All questions of Passage Based for Practice for CLAT Exam

In a 45 litres mixture of milk and water, the ratio of the milk to water is 2 : 1. When some quantity of water is added to the mixture, this ratio becomes 1 : 2. The quantity of water added is

If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, its area will be reduced by

If 78*3945 is divisible by 11. where * is a digit, then * is equal to

The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to the second is 2 : 3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is

A person standing on a railway platform noticed that a train took 21 seconds to completely pass through the platform which was 84 m long and it took 9 seconds in passing him. The speed of the train was

A and B together can do a piece of work in 10 days. A alone can do it in 30 days. The time in which B alone can do it is

12 persons can do a piece of work in 4 days. How many persons are required to complete 8 times the work in half the time?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Madhya Pradesh High Court has recently held that Aadhaar Card is not proof to determine age of minor rape survivor. The Supreme Court, has earlier held that Aadhaar is merely a document issued by UIDAI and thus cannot supersede the statutory provisions of JJ Act. The bench noted that the JJ Act mandates the court to rely on birth certificate and school leaving certificate for determining age of an individual. In the absence of those documents, the Act provides for a medical opinion and if that if not avialable then ossification test for determining the age of an individual, the bench noted. Age determination is a crucial aspect since the benefits enshrined under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 are available only to a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years. Sec 2(35) of the 2015 Act defined juvenile as a child below the age of eighteen years. Under the 2015 Act, the importance of age determination has further due to the creation of an exception under which a child above sixteen years of age may be tried as an adult if he/she is accused of committing a heinous offence. Under the 2015 Act, a three layered procedure is mentioned for determination of age.

When matriculation certificate or birth certificate is available, courts usually refuse to entertain any objection over the age of a juvenile. This is mainly because documentary evidence is the primary evidence under Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In Nirbhaya’s case, the age of the accused was 17 years and six months according to his birth certificate and other school documents. Police requested the court to conduct ossification test. But the court refused the plea and held that it cannot permit the test in presence of a positive evidence such as birth certificate. In Raju Kumar v. State of Haryana, court admitted “mark sheet” as proof of age. Courts have always interpreted the provisions of Juvenile Justice Act in favour of juveniles. In Arnit Das v. State of Bihar, court held that while deciding whether an accused is a juvenile or not, a hyper-technical approach should not be adopted while appreciating the evidence adduced on behalf of the accused. When two views are possible are possible on the same evidence, the court should lean in favour of holding the accused to be juvenile in borderline cases.

Q. In a legal case involving Riya, a 16-year-old girl accused of a serious offense, the prosecution argues that she should be tried as an adult because she has already turned 16. However, Riya's parents claim that she was born prematurely and is actually just 15 years old. What legal provision can the Child Welfare Committee use to determine Riya's age, and what steps can the committee take to verify her age?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

The successful debut of India’s sovereign green bond is a landmark event for its emerging sustainable finance ecosystem. Issued in two tranches of $1 billion each, the rupee denominated onshore debut was heavily oversubscribed at a six-basis point lower yield than the average India sovereign bond in the first round, and four basis points lower in the second round. This unexpected “greenium” marks an encouraging benchmark for future sustainable sovereign and corporate debt. The greenium’s positive signalling effect is substantial. It was secured against two major odds: The headwinds due to sluggish global growth, rising global interest rates and downward pressure on the rupee, which offered suboptimal conditions for international investors to buy into a local currency denominated offering. Second, the near absence of a domestic ESG (Environmental, social and governance) aligned investor base had raised scepticism about local investor appetite. The result shows that the market readiness for the green label exists and can be propelled with supportive regulatory/policy action. The greenium could become more sizeable with larger volumes of local currency sovereign green issuances both in onshore and offshore markets. The strategic co-benefits of sovereign issuance are bigger than the gains made on an individual issuance. According to a BIS paper, “After (the inaugural) issue, the annual number of corporate issues tends to increase across jurisdictions.” This happens due to demonstration effects. A 2021 sovereign issuers’ survey carried out by the Climate Bonds Initiative, reported that diversification of the investor pool and creation of a local green bond market are major motivators for most sovereign issuers. This was not a stated aim of the Indian authorities, but the regulatory support extended to investors will help do just that and will pave the way for better incentive structures.

Transparency on the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects is vital. Budget 2023 carries the list of projects and expenditures which will be financed by the sovereign green borrowing. The Centre’s Green Finance Working Committee has done well to largely stick to the dark green categories of expenditures, in terms of volume, within those marked as ‘medium to dark green’ in the second party opinion (SPO) it received on its Green Bond framework. The allocations to MNRE (KUSUM, solar and wind power (grid scale), the National Green Hydrogen Mission), and the Ministry of Railways (three metro project lines and energy efficient electric locomotives) clearly fall in this category. The MoEFCC (National Afforestation Programme) allocation comes under the light green category in the SPO, implying that its long-term effects on climate mitigation or resilience are unclear. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allocation for equity investment in metro projects stands out. Investors care for integrity and adhering to the best norms on evaluation and selection of projects is important. To build on the success of the sovereign green bond in India’s G20 Presidency, here are two suggestions: Foster a programme to grow local currency sovereign green issuances by emerging economies to avoid external debt traps and generate a larger pipeline of sustainable projects for national and global capital markets. Define and label sustainable activities through interoperable frameworks/taxonomies to guide capital flows. Definitions that can work seamlessly for global and local investors will help identify credible project pipelines and expenditures.

Q. What suggestion is given in the passage to further enhance the success of sovereign green bonds in emerging economies?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

General Exceptions: Under Section 76 of the IPC, an act done by a person bound or by mistake of fact believing, himself to be bound by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself, to be, bound by law to do such act. It is derived from the legal maxim ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat.
Under Section 79, act done by a person justified or by mistake of fact believing, himself justified, by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act. Accident under Section 80, includes an accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Infancy - Sections 82 and 83
Section 82 includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. Suppose a child below seven years of age, pressed the trigger of the gun and caused the death of his father then, the child will not be liable. Section 83 includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion. For example, suppose a child of 10 years killed his father with a gun in the shadow of immaturity, he will not be liable if he has not attained maturity. Insanity under Section 84, is an Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

[Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from General Exceptions under the IPC, https://blog.ipleaders.in/general-exception-under-ipc/]

Q. What is the legal concept behind the statement "ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat" mentioned in the passage?

A coin is tossed thrice. The probability that exactly two heads show up is

The next number of the sequence 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, …….is

If the price of tea is increased by 20%, by how much per cent the consumption of tea be reduced so that there is no increase in the expenditure on it?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

General Exceptions: Under Section 76 of the IPC, an act done by a person bound or by mistake of fact believing, himself to be bound by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself, to be, bound by law to do such act. It is derived from the legal maxim ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat.
Under Section 79, act done by a person justified or by mistake of fact believing, himself justified, by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act. Accident under Section 80, includes an accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Infancy - Sections 82 and 83
Section 82 includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. Suppose a child below seven years of age, pressed the trigger of the gun and caused the death of his father then, the child will not be liable. Section 83 includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion. For example, suppose a child of 10 years killed his father with a gun in the shadow of immaturity, he will not be liable if he has not attained maturity. Insanity under Section 84, is an Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
[Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from General Exceptions under the IPC, https://blog.ipleaders.in/general-exception-under-ipc/]

Q. Jon, an 11-year-old, receives daily sword-fighting lessons from his father, Rhaegar. However, Rhaegar is a harsh father who consistently punishes Jon for any mistakes during their training sessions. One day, after enduring this treatment for some time, Jon becomes extremely angry and fatally wounds Rhaegar with his sword. Fearing the consequences, he flees. Can Jon assert a legal defense?

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:

An organisation consists of 2400 employees working in different departments viz. HR, Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the organisation is 5 : 3. Twelve percent of the males work in the HR department. Twenty-four percent of the females work in the Accounts department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11. One-ninth of the females work in the IT department. Forty-two percent of the males work in the Production department. The number of females working in the Production department is 10 percent of the males working in the same department. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 285. Twenty-two percent of the males work in the Marketing department and the remaining work in the Accounts department.

Q. What is the total number of females working in HR and Marketing departments together?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Under the RTI Act, the Central/State Information Commission (“CIC/SIC”) has the power to impose personal penalty[1] on the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO), in case, the CPIO:

Amount of penalty:

The CIC/SIC has the power to impose a penalty of INR 250 each day till the RTI application is received or information is furnished by the CPIO. The total amount of such a penalty however, is not to exceed INR 25,000. Supreme Court has held that the CIC/SIC can impose a penalty only for the purpose of ensuring that the correct information is furnished to a person seeking information from a public authority[2]. Delhi High Court has held that, it can happen that the CPIO may genuinely and bonafidely entertain the belief and hold the view that the information sought by the querist cannot be provided for one or the other reasons. Merely because the CIC eventually finds that the view taken by the CPIO was not correct, it cannot automatically lead to issuance of a showcause notice under Section 20 of the RTI Act and the imposition of penalty. Only in cases of malafides or unreasonable conduct, i.e., where the CPIO, without reasonable cause refuses to receive the application, or provide the information, or knowingly gives incorrect, incomplete or misleading information or destroys the information, that the personal penalty can be imposed on the CPIO. The division bench of Allahabad High Court has held that for imposing penalty, an opinion has to be formed that the CPIO without any reasonable cause has not furnished the information within the time specified. The formation of the opinion has to be on the basis of objective consideration/relevant material and should also disclose the materials on the basis of which it is formulated. The RTI Act requires that a reasonable opportunity of being heard is to be provided to the CPIO. The CPIO is therefore showcaused by CIC before any decision to impose penalty on him is taken. The RTI Act provides that the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently shall be on the CPIO.

Q. Mr. Sharma submitted a request under the RTI Act to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, inquiring about the instances of industrial units violating environmental regulations and the subsequent measures taken against them. Nevertheless, the Ministry's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) declined to provide the information, citing concerns about potential confidentiality breaches related to these industrial units. In response to this denial, Mr. Sharma filed a complaint with the Central Information Commission (CIC), asserting that the CPIO had acted with malintent in denying him access to the requested information.

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

General Exceptions: Under Section 76 of the IPC, an act done by a person bound or by mistake of fact believing, himself to be bound by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself, to be, bound by law to do such act. It is derived from the legal maxim ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat.
Under Section 79, act done by a person justified or by mistake of fact believing, himself justified, by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act. Accident under Section 80, includes an accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Infancy - Sections 82 and 83
Section 82 includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. Suppose a child below seven years of age, pressed the trigger of the gun and caused the death of his father then, the child will not be liable. Section 83 includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion. For example, suppose a child of 10 years killed his father with a gun in the shadow of immaturity, he will not be liable if he has not attained maturity. Insanity under Section 84, is an Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
[Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from General Exceptions under the IPC, https://blog.ipleaders.in/general-exception-under-ipc/]

Q. Which of the following statements regarding 'X' is accurate with respect to his ability to claim a defense under section 84, considering his occasional unsound mind and the act of killing someone who had been annoying him:

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Emergency Chronicles: Indira Gandhi and Democracy's Turning Point' by Gyan Prakash, available now through Penguin Random House India.]

Q. What does the passage highlight about the process of declaring Emergency in India?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

Under the RTI Act, the Central/State Information Commission (“CIC/SIC”) has the power to impose personal penalty[1] on the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO), in case, the CPIO:

Amount of penalty:

The CIC/SIC has the power to impose a penalty of INR 250 each day till the RTI application is received or information is furnished by the CPIO. The total amount of such a penalty however, is not to exceed INR 25,000. Supreme Court has held that the CIC/SIC can impose a penalty only for the purpose of ensuring that the correct information is furnished to a person seeking information from a public authority[2]. Delhi High Court has held that, it can happen that the CPIO may genuinely and bonafidely entertain the belief and hold the view that the information sought by the querist cannot be provided for one or the other reasons. Merely because the CIC eventually finds that the view taken by the CPIO was not correct, it cannot automatically lead to issuance of a showcause notice under Section 20 of the RTI Act and the imposition of penalty. Only in cases of malafides or unreasonable conduct, i.e., where the CPIO, without reasonable cause refuses to receive the application, or provide the information, or knowingly gives incorrect, incomplete or misleading information or destroys the information, that the personal penalty can be imposed on the CPIO. The division bench of Allahabad High Court has held that for imposing penalty, an opinion has to be formed that the CPIO without any reasonable cause has not furnished the information within the time specified. The formation of the opinion has to be on the basis of objective consideration/relevant material and should also disclose the materials on the basis of which it is formulated. The RTI Act requires that a reasonable opportunity of being heard is to be provided to the CPIO. The CPIO is therefore showcaused by CIC before any decision to impose penalty on him is taken. The RTI Act provides that the burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently shall be on the CPIO.

Q. What conditions must be met for the Central/State Information Commission (CIC/SIC) to impose a personal penalty on a Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) under the RTI Act?

Directions: Read the following passage carefully:

Arbitration has been the toast of the legal community for a long time. It has been long expected that arbitration will replace business litigation to a great extent one day. Lawyers have been encouraging parties to have an arbitration agreement in all their business transaction documents for more than two decades now. However, arbitration has not been proven to be effective too often.
A lot of lawyers have begun to re-evaluate if they should put in those arbitration clauses blindly in the agreements they draft. Also, a lot of people who have already put in binding arbitration clauses in their agreements, are finding arbitration very difficult to navigate and too expensive when disputes actually arise.
Even after 23 years since the introduction of Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996, arbitration seems to be slowly evolving and not really making a dent on pendency of litigation situation and more costly unlike litigation. The Act empowers the arbitrator to terminate the proceedings where without any sufficient cause, the claimant fails to communicate his statement of claim within the stipulated period. If the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence within the predetermined period, the arbitrator shall continue with the proceedings without treating such a failure in itself as an admission of claimant's allegations.
Would it ever become the mature alternative that Indian businesses can safely rely on for reliable, fast, efficient and cost-effective dispute resolution, especially given the terrible state of civil justice?
The BN Srikrishna Committee Report on Institutionalisation of Arbitration Mechanism in India states that a lack of governmental support to promote arbitration is also one of the reasons why arbitration has not become the most preferred way of resolution. The report goes on to suggest that there should be awareness programmes and training to make arbitration a more popular concept. However, such awareness campaigns are very unlikely to attract parties to arbitration given the way it functions at present.
Quality of arbitration and arbitrators can often be suspect. The courts have settled the legal proposition that an arbitration agreement is not required to be in any particular form. Courts in India regularly interfere and do not respect party autonomy. The award is expected to be up for appeal or review in the higher courts and that really does not instill confidence in the parties involved in disputes. These factors are putting off parties from adopting arbitration. At present, it appears that only in a handful of matters involving very large claims, arbitration is still viable in India.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from why arbitration is not working in India?, article by Livelaw, 7th October, 2019]

Q. According to the passage, what has been the historical trend regarding arbitration in the legal community?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

A 'Maxim' refers to the established principles and prepositions. As law is a difficult subject having various interpretations, rules, and principles. It is therefore considered necessary to have these combinations of various Latin and French words to be used for much clearer understanding. However, the only difficult part of the use of these maxims is that they have to be applied with full precaution. The person using these maxims has to make sure that whether the case in which it is applied has its application in the same manner, or whether it is an exception to the general rule, as any alterations of any of these maxims would be dangerous.
'Injuria Sine Damno' is a legal maxim, which means 'injury or loss or damage so caused to the plaintiff without suffering any physical injury or damage'. It is a Latin term, where 'Injuria' refers to 'injury', 'Sine' refers to 'without' and 'Damno' refers to 'a property or any physical loss'. Therefore, the term refers to 'injury suffered without actual loss'. In this case, the plaintiff doesn't have to prove the damages suffered, he only has to prove that there is some legal damage suffered by him, that is the action so brought is actionable per se. For example, where A roams around B's house without any justification then in that case, there is a violation of the legal right of B and in such cases, this maxim is applicable.
'Damnum Sine Injuria' is a maxim, which refers to injury which is being suffered by the plaintiff but there is no violation of any legal right of a person. In such circumstances, where there is no violation of the legal right but the injury or damage is being suffered by the plaintiff, the plaintiff can't bring an action against the other for the same, as it is not actionable in law, unless there is some infringement of a legal right.
The literal meaning of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' refers to loss or damage in terms of money, property or any physical loss without the infringement of any legal right. It is not actionable in law even if the act so did was intentional and was done to cause injury to other but without infringing on the legal right of the person.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from injuria-sine-damno-damnum-sine-injuria, blog by lawtimesjournal]

Q. Rakesh, a farmer, went to his nearby polling station to exercise his right to vote in an election. Manoj, a police officer assigned to election duty, unreasonably denied Rakesh the opportunity to cast his vote without providing any justification. Subsequently, Rakesh filed a lawsuit against Manoj for obstructing his voting right. Will the police officer be held legally accountable in this scenario?

then the value of x is

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Emergency Chronicles: Indira Gandhi and Democracy's Turning Point' by Gyan Prakash, available now through Penguin Random House India.]

Q. What did President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed request from his secretary, K. Balachandran, regarding Indira Gandhi's letter?

The difference between a single discount of 30% on Rs. 550 and two successive discounts of 20% and 10% on the same amount is

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.

Q. How did Mr. Peters attempt to draw attention to himself when he entered the restaurant?

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Mississippian culture is the last major prehistoric cultural development in North America, lasting from about 700 CE to the time of the arrival of the first European explorers. It spread over a great area of the Southeast and the mid-continent, in the river valleys of what are now the states of Mississippi, Alabama, Georgia, Arkansas, Missouri, Kentucky, Illinois, Indiana, and Ohio, with scattered extensions northward into Wisconsin and Minnesota and westward into the Great Plains. The culture was based on intensive cultivation of corn (maize), beans, squash, and other crops, which resulted in large concentrations of population in towns along riverine bottomlands. Politically and culturally each large town or village dominated a satellite of lesser villages; government was in the hands of priest-rulers. Thus the complexes might be called theocratic village-states. Moreover, warfare, which was apparently frequent, produced larger alliances and even confederacies.

A central ceremonial plaza provided the nucleus of a Mississippian town, and each settlement had one or more pyramidal or oval earth mounds, surmounted by a temple or chief’s residence, grouped around the plaza. This settlement pattern was typical of most of Middle America (central and southern Mexico and Guatemala) since as early as 850 BCE, but it had not diffused into North America until the advent of the Mississippian culture. The scale of public works in the Mississippian culture can be estimated from the largest of the earthworks, Monks Mound, in the Cahokia Mounds near Collinsville, Illinois, which is approximately 1,000 feet (300 metres) long, 700 feet (200 metres) wide, and 100 feet (30 metres) high. The magnitude of such public works and the distribution of temples suggest a dominant religious cult and a cadre of priest-rulers who could command the services of a large, stable, and docile population, as well as several artist-craftsman guilds.

Craftwork was executed in copper, shell, stone, wood, and clay and in such forms as elaborate headdresses, ritual weapons, sculptured tobacco pipes, effigy pottery, effigies, and masks of wood or copper-jacketed wood. The elaborate designs included feathered serpents, winged warriors, swastikas, spiders, human faces with weeping or falcon eyes, as well as human figures and many geometric motifs. These elements were delicately engraved, embossed, carved, and molded.

The Mississippian culture had begun to decline by the time European explorers first penetrated the Southeast and described the customs of the people living there. The Natchez are the best-known of the Mississippian cultures to have survived French and Spanish colonization; they numbered about 500 members in the early 21st century.

Q. What is the approximate height of the largest earthwork, Monks Mound, mentioned in the passage?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a significant development, the Supreme Court on Friday extended the application of its October 2022 order (which directed the Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand Police to take suo motu action against hate speech cases) to all States and Union Territories. So now, all States/UTs are enjoined to take suo motu action to register FIR against hate speeches, without waiting for any formal complaint. The action should be taken regardless of the religion of the speaker. Any hesitation to act as per the directions would be viewed as contempt of court. Indian Penal Code contains various sections which are applicable to hate speech. These Sections criminalizes hate speech and prescribes punishment for such an offence. Section 153A of the IPC, which criminalizes the promotion of enmity between groups of people on grounds such as religion and race, place of birth, residence language, etc. and acts that are prejudicial to maintaining harmony prescribing the punishment in such cases which may be imprisonment up to five years and fine.  The intention has been a crucial and important factor in this offence. Mens Rea has got to be proved for proving the commission of the offence. Truth can be taken as a defence in this offence but it may not serve as an absolute defence under Section 153A. Truth connected to history to some extent can be considered as a defence but it is no defence such historical truth has a tendency to incorporate ill-will and hatred amongst various groups, organizations and communities. Section 153B of the IPC, which criminalizes imputations and assertions by speech directed towards certain members of a group which arises by virtue of them being a member of such a community prejudicial to national integration holding them liable for such speech. Section 295 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, which criminalizes the destruction of places of worship or sacred objects. In this section, the intention or knowledge of likelihood to insult is an important factor that must be done along with the destruction or injury to the place of worship or sacred object.

Q. During a religious procession, a group of individuals from a particular community vandalizes a temple, causing significant damage to its structure. The police initiate suo motu action against these individuals under Section 295 of the IPC. The individuals argue that their actions were justified because the temple was constructed on land belonging to their community and was wrongfully acquired by the temple's trustees. Which of the following statements is accurate?

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Mississippian culture is the last major prehistoric cultural development in North America, lasting from about 700 CE to the time of the arrival of the first European explorers. It spread over a great area of the Southeast and the mid-continent, in the river valleys of what are now the states of Mississippi, Alabama, Georgia, Arkansas, Missouri, Kentucky, Illinois, Indiana, and Ohio, with scattered extensions northward into Wisconsin and Minnesota and westward into the Great Plains. The culture was based on intensive cultivation of corn (maize), beans, squash, and other crops, which resulted in large concentrations of population in towns along riverine bottomlands. Politically and culturally each large town or village dominated a satellite of lesser villages; government was in the hands of priest-rulers. Thus the complexes might be called theocratic village-states. Moreover, warfare, which was apparently frequent, produced larger alliances and even confederacies.

A central ceremonial plaza provided the nucleus of a Mississippian town, and each settlement had one or more pyramidal or oval earth mounds, surmounted by a temple or chief’s residence, grouped around the plaza. This settlement pattern was typical of most of Middle America (central and southern Mexico and Guatemala) since as early as 850 BCE, but it had not diffused into North America until the advent of the Mississippian culture. The scale of public works in the Mississippian culture can be estimated from the largest of the earthworks, Monks Mound, in the Cahokia Mounds near Collinsville, Illinois, which is approximately 1,000 feet (300 metres) long, 700 feet (200 metres) wide, and 100 feet (30 metres) high. The magnitude of such public works and the distribution of temples suggest a dominant religious cult and a cadre of priest-rulers who could command the services of a large, stable, and docile population, as well as several artist-craftsman guilds.

Craftwork was executed in copper, shell, stone, wood, and clay and in such forms as elaborate headdresses, ritual weapons, sculptured tobacco pipes, effigy pottery, effigies, and masks of wood or copper-jacketed wood. The elaborate designs included feathered serpents, winged warriors, swastikas, spiders, human faces with weeping or falcon eyes, as well as human figures and many geometric motifs. These elements were delicately engraved, embossed, carved, and molded.

The Mississippian culture had begun to decline by the time European explorers first penetrated the Southeast and described the customs of the people living there. The Natchez are the best-known of the Mississippian cultures to have survived French and Spanish colonization; they numbered about 500 members in the early 21st century.

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the Natchez people in relation to the Mississippian culture?

The average of runs scored by a player in 10 innings is 50. How many runs should he score in the 11^th innings so that his average is increased by 2 runs?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

General Exceptions: Under Section 76 of the IPC, an act done by a person bound or by mistake of fact believing, himself to be bound by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself, to be, bound by law to do such act. It is derived from the legal maxim ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat.
Under Section 79, act done by a person justified or by mistake of fact believing, himself justified, by law is included. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act. Accident under Section 80, includes an accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Infancy - Sections 82 and 83
Section 82 includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. Suppose a child below seven years of age, pressed the trigger of the gun and caused the death of his father then, the child will not be liable. Section 83 includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion. For example, suppose a child of 10 years killed his father with a gun in the shadow of immaturity, he will not be liable if he has not attained maturity. Insanity under Section 84, is an Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
[Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from General Exceptions under the IPC, https://blog.ipleaders.in/general-exception-under-ipc/]

Q. Can the soldiers defend themselves against the case filed by human rights organizations after they followed orders to fire on a protesting crowd sent by the government to suppress dissent in response to a controversial new Act?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.

Q. What was Lymie doing while reading about the Peace of Paris and the Congress of Vienna?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

The successful debut of India’s sovereign green bond is a landmark event for its emerging sustainable finance ecosystem. Issued in two tranches of $1 billion each, the rupee denominated onshore debut was heavily oversubscribed at a six-basis point lower yield than the average India sovereign bond in the first round, and four basis points lower in the second round. This unexpected “greenium” marks an encouraging benchmark for future sustainable sovereign and corporate debt. The greenium’s positive signalling effect is substantial. It was secured against two major odds: The headwinds due to sluggish global growth, rising global interest rates and downward pressure on the rupee, which offered suboptimal conditions for international investors to buy into a local currency denominated offering. Second, the near absence of a domestic ESG (Environmental, social and governance) aligned investor base had raised scepticism about local investor appetite. The result shows that the market readiness for the green label exists and can be propelled with supportive regulatory/policy action. The greenium could become more sizeable with larger volumes of local currency sovereign green issuances both in onshore and offshore markets. The strategic co-benefits of sovereign issuance are bigger than the gains made on an individual issuance. According to a BIS paper, “After (the inaugural) issue, the annual number of corporate issues tends to increase across jurisdictions.” This happens due to demonstration effects. A 2021 sovereign issuers’ survey carried out by the Climate Bonds Initiative, reported that diversification of the investor pool and creation of a local green bond market are major motivators for most sovereign issuers. This was not a stated aim of the Indian authorities, but the regulatory support extended to investors will help do just that and will pave the way for better incentive structures.

Transparency on the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects is vital. Budget 2023 carries the list of projects and expenditures which will be financed by the sovereign green borrowing. The Centre’s Green Finance Working Committee has done well to largely stick to the dark green categories of expenditures, in terms of volume, within those marked as ‘medium to dark green’ in the second party opinion (SPO) it received on its Green Bond framework. The allocations to MNRE (KUSUM, solar and wind power (grid scale), the National Green Hydrogen Mission), and the Ministry of Railways (three metro project lines and energy efficient electric locomotives) clearly fall in this category. The MoEFCC (National Afforestation Programme) allocation comes under the light green category in the SPO, implying that its long-term effects on climate mitigation or resilience are unclear. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allocation for equity investment in metro projects stands out. Investors care for integrity and adhering to the best norms on evaluation and selection of projects is important. To build on the success of the sovereign green bond in India’s G20 Presidency, here are two suggestions: Foster a programme to grow local currency sovereign green issuances by emerging economies to avoid external debt traps and generate a larger pipeline of sustainable projects for national and global capital markets. Define and label sustainable activities through interoperable frameworks/taxonomies to guide capital flows. Definitions that can work seamlessly for global and local investors will help identify credible project pipelines and expenditures.

Q. According to the passage, what factors posed challenges to the success of India's sovereign green bond?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a significant development, the Supreme Court on Friday extended the application of its October 2022 order (which directed the Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand Police to take suo motu action against hate speech cases) to all States and Union Territories. So now, all States/UTs are enjoined to take suo motu action to register FIR against hate speeches, without waiting for any formal complaint. The action should be taken regardless of the religion of the speaker. Any hesitation to act as per the directions would be viewed as contempt of court. Indian Penal Code contains various sections which are applicable to hate speech. These Sections criminalizes hate speech and prescribes punishment for such an offence. Section 153A of the IPC, which criminalizes the promotion of enmity between groups of people on grounds such as religion and race, place of birth, residence language, etc. and acts that are prejudicial to maintaining harmony prescribing the punishment in such cases which may be imprisonment up to five years and fine.  The intention has been a crucial and important factor in this offence. Mens Rea has got to be proved for proving the commission of the offence. Truth can be taken as a defence in this offence but it may not serve as an absolute defence under Section 153A. Truth connected to history to some extent can be considered as a defence but it is no defence such historical truth has a tendency to incorporate ill-will and hatred amongst various groups, organizations and communities. Section 153B of the IPC, which criminalizes imputations and assertions by speech directed towards certain members of a group which arises by virtue of them being a member of such a community prejudicial to national integration holding them liable for such speech. Section 295 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, which criminalizes the destruction of places of worship or sacred objects. In this section, the intention or knowledge of likelihood to insult is an important factor that must be done along with the destruction or injury to the place of worship or sacred object.

Q. In a speech delivered at a political rally, Rajesh, a well-known politician, makes derogatory remarks about a specific religious community, potentially inciting violence against them. Even though no formal complaint is filed, the police take suo motu action against Rajesh under Section 153A of the IPC. In his defense, Rajesh argues that he was merely presenting factual information and did not intend to fuel enmity between different groups. Which of the following statements is accurate?

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and NFSA (Food Subsidy) have also declined as a share of GDP since 2014. MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of employment to every rural household whereas the NFSA provides subsidised grains to over 80 crore people. MGNREGA expenditure as a share of GDP went from 0.26% in 2014-15 to 0.20% in 2023-24. For NFSA it went to 0.65% this year from 0.94% in 2014-15. As experts point out, MGNREGA and the Public Distribution System were key to averting disaster during the pandemic. Both schemes saw record demand in 2020-21; MGNREGA saw 8.55 crore households avail employment, while Public Distribution System (PDS) grain offtake was 93 million tonnes, leading to an expenditure of 2.73% and 0.56% of GDP on NFSA and MGNREGA, respectively. However, since 2020-21, NFSA and MGNREGA allocations have declined rapidly as a share of GDP.

As the economist, Jean Drèze, highlighted recently, real wages of casual workers grew at less than 1% per year from 2014-15 to 2021-22 according to Reserve Bank of India data. Prof. Drèze argues that this worrying trend calls for a reorientation of economic policies, with a sharper focus on drivers of wage growth.

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a scheme that provides pensions to the elderly, widows, and disabled individuals below the poverty line and monetary assistance to families that have lost a breadwinner. As a share of GDP, its allocations went down from 0.06% in 2014-15 to 0.03% in 2023-24. The share steadily declined over this period except for 2020-21 when it was 0.21% with COVID relief in cash included in the NSAP.

The NSAP cuts go against advice from 60-odd economists who have been urging the government for long to increase the paltry pension amounts of ₹200 per month for the elderly and ₹300 for widows. The pensions have not increased since 2006.

As a share of GDP, central expenditure on school education (primary and secondary) has steadily declined from 0.37% in 2014-15 to 0.23% 2023-24. It is surprising to see no increase here even after the pandemic which had catastrophic effects including a surge in primary dropout rates because of over 70 weeks of school closures — double the global average.

Q. What is the main focus of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:

An organisation consists of 2400 employees working in different departments viz. HR, Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the organisation is 5 : 3. Twelve percent of the males work in the HR department. Twenty-four percent of the females work in the Accounts department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11. One-ninth of the females work in the IT department. Forty-two percent of the males work in the Production department. The number of females working in the Production department is 10 percent of the males working in the same department. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 285. Twenty-two percent of the males work in the Marketing department and the remaining work in the Accounts department.

Q. The total number of employees working in the Accounts department forms what percent of the total number of employees in the organisation? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.

Q. What impression can be gathered about Mr. Peters based on the details provided in the passage?

Directions: Kindly read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and NFSA (Food Subsidy) have also declined as a share of GDP since 2014. MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of employment to every rural household whereas the NFSA provides subsidised grains to over 80 crore people. MGNREGA expenditure as a share of GDP went from 0.26% in 2014-15 to 0.20% in 2023-24. For NFSA it went to 0.65% this year from 0.94% in 2014-15. As experts point out, MGNREGA and the Public Distribution System were key to averting disaster during the pandemic. Both schemes saw record demand in 2020-21; MGNREGA saw 8.55 crore households avail employment, while Public Distribution System (PDS) grain offtake was 93 million tonnes, leading to an expenditure of 2.73% and 0.56% of GDP on NFSA and MGNREGA, respectively. However, since 2020-21, NFSA and MGNREGA allocations have declined rapidly as a share of GDP.

As the economist, Jean Drèze, highlighted recently, real wages of casual workers grew at less than 1% per year from 2014-15 to 2021-22 according to Reserve Bank of India data. Prof. Drèze argues that this worrying trend calls for a reorientation of economic policies, with a sharper focus on drivers of wage growth.

The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a scheme that provides pensions to the elderly, widows, and disabled individuals below the poverty line and monetary assistance to families that have lost a breadwinner. As a share of GDP, its allocations went down from 0.06% in 2014-15 to 0.03% in 2023-24. The share steadily declined over this period except for 2020-21 when it was 0.21% with COVID relief in cash included in the NSAP.

The NSAP cuts go against advice from 60-odd economists who have been urging the government for long to increase the paltry pension amounts of ₹200 per month for the elderly and ₹300 for widows. The pensions have not increased since 2006.

As a share of GDP, central expenditure on school education (primary and secondary) has steadily declined from 0.37% in 2014-15 to 0.23% 2023-24. It is surprising to see no increase here even after the pandemic which had catastrophic effects including a surge in primary dropout rates because of over 70 weeks of school closures — double the global average.

Q. What is the main concept expressed in the text?

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from 'Emergency Chronicles: Indira Gandhi and Democracy's Turning Point' by Gyan Prakash, available now through Penguin Random House India.]

Q. What inference can be drawn from the passage regarding the request for the Emergency proclamation?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

The successful debut of India’s sovereign green bond is a landmark event for its emerging sustainable finance ecosystem. Issued in two tranches of $1 billion each, the rupee denominated onshore debut was heavily oversubscribed at a six-basis point lower yield than the average India sovereign bond in the first round, and four basis points lower in the second round. This unexpected “greenium” marks an encouraging benchmark for future sustainable sovereign and corporate debt. The greenium’s positive signalling effect is substantial. It was secured against two major odds: The headwinds due to sluggish global growth, rising global interest rates and downward pressure on the rupee, which offered suboptimal conditions for international investors to buy into a local currency denominated offering. Second, the near absence of a domestic ESG (Environmental, social and governance) aligned investor base had raised scepticism about local investor appetite. The result shows that the market readiness for the green label exists and can be propelled with supportive regulatory/policy action. The greenium could become more sizeable with larger volumes of local currency sovereign green issuances both in onshore and offshore markets. The strategic co-benefits of sovereign issuance are bigger than the gains made on an individual issuance. According to a BIS paper, “After (the inaugural) issue, the annual number of corporate issues tends to increase across jurisdictions.” This happens due to demonstration effects. A 2021 sovereign issuers’ survey carried out by the Climate Bonds Initiative, reported that diversification of the investor pool and creation of a local green bond market are major motivators for most sovereign issuers. This was not a stated aim of the Indian authorities, but the regulatory support extended to investors will help do just that and will pave the way for better incentive structures.

Transparency on the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects is vital. Budget 2023 carries the list of projects and expenditures which will be financed by the sovereign green borrowing. The Centre’s Green Finance Working Committee has done well to largely stick to the dark green categories of expenditures, in terms of volume, within those marked as ‘medium to dark green’ in the second party opinion (SPO) it received on its Green Bond framework. The allocations to MNRE (KUSUM, solar and wind power (grid scale), the National Green Hydrogen Mission), and the Ministry of Railways (three metro project lines and energy efficient electric locomotives) clearly fall in this category. The MoEFCC (National Afforestation Programme) allocation comes under the light green category in the SPO, implying that its long-term effects on climate mitigation or resilience are unclear. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allocation for equity investment in metro projects stands out. Investors care for integrity and adhering to the best norms on evaluation and selection of projects is important. To build on the success of the sovereign green bond in India’s G20 Presidency, here are two suggestions: Foster a programme to grow local currency sovereign green issuances by emerging economies to avoid external debt traps and generate a larger pipeline of sustainable projects for national and global capital markets. Define and label sustainable activities through interoperable frameworks/taxonomies to guide capital flows. Definitions that can work seamlessly for global and local investors will help identify credible project pipelines and expenditures.

Q. What is the suggested role of India's G20 Presidency in relation to sovereign green bonds, as mentioned in the passage?

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:

An organisation consists of 2400 employees working in different departments viz. HR, Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the organisation is 5 : 3. Twelve percent of the males work in the HR department. Twenty-four percent of the females work in the Accounts department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11. One-ninth of the females work in the IT department. Forty-two percent of the males work in the Production department. The number of females working in the Production department is 10 percent of the males working in the same department. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 285. Twenty-two percent of the males work in the Marketing department and the remaining work in the Accounts department.

Q. How many males work in the Accounts department?

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.

P, Q and R are three persons who repair a certain number of computers and Televisions.

P repaired 130 more computers as compared to R. Total number of computers and televisions repaired by Q is 575. R alone repaired 320 computers which is 95 more than the number of televisions repaired by Q. The number of televisions repaired by R is 40% more than the number of computers repaired by Q. The total number of computers and televisions repaired by all the persons together is 2150.

Q. Find the average number of televisions repaired by the combined persons P and Q together.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:

An organisation consists of 2400 employees working in different departments viz. HR, Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the organisation is 5 : 3. Twelve percent of the males work in the HR department. Twenty-four percent of the females work in the Accounts department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 6 : 11. One-ninth of the females work in the IT department. Forty-two percent of the males work in the Production department. The number of females working in the Production department is 10 percent of the males working in the same department. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 285. Twenty-two percent of the males work in the Marketing department and the remaining work in the Accounts department.

Q. The number of females working in the Production department forms what percent of the total number of females in the organisation?

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.

P, Q and R are three persons who repair a certain number of computers and Televisions.

P repaired 130 more computers as compared to R. Total number of computers and televisions repaired by Q is 575. R alone repaired 320 computers which is 95 more than the number of televisions repaired by Q. The number of televisions repaired by R is 40% more than the number of computers repaired by Q. The total number of computers and televisions repaired by all the persons together is 2150.

Q. Find the ratio of the number of computers repaired by Q to that of televisions repaired by P.

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

The successful debut of India’s sovereign green bond is a landmark event for its emerging sustainable finance ecosystem. Issued in two tranches of $1 billion each, the rupee denominated onshore debut was heavily oversubscribed at a six-basis point lower yield than the average India sovereign bond in the first round, and four basis points lower in the second round. This unexpected “greenium” marks an encouraging benchmark for future sustainable sovereign and corporate debt. The greenium’s positive signalling effect is substantial. It was secured against two major odds: The headwinds due to sluggish global growth, rising global interest rates and downward pressure on the rupee, which offered suboptimal conditions for international investors to buy into a local currency denominated offering. Second, the near absence of a domestic ESG (Environmental, social and governance) aligned investor base had raised scepticism about local investor appetite. The result shows that the market readiness for the green label exists and can be propelled with supportive regulatory/policy action. The greenium could become more sizeable with larger volumes of local currency sovereign green issuances both in onshore and offshore markets. The strategic co-benefits of sovereign issuance are bigger than the gains made on an individual issuance. According to a BIS paper, “After (the inaugural) issue, the annual number of corporate issues tends to increase across jurisdictions.” This happens due to demonstration effects. A 2021 sovereign issuers’ survey carried out by the Climate Bonds Initiative, reported that diversification of the investor pool and creation of a local green bond market are major motivators for most sovereign issuers. This was not a stated aim of the Indian authorities, but the regulatory support extended to investors will help do just that and will pave the way for better incentive structures.

Transparency on the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects is vital. Budget 2023 carries the list of projects and expenditures which will be financed by the sovereign green borrowing. The Centre’s Green Finance Working Committee has done well to largely stick to the dark green categories of expenditures, in terms of volume, within those marked as ‘medium to dark green’ in the second party opinion (SPO) it received on its Green Bond framework. The allocations to MNRE (KUSUM, solar and wind power (grid scale), the National Green Hydrogen Mission), and the Ministry of Railways (three metro project lines and energy efficient electric locomotives) clearly fall in this category. The MoEFCC (National Afforestation Programme) allocation comes under the light green category in the SPO, implying that its long-term effects on climate mitigation or resilience are unclear. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allocation for equity investment in metro projects stands out. Investors care for integrity and adhering to the best norms on evaluation and selection of projects is important. To build on the success of the sovereign green bond in India’s G20 Presidency, here are two suggestions: Foster a programme to grow local currency sovereign green issuances by emerging economies to avoid external debt traps and generate a larger pipeline of sustainable projects for national and global capital markets. Define and label sustainable activities through interoperable frameworks/taxonomies to guide capital flows. Definitions that can work seamlessly for global and local investors will help identify credible project pipelines and expenditures.

Q. What was the significant outcome of India's sovereign green bond debut mentioned in the passage?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

The successful debut of India’s sovereign green bond is a landmark event for its emerging sustainable finance ecosystem. Issued in two tranches of $1 billion each, the rupee denominated onshore debut was heavily oversubscribed at a six-basis point lower yield than the average India sovereign bond in the first round, and four basis points lower in the second round. This unexpected “greenium” marks an encouraging benchmark for future sustainable sovereign and corporate debt. The greenium’s positive signalling effect is substantial. It was secured against two major odds: The headwinds due to sluggish global growth, rising global interest rates and downward pressure on the rupee, which offered suboptimal conditions for international investors to buy into a local currency denominated offering. Second, the near absence of a domestic ESG (Environmental, social and governance) aligned investor base had raised scepticism about local investor appetite. The result shows that the market readiness for the green label exists and can be propelled with supportive regulatory/policy action. The greenium could become more sizeable with larger volumes of local currency sovereign green issuances both in onshore and offshore markets. The strategic co-benefits of sovereign issuance are bigger than the gains made on an individual issuance. According to a BIS paper, “After (the inaugural) issue, the annual number of corporate issues tends to increase across jurisdictions.” This happens due to demonstration effects. A 2021 sovereign issuers’ survey carried out by the Climate Bonds Initiative, reported that diversification of the investor pool and creation of a local green bond market are major motivators for most sovereign issuers. This was not a stated aim of the Indian authorities, but the regulatory support extended to investors will help do just that and will pave the way for better incentive structures.

Transparency on the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects is vital. Budget 2023 carries the list of projects and expenditures which will be financed by the sovereign green borrowing. The Centre’s Green Finance Working Committee has done well to largely stick to the dark green categories of expenditures, in terms of volume, within those marked as ‘medium to dark green’ in the second party opinion (SPO) it received on its Green Bond framework. The allocations to MNRE (KUSUM, solar and wind power (grid scale), the National Green Hydrogen Mission), and the Ministry of Railways (three metro project lines and energy efficient electric locomotives) clearly fall in this category. The MoEFCC (National Afforestation Programme) allocation comes under the light green category in the SPO, implying that its long-term effects on climate mitigation or resilience are unclear. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs allocation for equity investment in metro projects stands out. Investors care for integrity and adhering to the best norms on evaluation and selection of projects is important. To build on the success of the sovereign green bond in India’s G20 Presidency, here are two suggestions: Foster a programme to grow local currency sovereign green issuances by emerging economies to avoid external debt traps and generate a larger pipeline of sustainable projects for national and global capital markets. Define and label sustainable activities through interoperable frameworks/taxonomies to guide capital flows. Definitions that can work seamlessly for global and local investors will help identify credible project pipelines and expenditures.

Q. According to the passage, what is the significance of transparency regarding the use of green bond resources for credible sustainable projects?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

A review of the trajectory of self-expression on social media shows a trend towards increasing brevity and homogeneity. The early days of online discourse centred around longform text on blogs and message boards. This required individuals to think through the substance of what they wanted to say and then articulate it in their own words to communicate to their audience. Even if the content itself was nonsensical, it required conscious engagement, certainly from the writer but also the reader, who would need to specifically seek out that particular content and spend time reading and responding to it in her own words. With the advent of social media, longform text has gone through a series of abridgements, from posts to tweets to retweets, likes, memes, and emojis. Now, one of the most striking things about online communication is how little people speak. Speak in their own words that is. It is worth asking at what point in this trajectory does engagement stop being a form of self-expression but instead becomes a tool for mass homogenisation. It is unclear how by repeatedly replacing one’s own words with those of another individual (through retweets, likes and memes) or a corporation (via emojis), any individual can find her own voice. This question is relevant also because the time spent on these discrete engagements is too fleeting to allow active involvement. Does a retweet or like indicate 100% endorsement or merely fluid alignment with the “spirit” of the content? And, if we do not take the time to reflect and articulate specifically what we feel, instead of merely reiterating someone else, does it qualify as self-expression?

This question needs to be asked because social media moulds expression to fit its own format instead of vice versa. Retweets and likes are binary instruments which leave no room for personal nuance. Memes and emojis constrain articulation to the selection at hand, shaping instead of facilitating self-expression. Are people really laughing till they are crying as the popular emoji (a smiley) seems to suggest? And if not, does its use denote self-expression or artifice shaped by an external platform? What too of the ambiguity which gets injected into communication due to variable interpretations by different individuals for various emojis and memes? Social media also forces brevity — due to its format and the larger ecosystem it has spawned — which shows up not just as typographical errors and poor grammar but also constraints on the possibilities of what can be said. This limits, instead of enhancing, the fullness of self-expression. However, it is not just the structure of social media platforms which inhibits self-expression but also the incentives. An important emerging discussion focuses on how the incentives of social media shape the discourse by privileging antagonism, snark and outrage over dialogue and reason. This in turn prods individuals to become more antagonistic and outrageous with the effect that the medium dictates the message. This influence of the medium on the message is visible also in making virality the primary determinant of value instead of the substance of the message itself.

Q. According to the passage, what is one of the significant changes in online communication brought about by social media?

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a significant development, the Supreme Court on Friday extended the application of its October 2022 order (which directed the Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand Police to take suo motu action against hate speech cases) to all States and Union Territories. So now, all States/UTs are enjoined to take suo motu action to register FIR against hate speeches, without waiting for any formal complaint. The action should be taken regardless of the religion of the speaker. Any hesitation to act as per the directions would be viewed as contempt of court. Indian Penal Code contains various sections which are applicable to hate speech. These Sections criminalizes hate speech and prescribes punishment for such an offence. Section 153A of the IPC, which criminalizes the promotion of enmity between groups of people on grounds such as religion and race, place of birth, residence language, etc. and acts that are prejudicial to maintaining harmony prescribing the punishment in such cases which may be imprisonment up to five years and fine.  The intention has been a crucial and important factor in this offence. Mens Rea has got to be proved for proving the commission of the offence. Truth can be taken as a defence in this offence but it may not serve as an absolute defence under Section 153A. Truth connected to history to some extent can be considered as a defence but it is no defence such historical truth has a tendency to incorporate ill-will and hatred amongst various groups, organizations and communities. Section 153B of the IPC, which criminalizes imputations and assertions by speech directed towards certain members of a group which arises by virtue of them being a member of such a community prejudicial to national integration holding them liable for such speech. Section 295 of the Indian Penal Code 1860, which criminalizes the destruction of places of worship or sacred objects. In this section, the intention or knowledge of likelihood to insult is an important factor that must be done along with the destruction or injury to the place of worship or sacred object.

A public figure makes a speech during a rally, accusing a particular community of fostering terrorism, which leads to widespread communal unrest. The police register an FIR under Section 153A of the IPC without waiting for a formal complaint. The public figure argues that their speech was intended to express their opinion on national security issues and was not aimed at inciting hatred.