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Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the 'policy of masterly inactivity' by John Lawrence?
1. It was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War.
2. It insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Verified Answer
Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of ...
  • In the First Afghan War (1839-42), the British intention was to establish a permanent barrier against schemes of aggression from the north-west (Russia). An English army entered triumphantly into Kabul (August 1839) after a successful attack. Most of the tribes had already been won over by bribes. Dost Mohammed surrendered (1840) and Shah Shuja was made the Amir of Afghanistan. But Shah Shuja was unacceptable to the Afghans. As soon as the British withdrew, the Afghans rose in rebellion, killing the garrison commander in Kabul. The British were compelled to sign a treaty (1841) with the Afghan chiefs by which they agreed to evacuate Afghanistan and restore Dost Mohammed.
  • Under a new expedition, the British re-occupied Kabul in September 1842, but having learned their lesson well, they arrived at a settlement with Dost Mohammed by which the British evacuated from Kabul and recognised him as the independent ruler of Afghanistan.
  • John Fawrence (1864-1869) started a policy of masterly inactivity which was a reaction to the disasters of the First Afghan War and an outcome of practical common sense and intimate knowledge of the frontier problem and of Afghan passion for independence.
  • Even when Dost Mohammed died in 1863, there was no interference in the war of succession. Lawrence’s policy rested on the fulfilment of two conditions:
    (i) that the peace at the frontier was not disturbed, and
    (ii) that no candidate in civil war sought foreign help. And as Sher Ali established himself on the throne, Lawrence tried to cultivate friendship with him.
  • Hence both the statements are correct.
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Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of ...
Policy of Masterly Inactivity by John Lawrence

Background:

The Policy of Masterly Inactivity was a policy followed by John Lawrence, the Governor-General of India from 1864 to 1869. It was a reaction to the British defeat in the First Afghan War of 1839-42.

Key Features:

1. Non-Interference: The policy insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan, which meant that the British would not actively try to control the politics of Afghanistan.

2. Diplomatic Relations: Instead of direct interference, the policy focused on maintaining diplomatic relations with Afghanistan's rulers to secure British interests, such as the safety of British India's northwest frontier.

3. Military Restraint: The policy also emphasized military restraint, which meant that the British would not engage in military action unless it was necessary for self-defense or to protect British interests.

Significance:

1. Avoiding Conflicts: The policy of masterly inactivity allowed the British to avoid getting involved in conflicts in Afghanistan, which had been a source of trouble in the past.

2. Maintenance of Peace: The policy helped maintain peace on the northwest frontier of India and prevented any major conflicts between the British and the Afghans.

Conclusion:

Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' - both 1 and 2, as the policy of masterly inactivity was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War, and it insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.
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Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of masterly inactivity by John Lawrence?1. It was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War.2. It insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
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Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of masterly inactivity by John Lawrence?1. It was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War.2. It insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer? for UPSC 2025 is part of UPSC preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus. Information about Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of masterly inactivity by John Lawrence?1. It was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War.2. It insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for UPSC 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the policy of masterly inactivity by John Lawrence?1. It was a reaction to the British setback after the First Afghan War.2. It insisted on non-interference by the British in the internal affairs of Afghanistan.Select the correct answer using the code given below.a)1 onlyb)2 onlyc)Both 1 and 2d)Neither 1 nor 2Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?.
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