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All questions of Mock Test Series for Humanities/Arts Exam

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_______ is a process by which information about others is converted into more or less enduring cognitions or thoughts about them.
  • a)
    Attribution
  • b)
    Stereotypes
  • c)
    Impression formation
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
In social psychology, a stereotype is a fixed, over generalized belief about a particular group or class of people. By stereotyping we infer that a person has a whole range of characteristics and abilities that we assume all members of that group have. For example, a “hells angel” biker dresses in leather.

Feeling of togetherness, that keeps a group intact, is called_____
  • a)
    Norms
  • b)
    Roles
  • c)
    Status
  • d)
    Cohesiveness
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Sengupta answered
Explanation:

The feeling of togetherness that keeps a group intact is called cohesiveness. Cohesiveness refers to the degree to which group members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. It is an important aspect of group dynamics and can greatly influence the functioning and success of a group.

Factors contributing to cohesiveness:
- Shared goals: When group members have common goals and objectives, it creates a sense of unity and purpose, enhancing cohesiveness.
- Interpersonal attraction: If group members like and respect each other, they are more likely to stay together and work towards common goals, increasing cohesiveness.
- Group size: Smaller groups often have higher cohesiveness as it is easier for members to interact and develop relationships.
- Group identity: When members identify strongly with the group and perceive it as an important part of their self-concept, cohesiveness is enhanced.
- Positive group experiences: If group members have positive experiences, such as successful accomplishments or enjoyable interactions, it strengthens the bond among them, increasing cohesiveness.

Importance of cohesiveness:
- Increased motivation: Cohesive groups tend to have higher levels of motivation and commitment towards their goals, leading to increased productivity and performance.
- Enhanced communication: When group members feel a sense of togetherness, they are more likely to openly communicate and share ideas, leading to better decision-making and problem-solving.
- Greater cooperation: Cohesive groups are more likely to work together and cooperate, supporting each other and helping to overcome obstacles.
- Reduced conflict: When group members feel a strong bond, they are more likely to resolve conflicts in a constructive manner, maintaining harmony within the group.

Conclusion:
Cohesiveness plays a crucial role in keeping a group intact by fostering a sense of togetherness, motivation, and cooperation among its members. It is an important factor in group dynamics and can greatly influence the success and functioning of a group.

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Mark tire correct choice as:
Assertion (A): In empathy, one has compassion and pity towards the suffering of another but is not able to feel the perspective of the other person.
Reason (R): Empathy enriches the therapeutic relationship and transforms it into a healing relationship.
  • a)
    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • b)
    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • c)
    (A) is true, but (R) is false. 
  • d)
    (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Kaur answered
Assertion (A): In empathy, one has compassion and pity towards the suffering of another but is not able to feel the perspective of the other person.
Reason (R): Empathy enriches the therapeutic relationship and transforms it into a healing relationship.

Explanation:
Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves being able to put oneself in someone else's shoes and experience their emotions. Empathy is often associated with compassion and pity towards the suffering of others.

Understanding Assertion (A):
The assertion states that in empathy, one has compassion and pity towards the suffering of another but is not able to feel the perspective of the other person. This means that while empathizing, a person can understand and share the emotions of another person, but they may not fully comprehend the perspective or point of view of the person they are empathizing with. They may feel compassion and pity towards the suffering, but they may not grasp the underlying thoughts and beliefs that contribute to that suffering.

Understanding Reason (R):
The reason states that empathy enriches the therapeutic relationship and transforms it into a healing relationship. This means that when empathy is present in a therapeutic relationship, it enhances the connection between the therapist and the client. The therapist's ability to understand and share the client's emotions creates a safe and supportive environment for the client to explore and heal their emotional wounds. Empathy helps establish trust, validation, and a sense of being understood, which are essential components of a healing relationship.

Reasoning:
Both the assertion and the reason are true statements. Empathy does involve compassion and pity towards the suffering of others, but it may not necessarily include the ability to fully understand the perspective of the other person. However, empathy does enrich the therapeutic relationship and transform it into a healing relationship by creating a safe and supportive environment for the client.

Conclusion:
Based on the reasoning provided, the correct answer is option 'D' - (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Identification can result in _______ or conforming to the expectations of admired persons.
  • a)
    Internalisation
  • b)
    Imitation
  • c)
    Modelling
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lekshmi Basu answered
Modelling in Identification Process

Identification involves taking on the characteristics or behaviors of admired individuals or groups. This process can result in modeling, which is the act of conforming to the expectations of these admired persons.

Definition of Modelling

Modelling is a psychological concept where individuals imitate the behaviors, attitudes, or values of someone they admire or look up to. This can lead to the internalization of these characteristics, shaping one's own identity and behavior.

Role of Modelling in Identification

When individuals identify with someone they admire, they may consciously or unconsciously model their behaviors after that person. This can be a way of seeking validation or acceptance from the admired individual or group.

Outcome of Modelling

By imitating the behaviors of admired persons, individuals may adopt certain traits or values that align with those of the admired person. This can influence their own self-concept and behavior, potentially leading to personal growth or change.

Conclusion

In conclusion, identification can result in modeling, where individuals imitate the behaviors of admired individuals to conform to their expectations. This process can play a significant role in shaping one's identity and behavior, ultimately influencing personal growth and development.

When the components of an attitude system are in the same direction, it is referred to as:
  • a)
    Dissonance
  • b)
    Attribution
  • c)
    Consonance
  • d)
    Impression
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Joshi answered
Both balance and cognitive dissonance are examples of cognitive consistency which means that two components or elements of the attitude, or attitude system, must be in the same direction

In 1957, Leon Festinger published his theory of_____
  • a)
    Balance
  • b)
    Cognitive Dissonance
  • c)
    Learning
  • d)
    Attitude
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Reddy answered
Leon Festinger's Theory of Cognitive Dissonance

Leon Festinger, an American social psychologist, developed the theory of cognitive dissonance in 1957. The theory explains how people deal with contradictory beliefs or attitudes. According to Festinger, cognitive dissonance occurs when a person's beliefs or attitudes conflict with each other, causing psychological discomfort or tension.

Explanation

Cognitive dissonance is the mental stress or discomfort experienced by individuals who hold two or more contradictory beliefs or values. This theory is based on the premise that people strive for consistency or congruence between their beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors. When there is a mismatch between these elements, individuals experience cognitive dissonance.

Festinger's theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people try to reduce the discomfort caused by conflicting beliefs or attitudes by changing their beliefs or behaviors. There are three ways in which individuals can reduce cognitive dissonance:

1. Changing beliefs or attitudes: Individuals can modify their beliefs or attitudes to align with their behavior. For example, a person who smokes cigarettes can reduce cognitive dissonance by convincing themselves that smoking is not harmful.

2. Changing behavior: Individuals can change their behavior to align with their beliefs or attitudes. For instance, a person who believes that exercise is essential for good health can start exercising regularly.

3. Adding new beliefs or attitudes: Individuals can add new beliefs or attitudes to reconcile the conflicting beliefs or attitudes. For example, a person who believes that smoking is harmful can reduce cognitive dissonance by adding the belief that quitting smoking is difficult.

Conclusion

Leon Festinger's theory of cognitive dissonance explains how individuals deal with conflicting beliefs or attitudes. It suggests that people strive for consistency between their beliefs, attitudes, and behavior. When there is a mismatch between these elements, individuals experience cognitive dissonance, which they try to reduce by changing their beliefs or behavior or adding new beliefs or attitudes.

T cells, B cells and Natural killer cells are kinds of______
  • a)
    Red blood cells
  • b)
    White blood cell
  • c)
    Antibodies
  • d)
    Antigens
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anuj Saini answered
White Blood Cells and Their Types
White blood cells (WBCs), also known as leukocytes, are an essential part of the immune system. They play a crucial role in protecting the body against infections and diseases. There are several types of white blood cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.

T Cells
T cells are a type of lymphocyte, a subtype of white blood cells. They are derived from the bone marrow and mature in the thymus gland. T cells are primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which involves the direct targeting and destruction of infected or abnormal cells.

- T cells can recognize and bind to specific antigens (foreign substances) present on the surface of infected or cancerous cells.
- They can differentiate into different types of T cells, such as helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells, each with specialized functions.
- Helper T cells assist other immune cells in their activities, such as activating B cells to produce antibodies or enhancing the activity of cytotoxic T cells.
- Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and destroy infected or abnormal cells.
- Regulatory T cells help maintain immune system balance and prevent excessive immune responses.

B Cells
B cells are another type of lymphocyte. They are responsible for humoral immunity, which involves the production of antibodies to neutralize harmful substances. B cells are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the lymphoid tissues.

- B cells can recognize specific antigens and produce antibodies that bind to these antigens, marking them for destruction.
- When a B cell encounters an antigen that matches its specific receptors, it undergoes activation and differentiation into plasma cells.
- Plasma cells are responsible for producing large quantities of antibodies that circulate in the bloodstream and tissues.
- Antibodies can neutralize pathogens, promote their recognition by other immune cells, and activate the complement system for further destruction.

Natural Killer Cells
Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of lymphocyte that belongs to the innate immune system. Unlike T and B cells, NK cells do not require prior exposure to antigens for activation. They are primarily involved in the recognition and elimination of virus-infected cells and tumor cells.

- NK cells can directly recognize and kill infected or abnormal cells without the need for specific antigen recognition.
- They release cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes, which induce programmed cell death in their targets.
- NK cells also produce cytokines that enhance the immune response and recruit other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation.

Conclusion
In summary, T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells are all types of white blood cells involved in different aspects of the immune response. T cells mediate cell-mediated immunity, B cells are responsible for humoral immunity through antibody production, and NK cells provide innate immunity by directly targeting infected or abnormal cells.

A patient in the ward is maintaining an upright posture for hours and ref uses to respond. Identify tire kind of symptom.
  • a)
    Catatonia Rigidity
  • b)
    Catatonia Stupor
  • c)
    Catatonia Posturing
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanchita Reddy answered
Symptoms of Catatonia:
Catatonia is a condition characterized by disturbances in movement and behavior. There are several symptoms associated with catatonia, including catatonia rigidity, catatonia stupor, and catatonia posturing.

Catatonia Rigidity:
Catatonia rigidity refers to a state of increased muscle tone and stiffness in the body. It is characterized by the patient maintaining an upright posture for extended periods without any movement or response. This symptom is a manifestation of the immobility and rigidity that is commonly seen in catatonic patients.

Catatonia Stupor:
Catatonia stupor is another symptom of catatonia, but it is different from catatonia rigidity. In catatonia stupor, the patient is unresponsive and lacks voluntary movement. They may appear to be in a trance-like state or seem unaware of their surroundings. This is different from catatonia rigidity because in catatonia stupor, the patient may not maintain an upright posture and can be seen lying down or in a slumped position.

Catatonia Posturing:
Catatonia posturing refers to the adoption of abnormal and rigid body positions by the patient. These postures are often maintained for extended periods and are not influenced by external stimuli. The patient may hold their limbs in unusual positions or show repetitive and stereotyped movements. This symptom is similar to catatonia rigidity, but it involves specific postures rather than a general state of increased muscle tone throughout the body.

Conclusion:
In the given scenario, the patient is described as maintaining an upright posture for hours and refusing to respond. This aligns with the symptom of catatonia rigidity, where the patient exhibits increased muscle tone and stiffness, leading to the maintenance of a specific posture. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Catatonia Rigidity.

Which of the following systems the internalised representation of the values and morals of society is as taught to the child by the parents and others?
  • a)
    Id
  • b)
    Ego
  • c)
    Super ego
  • d)
    Libido
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Joshi answered
The superego is the ethical component of the personality and provides the moral standards by which the ego operates. The superego's criticisms, prohibitions, and inhibitions form a person's conscience, and its positive aspirations and ideals represent one's idealized self-image, or “ego ideal.”

You like your mother. Your mother does not like pets. You like pets. The trial is___
  • a)
    Balanced
  • b)
    Imbalanced
  • c)
    Balanced for your mother but imbalanced for you
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
The trial would have been balanced if the mother too liked pets. In a trial system, The organism being subjected to operant conditioning may be given reinforcement in every acquisition trial or in some trials it is given and in others it is.

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by Harmann Rorschach.
Reason (R): It is a little more structured than the Inkblot test.
  • a)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Milan Datta answered
Assertion (A): The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by Harmann Rorschach.
Reason (R): It is a little more structured than the Inkblot test.

The correct answer is option 'D'. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was not developed by Harmann Rorschach, but by Henry A. Murray and Christiana D. Morgan in the 1930s. The test was designed to assess a person's personality traits, needs, and motivations by analyzing their responses to a series of ambiguous pictures. The TAT consists of a set of picture cards depicting various scenes or situations, and the individual is asked to create a story based on each picture.

On the other hand, the Inkblot test, also known as the Rorschach test, was indeed developed by Hermann Rorschach. This test involves showing individuals a series of inkblots and asking them to describe what they see. The responses are then analyzed to gain insights into the individual's personality characteristics and emotional functioning.

The Reason (R) states that the TAT is a little more structured than the Inkblot test. This is true as the TAT provides specific stimuli in the form of picture cards, and individuals are asked to create a narrative based on those stimuli. In contrast, the Inkblot test relies on the individual's free associations and interpretations of the ambiguous inkblots.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. The TAT was not developed by Harmann Rorschach, but by Henry A. Murray and Christiana D. Morgan. The Reason (R) is true as the TAT is indeed more structured than the Inkblot test.

The notion of ________ is based on Bandura’s social learning theory.
  • a)
    self-esteem
  • b)
    self-efficacy
  • c)
    self-regulation
  • d)
    self-cognition
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Roshni Desai answered
's social learning theory, which emphasizes the importance of observing and imitating the behaviors of others in shaping our own behavior.

Answer: observational learning

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): A psychological test is an objective and standardised measure of an individual’s mental or behavioural characteristics.
Assertion (R): Psychological tests measure psychological attributes such as weight, height, arm length, etc.
  • a)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Advait Ghoshal answered

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Psychological tests are indeed objective and standardized measures of an individual's mental or behavioral characteristics. These tests are designed to assess various psychological attributes such as intelligence, personality traits, emotional functioning, and cognitive abilities. However, the Reason provided is incorrect as psychological tests do not measure physical attributes like weight, height, or arm length.

Psychological tests are specifically tailored to measure aspects of an individual's psychological makeup, providing valuable insights into their cognitive and emotional functioning. These tests are based on scientific principles and are administered and scored in a consistent manner to ensure reliability and validity of the results. Therefore, while Assertion (A) is true in highlighting the nature of psychological tests, the Reason (R) is false in suggesting that these tests measure physical attributes.

Directions: Read the below case and answer the questions that follow:
Thematic Apperception Test
The most widely known and used story telling technique is the TAT. It was developed by Morgan and Murray (1935) in the belief that the content of imagined stories would provide clues to the underlying dynamics of a subject’s interpersonal relationships and self-attitudes. As elaborated by Murray (1943, 1971) and Bellak (1993), TAT data are expected to reveal the hierarchy of a person’s needs and the nature of his or her dominant emotions and conflicts.
The TAT is a widely used projective test for the assessment of children and adults. It is designed to reveal an individual’s perception of interpersonal relationships.
(i) Thirty one picture cards serve as stimuli for stories and descriptions about relationships or social situations.
(ii) Cards include specific subsets for boys, girls, men, and women.
(iii) The test is useful as part of a comprehensive study of personality and in the interpretation of behaviour disorders, psychosomatic illnesses, neuroses, and psychoses.
Q. Which of these is not considered as a part of the TAT card subset?
  • a)
    Boys
  • b)
    Rabbit
  • c)
    Girls
  • d)
    Women
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anu Das answered
Explanation:

TAT Card Subset:
- The TAT card subset includes specific subsets for boys, girls, men, and women.
- These subsets are used as stimuli for stories and descriptions about relationships or social situations.

Not considered as part of TAT card subset:
- Rabbit
- The TAT card subset does not include rabbits as stimuli for stories and descriptions. It mainly focuses on human figures such as boys, girls, men, and women to assess an individual's perception of interpersonal relationships.

______is vague, unpleasant feeling of apprehension.
  • a)
    Panic
  • b)
    Anxiety
  • c)
    Depression
  • d)
    Sadness
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Anxiety is a vague, unpleasant feeling of apprehension, often accompanied by physical sensations such as palpitations, sweating, and feelings of stress or tension. It is a natural response to stress or danger, but when it becomes excessive or prolonged, it can interfere with daily activities and quality of life.

Symptoms of Anxiety:
- Restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge
- Excessive worry or fear
- Difficulty in concentrating
- Irritability
- Muscle tension
- Sleep disturbance

Causes of Anxiety:
- Genetics
- Brain chemistry
- Environmental factors
- Medical conditions
- Substance misuse

Treatment of Anxiety:
- Psychotherapy
- Medications
- Relaxation techniques
- Lifestyle changes

Conclusion:
Anxiety is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is important to seek help if you are experiencing symptoms of anxiety, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening. With the right treatment, most people with anxiety can lead fulfilling and productive lives.

The past is relevant only to the extent of understanding the origins of the faulty behaviour and thought patterns. Which therapy propagates this view?
  • a)
    Logotherapy
  • b)
    Rational emotive behaviour therapy
  • c)
    Behaviour therapy
  • d)
    Psychodynamic therapy
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Behaviour Therapy

Behaviour therapy is the therapy that propagates the view that the past is relevant only to the extent of understanding the origins of faulty behaviour and thought patterns. This therapy focuses on changing maladaptive behaviours through various techniques such as conditioning, reinforcement, and modeling.

Understanding the Origins
- Behaviour therapy believes that understanding the origins of faulty behaviour and thought patterns is important for making effective changes.
- By identifying the triggers and antecedents of problematic behaviours, individuals can learn to make positive changes.

Focusing on the Present
- Behaviour therapy emphasizes focusing on the present moment and making changes in the here and now.
- It encourages clients to learn new skills, develop healthier coping mechanisms, and practice new behaviours in real-life situations.

Learning New Behaviours
- Instead of delving too deeply into past traumas or childhood experiences, behaviour therapy focuses on teaching clients new behaviours.
- Through techniques such as cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and exposure therapy, individuals can learn to overcome their challenges and improve their quality of life.

Practical and Goal-Oriented
- Behaviour therapy is practical and goal-oriented, aiming to help individuals make tangible changes in their daily lives.
- By setting specific goals and working towards them systematically, clients can see progress and improvements in their behaviours and thought patterns.

In conclusion, behaviour therapy is a therapeutic approach that recognizes the importance of understanding the origins of faulty behaviour and thought patterns while focusing on making practical changes in the present.

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): Psychological stresses are caused when we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritional diet, suffer an injury or fail to get enough sleep.
Reason (R): Environmental stresses are caused by air pollution, crowding, noise, heat of the summer, winter cold or disasters such as fire, or natural disasters such as earthquakes, floods, drought, land-slides, volcanic eruptions, etc.
  • a)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • b)
    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • c)
    Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • d)
    Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Assertion (A): Psychological stresses are caused when we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritional diet, suffer an injury or fail to get enough sleep.
Reason (R): Environmental stresses are caused by air pollution, crowding, noise, heat of the summer, winter cold or disasters such as fire, or natural disasters such as earthquakes, floods, drought, land-slides, volcanic eruptions, etc.

The correct answer is option 'D', which states that Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Psychological stresses can indeed be caused by various factors such as physical overexertion, poor nutrition, injuries, and lack of sleep. However, the Reason (R) provided in the statement does not explain or support this assertion.

Assertion (A)
Psychological stresses are caused when we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritional diet, suffer an injury or fail to get enough sleep.

This statement is generally true. When we push ourselves physically beyond our limits, it can lead to stress and exhaustion. Similarly, a lack of proper nutrition can affect our mental well-being, as our brain needs essential nutrients to function optimally. Injuries and a lack of sleep can also have a negative impact on our mental health.

Reason (R)
Environmental stresses are caused by air pollution, crowding, noise, heat of the summer, winter cold or disasters such as fire, or natural disasters such as earthquakes, floods, drought, land-slides, volcanic eruptions, etc.

This statement is true. Environmental stresses refer to the various external factors in our surroundings that can cause stress and discomfort. Air pollution, crowding, noise, extreme temperatures (both hot and cold), and disasters such as fires, earthquakes, floods, etc., can all contribute to environmental stress.

However, the Reason (R) does not explain or provide a direct link to the assertion made in (A). While environmental stresses can certainly impact our overall well-being, they are not the primary cause of psychological stresses mentioned in (A). Psychological stresses primarily arise from internal factors such as physical exhaustion, nutritional deficiencies, injuries, and lack of sleep.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'D' - Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

A student blames her/his best friend for her/ his poor performance rather than devoting time towards studies. She/he is said to be using ______ coping.
  • a)
    Emotion oriented
  • b)
    Task oriented
  • c)
    Both (A) and (B)
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahil Menon answered
Emotion-oriented coping is a type of coping mechanism that focuses on managing emotions caused by stressors rather than actively solving the problem. In this case, the student blaming their poor performance on their best friend instead of studying is an example of emotion-oriented coping.

Explanation:
- Emotion-oriented coping: This coping mechanism is focused on dealing with the emotional response to a stressful situation rather than actively trying to solve the problem. It involves strategies such as denial, avoidance, and blaming others.
- Poor performance: The student is not performing well in their studies, which is causing stress and anxiety.
- Blaming best friend: Instead of taking responsibility for their poor performance, the student is blaming their best friend for it. This is an example of the emotion-oriented coping strategy of blaming others for the problem.
- Not devoting time to studies: Rather than actively trying to improve their performance by studying more, the student is using the coping mechanism of blaming others to manage their emotions.

In conclusion, the student in this scenario is using emotion-oriented coping by blaming their best friend for their poor performance instead of actively trying to solve the problem by studying more.

Rhea always complains of snakes crawling inside her body. What is she suffering from?
  • a)
    Somatic Hallucination
  • b)
    Tactile Hallucination
  • c)
    Delusion of Reference
  • d)
    Delusion of control
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Somatic Hallucination

Rhea is suffering from somatic hallucinations. Somatic hallucinations are a type of hallucination where an individual experiences sensations in their body that are not actually occurring. In Rhea's case, she complains of snakes crawling inside her body, which is a somatic hallucination because there are no actual snakes present.

Explanation of the options:

a) Somatic Hallucination: Somatic hallucinations involve abnormal sensations or perceptions in the body. In Rhea's case, she experiences the false sensation of snakes crawling inside her body.

b) Tactile Hallucination: Tactile hallucinations involve false perceptions of touch or physical contact. While Rhea does experience a sensation, it is specifically the sensation of snakes crawling, which falls under somatic hallucinations rather than tactile hallucinations.

c) Delusion of Reference: Delusions of reference involve believing that events, objects, or people in the external world have a specific and unusual significance to oneself. Rhea's complaint of snakes crawling inside her body does not involve attributing unusual significance to external events or objects, so delusion of reference is not the correct option.

d) Delusion of Control: Delusions of control involve the false belief that one's thoughts, feelings, or actions are being controlled by external forces. While Rhea may believe that the snakes crawling inside her body are controlling her, this does not fit the definition of delusion of control, as the snakes themselves are not external forces.

In conclusion, Rhea's complaints of snakes crawling inside her body indicate that she is suffering from somatic hallucinations. These hallucinations involve false sensations or perceptions in the body and are not based on any actual presence of snakes.

_______ states that the presence of two mutually-opposing forces attire same time, inhibits tire wea ker force.
  • a)
    Classical conditioning
  • b)
    Systematic desensitization
  • c)
    Principle of differential reinforcement
  • d)
    Principle of reciprocal inhibition
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
The principle of reciprocal inhibition operates here. This principle states that the presence of two mutually opposing forces at the same time, inhibits the weaker force. Thus, the relaxation response is first built up and mildly anxiety-provoking scene is imagined, and the anxiety is overcome by the relaxation. The client is able to tolerate progressively greater levels of anxiety because of her/his relaxed state.

Which one of the following competencies is not identified as facets of intelligence in the Indian tradition?
  • a)
    Cognitive capacity
  • b)
    Social competence
  • c)
    Emotional competence
  • d)
    Aptitude
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Basu answered
In the Indian tradition, intelligence is recognized as a multi-dimensional concept that encompasses various competencies and capabilities. These competencies are seen as facets of intelligence that contribute to an individual's overall cognitive, social, and emotional development. However, one of the competencies listed in the options, namely "Aptitude," is not identified as a facet of intelligence in the Indian tradition.

Explanation:
1. The Indian tradition recognizes the following competencies as facets of intelligence:

a) Cognitive capacity: This refers to an individual's ability to think critically, solve problems, reason logically, and acquire knowledge. It includes skills such as memory, attention, perception, and language comprehension. Cognitive capacity is considered a crucial aspect of intelligence in the Indian tradition.

b) Social competence: This refers to an individual's ability to interact effectively with others, understand social dynamics, and maintain harmonious relationships. It includes skills such as empathy, communication, cooperation, and conflict resolution. Social competence is considered an important aspect of intelligence in the Indian tradition, as it emphasizes the holistic development of an individual's personality.

c) Emotional competence: This refers to an individual's ability to understand and manage their own emotions, as well as recognize and empathize with the emotions of others. It includes skills such as self-awareness, emotional regulation, empathy, and interpersonal skills. Emotional competence is considered a significant aspect of intelligence in the Indian tradition, as it emphasizes the importance of emotional well-being and interpersonal relationships.

2. However, the competency "Aptitude" is not identified as a facet of intelligence in the Indian tradition. Aptitude refers to an individual's inherent or natural ability or talent in a specific area. While aptitude can contribute to an individual's overall performance and success in a particular domain, it is not considered an essential aspect of intelligence in the Indian tradition.

In conclusion, the Indian tradition recognizes cognitive capacity, social competence, and emotional competence as facets of intelligence. However, aptitude is not identified as a facet of intelligence in the Indian tradition. It is important to note that different cultures may have varying perspectives on intelligence, and the Indian tradition emphasizes a holistic view of intelligence that encompasses cognitive, social, and emotional dimensions.

Which of the following personality types is described as noisy, callous and fond of physical activity?
  • a)
    Endomorph
  • b)
    Ectomorph
  • c)
    Mesomorph
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Aryan Sen answered
Explanation:

Mesomorph is the personality type that is described as noisy, callous, and fond of physical activity. Let's understand why Mesomorph fits this description.

Mesomorph:
- Mesomorph is one of the three constitutional types of body structure, along with endomorph and ectomorph.
- Individuals who are mesomorphs are typically characterized by a muscular and athletic build.
- They tend to have a naturally low body fat percentage and well-defined muscles.
- Mesomorphs are known for their strength and physical prowess.
- This body type is often associated with traits such as being energetic, competitive, and assertive.

Noisy:
- Mesomorphs are often described as noisy because they tend to be outgoing and assertive.
- They are not afraid to speak their mind and express themselves loudly.
- Their confident and extroverted nature often leads them to be more vocal and expressive in social situations.

Callous:
- Mesomorphs are characterized by their toughness and resilience.
- They are less likely to be easily affected emotionally by others and may appear callous or indifferent.
- This trait can be beneficial in certain situations where a tough and resilient attitude is required.

Fond of Physical Activity:
- Mesomorphs have a natural predisposition towards physical activity.
- They have a well-developed musculature and are often adept at sports and physical tasks.
- They enjoy engaging in activities that require strength, endurance, and physical exertion.
- Mesomorphs often excel in sports and activities that demand physical prowess.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the personality type that is described as noisy, callous, and fond of physical activity is the mesomorph. Mesomorphs are characterized by their muscular build, assertive nature, toughness, and love for physical activity.

Freud believed that if a child's needs at one of the psycho-sexual stages were either unsatisfied or over satisfied. _____ would take place.
  • a)
    Identification
  • b)
    Fixation
  • c)
    Repression
  • d)
    Pleasure
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Freud's Theory of Psychosexual Development

Freud's theory of psychosexual development suggests that children pass through a series of stages in which their libido, or sexual energy, becomes focused on different erogenous zones of the body. According to Freud, if a child's needs at one of these stages are either unsatisfied or over satisfied, it can result in fixation at that stage. Fixation refers to the child becoming "stuck" or fixated at a particular stage of development, leading to potential psychological issues later in life.

The Stages of Psychosexual Development

Freud identified five stages of psychosexual development:

1. Oral Stage: This stage occurs from birth to around 1 year of age. The primary focus of pleasure is on the mouth, as infants derive pleasure from activities such as sucking and biting. If a child's needs are not adequately met during this stage, they may develop fixation related to oral activities, such as smoking, nail-biting, or overeating.

2. Anal Stage: This stage occurs from around 1 to 3 years of age. The primary focus of pleasure shifts to the anus, as children gain pleasure from controlling and expelling feces during toilet training. If a child's toilet training is either too strict or too lenient, they may develop fixation related to issues of control and orderliness.

3. Phallic Stage: This stage occurs from around 3 to 6 years of age. The primary focus of pleasure shifts to the genitals, as children become aware of their own bodies and develop a curiosity about the differences between males and females. During this stage, children may experience the Oedipus or Electra complex, where they have unconscious sexual desires for their opposite-sex parent and view their same-sex parent as a rival. If these desires are not resolved, it can lead to fixation and potential difficulties with relationships and gender identity.

4. Latency Stage: This stage occurs from around 6 years to puberty. During this stage, the libido is dormant, and children focus on other activities such as school, friendships, and hobbies. Fixation is less likely to occur during this stage.

5. Genital Stage: This stage occurs during adolescence and adulthood. The focus of pleasure shifts to the genitals once again, as individuals develop mature sexual and romantic relationships. If a person has successfully resolved previous stages of development, they should be able to form healthy, intimate relationships during this stage.

Fixation and Psychological Issues

Fixation can occur when a child's needs are not met at a particular stage, resulting in unresolved conflicts and desires associated with that stage. This fixation can manifest in various ways, including personality traits, behaviors, and psychological issues. For example:

- Oral fixation may lead to seeking oral stimulation through excessive eating, smoking, or nail-biting.
- Anal fixation may result in being overly controlling, rigid, or messy.
- Phallic fixation may contribute to difficulties with relationships, gender identity, or sexual intimacy.

Therefore, according to Freud, if a child's needs are either unsatisfied or over satisfied at one of the psychosexual stages, fixation can occur, potentially leading to psychological issues later in life.

Which of the following characteristics is related to effective counsellors?
  • a)
    Authenticity
  • b)
    All of them
  • c)
    Paraphrasing
  • d)
    Empathy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Effective Characteristics of Counsellors

Introduction:
Counselling is a process that involves the development of a therapeutic relationship between the counsellor and the client. The effectiveness of this relationship depends on the characteristics of the counsellor.

Empathy:
Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. Effective counsellors possess this characteristic as it allows them to connect with their clients on an emotional level. This helps the counsellor to develop a strong rapport with the client, which is an essential component of successful counselling.

Authenticity:
Authenticity refers to the counsellor's ability to be genuine and honest with the client. It involves being transparent and open about their thoughts, feelings, and experiences. Effective counsellors exhibit this characteristic as it helps them to build trust with their clients.

Active Listening:
Active listening is the process of fully concentrating on what the client is saying without judgment or interruption. Effective counsellors possess this characteristic as it allows them to understand the client's perspective and provide appropriate feedback.

Paraphrasing:
Paraphrasing is the process of restating the client's words in a different way to ensure understanding. Effective counsellors utilize this skill to confirm their understanding of the client's situation and to help the client gain clarity about their own thoughts and feelings.

Conclusion:
Effective counselling requires a counsellor to possess a range of characteristics. Although there are many traits that contribute to effective counselling, empathy stands out as the most important. Counsellors who possess empathy are better equipped to build strong therapeutic relationships with their clients and help them achieve positive outcomes.

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Mark tire correct choice as:
Assertion (A): There is a stage of intragroup conflict which is referred to as storming. In this stage, there is conflict among members about how the target of the group is to be achieved, who is to control the group and its resources, and who is to perform what task.
Reason (R): When people don't have common motives or goals, they get together and form a group which may facilitate their goal attainment.
  • a)
    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • b)
    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • c)
    (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • d)
    (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'C'. In this question, Assertion (A) states that there is a stage of intragroup conflict called storming, where there is conflict among group members regarding the achievement of the group's target, control of the group and its resources, and task allocation. Reason (R) states that when people don't have common motives or goals, they form a group to facilitate their goal attainment.

The statement A is true as storming is indeed a stage of intragroup conflict. During this stage, group members may have different ideas and opinions about how to achieve the group's goals, who should have control over the group's resources, and who should perform which tasks. This stage is characterized by disagreements and conflicts among group members.

The statement R is false because it is not necessary for people to have different motives or goals to form a group. People can come together to form a group for various reasons such as shared interests, complementary skills, or common values. The formation of a group does not solely depend on the absence of common motives or goals.

In conclusion, while Assertion (A) is true and describes the stage of intragroup conflict known as storming, Reason (R) is false as it does not correctly explain the formation of a group. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Which of the following periods of psycho-sexual development was not considered by Freud to be very important to the development of personality?
  • a)
    Oral stage
  • b)
    Phallic
  • c)
    Latency
  • d)
    Genital
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nayanika Datta answered
Freud's Psycho-Sexual Development
Freud's theory of psycho-sexual development postulates that individuals pass through a series of stages during their childhood, each characterized by a specific focus on erogenous zones and the resolution of associated conflicts. These stages play a significant role in shaping an individual's personality and behavior. The following periods of psycho-sexual development were considered important by Freud:

1. Oral Stage:
During the first year of life, the primary focus of pleasure and conflict is on the mouth and sucking. Freud believed that experiences during this stage could influence an individual's future personality, particularly in relation to dependency and oral fixation.

2. Phallic Stage:
Between the ages of three and six, children become aware of their gender identity and have strong attachments to their opposite-sex parent. The development of the Oedipus complex (for boys) and Electra complex (for girls) occurs during this stage. Freud considered this stage to be crucial for the formation of gender identity and the development of the superego.

3. Latency Stage:
The latency stage occurs between the ages of six and puberty. During this period, sexual impulses are repressed, and children focus on developing social and intellectual skills. Freud did not consider this stage to be as significant in the development of personality, as the sexual energy is largely dormant during this time.

4. Genital Stage:
The final stage of psycho-sexual development, which begins during puberty, is the genital stage. Sexual energy is focused on relationships and the establishment of mature, adult sexual relationships. Freud believed that successful completion of this stage leads to the development of a healthy adult personality.

Explanation of Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option C, the latency stage. Freud believed that the latency stage, characterized by a lack of overt sexual development, played a relatively minor role in the formation of personality compared to the other stages. During this stage, sexual energy is relatively dormant, and the focus is on the development of social and intellectual skills. While Freud acknowledged the importance of this stage in terms of cognitive and social development, he believed that the experiences of the previous stages had a more significant impact on personality formation.

According to psycho-analytic theory, the sexual energy that underlines the biologically based urges is called the
  • a)
    Ego
  • b)
    Defence mechanisms
  • c)
    Libido
  • d)
    Oedipus
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pragati Dey answered
Sexual energy is a fundamental concept in psychoanalytic theory, which was developed by Sigmund Freud. According to Freud, sexual energy is a primary motivating force that underlies our biologically based urges. This sexual energy is known as libido.

Libido: The Sexual Energy
Libido, derived from the Latin word for desire, refers to the energy associated with the sexual drive or instinct. According to Freud, libido is not solely focused on sexual pleasure but is a broader concept that encompasses all life instincts and desires.

Role of Libido
Freud believed that libido is a fundamental aspect of human nature that drives our behavior and motivates us to seek pleasure and satisfaction. He proposed that libido is present from birth and develops and changes throughout our lives.

Stages of Psychosexual Development
Freud also proposed a theory of psychosexual development, which suggests that libido is channeled into different parts of the body at different stages of development. These stages include:
1. Oral stage: Libido is focused on the mouth and oral activities such as sucking and biting.
2. Anal stage: Libido is focused on the anus and the pleasure associated with bowel movements.
3. Phallic stage: Libido is focused on the genitals, and children become aware of their own bodies and develop sexual curiosity.
4. Latency stage: Libido becomes dormant during this stage, and sexual energy is channeled into social and intellectual activities.
5. Genital stage: Libido is focused on the genitals once again, but now in a mature and adult way. This stage is reached during adolescence and adulthood.

Importance of Libido
Freud believed that the successful resolution of each psychosexual stage was critical for the healthy development of an individual. If there are unresolved conflicts or fixations at any stage, it can lead to psychological issues in adulthood.

Conclusion
In psychoanalytic theory, libido represents the sexual energy that underlies our biologically based urges. It is a fundamental motivating force that drives our behavior and is channeled into different parts of the body during different stages of psychosexual development. Understanding the role of libido helps us gain insights into human behavior and personality development.

The _______ consists of elaborate ways of behaving and thinking which constitute the 'executive function' of the person.
  • a)
    Id
  • b)
    Ego
  • c)
    Superego
  • d)
    Dream
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
The ego is 'that part of the id which has been modified by the direct influence of the external world.' The ego is the only part of the conscious personality. It's what the person is aware of when they think about themselves, and is what they usually try to project toward others.

Which of the following are the example of specific skills?
  • a)
    Communication skills
  • b)
    Counselling skills
  • c)
    Interviewing skills
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
The skills that are needed for a specific job are also known as a skill set. When hiring, employers will usually include the skill set required to be able to perform the job in the job posting. The applicants who most closely match the required skills will have the best chance of getting selected for a job interview.

Directions: Read the below case and answer the questions that follow:
The evidence for hereditary influences on intelligence comes mainly from studies on twins and adopted children. The intelligence of identical twins reared together correlate almost 0.90. Twins separated early in childhood also show considerable similarity in their intellectual, personality and behavioural characteristics. The intelligence of identical twins reared in different environments correlate 0.72, those of fraternal twins reared together correlate almost 0.60, and those of brothers and sisters reared together correlate about 0.50, while siblings reared apart correlate about 0.25. Another line of evidence comes from the studies of adopted children, which shows that children’s intelligence is more similar to their biological rather than adoptive parents. With respect to the role of environment, studies have reported that as children grow in age, their intelligence level tends to move closer to that of their adoptive parents. Children from disadvantaged homes adopted into families with higher socioeconomic status exhibit a large increase in their intelligence scores. There is evidence that environmental deprivation lowers intelligence while rich nutrition, good family background, and quality schooling increases intelligence. There is a general consensus among psychologists that intelligence is a product of complex interaction of heredity (nature) and environment (nurture). Heredity can best be viewed as something that sets a range within which an individual’s development is actually shaped by the support and opportunities of the environment.
Q. Children’s intelligence is more closely related to their _____________ parents.
  • a)
    biological
  • b)
    adoptive
  • c)
    single
  • d)
    divorced
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shalini Patel answered
Biological parents are the natural parents of a child.

Mindfulness is related to?
  • a)
    Hinduism
  • b)
    Buddhism
  • c)
    Jainism
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
Mindfulness derives from sati, a significant element of Buddhist traditions, and is based on Zen, Vipassanā, and Tibetan meditation techniques.

According to teacher, students who have a combination of high ability, high creativity, and high commitment are said to be ______
  • a)
    creative
  • b)
    intelligent
  • c)
    gifted
  • d)
    capable
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Sengupta answered
Explanation:
Students who have a combination of high ability, high creativity, and high commitment are considered to be gifted. Let's break down these three components to understand why this term is used to describe such students.

High Ability:
Having high ability refers to a student's capacity to learn and understand concepts quickly and effectively. These students typically grasp new information easily and excel in their academic pursuits.

High Creativity:
Creativity is the ability to think outside the box, come up with innovative solutions, and approach problems from different angles. Students who exhibit high levels of creativity are often able to see connections that others may overlook and are able to express themselves in unique ways.

High Commitment:
Commitment refers to the dedication and perseverance that a student exhibits towards their goals and tasks. Students with high commitment are willing to put in the effort required to succeed, even when faced with challenges or setbacks.

Combination of the Three:
When a student possesses all three of these qualities - high ability, high creativity, and high commitment - they are considered to be gifted. These students have the potential to achieve great success academically, creatively, and in various aspects of their lives. Their unique combination of skills and traits sets them apart and allows them to make significant contributions to their fields of interest.
In conclusion, the term "gifted" is used to describe students who demonstrate exceptional abilities, creativity, and dedication, making them stand out among their peers.

Which of the following is a stress management technique?
  • a)
    Resistance
  • b)
    Burnout
  • c)
    Over eating
  • d)
    Exercise
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Chavan answered
Creative visualization is a stress management technique that involves using mental imagery to promote relaxation and reduce stress. It is a powerful tool that can help individuals manage their stress levels and improve their overall well-being.

What is Creative Visualization?
Creative visualization is a technique that involves using your imagination to create positive mental images or scenarios. It is based on the principle that the mind and body are interconnected, and that by visualizing positive outcomes, you can influence your emotions and physical state.

How does Creative Visualization work?
Creative visualization works by activating the mind-body connection. When you visualize a positive image or scenario, your brain sends signals to your body, triggering the release of neurochemicals that promote relaxation and reduce stress. This can help you shift your focus away from negative thoughts and emotions, and instead focus on positive outcomes and feelings.

Steps to practice Creative Visualization:
1. Find a quiet and comfortable place where you can relax and focus.
2. Close your eyes and take a few deep breaths to help you relax.
3. Visualize a peaceful and serene place, such as a beach or a mountain.
4. Use all your senses to imagine yourself in that place. What do you see? What do you hear? What do you smell?
5. Focus on the feelings of relaxation, peace, and calmness that arise as you visualize this place.
6. Stay in this state of relaxation for a few minutes, allowing yourself to fully immerse in the positive feelings and sensations.
7. When you are ready, slowly open your eyes and return to the present moment.

Benefits of Creative Visualization:
- Reduces stress and anxiety: Creative visualization helps individuals shift their focus away from negative thoughts and emotions, promoting relaxation and reducing stress.
- Enhances overall well-being: By visualizing positive outcomes and feelings, individuals can improve their overall well-being and sense of happiness.
- Boosts self-confidence: Creative visualization can help individuals build self-confidence by visualizing themselves succeeding in their goals and aspirations.
- Improves performance: Visualizing success can improve performance in various areas, such as sports, academics, and professional endeavors.

In conclusion, creative visualization is an effective stress management technique that involves using mental imagery to promote relaxation and reduce stress. By visualizing positive outcomes and feelings, individuals can improve their overall well-being and achieve a state of relaxation and peace.

Directions: Read the following text and answer the questions given below:
Roshan is terribly afraid of snakes. His phobia has made him so dysfunctional that he had to take a long leave from his job at the local zoo. This
happened when he heard that a snake enclosure opened and someone was bitten by it. Now, Roshan feels dizzy and breathless even at the thought of the snake and starts panicking. He has stopped going to zoo and is trying to take up a job elsewhere. He is even looking for a shift of house as his house is on the ground floor and he thinks a snake might show up at his house.
Q. Which technique would work for treatment of Roshan?
  • a)
    Gestalt therapy
  • b)
    Systematic Desensitization
  • c)
    Psychodynamic therapy
  • d)
    Aversive technique
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjana Bajaj answered
Systematic Desensitization:
Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique that can be effective in treating phobias, such as Roshan's fear of snakes. This technique aims to gradually reduce an individual's fear response through a process of gradual exposure and relaxation.

Explanation:
1. Understanding Roshan's Phobia:
- Roshan has a severe fear of snakes, which has resulted in his inability to function normally and even take a leave from his job.
- His fear has become so intense that he experiences dizziness and breathlessness even at the thought of snakes, leading to panic.
- He has avoided going to the zoo and is even considering changing his residence due to the fear of encountering a snake.

2. Systematic Desensitization:
- Systematic desensitization is a therapeutic technique based on the principles of classical conditioning and relaxation.
- The process involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus (in this case, snakes) in a controlled and safe environment.
- The exposure is combined with relaxation techniques to help counteract the fear response.

3. Steps in Systematic Desensitization:
- Roshan would work with a therapist who specializes in this technique.
- The therapist would initially teach Roshan relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing and progressive muscle relaxation.
- Roshan would then create a fear hierarchy, ranking various snake-related situations from least to most anxiety-provoking.
- Starting with the least anxiety-provoking situation (e.g., looking at pictures of snakes), Roshan would gradually expose himself to each situation while practicing relaxation techniques.
- As Roshan becomes comfortable and relaxed in each situation, he would progress to the next item on the fear hierarchy.
- The process continues until Roshan can eventually confront his fear of snakes without experiencing intense anxiety or panic.

4. Effectiveness of Systematic Desensitization:
- Systematic desensitization has been proven to be an effective treatment for phobias.
- By gradually exposing individuals to their feared stimuli and teaching them relaxation techniques, it helps them develop new associations and reduce their fear response.
- Over time, Roshan can regain his ability to function normally and overcome his fear of snakes.

In conclusion, systematic desensitization would be an appropriate technique for treating Roshan's phobia of snakes. It can help him gradually reduce his fear response and regain control over his life.

The defining characteristic of________ is that they express an evaluation of some object.
  • a)
    Beliefs
  • b)
    Attitudes
  • c)
    Interaction
  • d)
    Perception
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandita Ahuja answered
The defining characteristic of attitudes is that they express an evaluation of some object. Attitudes are an important aspect of human psychology and play a crucial role in shaping our behavior and interactions with the world around us. Here are some key points to help understand the concept of attitudes:

Meaning of Attitudes:
Attitudes are defined as a psychological tendency that is expressed by evaluating a particular object with some degree of favor or disfavor. They are learned dispositions that guide our behavior towards people, things, and events in our environment.

Components of Attitudes:
Attitudes are made up of three components: affective, behavioral, and cognitive. These components work together to form an overall attitude towards an object. The affective component refers to the emotional aspect of an attitude, the behavioral component relates to how the attitude influences our actions, and the cognitive component reflects our beliefs and thoughts about the object.

Functions of Attitudes:
Attitudes serve several important functions. They help us make sense of the world around us, provide a sense of identity and social belonging, and guide our behavior in social situations. They also help to reduce cognitive dissonance by creating consistency between our beliefs and actions.

Measurement of Attitudes:
Attitudes can be measured using a variety of methods, including self-report questionnaires, behavioral observations, and physiological measures. Self-report questionnaires are the most commonly used method, in which individuals rate their attitudes on a scale ranging from positive to negative.

Importance of Attitudes:
Attitudes are important because they influence our behavior, decision-making, and social interactions. They can also play a role in determining our health and well-being, as negative attitudes have been linked to increased stress and poorer physical health outcomes.

In conclusion, attitudes are an important aspect of human psychology that express our evaluations of objects, people, and events in our environment. They are made up of several components and serve several important functions in our lives. Understanding attitudes is crucial for understanding human behavior and interactions.

Which of the following does NOT contribute towards Ethical Standards in psychotherapy?
  • a)
    Confidentiality of the client should be maintained
  • b)
    Integrity of the practitioner
  • c)
    Personality of the practitioner
  • d)
    Professional competence by the therapist
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandita Ahuja answered
The correct answer is option 'C': Personality of the practitioner does not contribute towards ethical standards in psychotherapy.

Explanation:

Ethical standards in psychotherapy are a set of guidelines and principles that therapists follow to ensure the well-being and best interests of their clients. These standards are established to maintain professionalism, protect clients' rights, and provide a safe and effective therapeutic environment. There are several factors that contribute to ethical standards in psychotherapy, and the personality of the practitioner is not one of them.

1. Confidentiality: Confidentiality is a fundamental principle in psychotherapy. Therapists are required to maintain the privacy and confidentiality of their clients. This means that therapists cannot disclose any information shared by the client without their informed consent, except in certain circumstances where there is a risk of harm to self or others.

2. Integrity of the practitioner: Integrity refers to the honesty, trustworthiness, and adherence to ethical principles by the therapist. It involves acting in the best interests of the client, maintaining professional boundaries, and avoiding conflicts of interest. Practitioners with high integrity are more likely to provide ethical and responsible care to their clients.

3. Professional competence: Professional competence refers to the therapist's knowledge, skills, and abilities in their area of practice. It includes staying updated with the latest research and evidence-based practices, engaging in professional development, and seeking supervision or consultation when needed. Professional competence ensures that therapists provide effective and appropriate interventions to their clients.

4. Personality of the practitioner: While the personality of the therapist may influence their therapeutic style and approach, it does not directly contribute to ethical standards in psychotherapy. Ethical standards are based on professional guidelines and principles, not on personal traits or characteristics. It is important for therapists to have a professional demeanor and to separate their personal feelings and biases from their therapeutic work.

In conclusion, while confidentiality, integrity of the practitioner, and professional competence are essential contributors to ethical standards in psychotherapy, the personality of the practitioner does not directly contribute to these standards.

Empathy is a part of....................... .skills.
  • a)
    Communication
  • b)
    Interviewing
  • c)
    Counselling
  • d)
    Psychological testing
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shruti Sarkar answered
Empathy is a crucial part of Counselling skills. It plays a significant role in establishing a strong and supportive relationship between the counsellor and the client.

Importance of empathy in counselling:
Empathy allows the counsellor to understand the client's emotions, thoughts, and experiences from their perspective. It helps in creating a safe and non-judgmental space for the client to express themselves freely.

Benefits of empathy in counselling:
1. Building trust: When clients feel understood and validated, they are more likely to trust the counsellor and open up about their issues.
2. Enhancing communication: Empathy improves communication between the counsellor and the client, leading to a more effective counselling process.
3. Encouraging self-exploration: Clients feel more comfortable exploring their thoughts and feelings in a supportive environment, which can lead to personal growth and self-awareness.

How empathy is applied in counselling:
1. Active listening: Counsellors use active listening skills to demonstrate empathy by reflecting back the client's emotions and experiences.
2. Non-verbal cues: Paying attention to non-verbal cues such as body language, tone of voice, and facial expressions helps counsellors better understand the client's emotions.
3. Validation: Validating the client's feelings and experiences shows empathy and helps them feel understood and accepted.

In conclusion, empathy is a fundamental aspect of counselling skills as it allows the counsellor to connect with the client on a deeper level, leading to a more supportive and effective counselling relationship.

The skills which are core to the field of psychological service are known as:
  • a)
    Specific skills
  • b)
    General skills
  • c)
    Communication skills
  • d)
    Observational skills
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Verma answered
The general skills form the core competencies essential for a psychologist to act in a more responsive and ethical manner. Before entering any professional arena, it, therefore, becomes pertinent for a psychologist to equip himself/herself with these indispensable competencies.

The sub-average intellectual functioning refers to an ID level of less than
  • a)
    90
  • b)
    80
  • c)
    70
  • d)
    50
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Definition of Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning

Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning or intellectual disability refers to a condition where an individual has significantly lower intellectual functioning than average, which affects their ability to learn, communicate, and perform daily activities. It is generally identified in childhood or adolescence, and the severity of the condition varies widely from person to person.

ID Level for Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning

The IQ (Intelligence Quotient) test is used to measure intellectual functioning. An IQ score of less than 70 is considered as sub-average intellectual functioning, which indicates significant limitations in adaptive functioning and academic skills. The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) defines intellectual disability as follows:

- Mild intellectual disability: IQ score ranging between 50-70
- Moderate intellectual disability: IQ score ranging between 35-49
- Severe intellectual disability: IQ score ranging between 20-34
- Profound intellectual disability: IQ score below 20

Causes of Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning

Intellectual disability can be caused by various factors, including genetic disorders, brain injury, malnutrition, infections, and exposure to toxins. In some cases, the cause of the condition may be unknown.

Treatment and Management

Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning is a lifelong condition, and there is no cure for it. However, early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with intellectual disability to improve their adaptive functioning and academic skills. Treatment and management may include educational interventions, behavioral therapies, medication, and social support.

Conclusion

Sub-Average Intellectual Functioning refers to an IQ score of less than 70, indicating significant limitations in intellectual functioning. It is a lifelong condition that affects an individual's ability to learn, communicate, and perform daily activities. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with intellectual disability to improve their functioning and quality of life.

_______ is a technique used to treat depression.
  • a)
    Sublimation
  • b)
    Systematic desensitization
  • c)
    Gentle questioning for cognitive restructuring
  • d)
    Aversion therapy
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Nair answered
Gentle questioning for cognitive restructuring is a technique used to treat depression. This therapeutic approach is based on the principles of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which focuses on identifying and challenging negative thought patterns and beliefs.

The process of cognitive restructuring involves helping individuals recognize and replace their negative or irrational thoughts with more positive and realistic ones. By changing their thinking patterns, individuals can improve their mood and reduce symptoms of depression.

Here is a detailed explanation of how gentle questioning for cognitive restructuring works in the treatment of depression:

1. Understanding the Cognitive Model of Depression:
- The cognitive model of depression suggests that negative thoughts and beliefs contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms.
- These negative thoughts are often automatic and unconscious, and individuals may not be aware of the impact they have on their mood.
- Cognitive restructuring aims to make these thoughts conscious and challenge their validity.

2. Identifying Negative Thoughts:
- The therapist helps the individual identify negative thoughts that arise in various situations or trigger depressive symptoms.
- These thoughts may include self-critical statements, pessimistic predictions, or distorted beliefs about oneself, others, and the world.

3. Challenging Negative Thoughts:
- Once the negative thoughts are identified, the therapist gently questions and challenges their validity.
- The therapist may ask for evidence supporting or contradicting the negative thoughts.
- They may explore alternative explanations or interpretations of the situation.
- The goal is to help the individual recognize that their negative thoughts are not accurate or helpful.

4. Generating Alternative Thoughts:
- After challenging the negative thoughts, the therapist helps the individual generate more balanced and realistic thoughts.
- These alternative thoughts are often based on evidence and a more objective perspective.
- The individual is encouraged to consider other possible explanations or outcomes.

5. Practicing and Reinforcing Alternative Thoughts:
- The individual is encouraged to practice and reinforce the alternative thoughts outside of therapy sessions.
- This may involve keeping a thought diary, where they record their negative thoughts, challenge them, and replace them with alternative thoughts.
- Over time, with practice and repetition, the alternative thoughts become more automatic and replace the negative thoughts.

By engaging in gentle questioning for cognitive restructuring, individuals with depression can gradually change their negative thought patterns and develop a more positive and realistic outlook. This can lead to a reduction in depressive symptoms and an improvement in overall well-being.

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