All questions of December 2022 for UPSC CSE Exam

The pacific Islands can be divided on the basis of physical and human geography into which of the following parts?
  1. Melanesia
  2. Micronesia
  3. Polynesia
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The islands are divided on the basis of physical and human geography into three distinct parts —Micronesia, Melanesia and Polynesia.
The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific Ocean.

Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen.
  1. Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table.
  2. Because of its highly combustible property, Hydrogen as a fuel can be used only in internal combustion engines and not in spacecraft propulsion.
  3. Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    1 and 3 only 
  • c)
    2 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Hydrogen fuel:
  • Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table. Since the weight of hydrogen is less than air, it rises in the atmosphere and is therefore rarely found in its pure form, H2.
  • At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a nontoxic, nonmetallic, odorless, tasteless, colorless, and highly combustible diatomic gas.
  • Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion.
Occurrence of Hydrogen:
  • It is the most abundant element in the universe. The sun and other stars are composed largely of hydrogen.
  • Astronomers estimate that 90% of the atoms in the universe are hydrogen atoms. Hydrogen is a component of more compounds than any other element.
  • Water is the most abundant compound of hydrogen found on earth.
  • Molecular hydrogen is not available on Earth in convenient natural reservoirs. Most hydrogen on Earth is bonded to oxygen in water and to carbon in live or dead and/or fossilized biomass. It can be created by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen.

Consider the following statements regarding Green Turtles.
  1. Green turtles are named because of the greenish color of their shells.
  2. They are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
  3. Unlike other sea turtles, they do not migrate long distances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The green turtle is one of the largest sea turtles and the only herbivore among the different species. Green turtles are in fact named for the greenish color of their cartilage and fat, not their shells. In the Eastern Pacific, a group of green turtles that have darker shells are called black turtles by the local community. Green turtles are found mainly in tropical and subtropical waters. Like other sea turtles, they migrate long distances between feeding grounds and the beaches from where they hatched.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).
  1. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
  2. It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
  3. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Government has modified the earlier scheme of ‘Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS) with nomenclature ‘Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY)’, for implementation during 2021-22 to 2025-26, which aims at mitigating gaps and providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having at least 50% ST population and 500 STs across States / UTs with notified STs during the period.
The main objective of this scheme is to achieve integrated socio-economic development of selected villages through convergence approach. It includes the following components.
  • Preparing Village Development Plan based on the needs, potential, and aspirations;
  • Maximizing the coverage of individual / family benefit schemes of the Central / State Governments;
  • Improving the infrastructure in vital sectors like health, education, connectivity and livelihood;

Consider the following statements.
  1. The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
  2. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Divyansh Yadav answered
Incorrect Statement Explanation:
1. The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state extends: This statement is correct. Article 161 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense against any law to which the executive power of the state extends.
2. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same: This statement is incorrect. The Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers in the exercise of his functions except in matters where he is required to use his discretion. The binding nature of the advice does not depend on the constitutionality of the same. The Governor must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers unless the Constitution expressly provides otherwise.
Therefore, the correct answer is option Neither 1 nor 2 as both statements are not correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007.
  2. G20 is designated as the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
  3. The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
  4. The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture and anti-corruption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debanshi Desai answered
Explanation:

Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: G20 is designated as the "premier forum for international economic cooperation".
- Statement 3: The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating presidency.
- Statement 4: The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has expanded its agenda to include climate change, sustainable development, health, agriculture, and anti-corruption.

Incorrect Statements:
- Statement 1: G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union, that was founded in the wake of the global economic and financial crisis of 2007. This statement is incorrect as G20 comprises 20 members, not 19.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which includes statements 2, 3, and 4 as correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.
  1. A cyclone is a low-pressure system that forms over warm waters.
  2. It is a system of high-speed winds blowing clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  3. Tropical cyclones in the formative stages of their development are very calm and does not cause any threat to life and property.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • A cyclone is a low pressure system that forms over warm waters. Essentially, it is a system of high speed winds rotating around a low-pressure area, with the winds blowing counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • According to the World Meteorological Organization, “Tropical cyclones are one of the biggest threats to life and property even in the formative stages of their development. They include a number of different hazards that can individually cause significant impacts on life and property, such as storm surge, flooding, extreme winds, tornadoes and lighting.
  • Cyclones that form in every ocean basin across the world are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs). There are six RSMCs in the world, including the India Meteorological Department (IMD), and five TCWCs.
  • As an RSMC, the IMD names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea, after following a standard procedure. The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.

Consider the following statements regarding Community Forest Resource (CFR) area.
  1. The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
  2. The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary and national parks.
  3. Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2, 3.

Explanation:
Community Forest Resource (CFR) area refers to the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community. It is an important concept in the context of community-based forest management and sustainable development.

Statement 1: The community forest resource area is the common forest land that has been traditionally protected and conserved for sustainable use by a particular community.
This statement is correct. The CFR area is a designated portion of forest land that is managed collectively by a community for their livelihood and well-being. It is typically governed by customary laws and practices, and the community has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and management of the resources within the area.

Statement 2: The community forest resource area may include revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks.
This statement is also correct. The CFR area can include various types of forest areas, including revenue forest, deemed forest, sanctuary, and national parks. The inclusion of these areas within the CFR depends on the specific regulations and policies of the country or region.

Statement 3: Community forest resource area can also be used for pastoral purpose.
This statement is correct as well. The CFR area can be used not only for timber extraction and non-timber forest produce collection but also for pastoral purposes. It can provide grazing land for livestock and support the traditional livelihood practices of the community.

In conclusion, all three statements are correct. The CFR area is a common forest land that is protected and conserved by a community for sustainable use. It can include various types of forest areas, and it can also be used for pastoral purposes.

Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.
  1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
  2. The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
  3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Reddy answered
Explanation:

1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank:
When a bank writes off a loan, it removes the loan amount from its balance sheet, as it is unlikely to be recovered. This means that the loan is no longer considered as an asset for the bank. Writing off a loan helps the bank to clean up its balance sheet by removing non-performing assets.

2. The amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability:
When a bank writes off a loan, it is allowed to claim a tax deduction on the amount written off. This reduces the bank's taxable income, resulting in a lower tax liability for the bank. However, it is important to note that the tax benefit is not equal to the full amount of the loan written off.

3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan:
Once a loan is written off, the bank is no longer actively pursuing the borrower for repayment. However, this does not mean that the borrower is absolved of the debt. The bank may still try to recover the loan through legal means or by selling the debt to a collection agency.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971.
  1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 has not been amended since inception.
  2. The MTP Act recognises abortion as a choice of the women.
  3. It makes ‘medical termination of pregnancy’ legal in India under specific conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    3 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Yadav answered
The provision for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation in certain circumstances like threat to the life or physical or mental health of the mother.

Both statements are false.

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 has been amended several times since its inception. The latest amendment was in 2021, which extended the upper limit for termination of pregnancy from 20 weeks to 24 weeks in certain circumstances.

The MTP Act does not explicitly recognise abortion as a choice of women, but it provides for termination of pregnancy in certain circumstances. The Act permits abortion if continuing the pregnancy would be a risk to the life or physical or mental health of the mother or if there is a substantial risk of the child being born with physical or mental abnormalities.

Indian Ocean Region Forum, recently seen in news is the initiative of
  • a)
    India 
  • b)
    China 
  • c)
    United States 
  • d)
    Australia
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
China recently convened a first “China-Indian Ocean Region Forum” bringing together 19 countries from the region – and all of India’s neighbours, except for India itself, the lone absentee from a new Beijing strategic initiative. The forum underlined China’s stepped-up diplomacy in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

Which of the following elements from India have been listed on the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
  1. Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat
  2. Kolkata’s Durga Puja
  3. Kumbh Mela
  4. Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur
  5. Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4, 5 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4, 5 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • This year, India nominated Garba, a traditional dance form that originated in the state of Gujarat, for inscription on UNESCO’s ICH list.
  • The elements which have been on the representative list of intangible cultural heritage from India in the past decade include Kolkata’s Durga Puja (2021), Kumbh Mela (2017), Navroz (2016), Yoga (2016), traditional brass and copper craft of utensil-making among coppersmiths of Punjab (2014), Sankirtana, a ritual musical performance of Manipur (2013), and the Buddhist chanting of Ladakh (2012).
  • Before 2011, the list included Chhau dance, Kalbelia folk songs and dance of Rajasthan, and Mudiyettu, a dance drama from Kerala (2010), Ramman, a religious festival and theatre performance of Garhwal in the Himalayas (2009), and Kutiyattam or Sanskrit theatre, and Vedic chanting (2008).
  • Ramlila, a traditional performance of Ramayana, was also included in 2008.

Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in 
  • a)
    Sikkim 
  • b)
    Ladakh 
  • c)
    Arunachal Pradesh 
  • d)
    Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Yangtse in the Tawang sector of Arunachal Pradesh has been repeatedly targeted by Chinese PLA troops. Yangtse is one of the 25 contested areas along the 3488-km Line of Actual Control between the two countries, stretching from the Western Sector to Middle Sector to Eastern Sector.

Consider the following statements regarding Share buyback.
  1. According to SEBI proceeds, a loss-making company cannot repurchase its shares.
  2. To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • While a company can go for repurchase of its shares when it is sitting on a lot of cash but does not have many avenues to invest and prefers to return cash to shareholders, the case of Paytm is different – it’s sitting on huge losses and now using part of investors’ proceeds for the buyback.
  • To be eligible to participate in the share repurchase process, a shareholder needs to hold the shares of the company, which has announced the buyback, before the record date declared in the announcement. The share also needs to be held in the demat form.
  • As many as 56 companies, including Infosys, TCS, Bajaj Auto and ACC, had opted for share buybacks in 2022.

Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).
  1. CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
  2. CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
  3. CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.
  • CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and fed into your engine’s combustion chamber.
  • CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher-octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.

Consider the following statements regarding Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs).
  1. They are infections that are common among marginalised communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
  2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa and parasitic worms.
  3. HIV-AIDS, malaria and Tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivani Desai answered
Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are infections that primarily affect marginalized communities in developing regions of Africa and Asia. These diseases are caused by a variety of pathogens including bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms. Some of the prominent NTDs include HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis.

Let's break down the statements and analyze them individually:

1. They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
This statement is correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases disproportionately affect populations living in poverty and lacking access to basic healthcare services. These communities often reside in remote areas with limited resources and infrastructure, making them more vulnerable to these diseases.

2. They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.
This statement is also correct. Neglected Tropical Diseases encompass a wide range of infectious diseases caused by various pathogens. Examples include dengue fever, leprosy, Chagas disease, schistosomiasis, lymphatic filariasis, and others. Each disease is caused by a specific pathogen or group of pathogens.

3. HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are some of the prominent Neglected Tropical Diseases.
This statement is incorrect. While HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are significant global health concerns, they are not classified as Neglected Tropical Diseases. NTDs are a distinct group of diseases that primarily affect tropical and subtropical regions, whereas HIV-AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are prevalent worldwide.

In conclusion, the correct statements are:

- They are infections that are common among marginalized communities in the developing regions of Africa and Asia.
- They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and parasitic worms.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 1, 2.

Consider the following statements.
  1. In India, the Ministryof Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”.
  2. Generally Millets are high in proteins compared to carbohydrates and dietary fibre.
  3. The year 2022 was the International Year of Millets, adopted by United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only 
  • b)
    1 only 
  • c)
    1 and 3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the Agriculture Ministry declared millets as “Nutri Cereals”. 
  • The Story of Millets published by the Karnataka State Department of Agriculture in association with ICAR-Indian Institute of Millets Research, Hyderabad, says, “Millets contain 7-12% protein, 2-5% fat, 65-75% carbohydrates and 15-20% dietary fibre.
  • On March 3, 2021, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to declare 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The proposal was moved by India, and was supported by 72 countries.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties.
  2. The Constitution of India provides Election Commission of India (ECI) the power to deregister political parties.
  3. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars political parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act-1951”.
  • The EC generally does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an electoral reform to the government many times.
  • On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.

Har Ghar Gangajal project that aims to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state, was launched by which state? 
  • a)
    Uttar Pradesh 
  • b)
    Jharkhand 
  • c)
    Bihar 
  • d)
    West Bengal
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Verma answered
  • Bihar Chief Minister recently launched the Har Ghar Gangajal project in Rajgir. It is a unique and ambitious initiative to provide Ganga water on tap in the parched areas of the state.
  • The scheme will help to harvest the excess water of the Ganga during the monsoon season. The water will be stored in reservoirs in Rajgir and Gaya before being channelled to three treatment-and-purification plants, from where it will be supplied to the public.
  • Har Ghar Gangajal is part of the Bihar government’s Jal, Jeevan, Hariyali scheme.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Geothermal gradient is the rate of temperature change with respect to increasing depth in Earth’s interior.
  2. Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises.
  3. Usually Magma that is thick and sticky leads to explosive volcanic eruptions, compared to magmathat has low viscosity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
  • The geothermal gradient, the amount that the Earth’s temperature increases with depth, indicates heat flowing from the Earth’s warm interior to its surface. At a certain depth, the heat is such that it melts rocks and creates what geologists call ‘magma’.
  • Magma is lighter than solid rock and hence it rises, collecting in magma chambers. Chambers which have the potential to cause volcanic eruptions are found at a relatively shallow depth. The magma that surfaces on the Earth’s crust is referred to as lava.
  • In simple terms, runny magma makes for less explosive volcanic eruptions that typically are less dangerous. Since the magma is runny, gasses are able to escape, leading to a steady but relatively gentle flow of lava out of the mouth of the volcano. The eruption at Mauna Loa is of this kind. Since the lava flows out at a slow pace, people typically have enough time to move out of the way.
  • If magma is thick and sticky, it makes it harder for gasses to escape on a consistent basis. This leads to a build-up of pressure until a breaking point is reached. At this time, the gasses escape violently, all at once, causing an explosion. Mount Vesuvius, which obliterated the city of Pompeii, is an example of an explosive volcano.
  • The Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosivity of a volcano. It has a range of 1 to 8 with a higher VEI indicating more explosivity.

Consider the following statements.
  1. CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
  2. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  3. The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
  4. India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  • The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix I. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix II in 1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
  • The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.

Which of the following technologies can be used at the airports for the detection of explosives in the electronic devices?
  1. Dual x-ray
  2. Computer tomography
  3. Neutron beam technology
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Shivani Desai answered
Dual x-ray:
- Dual x-ray technology can be used at airports for the detection of explosives in electronic devices.
- This technology involves the use of two x-ray beams that pass through the electronic device.
- The x-rays are absorbed differently by different materials, including explosives.
- By analyzing the differences in absorption, dual x-ray technology can identify the presence of explosives in electronic devices.

Computer tomography:
- Computer tomography (CT) technology can also be used at airports for the detection of explosives in electronic devices.
- CT scans use a series of x-ray images taken from different angles to create detailed cross-sectional images of the scanned object.
- By analyzing these images, CT technology can identify the presence of explosives or other prohibited items inside electronic devices.

Neutron beam technology:
- Neutron beam technology is another option for the detection of explosives in electronic devices at airports.
- This technology involves the use of a neutron beam that is directed at the electronic device.
- The neutrons interact with the atoms in the device, causing them to emit gamma rays.
- By analyzing the gamma rays, neutron beam technology can identify the presence of explosives in electronic devices.

Combining all three technologies:
- The use of all three technologies - dual x-ray, computer tomography, and neutron beam - can provide a comprehensive approach to the detection of explosives in electronic devices at airports.
- Each technology has its own advantages and limitations, but by combining them, the chances of detecting explosives are increased.
- Dual x-ray technology can quickly scan large numbers of electronic devices, computer tomography can provide detailed images for further analysis, and neutron beam technology can provide additional information about the presence of explosives.
- By using a combination of these technologies, airports can enhance their security measures and ensure the safety of passengers and staff.

In conclusion, all three technologies - dual x-ray, computer tomography, and neutron beam - can be used at airports for the detection of explosives in electronic devices. By combining these technologies, airports can enhance their security measures and improve the safety of air travel.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
  2. Scarborough Shoal is located south of Spratly Islands.
  3. More than two nations are involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2
  • b)
    3 only
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Roy answered
Correct Statement:
- Statement 2: Scarborough Shoal is located south of Spratly Islands.

Explanation:
- The Scarborough Shoal is indeed located south of the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea. It is a disputed territory claimed by both the Philippines and China. The shoal is known for its rich marine biodiversity and has been a source of tension between the two countries.

Incorrect Statement:
- Statement 1: The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
- Statement 3: More than two nations are involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands.

Explanation:
- The Spratly Islands are actually located in the South China Sea, not the East China Sea. They are a group of islands, reefs, and atolls that are claimed in part or whole by China, Taiwan, Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, and Brunei. Therefore, more than two nations are indeed involved in the dispute over the Spratly Islands.

Conclusion:
- Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, while statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Which of the following are India’s aircraft carriers?
  1. INS Vikrant
  2. INS Viraat
  3. INS Vagir
  4. INS Vikramaditya
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2, 4 
  • c)
    1, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
India’s first aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant (British-built). Its replacement, INS Viraat (British-built).
INS Vikramaditya (Russian-built) is a medium-sized STOBAR-type aircraft carrier, capable of both fleet air defence and land attack, carrying up to 30 aircraft and helicopters.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A process patentensures that the rights to the final product is protected and anyone other than the patent holder is restrained from manufacturing it.
  2. At present, India has product patents regime across the pharma, chemicals, and biotech sectors.
  3. India became a party to the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement following its membership to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
India became a Party to the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement following its membership to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995. This agreement laid down certain standards for intellectual property protection, including patents, copyrights, and trademarks, that member countries must adhere to. The TRIPS Agreement aims to promote and protect intellectual property rights, which are crucial for fostering innovation and economic development.

Process Patents:
- A process patent is a type of patent that protects a specific method or process of manufacturing a product. It ensures that the rights to the final product are protected and that anyone other than the patent holder is restrained from manufacturing it. In other words, it grants the patent holder exclusive rights to use the patented process to produce the product.
- Process patents are particularly important in industries such as pharmaceuticals, chemicals, and biotechnology, where the manufacturing process itself may be critical to the final product. By granting process patents, countries can incentivize innovation and ensure that inventors are rewarded for their contributions.

Product Patents in India:
- Prior to the TRIPS Agreement, India had a system of only granting process patents in the pharmaceutical, chemical, and biotech sectors. This allowed Indian companies to legally manufacture generic versions of patented products by using alternative processes. This system was in line with India's efforts to ensure access to affordable medicines for its population.
- However, with its accession to the TRIPS Agreement in 1995, India was required to introduce product patents in these sectors. This meant that patent protection would extend to the final product itself, rather than just the process of manufacturing it.
- The introduction of product patents in India led to significant changes in the pharmaceutical industry. It allowed multinational pharmaceutical companies to protect their patented products in the Indian market, which had previously been a major source of generic drugs. This change sparked debates and concerns about access to affordable medicines and the impact on the Indian pharmaceutical industry.

Correct Statements:
- Statement 2: At present, India has a product patents regime across the pharma, chemicals, and biotech sectors. This is true as a result of India's compliance with the TRIPS Agreement.
- Statement 3: India became a party to the TRIPS Agreement following its membership to the WTO in 1995. This is also true and is a significant milestone in India's intellectual property rights framework.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 2 and 3.

Consider the following statements regarding Tarballs.
  1. Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.
  2. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.
  3. Usually Tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Mehta answered
Tarballs

Statement 1: Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that are found on the ocean surface.

This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not necessarily dark-colored. They can vary in color depending on the type and age of the oil they are formed from. While some tarballs may appear dark, others can be lighter in color.

Statement 2: Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.

This statement is correct. Tarballs are formed through the weathering process of crude oil in marine environments. When crude oil is spilled or leaked into the ocean, it undergoes various physical and chemical processes such as evaporation, oxidation, and emulsification. These processes break down the oil into smaller droplets, which can then aggregate and form tarballs.

Statement 3: Usually, tarballs are washed away from the beaches during monsoon.

This statement is incorrect. Tarballs are not typically washed away from beaches during the monsoon season. Instead, they can be deposited on beaches and shorelines as a result of ocean currents and wave action. Tarballs may accumulate along the high tide line or get buried in the sand, posing a threat to marine life and ecosystems.

Conclusion:

From the analysis of the statements, it can be concluded that only Statement 2 is correct. Tarballs are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments.

Recently the Uttarakhand Assembly passed a Bill to provide 30 per cent horizontal reservation to local women in state government services. Consider the following statements in this context.
  1. A vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
  2. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
  3. Horizontal reservation refer to reservations for the beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Aniket Nair answered
The correct answer is option 'D' i.e., 1, 2, 3.

Explanation:
1. Vertical Reservation: Vertical reservation refers to the reservations provided for specific groups specified under the law. These groups include Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC). It means that a certain percentage of seats or positions are reserved separately for each of these groups. This is done to ensure representation and opportunities for historically disadvantaged and marginalized sections of society.

2. Horizontal Reservation: Horizontal reservation refers to reservations provided for beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities. Unlike vertical reservation, horizontal reservation cuts across the vertical categories and applies to all of them. It means that a certain percentage of seats or positions are reserved for these categories irrespective of their caste or social background.

3. Uttarakhand Assembly's Bill: The Uttarakhand Assembly recently passed a bill to provide 30% horizontal reservation to local women in state government services. This means that 30% of the seats or positions in state government services will be reserved specifically for local women. This move aims to provide better representation and opportunities for women in government jobs in Uttarakhand.

In conclusion, the correct statements are:
- Vertical reservation applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
- Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.
- Horizontal reservation refers to reservations for beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

Semi-automated offside technology, recently seen in news is mainly used in 
  • a)
    Cricket 
  • b)
    Chess 
  • c)
    Football 
  • d)
    Tennis
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Alok Shah answered
Semi-automated offside technology in Football

Football has seen several advancements in technology in recent years, and one such innovation is the semi-automated offside technology. This technology has gained attention and has been widely discussed in the news, especially in relation to its use in football.

Explanation:
The semi-automated offside technology in football is primarily used to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions during a match. Offside is a crucial rule in football that determines whether a player is in an offside position when the ball is passed to them. If a player is offside, it can lead to a free-kick or penalty for the opposing team.

How does semi-automated offside technology work?
Semi-automated offside technology involves the use of video technology and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. Here's how it works:

1. Camera System: Multiple high-definition cameras are strategically placed around the football field to capture different angles and perspectives of the game.

2. Video Analysis Software: The footage from these cameras is then analyzed by sophisticated video analysis software. This software can track the movement of players and the ball in real-time.

3. Offside Line: The software uses computer algorithms to draw a virtual offside line across the field. This line represents the position of the second-to-last defender when the ball is played.

4. Offside Decision: When a potential offside situation occurs, the software analyzes the video footage and determines whether a player is in an offside position at the moment the ball is played. It compares the position of the attacker with the virtual offside line.

5. Assisting the Referee: The semi-automated offside technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the position of the player in question. This information is displayed to the referee on a monitor or through an earpiece.

6. Referee's Decision: The final decision regarding the offside is still made by the referee. However, the semi-automated offside technology assists the referee in making a more informed and accurate decision.

Benefits of semi-automated offside technology:
- Accuracy: The use of video technology and computer algorithms significantly reduces the margin of error in offside decisions, ensuring greater accuracy in determining whether a player is offside or not.
- Speed: The semi-automated offside technology provides real-time information to the referee, allowing for quicker decision-making and minimizing disruptions to the flow of the game.
- Transparency: The technology provides a visual representation of the offside line and the player's position, making it easier for both players and spectators to understand and accept the referee's decision.
- Minimizes controversies: Offside decisions have often been a subject of controversy in football. The use of semi-automated offside technology helps in reducing disputes and arguments related to offside calls.

In conclusion, the semi-automated offside technology is primarily used in football to assist referees in making accurate offside decisions. It utilizes video analysis software and computer algorithms to determine whether a player is in an offside position. While the

Consider the following statements regarding Golden rice.
  1. Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta carotene content.
  2. It can help in the fight against Vitamin C deficiency.
  3. India became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to include genes that increase the beta carotene content.
  • Golden Rice can help in the fight against vitamin A deficiency (VAD), particularly among the people who depend mostly on rice for nourishment.
  • Philippines became the first country in the world to approve commercial production of genetically modified golden rice.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY).
  1. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
  2. It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.
  3. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2014 to improve the quality of life of people living in tribal areas. Let's discuss the given statements one by one:

Statement 1: Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified version of Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).

This statement is correct. PMAAGY is the modified version of the Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS), which was launched in 1974-75. The objective of SCA to TSS was to provide financial assistance to Scheduled Tribe families living below the poverty line to improve their living standards. PMAAGY aims to improve the overall development of villages with a substantial tribal population, including education, health, and basic infrastructure.

Statement 2: It aims at providing basic infrastructure in villages with significant tribal population in convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component.

This statement is also correct. PMAAGY aims to provide basic infrastructure such as roads, drinking water facilities, sanitation, electrification, etc., in villages with a substantial tribal population. The scheme intends to converge the funds available under different schemes in the Central Scheduled Tribe Component to ensure that the benefits of the scheme reach the targeted beneficiaries.

Statement 3: It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

This statement is also correct. The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY). The Ministry works in coordination with other ministries and departments to ensure the effective implementation of the scheme.

Therefore, all the given statements are correct, and the correct answer is option (D) 1, 2, 3.

The Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary that was recently seen in news is located in 
  • a)
    Andhra Pradesh 
  • b)
    Himachal Pradesh 
  • c)
    Rajasthan 
  • d)
    Sikkim
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajeev Datta answered
The correct answer is option 'C) Rajasthan'.

The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan. It is a wildlife sanctuary that is specifically dedicated to the conservation and protection of the blackbuck, a critically endangered species.

Here are some key details about the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary:

1. Location: The sanctuary is situated in the Churu district of Rajasthan, which is in the northwestern part of India. It is approximately 210 kilometers from Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan.

2. Area and Landscape: The sanctuary covers an area of about 7.19 square kilometers. It is characterized by a semi-arid landscape with flat grasslands, sand dunes, and scattered shrubs.

3. Blackbuck Population: The sanctuary is known for its significant population of blackbucks, which are medium-sized antelopes. The blackbuck is considered as one of the fastest running animals and known for its beautiful spiraling horns. Tal Chhapar has a high density of blackbucks, making it an important habitat for their conservation.

4. Other Fauna: Apart from blackbucks, the sanctuary is also home to various other wildlife species. These include Indian gazelles, desert foxes, desert cats, jackals, and a variety of bird species.

5. Avian Diversity: Tal Chhapar is a haven for birdwatchers as it attracts a wide range of avian species. It is particularly known for its resident and migratory bird populations. Some of the commonly sighted birds include harriers, eagles, kestrels, sandgrouse, larks, and coursers.

6. Vegetation: The sanctuary has a unique ecosystem with vegetation dominated by grasses, shrubs, and thorny trees. The landscape is adapted to the arid climatic conditions of the region.

7. Conservation Efforts: The Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary is managed by the Rajasthan Forest Department. Various conservation measures are undertaken to protect the blackbucks and their habitat. These include anti-poaching patrols, habitat management, and raising awareness among local communities.

Overall, the Tal Chhapar Blackbuck Sanctuary in Rajasthan plays a crucial role in the conservation of blackbucks and the preservation of the unique ecosystem of the region.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
  2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
  3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshika Basak answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.

Explanation:
The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world. On the other hand, the Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America, but rather in Russia. Mount Elbrus, on the other hand, is indeed the highest peak in Russia.

Let's break down each statement:

1. The Vasyugan Swamp is the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere as well as the largest peatland in the world.
- This statement is true. The Vasyugan Swamp is located in western Siberia, Russia, and it is known for being the largest swamp in the northern hemisphere. It covers an area of about 53,000 square kilometers and is also the largest peatland in the world.

2. Vasyugan Swamp is located in North America.
- This statement is false. The Vasyugan Swamp is not located in North America but rather in Russia. It is situated in the western Siberian Plain, which is part of the Asian continent.

3. Mount Elbrus is the highest peak in Russia.
- This statement is true. Mount Elbrus is located in the Caucasus Mountains, which stretch between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. It is the highest peak in Russia, standing at an elevation of 5,642 meters (18,510 feet) above sea level.

In conclusion, based on the given statements, statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 3.

The India Development Report, was recently released by 
  • a)
    NITI Ayog 
  • b)
    Reserve Bank of India 
  • c)
    World Bank 
  • d)
    International Monetary Fund
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The World Bank in its latest India Development Report titled ‘Navigating the Storm’ lifted its growth forecast for India’s economy this year to 6.9%, after having downgraded it to 6.5% in October, citing resilience in economic activity despite a deteriorating external environment.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Article 246A states that, the Parliament and the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).
  2. Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Iyer answered
Explanation:

The given statements are related to the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislatures with respect to the goods and services tax (GST) in India. Let's analyze each statement individually.

Statement 1: Article 246A states that the Parliament and the Legislature of every State have the power to make laws with respect to the goods and services tax (GST).

This statement is correct. Article 246A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. It confers concurrent powers on both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on the subject of GST. This means that both the central and state governments have the authority to legislate on GST matters.

Statement 2: Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is in the legislative domain of the Union government.

This statement is incorrect. The Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. IGST is a component of the GST that deals with the taxation of inter-state supplies of goods and services. It is governed by the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, which was enacted by the Parliament. However, the State Legislatures also have the power to make laws on IGST, as per Article 246A.

Therefore, both statements are correct and the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Summary:
- Article 246A grants concurrent powers to the Parliament and the State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
- Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is not exclusively in the legislative domain of the Union government. Both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws on IGST.

Consider the following statements regarding Bomb cyclone.
  1. Bomb cyclones form when air near Earth’s surface rises quickly in the atmosphere, triggering a sudden drop in barometric pressure.
  2. Bomb cyclones arise in mid-latitudes, where fronts of warm and cold air might collide.
  3. All bomb cyclones are hurricanes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Debolina Nair answered
's surface rapidly intensifies and creates a strong low-pressure system. This rapid intensification can happen when cold air from the Arctic meets warm air from the Gulf Stream.

1. Bomb cyclones are typically associated with winter storms and can bring heavy snowfall and strong winds.
2. The term "bomb cyclone" was coined by meteorologists and is not a commonly used term among the general public.
3. Bomb cyclones can cause coastal flooding due to the combination of strong winds and high tides.
4. Bomb cyclones are more common in certain regions, such as the northeastern United States and northern Europe.
5. Bomb cyclones can have significant impacts on transportation and infrastructure, as they often disrupt air travel and cause power outages.
6. Bomb cyclones are relatively rare events and typically occur only a few times a year.

Which of the statements are true?

Consider the following statements.
  1. According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject.
  2. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mentions about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes.
  3. More than 10 states in India has total prohibition of sale of alcohol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shounak Desai answered
1. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India:
- According to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, alcohol is a Concurrent subject. This means that both the central government and state governments have the power to make laws regarding alcohol.
- The central government can enact laws related to the production, supply, and distribution of alcohol, while the state governments can regulate the sale and consumption of alcohol within their respective states.

2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mention about the prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes. These principles are guidelines for the state to promote the welfare of the people.
- While the DPSP is not enforceable by the courts, it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

3. Prohibition of sale of alcohol in states:
- More than 10 states in India have total prohibition of the sale of alcohol. These states have enacted laws to ban the sale and consumption of alcohol within their borders.
- States like Gujarat, Bihar, and Nagaland have implemented total prohibition, while other states have partial prohibition or restrictions on the sale of alcohol.
Therefore, the correct statement among the given options is "2 only".

Consider the following statements.
  1. As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council shall, unanimously or through a majority of 75% of weighted votes, decide on all matters pertaining to GST and recommend such decisions to the Union and State governments.
  2. The recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on either the Union or the States Governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priyanka Mehta answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
1. The first statement is correct. As a mark of cooperative federalism, the GST Council has been constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution. The Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (as the Chairperson), the Union Minister of State for Finance, and the Finance Ministers of all the States and Union territories with legislatures. The Council is responsible for making decisions on all matters related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). These decisions are taken either unanimously or through a 75% majority of weighted votes. This provision ensures that both the Union and State governments have a say in the decision-making process, promoting cooperative federalism.

2. The second statement is incorrect. The recommendations of the GST Council are binding on both the Union and State governments. Once the Council decides on a matter related to GST, it recommends its decision to the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations are then discussed by the Union and State governments, and a final decision is taken accordingly. The decisions of the GST Council are considered as law and are binding on all the stakeholders involved.

In summary, the GST Council plays a crucial role in the decision-making process related to GST. Its decisions are made through a cooperative federalism approach, ensuring the participation of both the Union and State governments. The Council's recommendations carry significant weight and are binding on all the stakeholders. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST).
  2. To give effect to GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended.
  3. The recommendations of Goods and Services Tax Council are binding on any legislative body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

To understand the correctness of the given statements, let us analyze each statement individually:

1) Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST):
This statement is correct. The power to legislate on GST is concurrent, which means that both the Parliament and the State legislatures have the authority to make laws on GST. However, in case of any inconsistency between a law made by the Parliament and a law made by a State legislature, the law made by the Parliament will prevail.

2) To give effect to the GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended:
This statement is correct. The implementation of GST required changes in the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States. The Constitution of India has three lists: the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list. The Union list consists of subjects on which only the Parliament can make laws, the State list consists of subjects on which only the State legislatures can make laws, and the Concurrent list consists of subjects on which both the Parliament and the State legislatures can make laws. To give effect to the GST regime, certain entries in the State list were either deleted or amended, allowing the Parliament to legislate on GST.

3) The recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax Council are binding on any legislative body:
This statement is incorrect. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is a constitutional body consisting of the Union Finance Minister, the Minister of State for Finance, and the Finance Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures. It is responsible for making recommendations on various aspects of GST, including rates, exemption thresholds, and model GST laws. While the recommendations of the GST Council carry great weight and are usually accepted by the legislative bodies, they are not binding. The final decision on any matter related to GST lies with the respective legislative bodies, i.e., the Parliament and the State legislatures.

In conclusion, the correct statements are:
- Both Parliament and the State legislatures enjoy equal power to legislate on Goods and Services Tax (GST).
- To give effect to the GST regime, entries in the State list of Schedule VII of the Constitution were either deleted or amended.

Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
  1. Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
  2. The maximum permissible investment limit will be 10 kg of gold for individual.
  3. Both resident and non-resident Indian entities can invest in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.
Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence on gold imports.
It was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.
Key facts:
  • Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
  • Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8 years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
  • Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by the government from time to time.
  • Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied to the first applicant only.
  • Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank from time to time.

Consider the following statements regarding Elections in India.
  1. Absentee voters are those who are unable to physically cast their vote due to their service conditions.
  2. There is a facility for absentee voters to vote through postal ballots.
  3. The Returning Officer is appointed by the Election Commission of India and is the highest authority in the constituency.
  4. Generally, the District Magistrate is the ex-officio Returning Officer in Lok Sabha elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
There is also a facility for absentee voters to vote through PBs. These voters are those who are unable to physically cast their vote due to their service conditions. For instance, railway employees who are posted outside their home state are counted as absentee voters.
The Returning Officer:
  • The RO is appointed for each constituency by the Election Commission. During the duration of the election, the RO is the highest authority in the constituency having a wide range of powers in order to peacefully and impartially conduct elections.
  • ROs themselves do not count all votes but verify the counting at multiple stages and announce the results. They are the final authority in the matter of vote counting in an election. To assist the RO, the EC also appoints Assistant Returning Officers (AROs) to assist the RO in carrying out all the duties.
  • Generally, the District Magistrate is the ex-officio RO in Lok Sabha elections while the Sub-Divisional Magistrate is the RO in state assembly elections.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be sensible and easy to apply.
  2. The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) seeks to achieve progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by adopting legislative measures.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
  • The doctrine of progressive realisation of rights mandates that the laws of a country should be in consonance with its modern ethos, it should be “sensible” and “easy to apply”.
  • In modern societies, this primitiveness necessitated the principle of non-retrogression, or the doctrine of progressive realisation of rights. Article 2(1) of International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) — India is a signatory — seeks to “achieving progressively the full realisation of the rights recognised in the Covenant by all appropriate means, including particularly the adoption of legislative measures”.

Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in 
  • a)
    Sikkim 
  • b)
    Ladakh 
  • c)
    Arunachal Pradesh 
  • d)
    Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Bose answered
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in Arunachal Pradesh.

Explanation:
The Yangtse region, which has recently been in the news, is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh is a northeastern state of India, bordered by Bhutan to the west, China to the north, and Myanmar to the east.

Importance of the Yangtse region:
The Yangtse region in Arunachal Pradesh is of strategic importance due to its proximity to the international border with China. The region is located in the eastern part of Arunachal Pradesh and is known for its rich biodiversity and natural beauty. It is home to several indigenous communities and is known for its cultural heritage.

Controversies and disputes:
The Yangtse region has been a subject of territorial disputes between India and China. China claims a large part of Arunachal Pradesh, including the Yangtse region, as part of its territory. The border issue between India and China in this region has been a longstanding dispute and has led to tensions between the two countries.

Strategic importance:
The Yangtse region holds strategic importance for both India and China. It is located near the McMahon Line, which is the de facto border between India and China in this region. The McMahon Line was drawn by the British colonial government in 1914 and is considered the legal boundary between the two countries by India.

Infrastructure development:
In recent years, India has been focusing on infrastructure development in the border regions, including the Yangtse region, to improve connectivity and strengthen its presence in the area. This includes the construction of roads, bridges, and other infrastructure projects.

Conclusion:
The Yangtse region, located in Arunachal Pradesh, holds strategic importance due to its proximity to the international border with China. The region has been a subject of territorial disputes between India and China, and efforts are being made by India to improve infrastructure in the area.

Consider the following statements regarding Hatti community.
  1. The Hattis got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat and wool at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns.
  2. They are declared as Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) from Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Menon answered
"hattis" in their local language.

1. The Hattis got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat, and wool at small markets called "hattis" in their local language.

2. The Hattis are known for their expertise in agriculture and animal husbandry.

3. The Hatti community primarily resides in rural areas and has a strong connection to their land.

4. Hattis are known for their close-knit community and strong social bonds.

5. The Hatti community has a rich cultural heritage, including traditional music and dance forms.

6. Hattis have faced challenges in recent years due to urbanization and modernization, leading to a decline in their traditional way of life.

7. The Hatti community has been actively working to preserve their cultural practices and traditions.

8. Hattis have a reputation for being hardworking and self-sufficient.

9. The Hatti community has a unique cuisine that incorporates locally grown ingredients.

10. Hattis have a deep respect for nature and practice sustainable farming methods.

Please note that these statements are hypothetical and may not reflect the actual characteristics of the Hatti community.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Recently the monkeypox has spread mainly in the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
  2. Monkeypox was named because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys.
  3.  Assigning names to new and existing diseases is the responsibility of World Health Organisation (WHO) under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 3 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
  • The World Health Organisation (WHO) announced that it would start using the term “mpox” for monkeypox, which has infected about 80,000 people in the first major outbreak of the viral disease outside Africa that began early this summer. The disease spread mainly in the Americas including the United States and Europe, primarily among men who have sex with men (MSM).
  • Monkeypox, which was named in 1970 because the virus that causes the disease was first discovered in captive monkeys in 1958, does not have much to do with monkeys. The most likely reservoir for the virus, which has circulated for several years in a few central African countries after jumping to humans through zoonosis in the bush, are rodents.
  • The WHO said that assigning names to new and, in some cases, existing diseases is the responsibility of the global body under the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) and the WHO Family of International Health Related Classifications through a consultative process which includes WHO Member States. In the case of monkeypox, the process was accelerated.
  • According to WHO best practices, “new disease names should be given with the aim to minimize unnecessary negative impact of names on trade, travel, tourism or animal welfare, and avoid causing offence to any cultural, social, national, regional, professional or ethnic groups”.

Consider the following statements regarding In-camera proceedings.
  1. In-camera proceedings are conducted as per the court’s discretion in sensitive matters to ensure protection and privacy of the parties involved.
  2. In the In-camera proceedings, to maintain the freedom of press, the press is allowed to report on the matter being heard, without the permission of the court.
  3. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) has detailed the types of cases that should be recorded on camera.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meghana Roy answered
Rules and regulations.

1) In-camera proceedings are confidential and not open to the public. Only the parties involved in the case, their legal representatives, and other authorized personnel are allowed to be present during the proceedings.

2) In-camera proceedings are often used in cases involving sensitive or private information, such as cases involving minors, sexual assault, or national security.

3) In-camera proceedings ensure the privacy and protection of the parties involved, as well as the integrity of the legal process.

4) In-camera proceedings can be requested by either party or ordered by the court if it deems it necessary for the fair administration of justice.

5) In-camera proceedings allow for a more relaxed and informal atmosphere compared to open court proceedings, which can help encourage witnesses to testify more freely.

6) In-camera proceedings may limit the media's access to information about the case, as they are not allowed to report on the proceedings unless authorized by the court.

7) In-camera proceedings are subject to certain limitations and restrictions to prevent abuse and maintain transparency in the judicial system.

8) In-camera proceedings are governed by specific rules and guidelines set by the court, ensuring that the proceedings are conducted fairly and in accordance with the law.

Overall, in-camera proceedings are a crucial aspect of the legal system that allows for the protection of sensitive information and the privacy of the parties involved in certain cases.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Indian Constitution can be described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’.
  2. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede from the federation.
  3. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in Article 1 of the Constitution, where it describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 3 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    2, 3 
  • d)
    2 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arya Chauhan answered
1. Federal: The Indian Constitution is often described as federal in nature because it establishes a division of powers between the central government and the state governments. It grants certain powers to the central government while reserving other powers for the states.

2. Unitary: The Indian Constitution can also be described as unitary in nature because it gives more powers to the central government than to the state governments. The central government has the power to override state laws in certain circumstances and can also take control of state administration in case of emergencies.

3. Quasi-federal: Some scholars argue that the Indian Constitution is neither purely federal nor purely unitary but rather a combination of both. It has federal features such as division of powers and independent judiciary, but also unitary features such as strong central authority and the ability to amend the Constitution without state consent.

4. Flexible: The Indian Constitution is often considered flexible because it can be amended relatively easily. It requires a special majority in Parliament to amend most parts of the Constitution, but certain provisions can be amended by a simple majority.

5. Lengthy: The Indian Constitution is one of the longest written constitutions in the world, with 448 articles and 12 schedules. It covers a wide range of topics and provides detailed provisions on various aspects of governance.

6. Democratic: The Indian Constitution establishes a democratic system of government, with a representative form of democracy. It guarantees fundamental rights to its citizens and provides for regular elections, separation of powers, and an independent judiciary.

Overall, the Indian Constitution can be described as federal, unitary, or quasi-federal, depending on the interpretation. It is also considered flexible, lengthy, and democratic.

Which of the following taxes are considered as Direct taxes?
  1. Personal Income Tax
  2. Minimum Alternate Tax
  3. Corporation Tax
  4. Securities Transaction Tax
  5. Value-added tax
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 3, 4, 5 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3, 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3, 5 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
Direct taxes refer to the taxes that are levied directly on individuals or organizations and cannot be transferred to someone else. In the given options, the following taxes are considered as direct taxes:

1. Personal Income Tax: Personal income tax is levied directly on the income earned by individuals. It is based on their income slab and rates specified by the government.

2. Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Minimum Alternate Tax is a direct tax levied on companies that are enjoying tax benefits or exemptions. It is calculated on their book profits if they are lower than the taxable income.

3. Corporation Tax: Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the income of companies and other corporate entities. It is levied on the profits earned by these entities during a financial year.

4. Securities Transaction Tax (STT): Securities Transaction Tax is a direct tax levied on the purchase or sale of securities such as stocks, mutual funds, bonds, and derivatives. It aims to collect tax from the transaction itself rather than from the income generated from the transaction.

Value-added tax (VAT) is not considered a direct tax. It is an indirect tax levied on the value added at each stage of production and distribution of goods and services. VAT is ultimately borne by the end consumer and can be passed on from one party to another.

Based on the above explanations, the correct answer is option 'B' - 1, 2, 3, 4.

Consider the following statements.
  1. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
  2. RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) controls Money supply in the market.
  3. Inflation is indicative of the increase in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    1, 2 
  • c)
    1, 3 
  • d)
    2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepak Kapoor answered
Inflation:
  • Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc.
  • Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time.
  • The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’.
  • Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency.
  • RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Controls Money supply in the market.
  • Inflation is measured by a central government authority, which is in charge of adopting measures to ensure the smooth running of the economy. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
  • Inflation is primarily measured by two main indices — WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index), which measure wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively.

Chapter doubts & questions for December 2022 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly 2025 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.

Chapter doubts & questions of December 2022 - Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.

Signup to see your scores go up within 7 days!

Study with 1000+ FREE Docs, Videos & Tests
10M+ students study on EduRev