All questions of Biodiversity for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

Assertion (A): The number of green pages in the Red Data Book is relatively low.
Reason (R): Green pages indicate species that have moved out of the endangered category due to successful conservation efforts.
  • a)
    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • b)
    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • c)
    A is true, but R is false.
  • d)
    A is false, but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rush Wars answered
Reason R about green pages gives the basic definition about the Green Page. But this doesn’t provide a sufficient explanation or reason for Assertion A as R doesn’t explain or inform why there is poor effort in conservation of species which resulted in low number of green pages. So I think option B is correct!

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kyoto Protocol’: 
1.    It is legally binding for Annex I countries.
2.    It emerged from the deliberations of COP-3 to the UNFCCC. 
3.    The signatories have to reduce their individual Green House Gas emissions by 5.2% from 1990 level. 
 Which among the above Statement(s) is/are correct? 
  • a)
        Only 2 
  • b)
        1 and 2 
  • c)
        2 and 3 
  • d)
        1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anand Verma answered
Ans: b
Explanation: Kyoto Protocol of COP-3 to the UNFCCC is a legally binding agreement for Annex-I countries to reduce their collective Green House Gas emissions by 5.2% from 1990 level. The reduction obligation under Kyoto Protocol is additional to the CFCs and industrial gas emissions covered under the Montreal Protocol. 

The Red Panda has been classified as vulnerable by IUCN. It is endemic to
  • a)
        Eastern Himalayas
  • b)
        Western Himalayas
  • c)
        Nicobar Islands
  • d)
        Nilgiri Hills
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Pillai answered


Red Panda's Endemic Habitat

The Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is classified as vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) primarily due to habitat loss and fragmentation. This unique and adorable mammal is endemic to the Eastern Himalayas, spanning countries like Nepal, India, Bhutan, and China.

Importance of Eastern Himalayas

The Eastern Himalayas region is crucial for the survival of the Red Panda as it provides the ideal habitat for this species. The dense bamboo forests, temperate forests, and alpine meadows in this area offer the Red Panda ample food sources, shelter, and protection.

Threats to Red Panda's Habitat

Unfortunately, the Eastern Himalayas are facing significant threats such as deforestation, human encroachment, and climate change. These factors have led to habitat destruction and fragmentation, making it challenging for the Red Panda population to thrive.

Conservation Efforts

Conservation organizations and local communities in the Eastern Himalayas are working together to protect the Red Panda and its habitat. Initiatives such as reforestation, community-based conservation projects, and sustainable tourism practices are being implemented to ensure the long-term survival of this vulnerable species.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the Red Panda's classification as vulnerable by IUCN highlights the importance of preserving its endemic habitat in the Eastern Himalayas. By raising awareness, implementing conservation measures, and addressing the threats to its environment, we can help secure a future for this charismatic species in the wild.

Methane (CH4) is one of the six greenhouse gases under the Kyoto protocol. Which of the following is/are sources of methane?
  1. combustion of fossil fuels
  2. wetlands
  3. automobiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
        1 and 2 only
  • b)
        1 and 3 only
  • c)
        2 and 3 only
  • d)
        1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Amar Menon answered
Answer d
Explanation: All three are sources of methane. Natural gas and petroleum systems are one of the largest sources of CH4 emissions. Methane is the primary component of natural gas. Some CH4 is emitted to the atmosphere during the production, processing, storage, transmission, and distribution of natural gas. Methane emissions from passenger cars (automobiles) have however dropped, as the use of catalytic converters increased. Methane is generated in landfills as waste decomposes and in the treatment of wastewater. As one of the most significant natural sources of atmospheric methane, wetlands remain a major area of concern with respect to climate change.

 What is not true about the Vienna Convention?
  • a)
        It is for the Protection of the Endangered Wildlife.
  • b)
        It is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement. 
  • c)
        It was agreed upon at the Vienna Conference of 1985 and entered into force in 1988. 
  • d)
        It has been ratified by 196 as well as the European Union.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Patel answered
Introduction:
The Vienna Convention is a significant international treaty that addresses various aspects of international relations. While it covers several important topics, it is essential to clarify what is not true about the Vienna Convention.

Explanation:
The statement mentioned in option 'A' is not true about the Vienna Convention. Let's delve into the details to understand why.

1. Purpose of the Vienna Convention:
The Vienna Convention, also known as the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, was adopted on April 18, 1961, and entered into force on April 24, 1964. Its primary purpose is to govern diplomatic relations between states. It establishes the framework for diplomatic immunity and privileges, as well as the rights and obligations of diplomatic missions and their staff.

2. Multilateral Environmental Agreements (MEAs):
Option 'B' correctly states that the Vienna Convention is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement. However, it is important to note that the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations is distinct from other MEAs that focus on environmental protection, such as the Convention on Biological Diversity or the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

3. Vienna Conference and Entry into Force:
Option 'C' accurately states that the Vienna Convention was agreed upon at the Vienna Conference of 1961 and entered into force on April 24, 1964. However, the Vienna Conference took place in 1961, not in 1985.

4. Ratification:
Option 'D' correctly mentions that the Vienna Convention has been ratified by 196 states as well as the European Union. Ratification indicates a state's formal acceptance and commitment to abide by the provisions of the treaty.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the Vienna Convention is not for the protection of endangered wildlife, as mentioned in option 'A'. Instead, it primarily focuses on regulating diplomatic relations between states. The Vienna Convention is a significant multilateral treaty that governs the conduct of diplomats and ensures the smooth functioning of international diplomacy.

Which among the following is the most abundant Green-House-Gas(GHG) in the earth’s atmosphere? 
  • a)
    Carbon dioxide 
  • b)
    Water Vapour
  • c)
    Sulphur Dioxide
  • d)
     Tropospheric Ozone 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aashna Nambiar answered
Ans: b
Explanation: Water vapour also accounts for the largest percentage of the greenhouse effect, between 36% and 66% for clear sky conditions and between 66% and 85% when including clouds.

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include:
  1. National parks
  2. Wildlife sanctuaries
  3. Biosphere reserve
  4. Tiger reserves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
        1 and 2 only
  • b)
        1 and 3 only
  • c)
        2 and 3 only
  • d)
        1, 2 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Desai answered
Answer d
Explanation: Biosphere reserves are created by merely a notification and they DO NOT require legislation. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, tiger reserves, community reserves, conservation reserves are backed up by the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
 

Which of these pairs are correctly matched ?
1. Minamata convention : mercury
2. Stockholm convention : persistant organic pollutants
3. Basel convention : lead
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Verma answered
Ans: a
Explanation: The Basel Convention is for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. It was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
 

Arrange the following IUCN categories in the order of increasing risk of extinction:
  1. Vulnerable (VU)
  2. Endangered (EN)
  3. Near Threatened (NT)
  4. Critically Endangered (CR)
  • a)
    3, 1, 2, 4
  • b)
    3, 2, 1, 4
  • c)
    1, 3, 2, 4
  • d)
    4, 3, 2, 1
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nishanth Jain answered
Understanding IUCN Categories
The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) categorizes species based on their risk of extinction. The categories reflect the conservation status, enabling prioritization for conservation efforts.
Categories Explained
- Near Threatened (NT):
- Species that are close to qualifying for a threatened category in the near future.
- Relatively stable but at risk of becoming endangered.
- Vulnerable (VU):
- Species facing a high risk of extinction in the wild.
- Population decline or habitat loss may be evident.
- Endangered (EN):
- Species that are at very high risk of extinction in the wild.
- Significant population reduction or severe habitat fragmentation.
- Critically Endangered (CR):
- Species that are facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
- Often with very small populations or severe threats.
Order of Increasing Risk
The correct order from least to most risk of extinction is:
3) Near Threatened (NT)
1) Vulnerable (VU)
2) Endangered (EN)
4) Critically Endangered (CR)
This order makes sense because:
- NT species are under less immediate threat compared to VU.
- VU species have higher risk but are not as precarious as EN species.
- EN species are more critical and face greater risks than CR species, which are on the brink of extinction.
Conclusion
Thus, the answer is option 'A' (3, 1, 2, 4), reflecting the increasing risk of extinction from least to most. Understanding these categories is essential for effective conservation strategies.

What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates?
  • a)
        High level of Microbial Pollution 
  • b)
        Low level of Microbial Pollution 
  • c)
        Absence of Microbial Pollution
  • d)
        Water is fully pure
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Swati Das answered
Ans: a
Explanation: Oxygen is demanded for decomposition related activities under the water. Increase in waste and pollution enhances the decomposition activities and thereby reduces the availability of oxygen for other organic activities under the water body.
 

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Worms are decomposers.
  2. Detritivores are scavenger organisms that feed off of other dead organisms and their waste.
Choose from the codes below:
  • a)
        Only 1
  • b)
        Only 2
  • c)
        Both 1 & 2
  • d)
        None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: c
Explanation: Decomposers are scavenger organisms that feeds on or breaks down dead plants or animal matter. Examples: Worms, maggots, fungi, bacteria, etc.
Detritivores: Detritivores are scavenger organisms that feed off of other dead organisms and their waste. Examples: Snails, slugs, termites, earthworms, etc

Which among the following chronic lung disease commonly known as ‘black lung’ disease,leads to reduced life expectancy in coal-miners? 
  • a)
        Pneumoconiosis
  • b)
        Progressive Massive Fibrosis 
  • c)
        Mesothelioma
  • d)
        Collier’s Asthma
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Pneumoconiosis

Pneumoconiosis is a chronic lung disease commonly known as black lung disease. It is caused by inhalation of coal dust over an extended period, leading to inflammation, fibrosis, and ultimately scarring of the lungs. This condition is particularly prevalent among coal miners due to their constant exposure to coal dust in the mining environment.

Effects on Life Expectancy

Pneumoconiosis can significantly reduce the life expectancy of coal miners. The gradual build-up of coal dust in the lungs can lead to respiratory symptoms such as coughing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Over time, the scarring of lung tissue can impair lung function, making it increasingly difficult for affected individuals to breathe properly.

Diagnosis and Treatment

Diagnosing pneumoconiosis typically involves a physical examination, lung function tests, chest X-rays, and CT scans to assess the extent of lung damage. Unfortunately, there is no cure for this condition, and treatment mainly focuses on managing symptoms and preventing further exposure to coal dust. In severe cases, lung transplantation may be considered as a treatment option.

Prevention

Preventing pneumoconiosis involves implementing strict safety measures in coal mines to reduce coal dust exposure. This includes using personal protective equipment, proper ventilation systems, and regular health screenings for coal miners to monitor their lung health. By prioritizing prevention strategies, the incidence of pneumoconiosis can be minimized, ultimately improving the overall health and life expectancy of coal miners.

Consider the following statements
1. The International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) is a multilateral treaty to protect plant resources from deforestation arising out of industrialization and urbanization. 
2. The treaty is overseen by International Union for Conservation of Nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are are correct?
  • a)
        1 only
  • b)
        2 only
  • c)
        1 and 2
  • d)
        Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: d
Explanation: The International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) is a multilateral treaty for international cooperation and aims to protect plant resources from harmful pests which may be introduced through international trade. The Convention created a governing body consisting of each party, known as the Commission on Phytosanitary Measures, which oversees the implementation of the Convention.

Which one of the following is the objective of social forestry which is started by Indian Government?
  • a)
        To increase green coverage
  • b)
        To create more employment opportunities
  • c)
        To reduce urbanisation in rural areas
  • d)
        To produce raw material for rayon and match factories
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kiran Mehta answered
The correct answer is option A, to increase green coverage.
Social forestry is a program started by the Indian Government to increase green coverage in urban and rural areas. This is achieved through the planting of trees on public land, along roads, and in forests. The objective of social forestry is to increase the green cover of the country, which can provide numerous benefits such as improving air and water quality, providing shade and habitat for wildlife, and reducing the impact of natural disasters such as floods and droughts.
Option B, to create more employment opportunities, is not the main objective of social forestry. While social forestry may create some employment opportunities, its primary focus is on increasing green coverage.
Option C, to reduce urbanisation in rural areas, is not an objective of social forestry. Urbanisation is the process of people moving from rural to urban areas, and is typically driven by factors such as economic opportunities and access to services. Social forestry is not directly aimed at reducing urbanisation.
Option D, to produce raw material for rayon and match factories, is not an objective of social forestry. Social forestry focuses on increasing green coverage and providing environmental benefits, rather than on providing raw materials for industries.

What does a taxon labeled as 'Data Deficient' in the IUCN Red List indicate?
  • a)
    The species is extinct.
  • b)
    There is insufficient information to assess its risk of extinction.
  • c)
    The species is abundant and widespread.
  • d)
    The species is not a priority for conservation.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Joshi answered
Understanding Data Deficient in the IUCN Red List
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species provides a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of various species. A taxon labeled as "Data Deficient" signifies a specific condition regarding the availability of information about that species.
What Data Deficient Means
- Insufficient Information: The term "Data Deficient" indicates that there is not enough data available to accurately assess the species' risk of extinction. This could be due to a lack of recent surveys, limited research, or difficulty in studying the species in its natural habitat.
- Not Extinct: Importantly, a "Data Deficient" classification does not imply that the species is extinct (which would be classified as "Extinct" in the Red List). It simply means we don't have enough information to determine its status.
Implications of Data Deficient Status
- Conservation Priority: Species listed as Data Deficient may still require conservation efforts, especially if they are suspected to be threatened. However, without adequate data, prioritizing these species can be challenging.
- Need for Research: The classification highlights the need for further research to gather more information about the species' population size, distribution, habitat requirements, and threats it may face.
Conclusion
In summary, a taxon labeled as Data Deficient signifies that there is insufficient information to assess its risk of extinction. This status underscores the importance of ongoing research and monitoring to inform conservation strategies effectively.

Which of following can be used for controlling Gaseous Pollutant?
  • a)
        Arrestor
  • b)
        Incineration 
  • c)
        Absorption 
  • d)
        None of above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Chawla answered
Ans: c
Explanation: Absorption technique is used for controlling Gaseous pollutant. These pollutants are brought into contact with liquid such as water. It may either become solvent or capture it through the chemical reaction. 
 

In context of environment, the term “dirty dozen” refers to
  • a)
    12 most harmful greenhouse gases
  • b)
    12 ozone depleting substances
  • c)
    12 persistent organic pollutants
  • d)
    none of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: c
Explanation: These were the 12 initial compounds that were listed under the Stockholm convention. UPSC might not go into their details, so just remember what the dirty dozen are related to.
 

What is true about the Nagoya Protocol?
  • a)
        Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
  • b)
        It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD.
  • c)
        Both a and b.
  • d)
        None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divyansh Ghosh answered
Answer c
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.

The Great Indian Bustard is a critically endangered species. Its population has been declining due to
1. habitat loss
2. frequent poaching
3. construction of windmills
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Answer: d
Explanation: The GIBs have been vanishing over the years due to shrinking habitat. Thar Desert is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to GIBs. While changing lifestyle in the desert, and unregulated human activities have endangered the species, thousands of windmills around the park are posing a serious threat to the GIB which has been categorized as “critically endangered”.

Which of the following two criteria have to be met in order to qualify as a ‘biodiversity hotspot’ on the world hotspots map?
  1. The region must contain at least 0.5 percent or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemic species.
  2. The region has to have lost at least 70 percent of its primary vegetation.
Choose the correct option:
  • a)
        Only 1
  • b)
        Only 2 
  • c)
        Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
        Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: c
Explanation: A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was originated by Norman Myers in two articles in “The Environmentalist”. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.

Which of following statement is incorrect about the Biosphere?
  • a)
        Biosphere is combination of lithosphere, hydrosphere and Atmosphere
  • b)
        Biosphere is missing at extreme of north and south pole 
  • c)
        Organisms are uniformly present in Biosphere 
  • d)
        All of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sravya Bose answered
Ans: c
Explanation: Biosphere is combination of lithosphere, hydrosphere and Atmosphere. Biosphere is not found everywhere some areas do not support the conditions required for Biosphere. Hence Organisms are not uniformly distributed throughout the world. 

Methane (CH4) is one of the six greenhouse gases under the Kyoto protocol. Which of the following is/are sources of methane?
1. Combustion of fossil fuels
2. Wetlands
3. Automobiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Saranya Dey answered
Sources of Methane:
Wetlands:
- Wetlands are a significant natural source of methane emissions.
- Methane is produced in wetlands through a process called anaerobic decomposition, where organic matter decomposes in the absence of oxygen.
Combustion of Fossil Fuels:
- Combustion of fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas releases methane into the atmosphere.
- Methane is a byproduct of incomplete combustion and can escape into the atmosphere during extraction, processing, and transportation of fossil fuels.
Automobiles:
- While automobiles do not directly emit methane, they contribute to the formation of methane through the incomplete combustion of fuel.
- Exhaust gases from automobiles contain various pollutants that can react in the atmosphere to form methane.

Conclusion:
- All three sources mentioned in the question are contributors to methane emissions, with wetlands being a natural source, combustion of fossil fuels being a human-induced source, and automobiles indirectly contributing to methane formation.
- It is crucial to address all these sources to effectively reduce methane emissions and mitigate its impact on climate change.

A biofertilizer helps in increasing the supply of primary nutrients to plants. Which of the following is/are examples of biofertilizers?
1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Azospirillium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Roy answered
Ans: d
Explanation: Rhizobium is used for leguminous crops. Azotobacter can be used with crops like wheat, maize, mustard, cotton, potato and other vegetable crops. Azospirillum inoculations are recommended mainly for sorghum, millets, maize, sugarcane and wheat. Bio-fertilizers add nutrients through the natural processes of nitrogen fixation, solubilizing phosphorus, and stimulating plant growth through the synthesis of growth-promoting substances.

Which of the following statements about Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is incorrect?
  • a)
        Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organization.
  • b)
        It comes under the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF).
  • c)
        It Co-ordinate the activities of the State Boards by providing technical assistance.
  • d)
        The board is led by its chairman, who must be a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: d
Explanation: Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF). It Co-ordinate the activities of the State Boards by providing technical assistance and guidance and resolve disputes among them. There is no such requirement for the chairman of CPCB to be a retired judge of the Supreme Court.

In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
1.    To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2.    To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
3.    To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
4.    To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Purpose of Statutory Reserve Requirements in Indian Economy

Statutory Reserve Requirements (SRR) is a monetary policy tool used by the Central Bank of a country to regulate the economy. In the context of Indian economy, the purposes of SRR are:

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create: SRR is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control the money supply in the economy. By setting a certain percentage of deposits that banks need to maintain with RBI as reserves, RBI can control the amount of credit that banks can create. This helps in controlling inflation and maintaining price stability in the economy.

2. To make the peoples deposits with banks safe and liquid: SRR ensures that banks maintain a certain percentage of deposits as reserves with RBI. This ensures that banks have enough cash to meet the withdrawal demands of their customers. This helps in maintaining the confidence of the public in the banking system and makes their deposits safe and liquid.

3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits: SRR reduces the amount of funds available with banks for lending. This, in turn, reduces the profitability of banks as they cannot lend out as much as they would like to. This helps in preventing commercial banks from making excessive profits at the cost of the general public.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B - 1 and 2 only.

What is the meaning of coral bleaching?
  • a)
        Paling of coral color or decline in zooxanthellae due to climate change 
  • b)
        Impacts of excessive sea  trade on fishing industry
  • c)
        Both a and b
  • d)
        None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: a
Explanation: Coral Bleaching is being caused by the climate change. Increase in surface temperature of ocean due to climate change is increasing the decline of zooxanthellae. Zooxanthellae is responsible for photosynthesis. 
 

Consider the following animals found in India
1. Namdapha flying squirrel
2. Pygmy hog
3. Nicobar White-tailed Shrew
Which of the animals given above is/are critically endangered?
  • a)
        1 and 2
  • b)
        2 and 3
  • c)
        3 and 4
  • d)
        1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Datta answered
Answer:

Introduction:
India is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous species of animals. However, due to various factors such as habitat loss, poaching, and climate change, many of these animals are facing the threat of extinction. The question asks us to identify which of the given animals are critically endangered.

Explanation:
In order to determine the critically endangered animals among the given options, let's take a closer look at each of them:

1. Namdapha flying squirrel:
The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi) is a rare species of flying squirrel found in the Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh, India. It was discovered in 1981 and is known for its unique gliding ability. This species is indeed critically endangered due to deforestation and habitat loss caused by logging and encroachment.

2. Pygmy hog:
The pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is the world's smallest and rarest wild pig. It is found in the tall grasslands and dense thickets of the Manas National Park and the surrounding areas in Assam, India. This species is critically endangered due to habitat loss, degradation, and fragmentation caused by agricultural activities and human settlements.

3. Nicobar White-tailed Shrew:
The Nicobar white-tailed shrew (Crocidura nicobarica) is an endemic species found on the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, India. It is a small mammal belonging to the shrew family. Unfortunately, there is limited information available about its population status and conservation status. However, considering that it is endemic to a small island and faces threats from habitat loss and degradation, it is highly likely that this species is critically endangered.

Conclusion:
Based on the information provided, all three animals mentioned in the question - Namdapha flying squirrel, Pygmy hog, and Nicobar White-tailed Shrew - are critically endangered. Their populations are declining rapidly due to various human-induced factors. It is crucial to implement conservation measures and raise awareness to protect these species and preserve India's rich biodiversity.

The ‘Red Data Book’ is the documention of rare and endangered species of : 
1. Animals 
2. Plants 
3. Fungi 
  • a)
        Only 1 
  • b)
        1 and 2 
  • c)
        2 and 3 
  • d)
        1, 2 and 3 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?



Red Data Book: Documenting Rare and Endangered Species

Animals:
- The Red Data Book includes documentation on rare and endangered animal species. This can range from mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish, and invertebrates.
- It provides information on the current population status, distribution, habitat requirements, and threats faced by these species.

Plants:
- The Red Data Book also includes documentation on rare and endangered plant species. This can include flowering plants, trees, shrubs, ferns, and mosses.
- It provides information on the conservation status of these plants, including threats such as habitat loss, climate change, and invasive species.

Fungi:
- The Red Data Book extends its documentation to include rare and endangered fungi species. Fungi play a crucial role in ecosystems but are often overlooked in conservation efforts.
- Information on the distribution, population trends, and conservation status of these fungi species is included in the Red Data Book.

Conclusion:
- The Red Data Book serves as a comprehensive document that includes information on rare and endangered species of animals, plants, and fungi. By highlighting the conservation status of these species, it helps in guiding conservation efforts and policy-making to protect biodiversity.

Which one of the following was launched in 1973?
  • a)
        Project Tiger
  • b)
        Indian Forest Act
  • c)
        Project Elephant
  • d)
        Wildlife Protection Act
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Amar Menon answered
Answer a
Explanation: Project Tiger was launched in 1973. Indian Forest Act was introduced in 1927. Project Elephant started in 1992 and Wildlife Protection Act was introduced in 1972.
 

What percent of area in the plain should be under forest?
  • a)
        21 %
  • b)
        25%
  • c)
        17%
  • d)
        33%
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Verma answered
Ans: d
Explanation: National Forest Policy has recommended that for maintaining the ecological balance there should be 33 % area under the forest in plain areas. But present forest cover in Indian is around 21-22 %. 

What is not true about United Nations Conference On Sustainable Development?
  • a)
        Also known as Rio 2012, Rio+20 or “Earth Summit 2012”
  • b)
        Conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community.
  • c)
        Aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants.
  • d)
        Aims at securing renewed political commitment for sustainable development
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Desai answered
Answer d
Explanation: It is also known as Rio 2012, Rio+20 or “Earth Summit 2012” was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community. Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro from 13 to 22 June 2012, Rio+20 was a 20-year follow-up to the 1992 Earth Summit / United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in the same city, and the 10th anniversary of the 2002 World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) in Johannesburg.

 Which decade has been designated as the United Nations Decade on Biodiversity?
  • a)
        2011-2020
  • b)
        2021-2030
  • c)
        2001-2010
  • d)
        1991-2000
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kalyan Verma answered
Ans: a
Explanation: At the initiative of Japan, COP10 recommended to the United Nations General Assembly to declare 2011-2020 as the United Nations Decade on Biodiversity. The General Assembly declared the period 2011-2020 as United Nations Decade on Biodiversity to promote the implementation of a strategic plan on biodiversity and its overall vision of living in harmony with nature. Throughout the Decade, governments are encouraged to develop, implement and communicate the results of national strategies for implementation of the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity.
 

The ranking of countries as the highest per capita emitters of Carbon Dioxide in the world, takes into acount their annual CO2 emissions from :
1. Burning of fossil fuels
2. Cement Manufacture
3. Land Use such as deforestation
  • a)
        Only 1 
  • b)
        1 and 2 
  • c)
        1 and 3 
  • d)
        1, 2 and 3 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ans: b
Explanation: The data only considers carbon dioxide emissions from the burning of fossil fuels and cement manufacture, but not emissions from land use such as deforestation. In the list below the Countries have been ranked by their metric tonnes of carbon dioxide emissions per capita in 2008. 1.Qatar 2.Trinidad and Tobago 3.UAE 4.Netherlands 5.Bahrain

Biofuels are fuels extracted from plants and crops and these have various advantages. These include
1. increasing agricultural diversity.
2. reduced use of fertilizers.
3. renewable source of energy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 and 3 only
  • b)
    3 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagarika Menon answered
Answer: b
Explanation:  Biofuels may lead to monoculture where farmers will prefer cultivating such crops which can be used in making biofuels. Fertilizers used in such crops will only increase the fertilizer use. Biofuels are renewable source and this is their advantage compared to non-renewable fossil fuels. Use of Fertilizers: As biofuels are produced from crops and these crops need fertilizers to grow better. The downside of using fertilizers is that they can have harmful effects on surrounding environment and may cause water pollution. Fertilizers contain nitrogen and phosphorus. They can be washed away from soil to nearby lake, river or pond. Monoculture: Monoculture refers to practice of producing same crops year after year, rather than producing various crops through a farmer’s fields over time. While, this might be economically attractive for farmers but growing same crop every year may deprive the soil of nutrients that are put back into the soil through crop rotation. Farmers may be tempted to produce crops which are goof for biofuels.

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer aims to control the production and use of :
1. Dichloromethane
2. CFCs
3. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Janhavi Bajaj answered
Answer: b
Explanation: Montreal protocol aims to phase out several groups of halogenated hydrocarbons that have been shown to play a role in ozone depletion. All of these ozone depleting substances contain either chlorine or bromine (substances containing only fluorine do not harm the ozone layer). These include CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs replaced CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine. The Montreal Protocol therefore does not address HFCs. But HFCs cause global warming. Dichloromethane is a new entry among gases that depletes ozone layer, but at present it has not been included under Montreal Protocol.

Consider the following statements:
1. India’s GDP is more than its GNP.
2. Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is positive for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Dey answered
Answer & Explanation
a) 1 only. GNP = GDP + NFIA. India’s NFIA is negative. Thus India’s GDP is more than its GNP. NFIA = Factor income earned from abroad by residents – Factor income of non-residents in domestic territory.

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