All questions of September 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Ramsar Convention.
  1. Designation of a wetland under Ramsar Convention will lead to funding from the Ramsar secretariat.
  2. Every Ramsar Site in India is a notified protected area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  3. The Ramsar designation for a wetland can be taken off if the country does not meet the required standards.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A', i.e., only one statement is correct.

Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement one by one:

Statement 1: Designation of a wetland under Ramsar Convention will lead to funding from the Ramsar secretariat.
This statement is incorrect. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty that provides a framework for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It does not guarantee direct funding from the Ramsar Secretariat to the designated wetlands. The Convention encourages countries to allocate their own resources or seek funding from other sources for the conservation and management of Ramsar sites.

Statement 2: Every Ramsar Site in India is a notified protected area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
This statement is incorrect. While Ramsar sites in India are recognized and designated under the Ramsar Convention, it does not necessarily mean that they are automatically notified as protected areas under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The Wildlife (Protection) Act is a separate legislation in India that provides legal protection to wildlife and their habitats. The designation of a protected area under this Act requires a separate process and may or may not coincide with Ramsar site designation.

Statement 3: The Ramsar designation for a wetland can be taken off if the country does not meet the required standards.
This statement is correct. The Ramsar Convention allows for the withdrawal of Ramsar site designation if a country fails to meet the required standards or fails to fulfill its obligations under the Convention. The Convention provides a mechanism for regular monitoring and assessment of Ramsar sites, and if a site no longer meets the criteria or is not being properly managed, the designation can be removed.

In conclusion, only statement 3 is correct. The designation of a wetland under the Ramsar Convention does not guarantee funding from the Ramsar Secretariat, and not all Ramsar sites in India are automatically notified protected areas under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Consider the following statements regarding Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
  1. Adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter is one of the core principles of ASEAN.
  2. India is not part of the ASEAN Plus Six grouping.
  3. India has signed a Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Basu answered
Statement 1: Adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter is one of the core principles of ASEAN.

This statement is correct. ASEAN, as an organization, aims to promote peace, stability, and cooperation in Southeast Asia. It is committed to upholding the principles of the United Nations Charter, including respect for sovereignty, non-interference in internal affairs, and peaceful settlement of disputes.

Statement 2: India is not part of the ASEAN Plus Six grouping.

This statement is correct. The ASEAN Plus Six grouping comprises the ten ASEAN member states (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam) along with six other countries: China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand, and India. Therefore, India is indeed part of the ASEAN Plus Six grouping.

Statement 3: India has signed a Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN.

This statement is correct. India has signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with ASEAN known as the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA). The agreement was signed in 2009 and covers trade in goods, services, and investments. The AIFTA aims to promote trade and economic cooperation between India and ASEAN member states by reducing tariffs and removing trade barriers.

In summary, out of the three statements given:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B) Only two.

Climate Ambition Summit (CAS), that was recently in news was part of 
  • a)
    European Union (EU) 
  • b)
    International Union for Conservation of Nature 
  • c)
    World Meteorological Organization (WMO) 
  • d)
    United Nations General Assembly
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The Climate Ambition Summit (CAS) in New York, as part of the United Nations General Assembly, that concluded on September 21, was marked by the absence of major economies whose actions significantly influence the future of global emissions.

Consider the following statements regarding Hallmarking.
  1. At present only gold and silver have been brought under the purview of Hallmarking.
  2. In Gold, Mandatory hallmarking is applicable only to 22 and 24 carats of gold jewellery/artefacts.
  3. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) assigns a Hallmarking Unique ID number to all hallmarked items.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Hallmarking
  • Hallmarking is like a quality stamp for jewellery and precious metal items. It tells you how pure or good the metal is.
  • The principal objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme are to protect the public against adulteration and to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness.
Hallmarking in India:
  • At present two precious metals namely gold and silver have been brought under the purview of Hallmarking.
  • Mandatory hallmarking order is applicable on 14, 18 and 22 carats of gold jewellery/artefacts only.
  • BIS assigns a unique HUID (Hallmarking Unique ID) number to all hallmarked items
  • Consumers can verify the authenticity of hallmarked items using the ‘verify HUID’ feature in the BIS Care app.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution.
  2. Indian Parliament has the absolute power to change the name of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anushka Sharma answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution.

This statement is correct. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. It empowers the Parliament of India to amend any provision of the Constitution. However, there are certain provisions of the Constitution that can only be amended with a special majority and ratification by at least half of the states.

Statement 2: Indian Parliament has the absolute power to change the name of the country.

This statement is incorrect. The Indian Parliament does not have the absolute power to change the name of the country. The name of the country is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be amended by the Parliament. Therefore, changing the name of the country would require a constitutional amendment, which can only be done through the prescribed procedure mentioned in Article 368.

Conclusion:

Both statements are not correct. While the first statement correctly identifies the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution, the second statement incorrectly claims that the Parliament has the absolute power to change the name of the country.

Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD) are caused by pathogens that include
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Parasites
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2 
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 
  • c)
    1, 2, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
  • Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD) continue to disproportionately impact the most impoverished members of the international community, living in areas with inadequate water safety, sanitation and access to health care, said a new World Health Organization (WHO) report.
  • NTDs are a diverse group of 20 conditions mainly prevalent in tropical areas — caused by various pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, parasites, fungi and toxins.

Camp David summit, that was recently in news is held at/hosted by 
  • a)
    Japan 
  • b)
    South Korea 
  • c)
    Australia 
  • d)
    United States
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Menon answered
The correct answer is option 'D' - United States.

The Camp David summit is an important diplomatic event that was recently in the news. It is held at and hosted by the United States. Let's delve into the details of this summit.

What is Camp David?
- Camp David is the official country retreat of the President of the United States. It is located in the Catoctin Mountain Park in Maryland, about 62 miles north-northwest of Washington, D.C.
- The retreat covers an area of about 180 acres and is a secluded and secure location for high-level meetings and negotiations.

Purpose of the Camp David Summit:
- The Camp David summit is typically held to facilitate discussions and negotiations between world leaders on key international issues, conflicts, and diplomatic relations.
- It provides a tranquil and private setting away from the pressures of the capital city, allowing leaders to engage in candid and focused conversations.

Historical Significance of Camp David:
- Camp David has been witness to several historic negotiations and summits. One of the most notable events held at Camp David was the Camp David Accords in 1978.
- The Camp David Accords were peace agreements signed between Egyptian President Anwar Sadat and Israeli Prime Minister Menachem Begin, with the mediation of U.S. President Jimmy Carter.
- These accords led to the establishment of a framework for peace between Egypt and Israel, including the Egypt-Israel Peace Treaty.

Recent Camp David Summit:
- While the question does not specify a particular Camp David summit, it is worth mentioning that the most recent Camp David summit that received significant media attention was held in 2021.
- In September 2021, U.S. President Joe Biden hosted the leaders of Australia and the United Kingdom at Camp David for discussions on various issues, including defense cooperation and regional security.
- This summit, known as the "AUKUS summit," resulted in the announcement of a new trilateral security partnership between the three countries.

In conclusion, the Camp David summit, which was recently in the news, is held at and hosted by the United States. It is a significant diplomatic event that takes place at the official country retreat of the U.S. President, located in Maryland. The summit provides a conducive environment for world leaders to engage in discussions and negotiations on critical international matters.

Consider the following statements regarding Stem cells.
  1. Stem cells are cells from which all other cells in the body, with specialized functions, are generated.
  2. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is used to treat conditions like leukaemia and lymphoma.
  3. Autism spectrum disorder is a neurological and developmental disorder that can be cured using Stem cell therapy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Gupta answered
Introduction:
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to develop into specialized cells and regenerate themselves. They hold great potential for treating various medical conditions and have been the subject of extensive research and clinical trials. In this question, we are given three statements about stem cells and we need to determine which of them are correct.

Statement 1: Stem cells are cells from which all other cells in the body, with specialized functions, are generated.
Statement 2: Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is used to treat conditions like leukaemia and lymphoma.
Statement 3: Autism spectrum disorder is a neurological and developmental disorder that can be cured using stem cell therapy.

Explanation:
Statement 1: Stem cells are indeed cells from which all other cells in the body are generated. They have the potential to differentiate into various cell types, including cells of the nervous system, muscles, blood, and organs.

Statement 2: Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is a well-established treatment for certain blood-related disorders, including leukemia and lymphoma. Hematopoietic stem cells are responsible for the production of blood cells, and transplantation of these cells can help restore the functioning of the immune system and blood cell production.

Statement 3: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a complex neurological and developmental disorder that affects communication, behavior, and social interaction. At present, there is no known cure for ASD, and stem cell therapy has not been proven to be effective in treating the disorder. While stem cell research in autism is ongoing, it is important to note that there is currently no definitive evidence to support the use of stem cell therapy for curing ASD.

Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Stem cells are indeed cells from which all other cells in the body are generated, and hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is used to treat conditions like leukemia and lymphoma. However, Statement 3 is incorrect as there is currently no cure for autism spectrum disorder using stem cell therapy.

Consider the followings statements.
  1. Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) is an educational approach that uses technology like artificial intelligence (AI), to customize the learning experience for individual students based on their unique need.
  2. Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) has been integrated into Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) platform since its inception.
  3. Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) is an initiative of National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the aegis of the Ministry of Education (MoE).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
Background:
Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) is an educational approach that uses technology like artificial intelligence (AI) to customize the learning experience for individual students based on their unique needs. Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) is a platform that aims to provide a comprehensive digital infrastructure for teachers, students, and parents to access and share educational resources. It is an initiative of the National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the Ministry of Education (MoE).

Statement Analysis:
Let's analyze each statement to determine its correctness.

Statement 1: Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) is an educational approach that uses technology like artificial intelligence (AI) to customize the learning experience for individual students based on their unique needs.
This statement is correct. Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) indeed utilizes technology like artificial intelligence to tailor the learning experience according to the specific requirements of each student. It allows students to learn at their own pace and provides targeted assistance, thereby enhancing their educational outcomes.

Statement 2: Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) has been integrated into Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) platform since its inception.
This statement is incorrect. Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) has not been integrated into the DIKSHA platform since its inception. While DIKSHA does provide various resources and tools to aid personalized learning, PAL is not explicitly mentioned as a part of the DIKSHA platform.

Statement 3: Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) is an initiative of the National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT), under the aegis of the Ministry of Education (MoE).
This statement is correct. DIKSHA is indeed an initiative of the NCERT, which operates under the Ministry of Education. It aims to provide a digital infrastructure to facilitate the sharing of knowledge and educational resources among teachers, students, and parents.

Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Deemed-to-be-university.
  1. The UGC Act, 1956 provides that the Central Government may declare by notification in the Official Gazette that any institution of higher education, other than a university, shall be deemed to be a university.
  2. Like other universities, the Deemed-to-be-university does not have the autonomy of offering various courses and examinations.
  3. Recently National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has been granted the deemed-to-be-university status.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Desai answered
Statement 1: The UGC Act, 1956 provides that the Central Government may declare by notification in the Official Gazette that any institution of higher education, other than a university, shall be deemed to be a university.

This statement is correct. According to the UGC Act, the Central Government has the authority to declare any institution of higher education, which is not a university, as a deemed-to-be-university. This declaration is done through a notification published in the Official Gazette.

Statement 2: Like other universities, the Deemed-to-be-university does not have the autonomy of offering various courses and examinations.

This statement is incorrect. Deemed-to-be-universities do have the autonomy to offer various courses and conduct examinations. They function similar to universities and have the authority to design and offer their own courses, conduct examinations, and award degrees. However, they are subject to certain regulations and guidelines laid down by the University Grants Commission (UGC).

Statement 3: Recently National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has been granted the deemed-to-be-university status.

This statement is incorrect. The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is a premier organization in India that assists and advises the central and state governments on academic matters related to school education. However, it has not been granted the deemed-to-be-university status. NCERT primarily focuses on research and development in the field of school education and does not offer higher education courses like a university or deemed-to-be-university.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding G20 or the Group of Twenty.
  1. Like the United Nations, G20 does not have a permanent secretariat.
  2. G20 members represent around 85 per cent of the global GDP and about two-thirds of the world population.
  3. The G20 Presidency is responsible for bringing together the G20 agenda and organising its workings and hosting summits.
  4. All the members of ASEAN are the members of G20
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect.
  • The G20 or the Group of Twenty comprises 19 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, and the United States) and the European Union.
  • These members represent around 85 per cent of the global GDP, over 75 per cent of global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population. As a forum for international economic cooperation, it plays an important role in shaping and strengthening global architecture and governance on all major international economic issues.
  • Unlike the UN, G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or staff. Rather, the G20 Presidency rotates annually among the members – the Presidency is responsible for bringing together the G20 agenda, organising its workings and hosting summits. India holds the Presidency from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023.

Consider the following statements regarding Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS) in India.
  1. The Survey of India (SoI) maintains the CORS (Continuously Operating Reference Stations) to create accurate digital maps.
  2. A CORS consists of a GPS receiver operating continuously, and a stable antenna for continuously streaming raw data.
  3. Such reference stations are present all over the globe to monitor the Earth’s crust to track manmade and natural structures, and facilitate accurate navigation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
The Survey of India will continue to maintain CORS (Continuously Operating Reference Stations) that are necessary to create accurate digital maps. A CORS consists of a GPS receiver operating continuously, and a stable antenna for continuously streaming raw data. Such reference stations are present all over the globe to monitor the Earth’s crust to provide geodetic control, track manmade and natural structures, and facilitate accurate navigation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
  1. IPBES is an intergovernmental organization established to improve the interface between science and policy on issues of biodiversity and ecosystem services.
  2. It was formed on the basis of the Busan outcome document.
  3. India is a member of IPBES.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
About IPBES
  • The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (founded 2012; founder: UNEP, UNDP and FAO; secretariat: Bonn, Germany) is an intergovernmental organization established to improve the interface between science and policy on issues of biodiversity and ecosystem services. It was formed on the basis of the Busan outcome document. It has 143 member States including India.

The Special and Differential Treatment (S&D or SDT) provisions under the World Trade Organization (WTO) are meant for 
  • a)
    Protecting trade in indigenous goods and services 
  • b)
    Promoting organic products exports and imports 
  • c)
    safeguarding the trade interests of developing countries 
  • d)
    Reducing total emissions from trade
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Desai answered
DT) provision is a principle in international trade that allows developing countries to receive preferential treatment in trade agreements. It recognizes that developing countries may face unique challenges and constraints that hinder their ability to compete in the global market.

The Special and Differential Treatment provision was first established under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1964 and has been continued under the World Trade Organization (WTO). It is aimed at promoting the economic development and integration of developing countries into the global trading system.

Under this provision, developing countries are granted certain benefits and flexibilities that are not available to developed countries. These include longer transition periods for implementing trade agreements, exemptions from certain trade rules and regulations, technical assistance and capacity-building support, and preferential market access through reduced tariffs or quotas.

The provision also allows developing countries to adopt trade policies that support their development objectives, such as protection of domestic industries, subsidies for agriculture, and the use of export restrictions. These policies are often not allowed or are subject to stricter rules for developed countries.

The Special and Differential Treatment provision is based on the principle of "non-reciprocity," which means that developed countries are expected to provide these benefits to developing countries without expecting the same level of concessions in return. This recognizes the asymmetry between developed and developing countries in terms of economic and industrial capacity.

However, the provision has been a subject of debate and criticism. Some argue that it perpetuates a divide between developed and developing countries and hampers the competitiveness of industries in developed countries. Others argue that it is necessary to address the historical disadvantages and structural constraints faced by developing countries.

Overall, the Special and Differential Treatment provision is an important mechanism for promoting inclusivity and fairness in international trade. It recognizes the need to address the specific challenges faced by developing countries and provides them with opportunities to participate in global trade on more favorable terms.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Deflationrefers to a period when even though prices are rising it is happening at a slower rate each passing month.
  2. Disinflation is the exact opposite of inflation.
  3. Reflationtypically follows deflation as policymakers try to pump up economic activity either by government spending more and/or interest rates being reduced.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only two
  • b)
    Only one
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
  • Disinflation refers to the trend when the inflation rate decelerates. Suppose it was 10% in April, 7% in May and 5% in June. This is disinflation. In other words, disinflation refers to a period when even though prices are rising (or inflation is happening), it is happening at a slower rate each passing month.
  • Deflation is the exact opposite of inflation. Imagine if the general prices level in June was 5% lower than what it was in June last year. That’s deflation.
  • Reflation typically follows deflation as policymakers try to pump up economic activity either by government spending more and/or interest rates being reduced.

The Bandung Conference of 1955, paved the way for the creation of 
  • a)
    Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) 
  • b)
    Commonwealth of Nations 
  • c)
    Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) 
  • d)
    African Union
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lekshmi Yadav answered
The Bandung Conference of 1955 and the Creation of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

The Bandung Conference, also known as the Asia-Africa Conference, was a significant gathering of 29 Asian and African countries held in Bandung, Indonesia, from April 18 to April 24, 1955. It played a crucial role in shaping the post-colonial era and gave birth to the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Background:
- The conference was organized against the backdrop of the decolonization process that was taking place in many Asian and African countries.
- The participants aimed to promote Afro-Asian solidarity, strengthen their independence movements, and address the challenges faced by newly independent nations in a world dominated by the Cold War rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union.

Key Objectives:
The Bandung Conference had several key objectives, including:

1. Promoting Peace and Security: The participating nations sought to promote peace, stability, and security in the region, free from the influence of major power rivalries.
2. Decolonization: The conference aimed to support the decolonization process and the right to self-determination of nations still under colonial rule.
3. Opposing Colonialism and Racial Discrimination: The participants expressed their strong opposition to colonialism, racial discrimination, and apartheid.
4. South-South Cooperation: The conference emphasized the importance of fostering cooperation and solidarity among Asian and African countries to address common challenges and promote mutual development.

Outcome: Creation of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
The Bandung Conference paved the way for the creation of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), which was officially established in 1961. NAM became an influential international organization representing the interests of developing countries. Here's how the Bandung Conference led to the formation of NAM:

1. Principles and Tenets: The conference adopted the "Ten Principles of Bandung," which emphasized respect for sovereignty, territorial integrity, non-interference in internal affairs, and equality among nations.
2. Shared Goals: The participating nations identified common goals and challenges, such as decolonization, anti-imperialism, and the pursuit of economic and social development.
3. Collective Voice: The conference provided a platform for developing countries to assert their collective voice and advocate for their interests on the global stage.
4. Broadened Support: The Bandung Conference attracted widespread attention and support from countries across Asia, Africa, and beyond, leading to increased momentum for the establishment of NAM.
5. Continued Cooperation: Following the conference, participating nations continued to collaborate and engage in diplomatic efforts, eventually culminating in the establishment of the Non-Aligned Movement.

The Non-Aligned Movement has since played a significant role in promoting international cooperation, advocating for the rights of developing nations, and maintaining an independent stance during the Cold War and beyond. It has also been influential in addressing issues such as poverty alleviation, disarmament, human rights, and sustainable development on the global stage.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The cost of capital is a combination of the cost of equity and the cost of debt.
  2. When the bond yields go up, the cost of capital goes down.
  3. The valuation of equities is done by discounting future cash flows.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Statement 1: The cost of capital is a combination of the cost of equity and the cost of debt.
This statement is correct. The cost of capital represents the overall cost of funds for a company, which includes both the cost of equity and the cost of debt. The cost of equity is the return required by the shareholders or investors, while the cost of debt is the interest rate paid on borrowed funds.

Statement 2: When the bond yields go up, the cost of capital goes down.
This statement is incorrect. Bond yields and the cost of capital are not directly related. The cost of capital is determined by various factors, including the risk associated with the investment, the prevailing interest rates, and the company's capital structure. While an increase in bond yields may indicate a higher cost of debt, it does not necessarily mean that the overall cost of capital will decrease.

Statement 3: The valuation of equities is done by discounting future cash flows.
This statement is correct. The valuation of equities, such as stocks, is commonly done using the discounted cash flow (DCF) method. This involves estimating the future cash flows expected to be generated by the company and discounting them back to their present value using an appropriate discount rate. The discounted value of the expected cash flows represents the intrinsic value or fair value of the equity.

Conclusion:
Out of the three given statements, only two are correct. The cost of capital is indeed a combination of the cost of equity and the cost of debt. Additionally, the valuation of equities is commonly done by discounting future cash flows. However, the statement that an increase in bond yields leads to a decrease in the cost of capital is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding gamma-ray bursts (GRB).
  1. Gamma-ray bursts (GRB) are the energetic form of light, multiple times brighter than the sun.
  2. They typically last for only seconds.
  3. GRB can happen when two neutron stars merge or when a neutron star joins with the black hole.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arshiya Khanna answered
Gamma-ray bursts (GRB) are extremely energetic explosions in space that release bursts of gamma rays. Let's analyze each statement to determine their accuracy:

1. Gamma-ray bursts (GRB) are the energetic form of light, multiple times brighter than the sun.
This statement is correct. Gamma-ray bursts are the most energetic form of light in the universe, emitting vast amounts of gamma rays. They can be millions of times brighter than the sun.

2. They typically last for only seconds.
This statement is also correct. Gamma-ray bursts are very short-lived events, typically lasting from a few milliseconds to a few minutes. They are characterized by an initial intense burst of gamma rays, followed by an afterglow in other wavelengths, such as X-rays, visible light, and radio waves, which can last for days to weeks.

3. GRB can happen when two neutron stars merge or when a neutron star joins with the black hole.
This statement is correct as well. Gamma-ray bursts can occur in a variety of astrophysical events, including the merger of two neutron stars or the merger of a neutron star with a black hole. These cataclysmic events release a tremendous amount of energy, leading to the production of gamma-ray bursts.

In conclusion, all three statements are correct. Gamma-ray bursts are indeed the most energetic form of light, multiple times brighter than the sun. They typically last for only seconds and can occur when two neutron stars merge or when a neutron star joins with a black hole. These bursts of gamma rays provide valuable insights into the most extreme events in the universe and are studied by astronomers to better understand the nature of these phenomena.

Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
  1. IAEA was established as an autonomous organization under the UN Statute.
  2. It inhibits the complete use of nuclear technologies and nuclear energy.
  3. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and United Nations Security Council.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Maya Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'A': Only one statement is correct.

Explanation:

1. IAEA was established as an autonomous organization under the UN Statute.
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was indeed established as an autonomous organization under the UN Statute. It was founded on July 29, 1957, and operates independently of the United Nations (UN) system. Its headquarters are located in Vienna, Austria. The IAEA's main objective is to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy while preventing its use for military purposes.

2. It inhibits the complete use of nuclear technologies and nuclear energy.
This statement is incorrect. The IAEA does not inhibit the complete use of nuclear technologies and nuclear energy. Its primary role is to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and ensure the safe and secure use of nuclear technologies. The agency provides technical assistance and guidance to member states in the development and implementation of nuclear energy programs, including nuclear power generation, nuclear medicine, and other peaceful applications of nuclear technology.

3. It reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and United Nations Security Council.
This statement is incorrect. The IAEA reports primarily to the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) and also maintains relations with other UN bodies, such as the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). However, it does not directly report to the UNSC. The IAEA regularly submits reports to the UNGA, including its annual report, which provides an overview of its activities and achievements.

In conclusion, only the first statement is correct. The IAEA was established as an autonomous organization under the UN Statute. It does not inhibit the complete use of nuclear technologies and nuclear energy, and it primarily reports to the United Nations General Assembly.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Seaweeds are a type of marine algae, often found in coastal waters.
  2. Seaweed species such as kelps provide essential nursery habitat for fisheries and other marine species.
  3. Sagar Parikrama Yatra aims to raise awareness about sustainable marine resource use and promote schemes for coastal communities.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
Seaweeds are a type of marine algae, often found in coastal waters. It can vary in size and colour and is used in various industries, including food, cosmetics, and agriculture. Seaweed is rich in nutrients and has diverse applications worldwide.
Seaweed species such as kelps provide essential nursery habitat for fisheries and other marine species and thus protect food sources; other species, such as planktonic algae, play a vital role in capturing carbon, producing at least 50% of Earth’s oxygen.
About Sagar Parikrama Yatra
  • It aims to raise awareness about sustainable marine resource use and promote schemes for coastal communities. It emphasizes a balance between marine resource use for food security and livelihoods while protecting marine ecosystems.
 

Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s geography and weather conditions that contributes to air pollution.
  1. During the southwest monsoon, the prevalent direction of the wind is easterly.
  2. Once the monsoon withdraws, the predominant direction of the winds changes to north-westerly.
  3. The fall in temperature also contributes to increased pollution levels.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
  • During the southwest monsoon, the prevalent direction of the wind is easterly. The winds travel from over the Bay of Bengal, carrying moisture and rainfall to this part of the country. Once the monsoon withdraws, however, the predominant direction of the winds changes to north-westerly. These winds carry particulate matter (essentially smoke and soot) from crop-burning in Punjab to the area above Delhi, and then onward down the Gangetic basin.
  • The fall in temperature also contributes to increased pollution levels. As it gets cooler, the inversion height — which is the layer beyond which pollutants cannot disperse into the upper atmosphere — comes down. When that happens, larger concentrations of pollutants in the air hang closer to the surface, and lead to worsening AQIs.
  • The point to note here is this: The direction of the wind is north-westerly in summer too, but it is the very high temperature over the Indo-Gangetic basin that ensures the pollutants that it brings (dust etc. from Rajasthan and sometimes Pakistan and Afghanistan) does not hang low.

MISHTI programme that was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 is related to 
  • a)
    Mechanize septic tank cleaning and sewer cleaning in towns and cities 
  • b)
    Developing the rural areas in the northern border states 
  • c)
    Mangrove plantation along the coastline 
  • d)
    Molasses based ethanol blending project
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Desai answered
The correct answer is option 'C': Mangrove plantation along the coastline.

MISHTI (Mangrove for India, Sustainable Habitat, and Transplantation Initiative) is a programme that was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24. This initiative aims to promote the plantation of mangroves along the coastline of India.

Mangroves are salt-tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in coastal areas, brackish water, and estuaries. They play a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance of coastal ecosystems. Mangroves act as a buffer against coastal erosion, protect coastlines from storm surges, and provide a habitat for a wide range of marine and coastal species.

The MISHTI programme focuses on the plantation of mangroves in order to restore and enhance the coastal ecosystems in India. This initiative will have several benefits, both environmental and economic. Let's discuss them in detail:

1. Coastal protection:
- Mangroves act as a natural barrier against coastal erosion, protecting the shoreline from the impact of waves and tides.
- They reduce the vulnerability of coastal regions to storms, cyclones, and other natural disasters by absorbing the energy of waves and reducing the intensity of storm surges.
- The plantation of mangroves can help mitigate the effects of climate change by sequestering carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

2. Biodiversity conservation:
- Mangroves provide a unique habitat for a diverse range of plant and animal species, including several endangered and migratory species.
- They serve as nurseries for fish, crustaceans, and other marine organisms, supporting the livelihoods of local fishing communities.
- The conservation and restoration of mangrove ecosystems will help protect and sustain the rich biodiversity of coastal areas.

3. Livelihood support:
- The MISHTI programme will create employment opportunities for local communities involved in mangrove plantation, maintenance, and management.
- It will promote sustainable livelihood options such as eco-tourism, fisheries, and carbon credit trading, which can contribute to the economic development of coastal regions.

4. Climate change adaptation:
- Mangroves play a crucial role in climate change adaptation by reducing the vulnerability of coastal communities to the impacts of rising sea levels and extreme weather events.
- They act as carbon sinks, storing large amounts of carbon dioxide and helping to mitigate climate change.
- The plantation of mangroves will contribute to India's commitment to the Paris Agreement by enhancing its carbon sink capacity and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

In conclusion, the MISHTI programme announced in the Union Budget 2023-24 aims to promote the plantation of mangroves along the coastline of India. This initiative will have several environmental and economic benefits, including coastal protection, biodiversity conservation, livelihood support, and climate change adaptation.

Consider the following statements.
  1. X-ray fluorescence is commonly used to study the composition of materials in a non-destructive manner.
  2. When the sun gives out solar flares, a large amount of X-ray radiation falls on the moon, triggering X-ray fluorescence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
  • Scientists from Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have mapped out the global distribution of sodium on the Moon’s surface. They used the CLASS instrument (Chandrayaan-2 large area soft X-ray spectrometer) carried by the second Indian Moon mission, Chandrayaan-2.
  • This is the first effort to provide a global-scale measurement of sodium on the lunar surface using X-ray fluorescent spectra.
  • X-ray fluorescence is commonly used to study the composition of materials in a non-destructive manner. When the sun gives out solar flares, a large amount of X-ray radiation falls on the moon, triggering X-ray fluorescence.

Consider the following statements regarding PM-DAKSH Yojana.
  1. PM-DAKSH Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme that aims to enhance competency level of the target groups to make them employable both in self- employment and wage-employment.
  2. The target group under this scheme are Scheduled Castes (SCs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Tribes (DNTs) and Safai Karamcharis.
  3. Income limit for all the target group is set as the eligibility criteria for the scheme.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalata Sampanna Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2020-21 with the goal of enhancing the competency levels of specific target groups to make them employable, whether for self-employment or wage-employment, thereby contributing to their socio-economic development.
  • The scheme is primarily aimed at Scheduled Castes (SCs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Tribes (DNTs), Safai Karamcharis (including waste pickers), and others.
The eligibility criteria for the scheme are as follows:
  • Age: Between 18 to 45 years.
  • Income: No income limit for SCs, Safai Karamcharis (including waste pickers), and DNTs. For OBCs and EBCs, the annual family income should be below Rs. 3 lakh and Rs. 1 lakh, respectively.
The scheme offers various types of training programs with different durations and costs per candidate:
  • Up-skilling/Reskilling
  • Short Term Training
  • Entrepreneurship Development Programme
  • Long Term Training

India is not a member of which of the following Missile and Dual-Use Export Control Regimes?
  1. Australia Group (AG)
  2. Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
  3. Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
  4. Wassenaar Arrangement
How many of the above options is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
India is a member of three out of the four MECRs, excluding the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
The four MECRs include:
  • Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) for nuclear technology control
  • Australia Group (AG) for chemical and biological technology control
  • Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) for rockets and aerial vehicles related to WMD delivery,
Wassenaar Arrangement for conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Aarogya Maitri Cube? 
  • a)
    Single non-lapsable reserve fund for Health from the proceeds of Health and Education Cess 
  • b)
    Augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the under-served States 
  • c)
    World's first portable disaster hospital 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
India has built the world’s first portable disaster hospital, called the “Aarogya Maitri Cube”. The hospital can be airlifted and assembled into 72 cubes that contain essential medical equipment and supplies. The cubes can support 200 survivors for 48 hours during natural disasters or crises.
It has been developed indigenously under the Project BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri).
The hospital includes Operation theatres, mini-ICUs, Ventilators, Blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a Cooking station, Food, Water, a Shelter, Power generator.

Consider the following statements regarding National School of Drama.
  1. National School of Drama was setup by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
  2. It functions as one of the constituent unit under Sangeet Natak Akademi.
  3. It is mainly financed by the voluntary contributions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
The National School of Drama is one of the foremost theatre training institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959. In 1975, it became an independent entity and was registered as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860, fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Consider the following pairs.
  1. Virunga National Park: Peru
  2. Yellowstone National Park: Ecuador
  3. Galápagos Islands: Greece
  4. Mount Athos: Democratic Republic of Congo
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    All four 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
  • Virunga National Park, Democratic Republic of Congo, is home to diverse wildlife, including mountain gorillas and endangered African elephants.
  • Yellowstone National Park, USA, serves as a living laboratory for studying geothermal features and wildlife behaviour.
  • Galápagos Islands, Ecuador, attract scientists and tourists interested in understanding and protecting unique species.
  • Mount Athos, Greece, sustains monastic communities that practice sustainable agriculture and forestry.

Consider the following statements regarding declaring the election of a Member of Parliament as null and void.
  1. According to Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 only the Supreme Court can declare an election of a Member of Parliament as void on grounds of Corrupt practices or Failing to declare election expenses.
  2. The aggrieved person cannot appeal against the order of the Court and the matter has to be settled by the Election Commission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
The correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:
Let us analyze each statement separately:

Statement 1: According to Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 only the Supreme Court can declare an election of a Member of Parliament as void on grounds of Corrupt practices or Failing to declare election expenses.

This statement is incorrect. According to the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, both the Supreme Court and the High Court have the power to declare an election of a Member of Parliament as void. The Supreme Court has the power to declare an election void on grounds of corrupt practices or failing to declare election expenses, while the High Court can declare an election void on various other grounds such as bribery, undue influence, false statements, etc. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The aggrieved person cannot appeal against the order of the Court and the matter has to be settled by the Election Commission.

This statement is also incorrect. The aggrieved person can appeal against the order of the Court. If the Supreme Court declares the election of a Member of Parliament as void, the aggrieved person can file an appeal before the Supreme Court itself. If the High Court declares the election void, the aggrieved person can appeal to the Supreme Court. The matter does not have to be settled by the Election Commission. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

In conclusion, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct. Both statements are incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Aluminum-26.
  1. Aluminum-26 is non-radioactive isotope that decays over time.
  2. It played a significant role in heating small rocks in the early Solar System, leading to the formation of planets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
Background:
Aluminum-26 is an isotope of aluminum that has 13 protons and 13 neutrons. It is a radioactive isotope with a half-life of about 717,000 years. This means that over time, half of the aluminum-26 atoms in a sample will decay into other elements.

Statement 1: Aluminum-26 is a non-radioactive isotope that decays over time.
This statement is incorrect. Aluminum-26 is a radioactive isotope, meaning it undergoes radioactive decay over time. As mentioned earlier, it has a half-life of about 717,000 years, which means that after this period, half of the aluminum-26 atoms will have decayed into other elements. Therefore, statement 1 is false.

Statement 2: Aluminum-26 played a significant role in heating small rocks in the early Solar System, leading to the formation of planets.
This statement is correct. Aluminum-26 is an important radionuclide in the early Solar System. When the Solar System was forming, there were many small rocks and dust particles present. These rocks contained various elements, including aluminum-26. As aluminum-26 undergoes radioactive decay, it releases energy in the form of heat. This heat played a significant role in the heating and melting of these small rocks, contributing to the formation of planets. The heat generated by the decay of aluminum-26 helped to differentiate the rocks, leading to the separation of heavier elements towards the core and lighter elements towards the surface. This process, known as planetary differentiation, is crucial for the formation of planets with distinct layers and compositions. Therefore, statement 2 is true.

Conclusion:
Based on the above explanation, we can conclude that statement 1 is incorrect as aluminum-26 is a radioactive isotope. However, statement 2 is correct as aluminum-26 played a significant role in heating small rocks in the early Solar System, leading to the formation of planets. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements.
  1. While Dams are designed for water storage and regulation on a larger scale, Barrages are primarily used for flow control and water diversion.
  2. Yarlung Tsangpo River breaks through the Himalayas in great gorges and enters into Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as Dihang or Siang.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Desai answered
Statement 1: While Dams are designed for water storage and regulation on a larger scale, Barrages are primarily used for flow control and water diversion.

Statement 2: Yarlung Tsangpo River breaks through the Himalayas in great gorges and enters into Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as Dihang or Siang.

The correct answer is option C, which means both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

Dams:
- Dams are large barriers constructed across rivers or streams to impound water and create reservoirs.
- They are designed to store water for various purposes such as irrigation, drinking water supply, hydroelectric power generation, and flood control.
- Dams help in regulating the flow of water, preventing floods during heavy rainfall and releasing water during periods of low flow.
- They are typically built in areas where there is ample water supply and a need for water storage.

Barrages:
- Barrages are structures built across rivers to control the flow of water and divert it to different channels or canals.
- They are primarily used for irrigation purposes, allowing water to be distributed to various agricultural fields.
- Barrages are often located in areas where water needs to be redirected for agricultural or industrial use.
- Unlike dams, barrages do not have large storage reservoirs and mainly serve the purpose of flow control and water diversion.

Yarlung Tsangpo River:
- The Yarlung Tsangpo River is one of the major rivers in Asia, originating in Tibet and flowing through China, India, and Bangladesh.
- In Tibet, it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo River, but as it enters Arunachal Pradesh in India, it is known as the Dihang or Siang River.
- The river is famous for breaking through the Himalayas in great gorges, including the famous Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon, which is deeper than the Grand Canyon in the United States.
- The river plays a significant role in the water supply, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation in the region.

In conclusion, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Dams are designed for water storage and regulation on a larger scale, while barrages are primarily used for flow control and water diversion. The Yarlung Tsangpo River breaks through the Himalayas and enters Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as Dihang or Siang.

Consider the following statements regarding Pearl millet.
  1. Pearl millet a drought-tolerant cereal grain widely cultivated in arid and semi-arid regions of India and Africa.
  2. It is known for its resilience to adverse growing conditions, including low rainfall.
  3. Heavy soils in southern India are not suitable for the cultivation of Pearl millet.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
Statement 1: Pearl millet is a drought-tolerant cereal grain widely cultivated in arid and semi-arid regions of India and Africa.
This statement is correct. Pearl millet is indeed a drought-tolerant cereal grain that is extensively grown in arid and semi-arid regions of India and Africa. It is a staple food crop in these regions due to its ability to withstand water scarcity and harsh climatic conditions.

Statement 2: Pearl millet is known for its resilience to adverse growing conditions, including low rainfall.
This statement is correct. Pearl millet is highly resilient to adverse growing conditions, especially low rainfall. It has deep roots that enable it to access water from deeper soil layers, making it well-suited for regions with limited water availability. Additionally, pearl millet has efficient water-use mechanisms and can survive on as little as 250-350 mm of rainfall per year.

Statement 3: Heavy soils in southern India are not suitable for the cultivation of Pearl millet.
This statement is incorrect. Pearl millet can grow well in a variety of soil types, including heavy soils. While it prefers well-drained sandy or loamy soils with good organic content, it can tolerate heavy soils to some extent. However, excessive waterlogging in heavy soils can be detrimental to the growth and yield of pearl millet.

Therefore, out of the three statements, only two statements are correct.

The Baltoro Glacier is located in 
  • a)
    Ladakh Range 
  • b)
    Karakoram Range 
  • c)
    Zanskar Range 
  • d)
    Pirpanjal Range
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Baltoro Glacier is located in the Karakoram Range.

The Karakoram Range is a mountain range that spans across the borders of Pakistan, India, and China. It is part of the greater Himalayas and is known for its high peaks and majestic glaciers. The Baltoro Glacier is one of the most famous and longest glaciers in the Karakoram Range, stretching approximately 63 kilometers in length.

Location
The Baltoro Glacier is located in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of northern Pakistan. It lies in the heart of the Karakoram Range, surrounded by towering peaks and valleys. The glacier begins at an elevation of around 3,300 meters and extends up to an elevation of approximately 7,500 meters.

Characteristics
The Baltoro Glacier is a massive river of ice that flows down from the mountains. It is characterized by its rugged terrain, steep slopes, and crevasses. The glacier is fed by the melting of snow and ice from the surrounding peaks, including K2, the second highest mountain in the world.

Trekking and Mountaineering
The Baltoro Glacier is a popular destination for trekkers and mountaineers due to its breathtaking beauty and proximity to some of the highest peaks in the world. The famous Concordia region, where the Baltoro Glacier meets the Godwin-Austen Glacier, is often referred to as the "Throne Room of the Mountain Gods" because of its stunning panoramic views of peaks like K2, Broad Peak, and Gasherbrum peaks.

Importance
The Baltoro Glacier is not only a tourist attraction but also holds great scientific importance. It provides valuable insights into the geological and climatic history of the region. The glacier's meltwater contributes to the Indus River, a vital water source for millions of people in the region.

In conclusion, the Baltoro Glacier is located in the Karakoram Range of the Himalayas. It is a stunning natural wonder that attracts trekkers, mountaineers, and scientists from around the world. Its majestic beauty and scientific significance make it a must-visit destination for adventure enthusiasts and nature lovers.

The economic theory of wage-price spiral is mainly used in the context of 
  • a)
    Gross Domestic Product (GDP) 
  • b)
    Current Account Deficit 
  • c)
    Balance of Payments 
  • d)
    Inflation
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Bhavya Gupta answered
The Economic Theory of Wage-Price Spiral

The economic theory of wage-price spiral is mainly used in the context of inflation. It explains the relationship between wages and prices, and how they can reinforce each other, leading to a continuous increase in both.

Explanation:
What is the wage-price spiral?

The wage-price spiral is a theory that suggests there is a positive feedback loop between wages and prices. It argues that when wages increase, it leads to higher production costs for businesses. In order to maintain their profit margins, businesses pass on these increased costs to consumers in the form of higher prices. As a result, the cost of living increases, and workers demand higher wages to maintain their standard of living. This cycle continues, with wages and prices continually increasing in response to each other.

Role of wage-price spiral in inflation:

The wage-price spiral plays a crucial role in understanding inflation because it helps explain how an initial increase in wages can result in a sustained increase in prices. Here's how it works:

1. Wage Increase: The process begins with an increase in wages, either due to productivity gains, bargaining power of workers, or government policies such as minimum wage laws.

2. Higher Production Costs: When wages increase, businesses face higher labor costs. This prompts them to raise the prices of their goods or services to maintain their profit margins.

3. Increased Consumer Spending: As prices rise, consumers have to spend more on goods and services. This reduces their purchasing power and erodes their real wages.

4. Wage Demands: In response to the higher cost of living, workers demand higher wages to maintain their standard of living. This can be achieved through collective bargaining or strikes.

5. Further Price Increases: When wages increase, businesses face even higher production costs. To maintain their profit margins, they raise prices further, which leads to a new round of wage demands.

6. Continuous Cycle: This process continues in a cycle, with wages and prices reinforcing each other. As a result, inflationary pressures build up, leading to a sustained increase in the overall price level.

Conclusion:

The wage-price spiral is an important concept in understanding the dynamics of inflation. It highlights the interplay between wages and prices, and how they can reinforce each other, leading to a continuous increase in both. By understanding this relationship, policymakers can better manage inflationary pressures and make informed decisions to stabilize the economy.

Which of the following technologies are considered as climate engineering?
  1. Stratospheric aerosol injection
  2. Marine cloud brightening
  3. Mirrors in space
  4. Direct air capture and carbon storage
  5. Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage
How many of the above options are correct?
  • a)
    Only two 
  • b)
    Only three 
  • c)
    Only four 
  • d)
    All five
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Climate engineering (or geoengineering) has been used as an umbrella term for both carbon dioxide removal and solar radiation management (or solar geoengineering), when applied at a planetary scale.
Specific technologies that fall into the “climate engineering” umbrella term include:
Carbon dioxide removal
  • Biochar – Biochar is a high-carbon, fine-grained residue that is produced via pyrolysis
  • Bioenergy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) – the process of extracting bioenergy from biomass and capturing and storing the carbon, thereby removing it from the atmosphere.
  • Direct air capture and carbon storage – a process of capturing carbon dioxide directly from the ambient air (as opposed to capturing from point sources, such as a cement factory or biomass power plant) and generating a concentrated stream of CO2 for sequestration or utilization or production of carbon-neutral fuel and windgas.
Solar Radiation Management
  • Marine cloud brightening– a proposed technique that would make clouds brighter, reflecting a small fraction of incoming sunlight back into space in order to offset anthropogenic global warming.
  • Mirrors in space (MIS) – satellites that are designed to change the amount of solar radiation that impacts the Earth as a form of climate engineering.
  • Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) – a proposed method to introduce aerosols into the stratosphere to create a cooling effect via global dimming and increased albedo, which occurs naturally from volcanic eruptions.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Import substitution is an inward-looking trade strategy aimed at replacing imports with domestic production.
  2. Import cover is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s Forex reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

's foreign exchange reserves. Export-oriented industrialization is an outward-looking trade strategy aimed at promoting exports and attracting foreign investment. Export promotion is a strategy that focuses on increasing exports through various measures such as trade agreements and export subsidies.

Consider the following statements regarding Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) in India.
  1. Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) is a compendium of borewells, tubewells, and other privately-owned irrigation sources by farmers.
  2. The MIC reports are a reflection of the present state of use of irrigation schemes.
  3. It is conducted by Niti Ayog.
  4. According to the latest edition of the Minor Irrigation Census (MIC), wind and solar energy is the dominant source of power to extract water.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Kumar answered
The correct answer is option 'A', i.e., only one statement is correct.

Explanation:

1. Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) is a compendium of borewells, tubewells, and other privately-owned irrigation sources by farmers.
This statement is correct. The Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) in India collects data on various types of minor irrigation sources, including borewells, tubewells, wells, tanks, canals, etc. It provides information about the number, location, and ownership of these sources.

2. The MIC reports are a reflection of the present state of use of irrigation schemes.
This statement is incorrect. The MIC reports provide data on the number and ownership of minor irrigation sources but do not reflect the present state of use of irrigation schemes. The data collected in the census is primarily quantitative in nature and does not provide information on the efficiency, effectiveness, or utilization of these sources.

3. It is conducted by Niti Ayog.
This statement is incorrect. The Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) is not conducted by Niti Ayog. It is conducted by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India. Niti Ayog is a policy think tank that provides inputs and recommendations to the government on various issues, including water resources management.

4. According to the latest edition of the Minor Irrigation Census (MIC), wind and solar energy is the dominant source of power to extract water.
This statement is incorrect. The statement does not reflect the findings of the latest edition of the Minor Irrigation Census (MIC). The census does not provide information on the dominant source of power used for extracting water from minor irrigation sources.

In conclusion, only the first statement is correct, while the rest of the statements are incorrect. The Minor Irrigation Census (MIC) in India collects data on various types of minor irrigation sources, but it does not reflect the present state of use of irrigation schemes. The census is conducted by the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation, and it does not provide information on the dominant source of power for extracting water.

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR).
  • ICSSR provide grants for projects, fellowships and international collaboration to promote research in social sciences in India.
  • It studies the impact of various Centrally sponsored schemes.
  • It functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anita Desai answered
Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) received 3801 project proposals to study the impact of various Centrally sponsored schemes and 514 among them — from collaborative and individual categories.
  • Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in the year of 1969 by the Government of India to promote research in social sciences in the country.
  • ICSSR provide grants for projects, fellowships, international collaboration, capacity building, survey, publications etc. to promote research in social sciences in India.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The minimum support price (MSP) of a crop is different for different states.
  2. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was constituted on the recommendation of the LK Jha Committee.
  3. Agricultural wage rate is not considered while setting up of the MSP.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Only statement 2 is correct.
 
  • For the first time, in 1966-67, the minimum support price (MSP) of wheat and paddy was fixed. To fix the price, the central government constituted the Agricultural Prices Commission, which was later renamed as the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) in 1985.
  • This means that the minimum support price (MSP) system was introduced in the country to protect the interests of the farmers in general. Under this system, even if the price of a crop falls in the market, the central government procures it at the fixed MSP from the farmers so that they can be shielded against losses.
  • The MSP of a crop is the same throughout the country.
    • The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was constituted in 1965 on the recommendation of the LK Jha Committee. The government stores the grains procured from the farmers with the FCI and NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) from where the grains are distributed to the poor under the Public Distribution System (PDS).
    • Since 2009, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices fixes the minimum support price of a crop based on cost, demand, supply position, price changes, market price trend, different costs and international market prices.
    • The Ministry of Agriculture also claims that the cost of production of cultivation does not only include cash expenditure (as per market) but also the cost of labour (as per market rate). This means that agricultural wage rate is also considered while setting up of the MSP.

Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in 
  • a)
    Himachal Pradesh 
  • b)
    Ladakh 
  • c)
    Arunachal Pradesh 
  • d)
    Sikkim
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanvi Gupta answered
Yangtse region, recently seen in news is located in Arunachal Pradesh.

The Yangtse region, which has recently been in the news, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India, bordering the countries of Bhutan, Tibet (China), and Myanmar. The region is known for its scenic beauty, rich biodiversity, and strategic location.

Location and Geography:
Arunachal Pradesh is situated in the easternmost part of India, nestled between the eastern Himalayas and the Patkai Hills. It is the largest state in northeastern India, covering an area of approximately 83,743 square kilometers. The Yangtse region is located in the eastern part of Arunachal Pradesh.

Importance of the Yangtse Region:
The Yangtse region is of strategic importance due to its proximity to the border with China and its location in the eastern Himalayas. It is located in the vicinity of the McMahon Line, which forms the de facto border between India and China in this region. The McMahon Line was established as part of the Simla Accord of 1914 between the British Raj and Tibet, and it is still a subject of dispute between India and China.

Recent Developments:
The Yangtse region has been in the news recently due to various reasons. One of the key reasons is the ongoing border tensions between India and China. The region has witnessed increased military activities and infrastructure development by both countries. The construction of roads, bridges, and military installations by China in the border areas has raised concerns about India's security and territorial integrity.

Environmental Significance:
Apart from its strategic importance, the Yangtse region is also known for its rich biodiversity and ecological significance. It is home to several endangered species, including the red panda, clouded leopard, and takin. The region is also known for its pristine rivers, waterfalls, and lush green forests, making it a popular tourist destination.

In conclusion, the Yangtse region, recently seen in the news, is located in Arunachal Pradesh. This region holds immense strategic importance due to its proximity to the border with China and is also known for its ecological significance and scenic beauty.

Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational waves.
  1. Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of space and time that travel at the speed of light.
  2. They are created by the motion of black holes or neutron stars.
  3. Gravitational waves are extremely weak and difficult to detect.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
Gravitational Waves
  • Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of space and time that travel at the speed of light. They are created by the motion of massive objects, such as black holes or neutron stars, which generate gravitational waves when they orbit or collide with each other.
The science behind Gravitational waves:
  • According to Albert Einstein’s theory of general relativity (1916), any object with mass warps the space-time around it. When two massive objects orbit each other or collide, they produce ripples or waves in space-time that propagate outward at the speed of light.
  • Gravitational waves are extremely weak and difficult to detect. They were first directly detected by the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) in 2015, a century after they were predicted by Einstein’s theory.

Consider the following statements regarding Global Multidimensional Poverty Index report of 2023.
  1. Global Multidimensional Poverty Index report of 2023 was released by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
  2. According to the report, the incidence of the multidimensional poverty increased from 2015-16 to 2019-21.
  3. Multidimensional poverty estimates act as substitute for National Sample Survey (NSS) consumption-based poverty ratios.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

And Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report of 2023 is a collaborative effort between the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). The report aims to provide a comprehensive assessment of poverty by considering multiple dimensions of deprivation.

The MPI takes into account various indicators to measure poverty, including health, education, and living standards. It looks beyond income-based measures of poverty and focuses on the deprivations individuals face in multiple aspects of their lives.

The report of 2023 provides an updated and detailed analysis of global poverty trends, highlighting the progress made in reducing poverty and the challenges that still persist. It presents data and statistics on poverty at both the global and regional levels, allowing for comparisons and identifying areas that require attention and intervention.

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index report of 2023 serves as a valuable tool for policymakers, researchers, and development practitioners in designing and implementing strategies to alleviate poverty. It provides a more nuanced understanding of poverty and helps identify the most vulnerable populations and areas that need targeted interventions.

Overall, the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index report of 2023 is a significant contribution to the field of poverty measurement and analysis. It provides a comprehensive and multidimensional perspective on poverty, enabling a more effective and targeted approach to poverty reduction efforts.

Consider the following statements regarding Mitakshara Law.
  1. The Mitakshara school of Hindu law specifies procedures for succession and inheritance.
  2. It states that a son, grandson, and great-grandson have a right to family property through birth.
  3. The Mitakshara School of Law is followed in every state in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Deepika Ahuja answered
Statement 1: The Mitakshara school of Hindu law specifies procedures for succession and inheritance.
Statement 2: It states that a son, grandson, and great-grandson have a right to family property through birth.
Statement 3: The Mitakshara School of Law is followed in every state in India.

Explanation:
The Mitakshara school of Hindu law is one of the two major schools of thought regarding Hindu law in India, the other being the Dayabhaga school. It primarily deals with issues related to succession and inheritance. So, statement 1 is correct.

According to the Mitakshara school, there is a concept of coparcenary, where all the male descendants up to four generations, i.e., a son, grandson, and great-grandson, have an equal right to the family property by birth. This means that they have an undivided interest in the property and can claim a share in it. So, statement 2 is also correct.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. The Mitakshara school of law is not followed in every state in India. In states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa, and parts of Karnataka, the Dayabhaga school of law is followed instead. The Dayabhaga school has a different approach to inheritance and succession, where the concept of coparcenary does not exist, and inheritance is based on the principle of propinquity.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Deemed forest is forest land that has been notified by the Centre or States.
  2. Protection under the Forest Act means that land cannot be diverted without the consent of the Centre as well as gram panchayats.
  3. The Forest Act puts the onus on those diverting land, to grow trees on an equivalent plot of land twice the razed area, along with a significant monetary penalty.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Desai answered
Introduction:
The given statements are related to forest land and the regulations governing it. We need to determine the correctness of each statement.

Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement 1: Deemed forest is forest land that has been notified by the Centre or States.
This statement is correct. Deemed forest refers to the land that meets the criteria of a forest, even if it is not officially designated as a forest. Such land can be notified by the Centre or States based on various factors such as vegetation cover, density, and ecological significance.

Statement 2: Protection under the Forest Act means that land cannot be diverted without the consent of the Centre as well as gram panchayats.
This statement is incorrect. The protection under the Forest Act does not require the consent of gram panchayats for land diversion. The Act empowers the Centre to regulate diversion of forest land, and the consent of the Centre is sufficient for such purposes.

Statement 3: The Forest Act puts the onus on those diverting land, to grow trees on an equivalent plot of land twice the razed area, along with a significant monetary penalty.
This statement is incorrect. The Forest Act does not specifically mention the requirement to grow trees on an equivalent plot of land twice the razed area. However, it does impose penalties for unauthorized felling of trees or diversion of forest land. The penalties can include monetary fines and imprisonment.

Conclusion:
Out of the given statements, only statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as consent of gram panchayats is not required for land diversion under the Forest Act. Statement 3 is also incorrect as the Forest Act does not specifically mandate growing trees on an equivalent plot of land twice the razed area.

X-ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) and Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) were successfully launched by 
  • a)
    Australia 
  • b)
    United States 
  • c)
    Japan 
  • d)
    Russia
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
The correct answer is option 'C', Japan.

Explanation:
X-ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) and Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) were successfully launched by Japan.

1. XRISM:
- XRISM, also known as the X-ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission, is a space telescope developed by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in collaboration with NASA.
- Its primary objective is to study celestial objects and phenomena using X-ray imaging and spectroscopy techniques.
- By observing X-rays emitted by various celestial objects such as galaxies, black holes, and supernovae, XRISM aims to gain insights into the structure, composition, and dynamics of the Universe.
- The mission will provide valuable data for astrophysical research and contribute to our understanding of the evolution of galaxies and the formation of cosmic structures.

2. SLIM:
- SLIM, also known as the Smart Lander for Investigating Moon, is a lunar lander mission developed by JAXA.
- Its main goal is to study the lunar surface and investigate the Moon's interior structure and composition.
- SLIM will be equipped with various scientific instruments, including a seismometer to measure moonquakes, a heat flow probe to study the thermal properties of the lunar surface, and a camera system to capture detailed images of the landing site.
- The mission will help scientists better understand the Moon's geological history, its internal processes, and potentially uncover new insights into the formation and evolution of Earth's natural satellite.

3. Launch by Japan:
- Japan has a long history of successful space missions and has made significant contributions to space exploration and scientific research.
- The country has developed advanced technologies and capabilities in the field of space science and exploration.
- JAXA, the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency, is responsible for planning, developing, and implementing space projects in Japan.
- XRISM and SLIM are two of the many missions launched by Japan to explore and study the mysteries of the Universe and the Moon.

In conclusion, XRISM and SLIM, two space missions aimed at studying celestial objects using X-ray imaging and spectroscopy techniques and investigating the Moon's surface and interior, were successfully launched by Japan. These missions will contribute to our understanding of the Universe and the Moon's geological history.

Consider the following statements regarding African Union (AU).
  1. Less than half of the countries in Africa are part of African Union (AU).
  2. Sirte Declaration called for the establishment of the African Union.
  3. Recently African Union was admitted as a member to the G20.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tanishq Roy answered
Statement 1: Less than half of the countries in Africa are part of African Union (AU).
This statement is incorrect. The African Union (AU) consists of 55 member states, which means that more than half of the countries in Africa are part of the AU. The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, with the aim of promoting unity, peace, and development in Africa.

Statement 2: Sirte Declaration called for the establishment of the African Union.
This statement is correct. The Sirte Declaration was adopted in Sirte, Libya, on 9 September 1999, during the 4th Extraordinary Session of the Assembly of the Organization of African Unity (OAU). The declaration called for the establishment of the African Union to replace the OAU. The OAU was primarily focused on decolonization and the eradication of apartheid, while the AU aims to promote integration, democracy, and economic development in Africa.

Statement 3: Recently African Union was admitted as a member to the G20.
This statement is incorrect. The African Union is not a member of the G20. The G20 is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union. It includes the world's major economies and serves as a platform for discussions on global economic issues. The African Union does not have a representation in the G20, although some African countries such as South Africa are members of the G20.

In summary, only Statement 2 is correct, while Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

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