All questions of April 2024 for UPSC CSE Exam

In a tropical cyclone, as you move from the edges towards the center, air pressure 
  • a)
    remains constant 
  • b)
    increases significantly 
  • c)
    decreases significantly 
  • d)
    varies depending on the wind speed and direction
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gopal Ghosh answered
Explanation:

Decreases significantly:
When moving from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly. This is a key characteristic of cyclones and is due to the intense low-pressure system at the center of the storm. As air converges towards the center, it rises rapidly, creating lower pressure at the surface.

Coriolis Effect:
The Coriolis effect, caused by the rotation of the Earth, also plays a role in the decreasing air pressure towards the center of the cyclone. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the right, causing it to spiral counterclockwise towards the center. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the left, resulting in a clockwise spiral towards the center.

Eye of the Cyclone:
At the very center of the cyclone is the "eye," which is a region of extremely low pressure and calm conditions. The eye is characterized by clear skies and light winds, providing a stark contrast to the intense winds and rainfall found in the eyewall surrounding it.

Wind Speed Gradient:
The decrease in air pressure towards the center of a cyclone also results in a gradient of wind speeds. The strongest winds are typically found in the eyewall, just outside the eye, where pressure is the lowest. As one moves towards the center, wind speeds decrease due to the lower pressure.

In conclusion, as one moves from the edges towards the center of a tropical cyclone, air pressure decreases significantly, creating the distinct characteristics of these powerful storms.

In which of the following states is Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary located? 
  • a)
    Rajasthan 
  • b)
    Odisha 
  • c)
    Meghalaya 
  • d)
    Arunachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjana Dey answered
Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary Location
The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh.

Significance of Arunachal Pradesh
- Arunachal Pradesh is a state in northeastern India known for its rich biodiversity and stunning natural landscapes.
- The state is home to a number of wildlife sanctuaries and national parks, including the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.

Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It covers an area of approximately 337 sq km and is known for its diverse flora and fauna.
- The sanctuary is home to a variety of wildlife species, including the elusive red panda, Himalayan black bear, and various species of birds.
- The landscape of the sanctuary ranges from dense forests to alpine meadows, providing a unique habitat for a wide range of species.

Conservation Efforts
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is an important area for conservation efforts in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The sanctuary is managed by the state government and efforts are made to protect the biodiversity of the region.
- Conservation programs are implemented to safeguard the wildlife and their habitats within the sanctuary.
In conclusion, the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, making it a significant area for wildlife conservation in northeastern India.

As per the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
  1. Article 39(b) mandates the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
  2. Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • Context: The Maharashtra government informed the Supreme Court that the phrase “material resources of the community” encompasses both public and private resources, subject to judicial review for redistribution.
  • The case concerns Article 39(b) of the Constitution, directing the state to distribute material resources for the common good. The SC bench, comprising nine judges, seeks clarity on whether privately owned resources fall under this provision.
  • Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State
  • The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing–
    (a) that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means to livelihood;
    (b) that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to sub serve the common good;
    (c) that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment;
    (d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women;
    (e) that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength;
    [In article 39 of the Constitution, for clause (f), the following clause shall be substituted through Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976]
    (f) that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.

With reference to ‘Summit of the Future’ 2024, a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly, consider the following statements:
  1. The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration.
  2. The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations.
  3. The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
  • Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts.
  • About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis.
  • Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges.

Which of the following statements regarding the process to become a member of the United Nations (UN) is correct? 
  • a)
    A country can become a UN member solely through a majority vote in the General Assembly. 
  • b)
    To become a UN member, a country must first submit an application to the Security Council, which then recommends admission to the General Assembly for a two-thirds majority vote. 
  • c)
    Any country can automatically become a UN member upon expressing its desire to join, without requiring approval from existing member states. 
  • d)
    Membership to the UN is restricted to countries that have been independent for at least 50 years and have demonstrated a commitment to peace and human rights.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Process to Become a Member of the United Nations (UN)

Submission of Application
To become a UN member, a country must first submit an application to the Security Council.

Recommendation by the Security Council
The Security Council then reviews the application and recommends admission to the General Assembly.

Approval by the General Assembly
The General Assembly must approve the recommendation with a two-thirds majority vote for the country to become a UN member.

Key Points:
- The process involves a review and approval by both the Security Council and the General Assembly.
- A country cannot become a UN member solely through a majority vote in the General Assembly.
- Approval by the Security Council and a two-thirds majority vote in the General Assembly are necessary steps in the process.

What is the significance of the “peace clause” at the World Trade Organization (WTO)? 
  • a)
    It ensures that member countries engage in peaceful negotiations to resolve trade disputes. 
  • b)
    It prohibits member countries from engaging in any form of military conflict related to trade matters. 
  • c)
    It temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges regarding their domestic agricultural subsidies under certain conditions. 
  • d)
    It mandates that member countries establish peaceful resolutions to disputes arising from intellectual property rights violations.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitin Unni answered
Significance of the "peace clause" at the World Trade Organization (WTO)
The "peace clause" at the World Trade Organization (WTO) holds significant importance for member countries, especially developing nations. Let's delve into the details:

Temporary Exemption for Developing Countries
- The peace clause temporarily exempts developing countries from legal challenges related to their domestic agricultural subsidies.
- This exemption allows these countries to provide subsidies to their agricultural sector without facing immediate legal action under certain conditions.
- Developing countries can utilize this exemption to support their farmers, promote food security, and boost agricultural production without fear of immediate repercussions.

Promoting Development and Food Security
- By providing a temporary shield from legal challenges, the peace clause enables developing countries to strengthen their agricultural sectors.
- This, in turn, supports rural livelihoods, enhances food security, and contributes to overall economic development in these nations.
- The clause recognizes the importance of agriculture in the development process and allows developing countries to implement policies that benefit their farmers and communities.

Fostering Fair and Equitable Trade
- The peace clause helps level the playing field in international trade by acknowledging the unique challenges faced by developing countries.
- It promotes fair and equitable trade practices by allowing developing nations to support their agricultural sectors while gradually transitioning to more sustainable practices.
- This temporary exemption fosters a more inclusive and balanced trading system that takes into account the diverse needs and circumstances of all member countries.
In conclusion, the "peace clause" at the WTO plays a crucial role in supporting the development objectives of developing countries, promoting food security, and fostering fair and equitable trade practices within the global trading system.

Which of the following statements about rogue waves is true? 
  • a)
    Rogue waves are always caused by underwater earthquakes. 
  • b)
    Rogue waves are typically less than twice the height of surrounding waves. 
  • c)
    Rogue waves are more likely to occur in shallow waters. 
  • d)
    Rogue waves are unpredictable and can appear suddenly without warning.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • Context: A University of Melbourne expedition to the Southern Ocean has uncovered that wind is a significant factor in the creation of massive rogue waves.
  • About Rogue Waves:
    • Rogue waves are large, unpredictable, and dangerous ocean waves that are at least twice the height of the surrounding waves.
    • They can be formed when multiple wave crests pass through a single point, or from a combination of waves and currents.
    • Rogue waves are rare, but they can be a threat to ocean liners, capital ships, and land structures.

Consider the following pairs[GI product: State]:
  1. Asharikandi Terracotta Craft: Kerala
  2. Pani Meteka Craft: Assam
  3. Sarthebari Metal Craft: Odisha
  4. Jaapi: Sikkim
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Rane answered
Explanation:

Incorrect Pair:
- Asharikandi Terracotta Craft: Kerala
- Pani Meteka Craft: Assam
- Sarthebari Metal Craft: Odisha
- Jaapi: Sikkim

Correctly Matched Pair:
- None of the pairs listed in the question are correctly matched.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - Only one.

The term “Mpox” sometimes mentioned in the news, is a/an/the 
  • a)
    treatment for smallpox 
  • b)
    detoxifying agent 
  • c)
    strange plastic rock 
  • d)
    DNA virus
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome.
  • Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability.

Consider the following statements about Dry Seeded Rice (DSR):
  1. It involves transplanting rice seedlings into flooded fields.
  2. It typically requires less water compared to traditional flooded rice cultivation.
  3. It is primarily practiced in regions with abundant rainfall.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
  • Context: The IRRI-South Asia Regional Centre (ISARC) aims to develop rice varieties with low methane emissions and improve the productivity of nutritious rice.
  • Dry Seeded Rice (DSR) is a modern rice cultivation technique where rice seeds are sown directly into dry soil rather than transplanting seedlings into flooded fields, as seen in traditional flooded rice cultivation. This method typically requires less water because flooding is not necessary during the initial stages of growth, unlike in flooded rice cultivation. By avoiding continuous flooding, DSR also reduces methane emissions and water pollution associated with traditional rice cultivation methods. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding the main functions of Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
  1. It formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
  2. It issues, exchanges and destroys currency notes as well as puts into circulation coins minted by Government of India.
  3. It introduces and upgrades safe and efficient modes of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public at large.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only One 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The Prime Minister addressed the opening ceremony of RBI@90 in Mumbai, marking 90 years of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • Monetary Authority:
    • Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
    • Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:
    • Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country’s banking and financial system functions.
    • Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors’ interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
  • Manager of Foreign Exchange
    • Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
    • Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
  • Issuer of currency:
    • Issues, exchanges and destroys currency notes as well as puts into circulation coins minted by Government of India.
    • Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.
  • Developmental role
    • Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.
  • Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems:
    • Introduces and upgrades safe and efficient modes of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public at large.
    • Objective: maintain public confidence in payment and settlement system
  • Related Functions
    • Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.
    • Banker to banks: maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks.

Which tree among the following is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells? 
  • a)
    Azadirachta indica 
  • b)
    Pterocarpus santalinus 
  • c)
    Indian Silver Oak 
  • d)
    Teak
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Datta answered
The Indian Silver Oak
The Indian Silver Oak tree is most notable for its extraordinary capacity to hold water beneath its thick bark, providing a vital resource during dry spells. This characteristic sets it apart from other trees and makes it a valuable asset in regions prone to drought.

Water Storage Ability
The Indian Silver Oak tree has developed a unique adaptation to store water beneath its thick bark. This allows the tree to retain moisture during periods of drought when water is scarce. The stored water acts as a reserve that can sustain the tree during dry spells, ensuring its survival even in challenging environmental conditions.

Importance during Dry Spells
During dry spells, when water sources are limited, the Indian Silver Oak's ability to hold water becomes crucial. The stored water provides a lifeline for the tree, enabling it to continue essential functions such as photosynthesis and growth. This resilience makes the tree a valuable resource in arid regions where water availability is a constant challenge.

Ecological Significance
The Indian Silver Oak's capacity to hold water not only benefits the tree itself but also has broader ecological significance. By serving as a reservoir during dry spells, the tree contributes to the ecosystem's overall resilience and stability. Other plants and organisms in the area may also benefit from the water stored by the Indian Silver Oak, highlighting its importance in the local environment.
In conclusion, the Indian Silver Oak's exceptional ability to hold water beneath its thick bark makes it a remarkable tree with significant ecological value, particularly in regions prone to drought. Its capacity to withstand dry spells and provide vital resources underscores the importance of conserving and protecting this unique species.

Which of the following statements about Earth’s rotation is correct? 
  • a)
    Earth rotates on its axis once every 23 hours and 54 minutes. 
  • b)
    Earth rotates counterclockwise when viewed from the North Pole. 
  • c)
    Earth's rotation speed is faster at the equator compared to the poles. 
  • d)
    Earth's rotation axis is perpendicular to its orbital plane.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Context: A recent study suggests that the accelerated melting of glaciers and ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica due to climate change is affecting Earth’s rotation, potentially postponing the need for a “negative leap second” to keep clocks aligned with Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
  • Option 1 is Incorrect: Earth makes one complete rotation on its axis every 23 hours and 56 minutes, which is rounded up to 24 hours.
  • Option 2 is Incorrect: Earth rotates counterclockwise when viewed from above the North Pole, not when viewed from the North Pole itself.
  • Option 3 is correct: Earth’s rotation speed is indeed faster at the equator compared to the poles due to the larger circumference of the equator, resulting in a greater distance traveled in the same amount of time.
  • Option 4 is Incorrect: Earth’s rotation axis is tilted at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees relative to its orbital plane around the Sun, not perpendicular.

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Earth’s rotation is slowing slightly with time; thus, a day was shorter in the past.
Statement-II: This is due to the tidal effects the Moon has on Earth’s rotation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Datta answered
Explanation:

Statement-I:
- The Earth's rotation is indeed slowing down slightly over time due to the tidal forces exerted by the Moon.
- This phenomenon is known as tidal braking, where the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon results in a transfer of energy, causing the Earth's rotation to slow down.
- As a result, in the past, days were shorter because the Earth rotated faster.

Statement-II:
- The statement correctly identifies the reason behind the Earth's slowing rotation as the tidal effects caused by the Moon.
- The gravitational pull of the Moon creates tidal bulges on Earth, causing a torque that acts to slow down the Earth's rotation.
- Therefore, Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Therefore, the correct option is:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

In India, which one of the following is mandated with facilitating monetization of non-core assets of government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment or closure and enemy property? 
  • a)
    NITI Aayog 
  • b)
    Reserve Bank of India 
  • c)
    Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade 
  • d)
    Department of Investment and Public Asset Management
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
In India, the disinvestment process is overseen by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), operating under the Ministry of Finance. DIPAM’s main goal is to manage the government’s investments in public sector enterprises and supervise the disinvestment of government equity in these enterprises. Additionally, in 2005, the government established the National Investment Fund (NIF) to serve as a channel for the proceeds generated from the disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises. The creation of NIF aimed to ensure transparent and efficient utilization of these funds for various developmental purposes.

Plastic Overshoot Day 2024 Report was released by which organization? 
  • a)
    World Health Organization (WHO) 
  • b)
    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 
  • c)
    Plastic Pollution Coalition 
  • d)
    Earth Action
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Released by Earth Action
  • Key Findings: In 2024, it’s projected for September 5th globally and April 23rd in India. There has been over 7% rise in global plastic waste since 2021, with 12 countries responsible for 60% of mismanaged plastic waste, including China, India, and Russia.
  • India is categorized as a Low-Waste-Producing Polluter with a high Mismanaged Waste Index (MWI)
  • Plastic Overshoot Day (similar to Earth Overshoot Day) marks when global plastic waste surpasses the world’s capacity to manage it, leading to pollution.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
  2. Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Kapoor answered
Explanation:

1. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative:
The first statement is incorrect. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was not launched by UNESCO in 2014. In fact, the World Craft City initiative was launched by the World Crafts Council (WCC) in 2002 to promote and protect traditional crafts and artisans around the world.

2. UNESCO's identification of Srinagar:
The second statement is also incorrect. UNESCO has not identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation. As of now, there has been no official announcement or confirmation from UNESCO regarding Srinagar's candidacy for the World Craft City designation.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Consider the following statements regarding Kallakkadal.
  1. Kallakkadal are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds in the coastal environment.
  2. They occur along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast.
  3. Tsunami and Kallakkadal are similar types of waves with similar causes or mechanisms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Swell surge forecast system is an innovative system designed for the prediction of Kallakkadal/Swell Surge that occurs along the Indian coast, particularly the west coast. Kallakadal/Swell surge are flash-flood events that take place without any noticeable advance change in local winds or any other apparent signature in the coastal environment. Hence the local population remains totally unaware of these flooding events until they actually occur. Such events are intermittent throughout the year.
  • Kallakkadal is a colloquial term used by Kerala fishermen to refer to the freaky flooding episodes and in 2012 UNESCO formally accepted this term for scientific use. During Kallakkadal events, the sea surges into the land and inundated vast areas. These events have attracted attention especially after the 2004 Tsunami in the Indian Ocean, since most people mistake Kallakkadal to be Tsunamis. Tsunami and Kallakkadal/Swell surge are two different types of waves with entirely separate causes or mechanisms. Kallakkadal are caused by meteorological conditions in the Southern Ocean, south of 30°S. A study by INCOIS scientists has revealed that specific meteorological conditions in the Southern Indian Ocean support the generation of long period swells. These swells once generated, travel northward and reach the Indian coasts in 3-5 days time, creating havoc in the coastal areas. The system will now predict Kallakkadal and warnings will be given to concerned authorities at least 2-3 days in advance, which will help the local authorities for contingency plans and to reduce damage.

Which of the following statements best reflects the principle of “Principles for Harmonious Construction”? 
  • a)
    In case of ambiguity, courts should interpret statutes in a way that advances the public interest. 
  • b)
    When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law. 
  • c)
    Courts should strictly adhere to the plain language of statutes without considering their underlying purpose. 
  • d)
    Statutes should be interpreted in a manner that favors one particular group over others.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Interpreting Statutes in Line with Legislative Intent
When it comes to the principle of "Principles for Harmonious Construction," the best statement that reflects this concept is:

When interpreting statutes, courts should consider the legislative intent and the purpose of the law.
This principle emphasizes the importance of understanding the underlying purpose and intent of the law when interpreting statutes. This approach ensures that the courts align their interpretation with the legislative goals and objectives, thus promoting harmony and coherence in the legal system.

Why is Considering Legislative Intent Important?
- By considering legislative intent, courts can better understand the context and rationale behind the law, leading to more accurate and meaningful interpretations.
- This approach helps prevent inconsistencies and conflicts within the legal framework, promoting a harmonious application of statutes.
- It also enhances the overall effectiveness and legitimacy of the legal system by ensuring that judicial decisions are in line with the intentions of the lawmakers.
In conclusion, the principle of "Principles for Harmonious Construction" underscores the significance of interpreting statutes in a manner that respects legislative intent and promotes coherence in the legal system. By adhering to this principle, courts can contribute to a more harmonious and consistent application of the law.

Which of the following statements about methanol is true? 
  • a)
    It is primarily used as a fuel additive in gasoline. 
  • b)
    It is a saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula CH4
  • c)
    It is commonly known as wood alcohol. 
  • d)
    It is a greenhouse gas primarily emitted from agricultural activities.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Commonly known as wood alcohol
Methanol is commonly known as wood alcohol. It is a type of alcohol that is colorless, volatile, and flammable. It is produced through the distillation of wood and is used in various industries for different purposes.
Methanol is used as a solvent, antifreeze, fuel, and denaturant for ethanol. It is also used in the production of formaldehyde, acetic acid, and various other chemicals. Additionally, methanol is used as a fuel additive in gasoline to improve combustion efficiency and reduce emissions.
Methanol is toxic when ingested or inhaled, which is why it is important to handle it with caution. It can cause blindness, organ failure, and even death if consumed in large quantities. However, when used properly and in controlled environments, methanol can be a valuable chemical in various industries.
In conclusion, methanol is commonly known as wood alcohol due to its historical production from wood. It has various industrial applications and is used in the production of many chemicals. It is important to handle methanol with care due to its toxic nature.

Which of the following statements best describes the impacts of Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR)? 
  • a)
    Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity due to a larger workforce contributing to the economy. 
  • b)
    Decreased FLFPR results in reduced gender inequality as women have more time to focus on household responsibilities and caregiving. 
  • c)
    A higher FLFPR typically leads to lower fertility rates as women prioritize their careers over starting families. 
  • d)
    Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Impact of Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR)

Increased Economic Growth and Productivity:
- Increased FLFPR often leads to higher economic growth and productivity as it expands the workforce and brings in diverse skills and perspectives.
- More women in the labor force mean more individuals contributing to the economy, leading to overall growth.

Reduced Gender Inequality:
- Higher FLFPR can contribute to reducing gender inequality by providing women with economic independence and opportunities for career advancement.
- It challenges traditional gender roles and stereotypes, promoting a more egalitarian society.

Lower Fertility Rates:
- Contrary to the statement, higher FLFPR does not necessarily lead to lower fertility rates. Women can balance careers and families, leading to more informed choices about family planning.

Impact on Poverty and Income Inequality:
- Countries with low FLFPR tend to have higher rates of poverty and income inequality due to underutilization of female talent and potential.
- Increasing FLFPR can help alleviate poverty by providing more individuals with opportunities for economic empowerment.
In conclusion, the impacts of FLFPR are multifaceted, with the potential to drive economic growth, reduce gender inequality, and alleviate poverty. It is essential to create an enabling environment that supports women's participation in the labor force to harness these benefits fully.

Which of the following statements accurately describes GPS spoofing? 
  • a)
    GPS spoofing is a method used to increase the accuracy of GPS signals. 
  • b)
    GPS spoofing involves sending fake GPS signals to deceive GPS receivers about the actual location. 
  • c)
    GPS spoofing is primarily used to reduce the power consumption of GPS devices. 
  • d)
    GPS spoofing is a feature that allows GPS devices to communicate with each other wirelessly.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: Israel reportedly used GPS jamming to confuse Iran’s missile targeting teams ahead of Iran’s direct attack on Israel.
  • GPS spoofing is a technique where fake GPS signals are broadcasted to deceive GPS receivers into believing that the spoofed location is the actual location. This can be used to mislead navigation systems, track someone’s location inaccurately, or even cause accidents by providing false navigation information. It is a malicious activity that undermines the integrity and reliability of GPS-based systems.

For the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has unveiled a revolutionary plan that offers the choice of “home voting,” which is accessible for 
  • a)
    For all elderly citizens 
  • b)
    For all Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) 
  • c)
    Both (a) and (b) 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) has introduced a ground-breaking initiative for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, providing the option of home voting for elderly citizens above 85 years of age and Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) with a 40% benchmark disability.
  • This initiative aims to enhance inclusivity and accessibility in the electoral process.

Consider the following statements:
  1. Interest rates rise when inflation decreases.
  2. Lower interest rates typically encourage saving and discourage borrowing.
  3. Central banks adjust interest rates to regulate the money supply and stabilize economic activity.
  4. Rising interest rates have a stimulative effect on the housing market.
How many of the above statements about interest rates are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • S1 is incorrect: Interest rates generally rise with increasing inflation to compensate lenders for the diminishing value of money over time.
  • S2 is incorrect: Lower interest rates typically encourage borrowing and spending by making it cheaper to finance purchases, while they discourage saving by offering lower returns on savings accounts and investments.
  • S3 is correct. Central banks, such as the Federal Reserve in the United States, use monetary policy tools, including adjusting interest rates, to influence the money supply in the economy. By raising or lowering interest rates, central banks can influence borrowing, spending, and investment, which in turn affects economic activity and inflation.
  • S4 is incorrect: Rising interest rates usually have a dampening effect on the housing market as higher mortgage rates make it more expensive for individuals to borrow money for home purchases, potentially reducing demand for homes and slowing down housing market activity.

What term describes the phenomenon where the frequency of atomic oscillations is used to define the length of a second? 
  • a)
    Time dilation 
  • b)
    Atomic resonance 
  • c)
    Time standardization 
  • d)
    Atomic frequency standard
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Atomic Frequency Standard
Atomic frequency standard is the term that describes the phenomenon where the frequency of atomic oscillations is used to define the length of a second. This method is widely used in modern timekeeping devices and plays a crucial role in maintaining accurate time standards.

How It Works
- Atomic frequency standards rely on the natural frequency of atomic oscillations, such as those of cesium or rubidium atoms, to define the length of a second.
- These devices use the characteristic frequency at which atoms transition between energy levels to generate extremely stable and precise time measurements.
- By counting the oscillations of atoms over a specific period, atomic clocks can provide highly accurate timekeeping that is essential for various scientific, technological, and commercial applications.

Advantages
- Atomic frequency standards offer superior accuracy compared to traditional timekeeping methods based on mechanical or quartz oscillators.
- They are used as primary standards by organizations like the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) to define the SI unit of time, the second.
- Atomic clocks are essential for synchronizing global communication systems, satellite navigation, and scientific experiments that require precise timing.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the use of atomic frequency standards in defining the length of a second has revolutionized timekeeping technology, enabling unprecedented levels of accuracy and reliability in modern clocks and time standards. This method has become the gold standard for time measurement in various fields, ensuring the consistency and synchronization of time across different devices and systems.

Which of the following statements regarding the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is correct? 
  • a)
    WARM is primarily used for studying cosmic microwave background radiation. 
  • b)
    WARM monitors solar activity using ultraviolet light. 
  • c)
    WARM is a space-based telescope designed to observe distant galaxies. 
  • d)
    WARM is deployed to track and study solar active regions using white light observations.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Datta answered
Overview of WARM:
The White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) is a scientific instrument used for tracking and studying solar active regions. It is specifically designed to observe the Sun using white light observations.

Functionality of WARM:
WARM is deployed to monitor solar activity by capturing images of the Sun in white light. By observing sunspots, flares, and other phenomena in white light, researchers can study the dynamics and evolution of solar active regions.

Importance of WARM:
Studying solar active regions is crucial for understanding solar behavior and its impact on space weather. Solar flares and eruptions from active regions can affect communication systems, satellites, and power grids on Earth.

Applications of WARM:
WARM's observations provide valuable data for researchers studying solar physics, space weather, and solar-terrestrial interactions. By monitoring changes in active regions over time, scientists can improve their understanding of solar processes and their effects on Earth.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the White Light Active Region Monitor (WARM) plays a significant role in tracking and studying solar active regions using white light observations. Its contributions to solar research are invaluable for advancing our knowledge of the Sun and its influence on our planet.

Which of the following statements best describes Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)? 
  • a)
    It represents the total value of goods and services produced in an economy during a specific period. 
  • b)
    It refers to the change in the value of stocks and bonds traded in a financial market. 
  • c)
    It measures the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a particular time period. 
  • d)
    It denotes the total value of exports minus the total value of imports in an economy.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: Private investment in India, measured by Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) as a percentage of GDP, has seen a decline since 2011-12. Despite government efforts like corporate tax cuts, private investment hasn’t picked up.
  • What is GFCF?
    • Gross Fixed Capital Formation, measures the growth in fixed capital in an economy, including assets like buildings and machinery. It serves as an indicator of private sector investment willingness and includes government investment. GFCF is important because fixed capital boosts economic growth by increasing productivity and living standards. Developed economies tend to have more fixed capital per capita compared to developing ones.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy (DPSP) established by the Constitution of India.
  2. The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sagar Chavan answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.
Explanation:
- **Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)**:
- The liquor prohibition is enforced by state governments under the directive principles of state policy established by the Constitution of India. DPSPs are guidelines for the state to implement policies that promote the welfare of the people.
- While the Constitution of India provides for the prohibition of liquor as a directive principle, it is up to the state governments to decide whether or not to enforce it within their respective states.
- **Central Government's role**:
- The guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor are established by the Central Government.
- The Central Government has the authority to regulate and control the import and export of goods, including liquor, through policies such as imposing tariffs to protect domestic industry or to generate revenue for the government.
In conclusion, both statements are correct as they pertain to different aspects of liquor regulation in India. The state governments enforce liquor prohibition as part of their responsibilities under DPSP, while the Central Government sets guidelines for import tariffs on imported liquor.

What does the credit-deposit ratio measure in the banking sector? 
  • a)
    The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total assets. 
  • b)
    The ratio of a bank's total deposits to its total liabilities. 
  • c)
    The ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total deposits. 
  • d)
    The ratio of a bank's profits to its shareholders' equity.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Dipika Joshi answered
Explanation:
The credit-deposit ratio in the banking sector is a crucial metric that measures the ratio of loans disbursed by a bank to its total deposits. This ratio provides insights into how effectively a bank is utilizing its deposits to extend credit to borrowers.
Here is a breakdown of the components involved in the credit-deposit ratio:

Credit-Deposit Ratio:
- The credit-deposit ratio is calculated by dividing the total loans disbursed by a bank by its total deposits.
- It indicates the extent to which a bank is lending out the funds it has received in the form of deposits.

Significance:
- A high credit-deposit ratio suggests that the bank is lending out a significant portion of its deposits, which can lead to higher profitability through interest income.
- On the other hand, a low credit-deposit ratio may indicate that the bank is not utilizing its deposits efficiently to generate income.

Importance:
- Monitoring the credit-deposit ratio is essential for banks to maintain a balance between lending activities and deposit inflows.
- It helps in assessing the risk exposure of a bank and ensuring that it has enough liquidity to meet its obligations.
In conclusion, the credit-deposit ratio is a key indicator for evaluating a bank's lending practices and financial health. By analyzing this ratio, stakeholders can better understand how efficiently a bank is managing its deposits to support its lending activities.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
  2. Recently, UNESCO has identified Srinagar as a potential candidate for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) designation from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: Srinagar is being considered for the prestigious World Craft City (WCC) title by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI).
  • About WCC:
    • The World Craft City (WCC) initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council International (WCCI), a Kuwait-based organization. It acknowledges the contributions of local authorities, craftspeople, and communities to cultural, economic, and social development worldwide. WCC aims to establish a network of craft cities globally, promoting the principles of the creative economy and preserving traditional crafts.

Which of the following statements about the Byzantine Empire is correct? 
  • a)
    The capital of the Byzantine Empire was Rome. 
  • b)
    Emperor Constantine the Great founded the Byzantine Empire in the 5th century. 
  • c)
    The official religion of the Byzantine Empire was Buddhism. 
  • d)
    The Byzantine Empire was known for its continuation of Roman traditions and Christianity.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sonal Gupta answered
The Byzantine Empire
The correct statement about the Byzantine Empire is option 'D'. Here is an explanation of why this statement is correct:

Continuation of Roman traditions
- The Byzantine Empire, also known as the Eastern Roman Empire, was a continuation of the Roman Empire after the fall of the Western Roman Empire in 476 AD.
- The Byzantine Empire preserved many Roman traditions, institutions, and laws, such as the use of Latin as the official language of the government.

Christianity in the Byzantine Empire
- Christianity played a significant role in the Byzantine Empire, with Emperor Constantine the Great legalizing and promoting Christianity in the early 4th century.
- The official religion of the Byzantine Empire was Christianity, specifically the Eastern Orthodox branch of Christianity.

Capital of the Byzantine Empire
- The capital of the Byzantine Empire was Constantinople, which was originally known as Byzantium and later renamed by Emperor Constantine the Great.
- Constantinople served as the political, cultural, and economic center of the Byzantine Empire.
In conclusion, the Byzantine Empire was known for its continuation of Roman traditions, especially in the adoption of Christianity as the official religion. The empire's capital was Constantinople, not Rome, and it was founded by Emperor Constantine the Great in the 4th century, not the 5th century.

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between a Cyclone and an Anticyclone? 
  • a)
    Cyclones are characterized by inward spiraling winds and low-pressure centers, while anticyclones have outward spiraling winds and high-pressure centers. 
  • b)
    Cyclones are associated with calm weather conditions and clear skies, while anticyclones bring stormy weather and heavy precipitation. 
  • c)
    Cyclones typically rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere, whereas anticyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • d)
    Cyclones form over landmasses and are driven by the cooling of air masses, while anticyclones form over warm ocean waters and are fueled by evaporation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Gupta answered
Characteristics of Cyclones and Anticyclones:
- Cyclones:
Cyclones are characterized by inward spiraling winds and low-pressure centers.
They typically bring stormy weather and heavy precipitation.
- Anticyclones:
Anticyclones have outward spiraling winds and high-pressure centers.
They are associated with calm weather conditions and clear skies.

Rotation Direction:
- Cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- Anticyclones rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

Formation and Driving Factors:
- Cyclones form over warm ocean waters and are fueled by evaporation.
- Anticyclones form over landmasses and are driven by the cooling of air masses.
In summary, cyclones and anticyclones differ in their wind direction, pressure centers, associated weather conditions, rotation direction, and formation processes. Cyclones are typically associated with stormy weather and low-pressure systems, while anticyclones are associated with calm weather and high-pressure systems. Understanding these distinctions can help meteorologists predict weather patterns and provide accurate forecasts.

Consider the following statements about Vaigai River:
  1. It originates in Varusanadu Hills.
  2. The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river.
  3. Madurai city lies on this river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 only 
  • c)
    3 only 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • It originates in the Western Ghats (Varushanad Hills) and flows through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu. Stretching 258 kilometres, it ultimately joins the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge in Ramanathapuram district. Vaigai holds historical significance as it flowed through Madurai, the capital of the ancient Pandya kingdom, and is mentioned in Sangam literature.
  • The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river.

Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 is released by the 
  • a)
    United Nations Environment Programme 
  • b)
    Food and Agriculture Organization 
  • c)
    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Datta answered



United Nations Environment Programme
Food Waste Index (FWI) Report 2024 is released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The UNEP is a leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for the global environment.



Significance of the FWI Report
- The FWI Report provides important insights into the global issue of food waste, highlighting the scale of the problem and its impact on the environment, economy, and society.
- It helps in raising awareness about the need to reduce food waste and promotes actions to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 12.3, which aims to halve food waste by 2030.



Key Findings of the FWI Report 2024
- The report presents data on food waste generation, patterns, and trends across different regions and income groups.
- It highlights the environmental, social, and economic consequences of food waste, such as greenhouse gas emissions, resource depletion, and food insecurity.
- The report also identifies best practices and policy recommendations to reduce food waste at various stages of the food supply chain.



Role of UNEP in Addressing Food Waste
- UNEP plays a key role in coordinating international efforts to reduce food waste through initiatives such as the Save Food Initiative and the Think.Eat.Save campaign.
- The organization works with governments, businesses, and civil society to develop strategies and policies for preventing food waste, promoting sustainable consumption and production, and achieving a circular economy.


In conclusion, the FWI Report 2024 released by the United Nations Environment Programme is a valuable resource for understanding and addressing the global challenge of food waste. It emphasizes the urgent need for collective action to reduce food waste and build a more sustainable and resilient food system for the future.

Consider the following statements about International Finance Corporation (IFC):
  1. It is a sister organization of the International Monetary Fund.
  2. It is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.
  3. Its goals are to increase sustainable agriculture opportunities, improve healthcare and education.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aravind Basu answered
Explanation:

International Finance Corporation (IFC)

Statement 1: It is a sister organization of the International Monetary Fund.
- This statement is incorrect. IFC is a member of the World Bank Group, not a sister organization of the International Monetary Fund.

Statement 2: It is the largest global development institution focused exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.
- This statement is correct. IFC is indeed the largest global development institution that focuses exclusively on the private sector in developing countries.

Statement 3: Its goals are to increase sustainable agriculture opportunities, improve healthcare and education.
- This statement is incorrect. While IFC does support various sectors including agriculture, healthcare, and education, its primary goal is to promote private sector development in developing countries by providing investment and advisory services to businesses.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, making the correct answer option 'B' - Only two.

“1 Million Youth Actions Challenge”(1MYAC) is an initiative led by the 
  • a)
    World Economic Forum 
  • b)
    United Nations Environment Programme 
  • c)
    UN Climate Change Learning Partnership 
  • d)
    United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Context: The 1 Million Youth Actions Challenge (1MYAC) by the UN Climate Change Learning Partnership (UN CC:Learn) aims to mobilize youth aged 10 to 30 to take concrete actions for a sustainable future, with a goal of reaching 1,000,000 youth actions.
    • It focuses on promoting four Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): clean water and sanitation, responsible consumption and production, climate action, and life on land.
    • 1MYAC was founded by the Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation (SDC) and the RéSEAU.
  • The One UN Climate Change Learning Partnership (UN CC:Learn) is a collaborative initiative of more than 30 multilateral organizations that support countries in designing and implementing climate change. UN CC:Learn offers information on climate change and free online courses.

Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
  • a)
    Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. 
  • b)
    Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. 
  • c)
    Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. 
  • d)
    Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
  • Global hepatitis report 2024
    • Released by WHO
    • India accounted for over 11% of the global burden of hepatitis B & C cases, ranking second after China.
    • Hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by various factors, such as drugs, alcohol, and autoimmune disorders. Symptoms can range from jaundice and fever to chronic illness. The five main strains are A, B, C, D, and E, with B and C leading to chronic disease, liver cirrhosis, cancer, and death. While a vaccine exists for type B, none is available for type C

Which of the following statements about cholera is true? 
  • a)
    Cholera is caused by a virus. 
  • b)
    Cholera is transmitted through contaminated food and water. 
  • c)
    Cholera symptoms include high fever and cough. 
  • d)
    Cholera is easily treated with antibiotics.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • WHO prequalified the Euvichol-S vaccine for Cholera The WHO prequalified the Euvichol-S vaccine for Cholera, a simplified and cost-effective formulation of the oral cholera vaccine Euvichol-Plus.
    • Meaning of Prequalification: “Prequalified” means that the vaccine has undergone a rigorous assessment by the WHO and has been deemed to meet international standards of quality, safety, and efficacy. The vaccine is suitable for procurement by United Nations agencies and other international organizations
  • Cholera, caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria, is transmitted through contaminated food or water, with the highest number of cases reported in the Middle East and Africa. India reported 132 cases in 2023 (till July).

The terms “INC-2 and INC-4” are mentioned in the news sometimes, are associated with the 
  • a)
    International conventions on Chemical weapons 
  • b)
    WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements 
  • c)
    WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives 
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

INC-2 and INC-4
- INC-2 and INC-4 do not refer to any specific international conventions or committees.
- These terms are not associated with the International conventions on Chemical weapons, WTO’s committee focused on promoting global trade agreements, or WHO’s committee overseeing global health initiatives.
- They are not related to any prominent global organizations or agreements.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D', None of the above. These terms may be specific to certain contexts or industries that are not widely known or recognized.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Rampage missile? 
  • a)
    The Rampage missile is a long-range ballistic missile. 
  • b)
    The Rampage missile is a supersonic air-to-ground missile designed for precision strikes against high-value targets. 
  • c)
    The Rampage missile is an anti-aircraft missile used for defense against incoming enemy aircraft. 
  • d)
    The Rampage missile is a submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Context: Israel recently utilized the Rampage missile in an attack on an Iranian military base.
    • The Rampage missile is an air-to-surface weapon developed by Israel Aerospace Industries and Israeli Military Industries Systems.
  • Features of Rampage:
    • Designed for precision strikes, it targets high-quality, well-protected sites such as communication centres and air force bases.
    • The missile boasts supersonic speeds, making it challenging to intercept.
    • With a range exceeding 190 miles, it can be deployed from aircraft or as a stand-alone system, utilizing GPS/INS guidance navigation and anti-jamming capabilities.
    • Additionally, it can adjust its trajectory mid-flight and operate effectively in various weather conditions, ensuring precise target hits.

Consider the following:
  1. Forward contracts
  2. Swaps
  3. Currency futures
  4. Currency options
How many of the above are an example of an exchange-traded currency derivative?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has postponed the implementation of its new norms for the exchange-traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market.
  • Futures and options are two of the most popular exchange-traded derivatives. Exchange-traded derivatives can be used to hedge exposure and to speculate on a wide range of financial assets, including commodities, equities, currencies, and even interest rates.
    • Forward contracts are over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives, not exchange-traded.
    • Swaps are also typically traded over-the-counter (OTC), not on regulated exchanges.

Which one of the following statements accurately describes the term ‘Polar Vortex’? 
  • a)
    A phenomenon caused by the Earth's tilt on its axis, leading to extreme cold temperatures in polar regions. 
  • b)
    A high-pressure system that forms over the North and South Poles, causing a rapid decrease in temperature. 
  • c)
    A large-scale circulation pattern that typically forms during winter, trapping cold air within the Arctic region. 
  • d)
    An atmospheric disturbance characterized by a sudden shift in wind direction, leading to unpredictable weather patterns.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • Context: In a surprising turn of events, scientists observed the Arctic’s polar vortex spinning in the opposite direction, marking one of the six strongest occurrences of its kind since 1979.
  • About Polar Vortex:
    • The polar vortex is a large, persistent circulation of frigid air located in the stratosphere and typically centred near the Earth’s poles.
    • It is characterized by a strong wind current that circulates from west to east, trapping cold air within the polar regions during the winter months.
    • The polar vortex plays a crucial role in maintaining the polar climate and can influence weather patterns in mid-latitude regions.
    • Occasionally, disruptions in the polar vortex can occur, leading to phenomena such as sudden stratospheric warming events, which can result in shifts in weather patterns and colder temperatures in regions outside of the polar areas.

Which of the following statements regarding the Evershed Effect is true? 
  • a)
    It describes the deflection of light passing through a magnetic field. 
  • b)
    It refers to the phenomenon where the absorption lines in a stellar spectrum are shifted due to the Doppler effect. 
  • c)
    It is a result of the differential rotation of the Sun's surface layers. 
  • d)
    It is observed as a radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The 125th anniversary of Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KSO) was celebrated recently on April 1, 2024, by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA)
  • Significant achievements of KoSO
    • Identified the Evershed Effect (a phenomenon observed in sunspots where gas flows radially outward from the centre of the sunspot)
    • Expanded research scope to cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics
  • The Evershed Effect refers to the radial flow of gas across the solar surface in sunspots. As sunspots are areas of intense magnetic activity on the Sun’s surface, the magnetic fields cause gases to flow radially outward from the center of the sunspot. This effect was discovered by the English astronomer John Evershed in the early 20th century. Options A, B, and C describe other astronomical phenomena but do not accurately represent the Evershed Effect.

Consider the following statements about the Group of Friends (GOF):
  1. It was launched by India in 2022.
  2. It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mahi Khanna answered
Explanation:

Statement 1: It was launched by India in 2022.
- This statement is incorrect. The Group of Friends (GOF) was not launched by India in 2022. The Group of Friends was actually established in 2010 by a group of countries with the aim of supporting and protecting United Nations peacekeepers.

Statement 2: It aims to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.
- This statement is correct. One of the main objectives of the Group of Friends is to promote accountability for crimes committed against United Nations peacekeepers, also known as Blue Helmets. The group works towards ensuring that those responsible for such crimes are held accountable for their actions.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
c) Both 1 and 2
In summary, while the first statement is incorrect as the Group of Friends was not launched by India in 2022, the second statement is accurate as the group does aim to promote accountability for crimes against the Blue Helmets.

Which of the following statements about cosmic rays is true? 
  • a)
    Cosmic rays are composed solely of photons. 
  • b)
    Cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field. 
  • c)
    Cosmic rays travel at speeds faster than the speed of light. 
  • d)
    Cosmic rays originate solely from within our solar system.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshita Datta answered
Earth's Magnetic Field Deflects Cosmic Rays
Cosmic rays are high-energy particles, mainly protons, that travel through space at nearly the speed of light. One of the key characteristics of cosmic rays is that they are deflected by Earth's magnetic field. This is due to the fact that cosmic rays are charged particles, and as they enter Earth's magnetic field, they experience a force that causes them to change direction. This deflection phenomenon is known as geomagnetic cutoff.

Importance of Earth's Magnetic Field
Earth's magnetic field plays a crucial role in protecting our planet from the harmful effects of cosmic rays. By deflecting a significant portion of incoming cosmic rays, the magnetic field helps to shield Earth's surface and its inhabitants from the high levels of radiation that cosmic rays carry. This protection is essential for maintaining a habitable environment on Earth.

Impact on Technology and Astronauts
The deflection of cosmic rays by Earth's magnetic field also has implications for technology and space travel. For example, spacecraft traveling beyond Earth's magnetic field are exposed to higher levels of cosmic radiation, which can pose risks to both the spacecraft and its occupants. Understanding how cosmic rays interact with Earth's magnetic field is therefore crucial for ensuring the safety of astronauts and the success of space missions.
In conclusion, the statement that cosmic rays are deflected by Earth's magnetic field is true. This deflection phenomenon is a key characteristic of cosmic rays and has important implications for both the protection of Earth and the safety of space exploration.

Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an initiative of the 
  • a)
    Food and Agriculture Organization 
  • b)
    World Meteorological Organization 
  • c)
    United Nations Environment Programme 
  • d)
    World Resources Institute
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
The World Resources Institute (WRI) established Global Forest Watch (GFW) in 1997 as an online platform offering data and tools to monitor forests. GFW provides access to near real-time information on global forest changes, enabling users to track and analyze forest dynamics worldwide.

Consider the following statements about UN Trade and Development”:
  1. It was established in 1945 to promote international trade cooperation.
  2. It primarily focuses on agricultural development in developing countries.
  3. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Only statement 3 is correct.
  • Context: UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development, has undergone a significant rebranding as “UN Trade and Development” to mark its 60th anniversary.
  • The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is a permanent intergovernmental organization that promotes the interests of developing countries in world trade.
  • It was established by the United Nations General Assembly on December 30, 1964 and has its headquarters in Geneva.
  • UNCTAD’s work focuses on trade, development, finance, technology, investment, and sustainable development.
  • It collects data, conducts research, and analyses policies to help countries frame policies in these areas.
  • UNCTAD also outlines recommendations for realigning the global debt architecture with developing countries’ needs.

Consider the following statements about CDP-SURAKSHA platform:
  1. It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts.
  2. It uses e-RUPI vouchers from the National Payments Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Context: The CDP-SURAKSHA is a digital platform was launched recently to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).
  • It aims to promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector by facilitating instant subsidy disbursal to farmers’ bank accounts using e-RUPI vouchers.
  • The platform integrates various features such as database integration, cloud-based server space, UIDAI validation, and e-RUPI integration.
  • Farmers can access the platform to order planting material, contribute their share of the cost, and receive government subsidies upfront.
  • The system ensures transparency and accountability by requiring farmers to verify the delivery of planting material through geo-tagged photos and videos.
  • Unlike the old system, where farmers had to purchase materials themselves and then seek subsidy release, CDP-SURAKSHA provides subsidies upfront at the time of purchase.

Which of the following statements about the ‘Southern Ocean’ is accurate? 
  • a)
    It is the smallest of the Earth's five oceans. 
  • b)
    The Southern Ocean is located entirely within the Antarctic Circle. 
  • c)
    It was officially recognized as a distinct ocean by the International Hydrographic Organization in 2000. 
  • d)
    The Southern Ocean is characterized by its warm waters and tropical climate.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Context: The Southern Ocean is known for having the cleanest air on Earth, a fact previously attributed mainly to minimal human activity.
    • However, recent research has unveiled that clouds and rain play a significant role in keeping the air pristine.
  • Option c: In 2000, the International Hydrographic Organization delimited the waters within the Convergence as a fifth world ocean basin – the Southern Ocean – by combining the southern portions of the Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, and Pacific Ocean
  • Option b: The Southern Ocean extends from the coast of Antarctica north to 60 degrees south latitude, which coincides with the Antarctic Treaty region and which approximates the extent of the Antarctic Convergence

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