Consider the following statements: - The National Gene Bank in India safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for farmers and breeders sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999, mandates the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The National Gene Bank in India safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for farmers and breeders sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999, mandates the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
BT Educators answered |
- The National Gene Bank safeguards genetic diversity for future use.
- The PPV&FR Act, 2001 ensures fair benefits for breeders and farmers sharing Plant Genetic Resources.
- The Trademark Act, 1999 does not mandate the disclosure of biological resource origins in patent applications; this is covered by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005.
Consider the following statements: - Cyclone Remal triggered landslides in Northeast India, highlighting the need for multi-hazard disaster resilience.
- Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Assam are particularly vulnerable to landslides.
- The Landslide Atlas of India focuses on assessing risks and monitoring landslides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- Cyclone Remal triggered landslides in Northeast India, highlighting the need for multi-hazard disaster resilience.
- Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Assam are particularly vulnerable to landslides.
- The Landslide Atlas of India focuses on assessing risks and monitoring landslides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
|
BT Educators answered |
- Cyclone Remal did trigger landslides in Northeast India, emphasizing the need for multi-hazard disaster resilience.
- States like Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Assam are highly vulnerable to landslides.
- The Landslide Atlas of India focuses on assessing risks and monitoring landslides.
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)All three pairs
- d)None of the pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
All three pairs
d)
None of the pairs
|
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
- Brazil is a signatory to the Paris Agreement.
- India has ratified the Kigali Amendment.
- China is a party to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.
Statement-I: The AMRUT 2.0 scheme aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
Statement-II: This objective is part of the mission to improve basic infrastructure in selected cities.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
Innovative Classes answered |
- AMRUT 2.0 indeed aims to achieve universal water supply coverage.
- This objective is part of the mission to enhance basic urban infrastructure, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 focuses on promoting a circular water economy.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 focuses on promoting a circular water economy.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.
Statement-II: The scheme includes the development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) for water management.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Innovative Classes answered |
- AMRUT 2.0 promotes a circular water economy.
- The development of City Water Balance Plans (CWBP) is a key component in achieving this goal, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.
Statement-I: The National Gene Bank in India is designed to preserve both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is responsible for the preservation of plant genetic diversity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct; the National Gene Bank preserves both plant and animal genetic resources.
Statement-II is correct; NBPGR focuses on preserving plant genetic diversity. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Statement-II is correct; NBPGR focuses on preserving plant genetic diversity. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 includes initiatives like Pey Jal Survekshan and a Technology Sub-Mission for Water.
Statement-II: These initiatives are designed to improve urban water management and promote the use of advanced water technologies.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 includes initiatives like Pey Jal Survekshan and a Technology Sub-Mission for Water.
Statement-II: These initiatives are designed to improve urban water management and promote the use of advanced water technologies.
Statement-I: AMRUT 2.0 includes initiatives like Pey Jal Survekshan and a Technology Sub-Mission for Water.
Statement-II: These initiatives are designed to improve urban water management and promote the use of advanced water technologies.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
|
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
AMRUT 2.0 does include initiatives like Pey Jal Survekshan and a Technology Sub-Mission for Water.
These initiatives aim to improve urban water management and leverage advanced technologies, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
These initiatives aim to improve urban water management and leverage advanced technologies, making Statement-II the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The RRTS project is a rail-based semi-high-speed transit system for the NCR region.
Statement-II: The Central Place Theory explains the development of urban settlements around key central locations.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The RRTS project is a rail-based semi-high-speed transit system for the NCR region.
Statement-II: The Central Place Theory explains the development of urban settlements around key central locations.
Statement-I: The RRTS project is a rail-based semi-high-speed transit system for the NCR region.
Statement-II: The Central Place Theory explains the development of urban settlements around key central locations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
|
Valor Academy answered |
- Statement-I is correct. The RRTS project is a rail-based semi-high-speed transit system for the NCR region.
- Statement-II is correct. The Central Place Theory explains the development of urban settlements around key central locations.
- Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I as the development of RRTS corridors is not solely explained by Central Place Theory but also by transportation needs and planning.
Chapter doubts & questions for June 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of June 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of CLAT exam.
Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CLAT Exam by signing up for free.
Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly
1041 docs|717 tests
|
Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!
Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev
|
© EduRev
|
Education Revolution
|
|
Signup to see your scores
go up within 7 days!
Access 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos and Tests
Takes less than 10 seconds to signup