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All questions of August 2024 for CLAT Exam
What is the primary objective of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, introduced in Parliament?- a)To increase the powers of Waqf Boards
- b)To enhance accountability and transparency in Waqf boards
- c)To grant unchecked power to Waqf Boards
- d)To reduce government oversight in Waqf properties
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, introduced in Parliament?
a)
To increase the powers of Waqf Boards
b)
To enhance accountability and transparency in Waqf boards
c)
To grant unchecked power to Waqf Boards
d)
To reduce government oversight in Waqf properties
|
Surbhi Agrawal answered |
To increase legal clarity and promoting economic development and enhancing jurisdiction it's is the primary objective of waqf amendment bill
What is a major reason for the repeal of the Assam Muslim Marriage and Divorce Registration Act of 1935?- a) It was too complex to implement
- b) It supported outdated practices like child marriage and lacked mutual consent requirements
- c) It was not recognized internationally
- d) It was only applicable to urban areas
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a major reason for the repeal of the Assam Muslim Marriage and Divorce Registration Act of 1935?
a)
It was too complex to implement
b)
It supported outdated practices like child marriage and lacked mutual consent requirements
c)
It was not recognized internationally
d)
It was only applicable to urban areas
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The Assam Muslim Marriage and Divorce Registration Act of 1935 was repealed primarily because it supported outdated practices, such as allowing child marriages and not requiring mutual consent for marriages. The new bill aims to address these issues by introducing stricter regulations that protect individuals, particularly women and children, from harmful practices and ensure that marriages are consensual and legally sound.
What core principle does NATO uphold, which considers an attack on one member as an attack on all?- a) Collective Defense
- b) Preemptive Strike
- c) Regional Cooperation
- d) Military Intervention
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What core principle does NATO uphold, which considers an attack on one member as an attack on all?
a)
Collective Defense
b)
Preemptive Strike
c)
Regional Cooperation
d)
Military Intervention
|
Pranita malhotra answered |
Core Principle of NATO: Collective Defense
NATO, or the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, is built on a foundational principle known as collective defense. This principle is encapsulated in Article 5 of the NATO treaty.
Definition of Collective Defense
- Collective defense means that an armed attack against one or more NATO members is considered an attack against all member states.
Historical Context
- This principle was established in 1949, primarily as a response to the threat posed by the Soviet Union during the Cold War. It aimed to deter aggression through a united front.
Implications of Collective Defense
- Mutual Protection: All member states are obligated to assist any allied nation that is attacked, reinforcing solidarity among members.
- Deterrence: The collective defense commitment serves as a deterrent against potential aggressors, knowing that an attack on one would invoke a response from all.
- Military Cooperation: This principle fosters military collaboration and joint exercises among member countries, enhancing their readiness and capability to respond to threats.
Examples in Practice
- The most notable invocation of Article 5 occurred after the September 11, 2001 attacks in the United States, where NATO allies rallied in support of the U.S. and engaged in collective action.
Conclusion
- In essence, collective defense is the cornerstone of NATO's strength and unity, ensuring that member states can rely on one another in times of crisis, thereby promoting stability and security across the North Atlantic region.
NATO, or the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, is built on a foundational principle known as collective defense. This principle is encapsulated in Article 5 of the NATO treaty.
Definition of Collective Defense
- Collective defense means that an armed attack against one or more NATO members is considered an attack against all member states.
Historical Context
- This principle was established in 1949, primarily as a response to the threat posed by the Soviet Union during the Cold War. It aimed to deter aggression through a united front.
Implications of Collective Defense
- Mutual Protection: All member states are obligated to assist any allied nation that is attacked, reinforcing solidarity among members.
- Deterrence: The collective defense commitment serves as a deterrent against potential aggressors, knowing that an attack on one would invoke a response from all.
- Military Cooperation: This principle fosters military collaboration and joint exercises among member countries, enhancing their readiness and capability to respond to threats.
Examples in Practice
- The most notable invocation of Article 5 occurred after the September 11, 2001 attacks in the United States, where NATO allies rallied in support of the U.S. and engaged in collective action.
Conclusion
- In essence, collective defense is the cornerstone of NATO's strength and unity, ensuring that member states can rely on one another in times of crisis, thereby promoting stability and security across the North Atlantic region.
What is the primary mode of transmission for Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)?- a) Airborne particles
- b) Mosquito bites
- c) Contaminated water
- d) Direct contact with infected individuals
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary mode of transmission for Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)?
a)
Airborne particles
b)
Mosquito bites
c)
Contaminated water
d)
Direct contact with infected individuals
|
Vishakha garg answered |
Understanding Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE)
Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) is a rare but severe viral illness that affects the central nervous system, primarily transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
Primary Mode of Transmission
- **Mosquito Bites**:
- The virus is maintained in nature through a cycle involving birds and mosquitoes.
- Infected mosquitoes, particularly species like Culiseta melanura, bite humans and other mammals, transmitting the virus.
Role of Mosquitoes in Transmission
- **Vector Species**:
- Mosquitoes act as the vectors that facilitate the transmission of EEE.
- The virus replicates within the mosquito after it feeds on an infected bird, allowing it to spread to new hosts.
- **Seasonality**:
- Transmission is more common during warmer months when mosquito populations are higher.
Impact on Human Health
- **Symptoms and Severity**:
- While many infected individuals may be asymptomatic, EEE can lead to serious conditions such as encephalitis, which can be life-threatening.
- **Prevention**:
- Preventive measures focus on mosquito control and personal protection (e.g., using insect repellent) to minimize the risk of bites.
In summary, the primary mode of transmission for Eastern equine encephalitis is indeed through mosquito bites (Option B), emphasizing the importance of understanding vector-borne diseases and their prevention.
Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) is a rare but severe viral illness that affects the central nervous system, primarily transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
Primary Mode of Transmission
- **Mosquito Bites**:
- The virus is maintained in nature through a cycle involving birds and mosquitoes.
- Infected mosquitoes, particularly species like Culiseta melanura, bite humans and other mammals, transmitting the virus.
Role of Mosquitoes in Transmission
- **Vector Species**:
- Mosquitoes act as the vectors that facilitate the transmission of EEE.
- The virus replicates within the mosquito after it feeds on an infected bird, allowing it to spread to new hosts.
- **Seasonality**:
- Transmission is more common during warmer months when mosquito populations are higher.
Impact on Human Health
- **Symptoms and Severity**:
- While many infected individuals may be asymptomatic, EEE can lead to serious conditions such as encephalitis, which can be life-threatening.
- **Prevention**:
- Preventive measures focus on mosquito control and personal protection (e.g., using insect repellent) to minimize the risk of bites.
In summary, the primary mode of transmission for Eastern equine encephalitis is indeed through mosquito bites (Option B), emphasizing the importance of understanding vector-borne diseases and their prevention.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
|
Ipsita Dey answered |
Understanding Statement-I and Statement-II
Both statements relate to the processes of atmospheric heating and the role of greenhouse gases.
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
- The Earth's atmosphere absorbs a significant portion of solar radiation, which primarily comes from the sun.
- The incoming solar radiation heats the surface of the Earth, which in turn emits long-wave (terrestrial) radiation back into the atmosphere.
- However, the direct warming effect of solar radiation on the atmosphere is typically greater than that of terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
- Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor are indeed effective at absorbing long-wave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface.
- This absorption leads to the greenhouse effect, where these gases trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to its warming.
Analysis of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate: Statement-I correctly identifies the predominant source of atmospheric heat as solar radiation, while Statement-II correctly describes the role of greenhouse gases in absorbing long-wave radiation.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. The heating of the atmosphere by solar radiation occurs independently of the greenhouse effect, which is a separate process that influences temperature retention in the atmosphere.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct choice is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The relationship between these phenomena demonstrates the complexity of atmospheric dynamics.
Both statements relate to the processes of atmospheric heating and the role of greenhouse gases.
Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
- The Earth's atmosphere absorbs a significant portion of solar radiation, which primarily comes from the sun.
- The incoming solar radiation heats the surface of the Earth, which in turn emits long-wave (terrestrial) radiation back into the atmosphere.
- However, the direct warming effect of solar radiation on the atmosphere is typically greater than that of terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
- Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor are indeed effective at absorbing long-wave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface.
- This absorption leads to the greenhouse effect, where these gases trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to its warming.
Analysis of the Statements
- Both statements are accurate: Statement-I correctly identifies the predominant source of atmospheric heat as solar radiation, while Statement-II correctly describes the role of greenhouse gases in absorbing long-wave radiation.
- However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. The heating of the atmosphere by solar radiation occurs independently of the greenhouse effect, which is a separate process that influences temperature retention in the atmosphere.
Conclusion
- Thus, the correct choice is option 'B': Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The relationship between these phenomena demonstrates the complexity of atmospheric dynamics.
What makes the Lunar-Earth gravity assist (LEGA) maneuver significant for the JUICE mission?- a)It allows JUICE to conserve fuel for upcoming tasks
- b)It enables JUICE to communicate with Earth more effectively
- c)It speeds up JUICE's journey to Jupiter
- d)It enhances the spacecraft's durability in space
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
It allows JUICE to conserve fuel for upcoming tasks
b)
It enables JUICE to communicate with Earth more effectively
c)
It speeds up JUICE's journey to Jupiter
d)
It enhances the spacecraft's durability in space
|
Uday Chatterjee answered |
Significance of the Lunar-Earth Gravity Assist (LEGA) Maneuver
The Lunar-Earth Gravity Assist (LEGA) maneuver is pivotal for the JUICE mission, primarily because it allows the spacecraft to conserve fuel for its subsequent tasks.
Fuel Conservation
- The LEGA maneuver uses the gravitational pull of the Moon to alter JUICE's trajectory and speed without using its onboard propellant.
- By utilizing this gravitational assist, JUICE can gain the necessary velocity and direction towards its destination, Jupiter, while preserving fuel for later phases of its mission.
Implications for Mission Objectives
- Fuel conservation is crucial for long-duration space missions, especially for JUICE, which aims to study the moons of Jupiter and their potential habitability.
- The fuel saved through the LEGA maneuver can extend the operational life of the spacecraft, enabling it to conduct more scientific observations and experiments during its journey and upon arrival at Jupiter.
Overall Mission Efficiency
- The successful execution of the LEGA maneuver not only enhances the efficiency of the mission but also contributes to the overall mission design, allowing for a more complex and comprehensive exploration of the Jovian system.
- This strategic approach ensures that JUICE can perform its scientific tasks effectively without the immediate concern of fuel depletion.
In summary, the LEGA maneuver is significant for the JUICE mission because it optimizes fuel usage, ensuring that the spacecraft can fulfill its ambitious scientific objectives upon reaching Jupiter and its moons.
The Lunar-Earth Gravity Assist (LEGA) maneuver is pivotal for the JUICE mission, primarily because it allows the spacecraft to conserve fuel for its subsequent tasks.
Fuel Conservation
- The LEGA maneuver uses the gravitational pull of the Moon to alter JUICE's trajectory and speed without using its onboard propellant.
- By utilizing this gravitational assist, JUICE can gain the necessary velocity and direction towards its destination, Jupiter, while preserving fuel for later phases of its mission.
Implications for Mission Objectives
- Fuel conservation is crucial for long-duration space missions, especially for JUICE, which aims to study the moons of Jupiter and their potential habitability.
- The fuel saved through the LEGA maneuver can extend the operational life of the spacecraft, enabling it to conduct more scientific observations and experiments during its journey and upon arrival at Jupiter.
Overall Mission Efficiency
- The successful execution of the LEGA maneuver not only enhances the efficiency of the mission but also contributes to the overall mission design, allowing for a more complex and comprehensive exploration of the Jovian system.
- This strategic approach ensures that JUICE can perform its scientific tasks effectively without the immediate concern of fuel depletion.
In summary, the LEGA maneuver is significant for the JUICE mission because it optimizes fuel usage, ensuring that the spacecraft can fulfill its ambitious scientific objectives upon reaching Jupiter and its moons.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the new Assam bill and existing Muslim personal laws?- a) The bill completely overrides all existing laws
- b) The bill works alongside existing Muslim personal laws but causes some tension
- c) The bill is irrelevant to Muslim personal laws
- d) The bill only applies to registered marriages
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between the new Assam bill and existing Muslim personal laws?
a)
The bill completely overrides all existing laws
b)
The bill works alongside existing Muslim personal laws but causes some tension
c)
The bill is irrelevant to Muslim personal laws
d)
The bill only applies to registered marriages
|
Shefali mehta answered |
Understanding the Relationship Between the Assam Bill and Muslim Personal Laws
The recent Assam bill introduces regulations that intersect with existing personal laws, particularly those governing Muslim marriages. Here’s a detailed breakdown of why option 'B' is the correct answer:
1. Coexistence of Laws
- The Assam bill does not completely override existing Muslim personal laws. Instead, it establishes a framework that operates alongside them.
- It acknowledges the existence of personal laws while introducing new provisions related to marriage registration and associated rights.
2. Areas of Tension
- The bill's requirements for marriage registration may conflict with traditional practices recognized under Muslim personal laws, leading to potential legal and social tensions.
- Issues may arise regarding the recognition of marriages that are not registered according to the new bill, which could challenge the validity of certain unions under Islamic law.
3. Impact on Registered Marriages
- The bill specifically emphasizes the registration of marriages, thereby creating a legal necessity that may not have been emphasized previously under Muslim personal laws.
- This focus could lead to a shift in how marriages are viewed legally, with implications for inheritance, custody, and other family law matters.
4. Conclusion
- Overall, the Assam bill introduces a layer of complexity to the existing legal landscape, necessitating a careful understanding of both the new regulations and the traditional Muslim personal laws.
- Hence, while the bill does not entirely negate existing laws, it certainly causes some friction and requires adaptations by the communities affected.
The recent Assam bill introduces regulations that intersect with existing personal laws, particularly those governing Muslim marriages. Here’s a detailed breakdown of why option 'B' is the correct answer:
1. Coexistence of Laws
- The Assam bill does not completely override existing Muslim personal laws. Instead, it establishes a framework that operates alongside them.
- It acknowledges the existence of personal laws while introducing new provisions related to marriage registration and associated rights.
2. Areas of Tension
- The bill's requirements for marriage registration may conflict with traditional practices recognized under Muslim personal laws, leading to potential legal and social tensions.
- Issues may arise regarding the recognition of marriages that are not registered according to the new bill, which could challenge the validity of certain unions under Islamic law.
3. Impact on Registered Marriages
- The bill specifically emphasizes the registration of marriages, thereby creating a legal necessity that may not have been emphasized previously under Muslim personal laws.
- This focus could lead to a shift in how marriages are viewed legally, with implications for inheritance, custody, and other family law matters.
4. Conclusion
- Overall, the Assam bill introduces a layer of complexity to the existing legal landscape, necessitating a careful understanding of both the new regulations and the traditional Muslim personal laws.
- Hence, while the bill does not entirely negate existing laws, it certainly causes some friction and requires adaptations by the communities affected.
What is the projected percentage increase in global flooding events by the year 2100 if greenhouse gas emissions remain high?- a)15%
- b)49%
- c)99%
- d)7%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the projected percentage increase in global flooding events by the year 2100 if greenhouse gas emissions remain high?
a)
15%
b)
49%
c)
99%
d)
7%
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The study predicts a 49% increase in global flooding events by 2100 if greenhouse gas emissions continue at high levels. This significant rise highlights the urgent need for climate action to mitigate the impacts of climate change, particularly in vulnerable areas such as tropical coastlines.
What is the primary goal behind India and Russia's plan to establish a "dynamic reference rate" for their currencies?- a)To simplify financial transactions between the two countries
- b)To reduce the impact of U.S. sanctions on Russia
- c)To stabilize the exchange rates of the Indian Rupee and Russian Rouble
- d)To encourage foreign investments in both countries
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
To simplify financial transactions between the two countries
b)
To reduce the impact of U.S. sanctions on Russia
c)
To stabilize the exchange rates of the Indian Rupee and Russian Rouble
d)
To encourage foreign investments in both countries
|
Arti verma answered |
Introduction
India and Russia's initiative to establish a "dynamic reference rate" for their currencies primarily aims to mitigate the effects of U.S. sanctions imposed on Russia. This strategic financial maneuver is vital for both nations, especially in a rapidly changing geopolitical landscape.
Impact of U.S. Sanctions on Russia
- The sanctions have significantly restricted Russia's access to international financial systems.
- These restrictions have prompted Russia to seek alternative trading partners and financial arrangements.
- Establishing a reference rate allows Russia to conduct transactions more smoothly with India, reducing dependence on U.S. dollar-denominated transactions.
Strengthening Bilateral Trade
- A dynamic reference rate facilitates easier trade by allowing transactions to be conducted directly in local currencies.
- This reduces transaction costs and enhances the volume of trade between the two countries.
- The arrangement can help both countries to navigate around U.S. sanctions by minimizing dollar reliance.
Currency Stabilization
- By establishing a reference rate, both countries can work towards stabilizing their currencies against external shocks.
- It can provide a predictable framework for businesses and investors, encouraging economic activities.
Conclusion
In summary, while simplifying transactions and promoting investments are secondary benefits, the primary goal of establishing a dynamic reference rate between India and Russia is to reduce the impact of U.S. sanctions on Russia. This strategic alignment not only strengthens their economic ties but also enhances their resilience against external pressures.
India and Russia's initiative to establish a "dynamic reference rate" for their currencies primarily aims to mitigate the effects of U.S. sanctions imposed on Russia. This strategic financial maneuver is vital for both nations, especially in a rapidly changing geopolitical landscape.
Impact of U.S. Sanctions on Russia
- The sanctions have significantly restricted Russia's access to international financial systems.
- These restrictions have prompted Russia to seek alternative trading partners and financial arrangements.
- Establishing a reference rate allows Russia to conduct transactions more smoothly with India, reducing dependence on U.S. dollar-denominated transactions.
Strengthening Bilateral Trade
- A dynamic reference rate facilitates easier trade by allowing transactions to be conducted directly in local currencies.
- This reduces transaction costs and enhances the volume of trade between the two countries.
- The arrangement can help both countries to navigate around U.S. sanctions by minimizing dollar reliance.
Currency Stabilization
- By establishing a reference rate, both countries can work towards stabilizing their currencies against external shocks.
- It can provide a predictable framework for businesses and investors, encouraging economic activities.
Conclusion
In summary, while simplifying transactions and promoting investments are secondary benefits, the primary goal of establishing a dynamic reference rate between India and Russia is to reduce the impact of U.S. sanctions on Russia. This strategic alignment not only strengthens their economic ties but also enhances their resilience against external pressures.
What is the primary goal of the India Australia Rapid Innovation and Startup Expansion (RISE) accelerator program?- a)Support businesses in creating innovative technologies
- b)Facilitate international collaborations in the Agritech field
- c)Provide financial support to startups and small businesses
- d)Focus on developing sustainable farming practices
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the India Australia Rapid Innovation and Startup Expansion (RISE) accelerator program?
a)
Support businesses in creating innovative technologies
b)
Facilitate international collaborations in the Agritech field
c)
Provide financial support to startups and small businesses
d)
Focus on developing sustainable farming practices
|
Anoushka dubey answered |
Overview of the RISE Accelerator Program
The India Australia Rapid Innovation and Startup Expansion (RISE) accelerator program is designed to foster international collaboration, particularly in the Agritech sector. This initiative brings together innovative minds from both countries to address pressing agricultural challenges.
Primary Goal: Facilitate International Collaborations
- Collaboration Focus: The program aims to build partnerships between Indian and Australian startups, enabling them to share knowledge, technology, and best practices.
- Agritech Emphasis: By specifically targeting the Agritech field, RISE seeks to harness the unique strengths and expertise of both countries in agricultural innovation and technology.
Strengthening Ecosystems
- Shared Resources: Startups gain access to a wealth of resources, including mentorship from industry experts, networking opportunities, and access to research institutions.
- Market Access: Participants in the program can explore new markets, leveraging Australia’s advanced agricultural practices and India’s burgeoning startup ecosystem.
Building Sustainable Solutions
- Sustainability Goals: By focusing on Agritech, RISE not only promotes innovation but also addresses sustainability in farming practices, which is crucial in today's world.
- Long-term Impact: Collaborating on sustainable agricultural technologies helps ensure food security and environmental health for future generations.
In summary, the RISE accelerator program's primary goal is to facilitate international collaborations in the Agritech field, creating a dynamic environment for innovation and sustainable development.
The India Australia Rapid Innovation and Startup Expansion (RISE) accelerator program is designed to foster international collaboration, particularly in the Agritech sector. This initiative brings together innovative minds from both countries to address pressing agricultural challenges.
Primary Goal: Facilitate International Collaborations
- Collaboration Focus: The program aims to build partnerships between Indian and Australian startups, enabling them to share knowledge, technology, and best practices.
- Agritech Emphasis: By specifically targeting the Agritech field, RISE seeks to harness the unique strengths and expertise of both countries in agricultural innovation and technology.
Strengthening Ecosystems
- Shared Resources: Startups gain access to a wealth of resources, including mentorship from industry experts, networking opportunities, and access to research institutions.
- Market Access: Participants in the program can explore new markets, leveraging Australia’s advanced agricultural practices and India’s burgeoning startup ecosystem.
Building Sustainable Solutions
- Sustainability Goals: By focusing on Agritech, RISE not only promotes innovation but also addresses sustainability in farming practices, which is crucial in today's world.
- Long-term Impact: Collaborating on sustainable agricultural technologies helps ensure food security and environmental health for future generations.
In summary, the RISE accelerator program's primary goal is to facilitate international collaborations in the Agritech field, creating a dynamic environment for innovation and sustainable development.
Consider the following pairs:1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million populationHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women
2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants
3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year
4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million population
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women - Correctly matched- According to the NOTTO report, 63% of living donors were women.
2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants - Incorrectly matched- The correct information is that Delhi-NCR region accounted for nearly 78% of foreign national transplants, not just Delhi alone.
3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year - Correctly matched- In 2023, for the first time, India surpassed 1,000 deceased organ donors in a single year, breaking the previous record set in 2022.
4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million population - Incorrectly matched- The actual organ donation rate is less than 1 per million population as per the report.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Answer: Option C
Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Accelerator Fund. - The Fund encourages agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas.
- It was setup by the Department of Agricultural Research and Education.
- The Fund aims to bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices and increase productivity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Accelerator Fund.
- The Fund encourages agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas.
- It was setup by the Department of Agricultural Research and Education.
- The Fund aims to bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices and increase productivity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Capstone Ias Learning answered |
Statement 2 is incorrect.
An Agriculture Accelerator Fund will be set up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas. The fund will aim at bringing innovative and affordable solutions for challenges faced by farmers. It will also bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices, and increase productivity and profitability.
What significant change does the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces Bill, 2024, introduce regarding age requirements for marriage?- a) No age limit for marriage
- b) The woman must be at least 18 years old, and the man must be at least 21 years old
- c) Both partners must be over 25 years old
- d) The age limit is determined by local customs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant change does the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces Bill, 2024, introduce regarding age requirements for marriage?
a)
No age limit for marriage
b)
The woman must be at least 18 years old, and the man must be at least 21 years old
c)
Both partners must be over 25 years old
d)
The age limit is determined by local customs
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The new law stipulates that for a marriage to be legally registered, the woman must be at least 18 years old and the man must be at least 21 years old. This change aims to prevent child marriages, which were previously allowed under the outdated 1935 law. By establishing a minimum age, the law seeks to protect vulnerable individuals and promote informed consent in marriages.
Which two countries are NOT included in the list of 35 countries granted visa-free access to Sri Lanka?- a) Nepal and China
- b) India and Japan
- c) Saudi Arabia and Brazil
- d) Australia and the UK
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which two countries are NOT included in the list of 35 countries granted visa-free access to Sri Lanka?
a)
Nepal and China
b)
India and Japan
c)
Saudi Arabia and Brazil
d)
Australia and the UK
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
Brazil is not included in the list of 35 countries that have been granted visa-free access to Sri Lanka. The countries listed include significant markets for tourism, such as India, China, and the UK, while Brazil is not mentioned among them, highlighting the focus on regions with strong tourist ties to Sri Lanka.
How much is coastal flooding expected to increase by 2100, even with low emissions?- a)50%
- b)75%
- c)99%
- d)25%
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
How much is coastal flooding expected to increase by 2100, even with low emissions?
a)
50%
b)
75%
c)
99%
d)
25%
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
Coastal flooding is expected to nearly double, with a 99% increase by 2100, even under low emissions scenarios. This dramatic rise underscores the importance of coastal management and infrastructure planning to adapt to the anticipated impacts of climate change and protect vulnerable coastal communities.
What is the main reason for mangrove loss in India according to the report?- a)Shrimp aquaculture
- b)Logging for timber
- c)Rice cultivation
- d)Natural retraction due to sea-level rise
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the main reason for mangrove loss in India according to the report?
a)
Shrimp aquaculture
b)
Logging for timber
c)
Rice cultivation
d)
Natural retraction due to sea-level rise
|
Sandeep Mukherjee answered |
Main Reason for Mangrove Loss in India
Mangroves are vital coastal ecosystems that provide numerous ecological and economic benefits, including coastal protection, biodiversity habitat, and carbon sequestration. However, in India, the primary reason for mangrove loss is shrimp aquaculture.
Impact of Shrimp Aquaculture
- **Expansion of Aquaculture:** The demand for shrimp, particularly in international markets, has led to the conversion of mangrove forests into shrimp farms. This practice is prevalent in states like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
- **Land Conversion:** Mangroves are cleared to create ponds for shrimp farming. The process often involves significant alteration of coastal landscapes, leading to habitat loss.
Environmental Consequences
- **Biodiversity Loss:** The removal of mangroves disrupts the ecosystems that support various species, leading to a decline in biodiversity. This loss affects fish populations and other marine life that rely on mangroves for breeding and shelter.
- **Coastal Erosion:** Mangroves act as natural barriers against storms and coastal erosion. Their removal increases vulnerability to flooding and erosion, impacting local communities.
Socio-economic Factors
- **Livelihood Dependency:** Many coastal communities depend on shrimp farming for income. This economic incentive often overshadows the environmental costs associated with mangrove loss.
- **Regulatory Challenges:** Weak enforcement of environmental regulations allows illegal clearing of mangroves for aquaculture to continue unchecked.
In summary, while there are multiple factors contributing to mangrove loss in India, shrimp aquaculture stands out as the most significant driver. The practice not only threatens the ecological integrity of coastal regions but also poses long-term economic risks to communities reliant on healthy marine ecosystems.
Mangroves are vital coastal ecosystems that provide numerous ecological and economic benefits, including coastal protection, biodiversity habitat, and carbon sequestration. However, in India, the primary reason for mangrove loss is shrimp aquaculture.
Impact of Shrimp Aquaculture
- **Expansion of Aquaculture:** The demand for shrimp, particularly in international markets, has led to the conversion of mangrove forests into shrimp farms. This practice is prevalent in states like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
- **Land Conversion:** Mangroves are cleared to create ponds for shrimp farming. The process often involves significant alteration of coastal landscapes, leading to habitat loss.
Environmental Consequences
- **Biodiversity Loss:** The removal of mangroves disrupts the ecosystems that support various species, leading to a decline in biodiversity. This loss affects fish populations and other marine life that rely on mangroves for breeding and shelter.
- **Coastal Erosion:** Mangroves act as natural barriers against storms and coastal erosion. Their removal increases vulnerability to flooding and erosion, impacting local communities.
Socio-economic Factors
- **Livelihood Dependency:** Many coastal communities depend on shrimp farming for income. This economic incentive often overshadows the environmental costs associated with mangrove loss.
- **Regulatory Challenges:** Weak enforcement of environmental regulations allows illegal clearing of mangroves for aquaculture to continue unchecked.
In summary, while there are multiple factors contributing to mangrove loss in India, shrimp aquaculture stands out as the most significant driver. The practice not only threatens the ecological integrity of coastal regions but also poses long-term economic risks to communities reliant on healthy marine ecosystems.
Consider the following statements regarding mRNA Technology Transfer Programme. - The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme aims to enhance vaccine production capacity in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).
- The Programme has developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases.
- It is the initiative of World Bank.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding mRNA Technology Transfer Programme.
- The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme aims to enhance vaccine production capacity in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs).
- The Programme has developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases.
- It is the initiative of World Bank.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
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EduRev UPSC answered |
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP).
- The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs.
- Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness.
- The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework.
The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.
Consider the following statements regarding Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary. - Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and gibbon species, the hoolock gibbons.
- The forest’s lower canopy is dominated by evergreen shrubs and herbs.
- The forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?- a)Only one
- b)Only two
- c)All three
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary.
- Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and gibbon species, the hoolock gibbons.
- The forest’s lower canopy is dominated by evergreen shrubs and herbs.
- The forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
Only one
b)
Only two
c)
All three
d)
None
|
Valor Academy answered |
- The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Assam. The sanctuary was officially constituted and renamed in 1997. Set aside initially in 1881, its forests used to extend to the foothills of the Patkai mountain range.
- Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages.
- The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India’s only ape and gibbon specie – the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate – the Bengal slow loris.
- The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus), while the nahar (Mesua ferrea) dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.
Why are the Dhangars demanding grazing corridors in Maharashtra?- a)To promote tourism in the region
- b)To protect endangered species
- c)To preserve their cultural heritage and livelihood
- d)To establish new agricultural practices
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Why are the Dhangars demanding grazing corridors in Maharashtra?
a)
To promote tourism in the region
b)
To protect endangered species
c)
To preserve their cultural heritage and livelihood
d)
To establish new agricultural practices
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EduRev CLAT answered |
The Dhangars are demanding grazing corridors in Maharashtra to preserve their cultural heritage and livelihood. These corridors are essential for their traditional way of life, as they have herded their animals along specific routes for generations. The demand aims to recognize their right to graze along these traditional paths, which are crucial for their economy and cultural practices.
When was Mpox first identified in humans, and in which regions is it commonly found?- a) First identified in humans in 1980 in East Africa
- b) First identified in humans in 1970 in Central and West Africa
- c) First identified in humans in 1965 in Southern Africa
- d) First identified in humans in 1990 in North Africa
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
When was Mpox first identified in humans, and in which regions is it commonly found?
a)
First identified in humans in 1980 in East Africa
b)
First identified in humans in 1970 in Central and West Africa
c)
First identified in humans in 1965 in Southern Africa
d)
First identified in humans in 1990 in North Africa
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
Mpox was first identified in humans in 1970 and is commonly found in Central and West Africa. This viral disease, previously known as monkeypox, primarily affects these regions and has been a cause for global health concern due to its potential to spread rapidly.
What is the main focus of India's Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Scheme?- a)Promoting the use of fossil fuels
- b)Supporting the production of green ammonia and related products
- c)Encouraging the use of coal-based energy
- d)Investing in traditional hydrogen production methods
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the main focus of India's Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Scheme?
a)
Promoting the use of fossil fuels
b)
Supporting the production of green ammonia and related products
c)
Encouraging the use of coal-based energy
d)
Investing in traditional hydrogen production methods
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The SIGHT Scheme in India primarily aims to support the production of green ammonia and its related products as part of the country's move towards cleaner and more sustainable energy sources. This effort aligns with the broader goal of promoting the use of renewable energy across India.
In combat sports such as wrestling, why are weight classes essential?- a) To ensure athletes compete against opponents of different strengths
- b) To prevent unfair advantages due to size or strength differences
- c) To encourage rapid weight loss techniques
- d) To make athletes wear minimal clothing for weigh-ins
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In combat sports such as wrestling, why are weight classes essential?
a)
To ensure athletes compete against opponents of different strengths
b)
To prevent unfair advantages due to size or strength differences
c)
To encourage rapid weight loss techniques
d)
To make athletes wear minimal clothing for weigh-ins
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
Weight classes in combat sports like wrestling are crucial to prevent unfair advantages due to size or strength differences. Athletes competing in the same weight class are more evenly matched, promoting fair competition and skill-based victories. This system helps maintain a level playing field and ensures that success is based on talent and training rather than physical advantages.
What is the focus of the research conducted by entomologists from the Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE) in Bengaluru?- a)Studying the impact of climate change on insect populations
- b)Investigating new species of edible bugs in North-East India
- c)Analyzing the role of insects in local ecosystems
- d)Researching the genetic makeup of insect species
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
Studying the impact of climate change on insect populations
b)
Investigating new species of edible bugs in North-East India
c)
Analyzing the role of insects in local ecosystems
d)
Researching the genetic makeup of insect species
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
The research conducted by entomologists from the Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE) in Bengaluru primarily focuses on investigating new species of edible bugs in North-East India. By identifying and cataloging these insects, the study sheds light on the importance of incorporating insects as a sustainable food source, highlighting their nutritional value and potential role in enhancing food security and sustainability.
What is the significance of the extended separation period for merged accounting firms under the new merger guidelines in India?- a)It allows firms to maintain separate identities for a longer duration
- b)It mandates immediate integration of all operations post-merger
- c)It imposes additional taxation on merged entities
- d)It requires the immediate renaming of the merged firm
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the significance of the extended separation period for merged accounting firms under the new merger guidelines in India?
a)
It allows firms to maintain separate identities for a longer duration
b)
It mandates immediate integration of all operations post-merger
c)
It imposes additional taxation on merged entities
d)
It requires the immediate renaming of the merged firm
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
The extended separation period for merged accounting firms under the new merger guidelines in India allows the firms to maintain separate identities for a longer duration, giving them time to assess compatibility before deciding on a full merger. This flexibility supports a smoother transition and collaboration between the merging entities.
What causes coral bleaching in coral reefs?- a)Overpopulation of marine species
- b)Exposure to cold water temperatures
- c)Stress from warm water, pollution, or harmful factors
- d)Lack of sunlight in the ocean depths
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What causes coral bleaching in coral reefs?
a)
Overpopulation of marine species
b)
Exposure to cold water temperatures
c)
Stress from warm water, pollution, or harmful factors
d)
Lack of sunlight in the ocean depths
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
Coral bleaching occurs in coral reefs when corals experience stress from warm water, pollution, or other harmful factors. This stress leads the corals to expel vital tiny organisms called dinoflagellates, impacting their health and overall survival. Understanding these stressors is crucial for conservation efforts aimed at protecting these valuable ecosystems.
What is the primary purpose of the LEAP framework developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati?- a) To enhance the efficiency of Electronic Design Automation (ED in Integrated Circuits (ICs)
- b) To revolutionize the semiconductor manufacturing process
- c) To create a new format called Graphic Design System (GDS)
- d) To increase the number of configurations to be evaluated
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary purpose of the LEAP framework developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati?
a)
To enhance the efficiency of Electronic Design Automation (ED in Integrated Circuits (ICs)
b)
To revolutionize the semiconductor manufacturing process
c)
To create a new format called Graphic Design System (GDS)
d)
To increase the number of configurations to be evaluated
|
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EduRev CLAT answered |
The primary purpose of the LEAP framework developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati is to enhance the efficiency of Electronic Design Automation (EDA) in Integrated Circuits (ICs). By utilizing machine learning, LEAP streamlines the EDA process, particularly in technology mapping, resulting in significant time and configuration reduction. This framework aims to make the EDA process more optimal and effective, thereby improving IC design efficiency.
What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)?- a) To provide affordable housing for all by 2022
- b) To offer interest subsidies on home loans
- c) To focus on rural underserved populations
- d) To construct over 20 million homes
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)?
a)
To provide affordable housing for all by 2022
b)
To offer interest subsidies on home loans
c)
To focus on rural underserved populations
d)
To construct over 20 million homes
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The main goal of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is to ensure affordable housing for all by the year 2022. This initiative extends financial aid to both urban and rural underserved populations for constructing residences, with a particular emphasis on providing durable homes to eligible individuals with low incomes.
Why is Sanjeev Raina's appointment as Additional Director General (ADG) of the ITBP significant?- a) He is the first ADG to be appointed from the IPS
- b) He is the second officer not from the IPS to hold the position
- c) He is the youngest ADG in ITBP history
- d) He has previously served as the Director of the ITBP
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Why is Sanjeev Raina's appointment as Additional Director General (ADG) of the ITBP significant?
a)
He is the first ADG to be appointed from the IPS
b)
He is the second officer not from the IPS to hold the position
c)
He is the youngest ADG in ITBP history
d)
He has previously served as the Director of the ITBP
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Sanjeev Raina's appointment as Additional Director General (ADG) of the ITBP is significant because he is only the second officer in the history of the ITBP who is not from the Indian Police Service (IPS) to achieve this rank. This underscores the recognition of expertise and dedication within the ITBP, showcasing the value of experience gained through years of service in the field.
Consider the following statements regarding Pangong Tso Lake. - Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas.
- It is part of the Indus River basin area.
- It is under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1, 2
- b)1 only
- c)2, 3
- d)1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Pangong Tso Lake.
- Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas.
- It is part of the Indus River basin area.
- It is under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1, 2
b)
1 only
c)
2, 3
d)
1, 3
|
Ias Masters answered |
- Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m (13,862 ft). It is 134 km (83 mi) long and divided into five sublakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso (twin lakes) and Nyak Tso.
- During winter the lake freezes completely, despite being saline water. It has a land-locked basin separated from the Indus River basin by a small elevated ridge, but is believed to have been part of the latter in prehistoric times.
- The lake is not under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.
What is a wildfire primarily known as when it burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses?- a)Surface Fire
- b)Canopy or Crown Fire
- c)Underground Fire/Zombie Fire
- d)Controlled Deliberate Fire
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is a wildfire primarily known as when it burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses?
a)
Surface Fire
b)
Canopy or Crown Fire
c)
Underground Fire/Zombie Fire
d)
Controlled Deliberate Fire
|
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
A surface fire is a type of wildfire that primarily burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses. These fires are common in various natural settings such as forests, grasslands, brushlands, or tundras. They are influenced by environmental conditions like wind and topography, spreading based on these factors.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. Indonesia: 21% of the world's mangroves - Correct. Indonesia holds about 21% of the world's mangroves.
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas - Correct. Some mangrove areas in the Philippines have average values of over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare.
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India - Correct. West Bengal holds the largest mangrove area in India.
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests - Incorrect. While the report mentions that natural mangrove forests on the southern Indian coast are critically endangered, this primarily refers to the Lakshadweep archipelago and not specifically Tamil Nadu.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas - Correct. Some mangrove areas in the Philippines have average values of over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare.
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India - Correct. West Bengal holds the largest mangrove area in India.
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests - Incorrect. While the report mentions that natural mangrove forests on the southern Indian coast are critically endangered, this primarily refers to the Lakshadweep archipelago and not specifically Tamil Nadu.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.
What is the key function of the Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator (TENG) technology used in the advanced shoes developed by IIT Indore?- a)It helps in tracking the wearer's health metrics
- b)It converts the motion of steps into electrical power
- c)It enhances the durability of the shoes
- d)It provides real-time weather updates
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
It helps in tracking the wearer's health metrics
b)
It converts the motion of steps into electrical power
c)
It enhances the durability of the shoes
d)
It provides real-time weather updates
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator (TENG) technology used in the advanced shoes developed by IIT Indore primarily functions to convert the motion of steps into electrical power. By harnessing this energy generated during walking, the shoes can store and utilize it to power small electronic devices. This innovative technology offers a sustainable way to generate electricity through the wearer's movement, making the shoes efficient and environmentally friendly.
What is the primary goal of the proposed changes to the LLP Act in India?- a)To restrict the growth of domestic audit firms
- b)To simplify the tax regulations for businesses
- c)To strengthen domestic accounting firms
- d)To promote international audit dominance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary goal of the proposed changes to the LLP Act in India?
a)
To restrict the growth of domestic audit firms
b)
To simplify the tax regulations for businesses
c)
To strengthen domestic accounting firms
d)
To promote international audit dominance
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
The primary goal of the proposed changes to the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act in India is to strengthen domestic accounting firms. These changes aim to make it easier for these firms to merge and grow larger, potentially creating significant domestic audit companies capable of competing with global firms.
Why do some experts advocate for a ban on weight cutting in sports?- a)To increase competition among athletes
- b)To promote rapid weight loss
- c)Due to safety concerns and health risks
- d)To encourage athletes to eat healthier
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Why do some experts advocate for a ban on weight cutting in sports?
a)
To increase competition among athletes
b)
To promote rapid weight loss
c)
Due to safety concerns and health risks
d)
To encourage athletes to eat healthier
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
Some experts call for a ban on weight cutting in sports due to safety concerns and the considerable health risks associated with this practice. Rapid weight loss methods can lead to dehydration, heart problems, and other severe health consequences, underscoring the need for stricter regulations and safety measures in combat sports.
Which of the following statements about Vinesh Phogat is true?- a)She was the first male wrestler from India to qualify for the Olympics
- b)She won a gold medal at the 2019 World Wrestling Championships
- c)She was born in Mumbai, Maharashtra
- d)She was honored with the Padma Shri award in 2020
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements about Vinesh Phogat is true?
a)
She was the first male wrestler from India to qualify for the Olympics
b)
She won a gold medal at the 2019 World Wrestling Championships
c)
She was born in Mumbai, Maharashtra
d)
She was honored with the Padma Shri award in 2020
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Vinesh Phogat, an Indian wrestler, was honored with the Padma Shri award in 2020 for her remarkable contributions to the sport. This recognition reflects her dedication, achievements, and positive impact within the realm of wrestling, highlighting her commitment to excellence and sportsmanship.
What are some common techniques involved in weight cutting for athletes?- a)Excessive eating and high-calorie diets
- b)Excessive sweating and fasting
- c)Regular hydration and light exercises
- d)Balanced nutrition and adequate rest
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What are some common techniques involved in weight cutting for athletes?
a)
Excessive eating and high-calorie diets
b)
Excessive sweating and fasting
c)
Regular hydration and light exercises
d)
Balanced nutrition and adequate rest
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Athletes often resort to techniques like excessive sweating and fasting when engaging in weight cutting to meet weigh-in requirements. However, it's important to note that such practices can pose significant risks to their health, including dehydration, heart issues, and other potentially life-threatening situations.
What was India's performance like at the Paris Olympics 2024?- a)India secured one gold and five silver medals
- b)India won a total of seven medals, including a gold medal
- c)India earned a total of six medals, consisting of one silver and five bronze
- d)India had the highest medal count in its history at the Olympics
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
a)
India secured one gold and five silver medals
b)
India won a total of seven medals, including a gold medal
c)
India earned a total of six medals, consisting of one silver and five bronze
d)
India had the highest medal count in its history at the Olympics
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
India's performance at the Paris Olympics 2024 culminated in securing a total of six medals, comprising one silver medal and five bronze medals. The country's athletes participated across various sports categories, showcasing prowess in disciplines like shooting and field hockey. Despite earning fewer medals compared to the previous Olympics, India demonstrated commendable achievements and sportsmanship during the event.
During the joint working group meeting on counter-terrorism, which country specifically focused on Pakistan's support for terrorist groups?- a)Indonesia
- b)China
- c)India
- d)Bangladesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
During the joint working group meeting on counter-terrorism, which country specifically focused on Pakistan's support for terrorist groups?
a)
Indonesia
b)
China
c)
India
d)
Bangladesh
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
India emphasized the issue of cross-border terrorism and criticized Pakistan's support for terror groups targeting Jammu and Kashmir. This focus is part of India's broader strategy to address regional security threats and foster international cooperation against terrorism.
What was one of the key recommendations for protecting forests and wildlife in Borneo?- a)Expanding urban development
- b)Implementing financial incentives for conservation
- c)Increasing logging activities
- d)Reducing international cooperation
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What was one of the key recommendations for protecting forests and wildlife in Borneo?
a)
Expanding urban development
b)
Implementing financial incentives for conservation
c)
Increasing logging activities
d)
Reducing international cooperation
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
One key recommendation is to implement initiatives like REDD (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation), which provides financial incentives for forest conservation. This approach encourages sustainable land use practices and helps protect both wildlife and the environment.
What is the main objective of Sri Lanka's new visa policy introduced in October 2024?- a) To increase the number of international flights
- b) To attract more tourists from various countries
- c) To strengthen military ties with neighboring countries
- d) To reduce the cost of travel to Sri Lanka
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the main objective of Sri Lanka's new visa policy introduced in October 2024?
a)
To increase the number of international flights
b)
To attract more tourists from various countries
c)
To strengthen military ties with neighboring countries
d)
To reduce the cost of travel to Sri Lanka
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The primary goal of Sri Lanka's new visa policy is to attract more tourists from different countries by allowing citizens from 35 nations to visit without needing a visa. This initiative aims to boost the tourism sector, which is vital for the country's economy, facilitating easier travel for international visitors.
What is one of the primary areas of cooperation agreed upon by India and Ukraine in their recent agreements?- a)Space exploration
- b)Defence
- c)Tourism
- d)Digital technology
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
What is one of the primary areas of cooperation agreed upon by India and Ukraine in their recent agreements?
a)
Space exploration
b)
Defence
c)
Tourism
d)
Digital technology
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
India and Ukraine have agreed to enhance their cooperation specifically in the area of defence, which includes creating joint ventures for manufacturing military equipment in India. This strategic collaboration aims to strengthen their ties and address regional security concerns.
By 2050, what is the expected increase in flood risk with low emissions?- a)15%
- b)7%
- c)49%
- d)44%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
By 2050, what is the expected increase in flood risk with low emissions?
a)
15%
b)
7%
c)
49%
d)
44%
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The projected increase in flood risk by 2050 with low emissions is 7%. Understanding these projections is critical for planning and implementing effective flood management strategies to protect at-risk communities and ecosystems.
What significant geographical feature is Jezero Crater believed to have been millions of years ago?- a) A volcanic mountain
- b) A desert
- c) A lake
- d) An ice cap
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What significant geographical feature is Jezero Crater believed to have been millions of years ago?
a)
A volcanic mountain
b)
A desert
c)
A lake
d)
An ice cap
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
Jezero Crater is thought to have been a lake over 3.5 billion years ago, as indicated by the delta formed from sediment deposits. This feature makes it an ideal site for investigating the possibility of past life on Mars, as lakes are often conducive to supporting biological activity.
What does the term "PHEIC" stand for of global health emergencies?- a)Public Health Emergency of International Concern
- b)Pandemic Health Emergency in Countries
- c)Priority Health Emergency and International Cooperation
- d)Public Health Emergency and International Compliance
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What does the term "PHEIC" stand for of global health emergencies?
a)
Public Health Emergency of International Concern
b)
Pandemic Health Emergency in Countries
c)
Priority Health Emergency and International Cooperation
d)
Public Health Emergency and International Compliance
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The term "PHEIC" stands for Public Health Emergency of International Concern. This designation is used by the World Health Organization to highlight serious health events with the potential to cross borders and require a coordinated global response. It signifies the need for international cooperation and action to address the health crisis effectively.
How will the IndiaAI Mission impact start-ups and SMEs?- a)It will decrease accessibility to AI resources for start-ups
- b)It will make AI resources more expensive for small businesses
- c)It will make AI resources more available to start-ups and SMEs
- d)It will restrict the use of AI technology for small businesses
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
How will the IndiaAI Mission impact start-ups and SMEs?
a)
It will decrease accessibility to AI resources for start-ups
b)
It will make AI resources more expensive for small businesses
c)
It will make AI resources more available to start-ups and SMEs
d)
It will restrict the use of AI technology for small businesses
|
|
EduRev CLAT answered |
The IndiaAI Mission's new computing capacity will make AI resources more accessible to small and medium enterprises (SMEs) and start-ups. This initiative aims to boost innovation and competitiveness within India's tech sector by providing easier access to AI resources, which are often considered expensive and challenging to obtain for smaller businesses.
What is the timeline for submitting bids to produce green ammonia under the SIGHT Scheme in India?- a)August 22
- b)August 27 to September 10
- c)September 3
- d)September 10
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the timeline for submitting bids to produce green ammonia under the SIGHT Scheme in India?
a)
August 22
b)
August 27 to September 10
c)
September 3
d)
September 10
|
|
Knowledge Hub answered |
Companies interested in producing green ammonia under the SIGHT Scheme in India must submit their bids by September 3. It is anticipated that this deadline may be extended to accommodate the complexities of the bidding process.
What is the primary advantage of using the PrecivityAD2 blood test for Alzheimer's disease detection?- a)It requires a lumbar puncture for analysis
- b)It provides results within minutes
- c)It is more affordable than traditional methods
- d)It involves complex and expensive procedures
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the primary advantage of using the PrecivityAD2 blood test for Alzheimer's disease detection?
a)
It requires a lumbar puncture for analysis
b)
It provides results within minutes
c)
It is more affordable than traditional methods
d)
It involves complex and expensive procedures
|
|
Glance Learning Institute answered |
The primary advantage of the PrecivityAD2 blood test is that it offers a simpler and more affordable alternative to traditional diagnostic methods for Alzheimer's disease. Unlike procedures like PET scans or lumbar punctures, this test only requires a blood sample, making it more accessible and cost-effective for patients.
Consider the following statements regarding organ donation and transplantation in India:1. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was amended in 2011 to include specific provisions for organ donation.2. Organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available.3. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is responsible for regulating living organ donations in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)2 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding organ donation and transplantation in India:
1. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was amended in 2011 to include specific provisions for organ donation.
2. Organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available.
3. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is responsible for regulating living organ donations in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
2 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Upsc Rank Holders answered |
Statement 1 is correct. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was indeed amended in 2011 to include specific provisions aimed at promoting organ donation and transplantation.
Statement 2 is also correct. According to the regulations, organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available, ensuring that Indian recipients are prioritized.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is primarily responsible for providing a national system for organ procurement and distribution, and not specifically for regulating living organ donations. The regulation of living organ donations is covered under the THOTA and related rules.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.
Chicago Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to - a)Sustainable Development
- b)Sustainable use of natural resources
- c)Protection of World Heritage Cites
- d)Civil Aviation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Chicago Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to
a)
Sustainable Development
b)
Sustainable use of natural resources
c)
Protection of World Heritage Cites
d)
Civil Aviation
|
|
Ias Masters answered |
About the Chicago Convention:
- Also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is an international treaty established in 1944. It set out the core principles for international air transport and created the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)to oversee its implementation.
- The convention recognizes nine freedoms of air, with the first five being officially recognized by the ICAO. These freedoms grant countries the right to fly over, land in, and transport passengers and cargo between territories.
- India is its member
Consider the following statements:1. The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi can nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers.2. Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on all matters.3. Aldermen nominated to the MCD have voting rights in all MCD meetings.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi can nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers.
2. Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on all matters.
3. Aldermen nominated to the MCD have voting rights in all MCD meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Master Training Institute answered |
1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi has the explicit power to nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers. This was established based on the interpretation of Section 3 of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution requires that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the LG in matters within the Legislative Assembly's power, but this does not apply to the nomination of aldermen as per the Supreme Court ruling.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Aldermen nominated to the MCD do not have voting rights in all MCD meetings. They can vote and stand for election in Wards Committees but do not have voting rights in general MCD meetings.
Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.
Chapter doubts & questions for August 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of CLAT exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the CLAT exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for CLAT 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of August 2024 - Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of CLAT exam.
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Current Affairs: Daily, Weekly & Monthly
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