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All questions of Non-Constitutional Bodies for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by an Act of Parliament. 
  2. The Central Vigilance Commission has been broadly given the measure of independence and autonomy as that given to the Union Public Service Commission.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • c)
    Only 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhishek Das answered
The correct answer is option 'B': Only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation:
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex governmental body in India that addresses corruption in public administration. It was established in February 1964 on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee, which was appointed to study the problem of corruption in India. The CVC was set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India and not by an Act of Parliament. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body that conducts examinations for the appointment of civil servants in the Indian government. It has been granted a significant degree of independence and autonomy to ensure the impartiality and fairness of the selection process. Similarly, the Central Vigilance Commission is also granted a measure of independence and autonomy, but not to the same extent as the UPSC. The UPSC is a constitutional body, while the CVC is a statutory body. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

To summarize:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Vigilance Commission was not set up by an Act of Parliament but by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
- Statement 2 is correct because the Central Vigilance Commission has been given a measure of independence and autonomy, although not to the same extent as the Union Public Service Commission.

Hence, the correct answer is option 'B': Only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following are major features of the institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta as recommended by the Administrative Reforms Commission? 
  1. They should be demonstrably independent and impartial. 
  2. They should compare with the highest judicial functionary in the country. 
  3. They should be directly accountable to Parliament. 
  4. Their appointments should as far as possible be non-political.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 and 4 
  • b)
    1, 2 and 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  • d)
    2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Vikram Verma answered
The ARC also recommended that the institutions of Lokpal and lokayukta should have the following features: 
  1. They should be demonstratively independent and impartial. 
  2. Their investigations and proceedings should be conducted in private and should be informal in character. 
  3. Their appointment should be, as far as possible, non-political. 
  4. Their status should compare with the highest judicial functionaries in the country. 
  5. They should deal with matters in the discretionary field involving acts of injustice, corruption or favouritism. 
  6. Their proceedings should not be subject to judicial interference. 
  7. They should have the maximum latitude and powers in obtaining information relevant to their duties. 
  8. They should not look forward to any benefit or pecuniary advantage from the executive government.

The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of: 
  • a)
    A member of the UPSC 
  • b)
    A judge of the Supreme Court 
  • c)
    The Chairman of the UPSC 
  • d)
    The Chief Election Commissioner
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Suresh Reddy answered
The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar to those of a member of UPSC. But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The National Human Rights Commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country. 
  2. The National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Only 2 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
The NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights, defined by the act as "Rights Relating To Life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India".

Statement I: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a statutory body.
Statement II: The CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Codes:
  • a)
    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. 
  • b)
    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. 
  • c)
    Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 
  • d)
    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Unni answered
Statement I: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a statutory body.
Statement II: The CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.

The correct answer is option 'D', which means Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Explanation:

Statutory Body:
- A statutory body is an organization or agency that is established by an Act of Parliament or State Legislature and is governed by the provisions mentioned in that Act.
- Statutory bodies have legal authority and powers to perform specific functions as defined by the legislation that established them.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
- The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigative agency of India.
- It is not a statutory body, as mentioned in Statement I. Instead, it is an agency established by the executive resolution of the Government of India.
- The CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, as mentioned in Statement II.

Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946:
- The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 is a legislation that empowers the CBI to investigate specific offenses.
- The Act provides for the constitution of a special police force called the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE), which is responsible for the investigation of offenses under the jurisdiction of the Union Government.
- The DSPE is headed by a Director who is appointed by the Central Government.
- The Act also provides for the extension of the jurisdiction of the DSPE to any area in a State, with the consent of the Government of that State.

Conclusion:
- The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is not a statutory body.
- It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
- Therefore, Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds. 
  2. The Central Information Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Only 2 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
The Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority.
This includes:
(a) providing access to information in a particular form;
(b) directing the public authority to appoint a Public Information Officer where none exists;
(c) publishing information or categories of information;
(d) making necessary changes to the practices relating to management, maintenance and destruction of records;
(e) enhancing training provision for officials on the right to information;
(f ) seeking an annual report from the public authority on compliance with this Act.
 

At present, institutions for the redressal of citizen’s grievances in India include: 
  • a)
    Supreme Court and the Lokpal 
  • b)
    Lokpal and the Lokayukta 
  • c)
    Lokayukta and the Supreme Court 
  • d)
    Administrative Tribunals and the Lokpal
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Khatri answered
The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India (1966–1970) recommended the setting up of two special authorities designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances

The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in: 
  • a)
    Maharastra
  • b)
    West Bengal 
  • c)
    Karnataka 
  • d)
    Odisha
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Saha answered
Explanation:

The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in Maharashtra in 1971 to establish a Lokayukta in the state. The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman who investigates complaints of corruption against public officials and elected representatives. The Act was later adopted by several other states in India, including Karnataka, Odisha, and West Bengal.

Key Points:
- The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in Maharashtra in 1971.
- The Act established a Lokayukta in the state to investigate complaints of corruption against public officials and elected representatives.
- The Act has been adopted by several other states in India, including Karnataka, Odisha, and West Bengal.

Which of the following States require(s) judicial qualifications for the appointment of Lokayukta? 
  1. Maharashtra 
  2. Rajasthan 
  3. Bihar 
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 and 3 
  • c)
    4 only 
  • d)
    1 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
In respect of Lokayukta, shall be held only by a person appointed by the Governor, being a person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or who is or has been a Judge of the High Court of Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the following is not matched correctly?
  • a)
    Article 338-I: National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • b)
    Article 330: Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha
  • c)
    Article 333: Representation of the people of the Anglo-Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies of the States
  • d)
    Article 331: National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Article 331: National Commission for Scheduled Castes is not matched correctly.

Explanation:

- The correct match for Article 338-I is a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. This article establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes as a constitutional body to safeguard the rights and interests of the Scheduled Tribes in India.
- The correct match for Article 330 is b) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha. This article provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India.
- The correct match for Article 333 is c) Representation of the people of the Anglo-Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies of the States. This article allows for the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies of the States by nominating members from the community if they are not adequately represented.

However, the match for Article 331 is incorrect. There is no provision in the Indian Constitution for a National Commission for Scheduled Castes under Article 331. The correct provision related to Scheduled Castes is Article 338, which establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution. It is responsible for monitoring the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes and for inquiring into specific complaints regarding the violation of their rights. The commission has the power to investigate and recommend measures to improve the socio-economic conditions of Scheduled Castes and to protect them from discrimination and exploitation.

Therefore, the correct match for Article 331 should be: d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

Assertion (A): Lokayuktas have been appointed in all the States of India.
Reason (R): An independent institution is required to redress the grievances of the people against the actions of civil servants.
Codes:
  • a)
    Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
  • b)
    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
  • c)
    A is true but R is false. 
  • d)
    A is false but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Ahuja answered
Explanation:
Lokayuktas have not been appointed in all the States of India. This makes option A false. The correct information is that Lokayuktas have been appointed in only 21 States of India. This makes option D true.

The reason given in option R is correct. An independent institution is required to redress grievances of the people against the actions of civil servants. However, it does not explain why Lokayuktas have not been appointed in all the States. Therefore, option R is not the correct explanation of option A.

In conclusion, option D is the correct answer as it correctly states that Lokayuktas have not been appointed in all the States of India.

Part XIV-A of the Constitution of India deals with which of the following: 
  1. Administrative tribunals 
  2. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of enforcement of any tax 
  3. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of ceiling on urban property 
  4. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of industrial and labour disputes 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  • b)
    1, 2 and 3 
  • c)
    3 and 4 
  • d)
    1 and 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Bose answered
Part XIV-A of the Constitution of India deals with Administrative Tribunals, which are specialized tribunals set up to adjudicate disputes arising from the administration of laws in specific areas. The main objective of these tribunals is to provide speedy and efficient justice and to reduce the burden on regular courts.

The provisions of Part XIV-A were inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The Part has four articles- Article 323A and Article 323B.

Article 323A deals with Administrative Tribunals, and it empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or any State or any local or other authority within the territory of India.

Article 323B deals with Tribunals for other matters, and it empowers the Parliament and the State Legislatures to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to matters such as tax, industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on urban property, etc.

Thus, Part XIV-A of the Constitution empowers the Parliament and the State Legislatures to establish specialized tribunals to provide speedy and efficient justice in specific areas of law. These tribunals are meant to reduce the burden on regular courts and to ensure that disputes are resolved quickly and fairly.

 The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up by: 
  • a)
    An Act of the Parliament 
  • b)
    An Amendment to the Constitution 
  • c)
    A Resolution of the Home Ministry 
  • d)
    A Resolution of the Personnel Ministry
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshu Bose answered
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating agency of India. It was established in 1963 by the Government of India through a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The CBI functions as an autonomous organization that investigates and solves high-profile cases related to corruption, economic offenses, and other serious crimes.

Establishment of CBI:

The CBI was set up by the Indian government through a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963. The resolution was passed under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, which was enacted in 1946. The DSPE Act was amended in 1964 to give the CBI statutory powers.

Functions of CBI:

The CBI is responsible for investigating cases related to corruption, economic offenses, serious crimes, and other cases of national and international importance. Some of the functions of the CBI are:

1. Investigating cases referred to it by state governments, Union Territories, and other agencies.

2. Probing cases related to economic offenses, such as fraud, embezzlement, and money laundering.

3. Investigating cases related to serious crimes, such as murder, terrorism, and organized crime.

4. Conducting joint operations with other law enforcement agencies.

5. Collecting and analyzing intelligence related to crimes and criminals.

6. Providing technical assistance to other law enforcement agencies.

Conclusion:

The CBI is a premier investigative agency of India that was established in 1963 by the Government of India through a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It functions as an autonomous organization that investigates and solves high-profile cases related to corruption, economic offenses, and other serious crimes. The CBI has been given statutory powers under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, which was enacted in 1946 and amended in 1964.

Which of the following is not the power and function of the State Information Commissioner?
  • a)
    The commission can inquire into any matter on reasonable grounds
  • b)
    During the inquiry the commission has the power of a civil court.
  • c)
    During inquiry of a complaint, the commission can not examine any information which is in the custody of a public authority.
  • d)
    The commission can recommend the disciplinary action against the errant official
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pallavi Rane answered
Power and Function of State Information Commissioner

The State Information Commissioner is responsible for ensuring the effective implementation of the Right to Information Act in the state. The powers and functions of the State Information Commissioner are as follows:

Inquiry: The commission can inquire into any matter on reasonable grounds. This includes complaints made by citizens, suo moto inquiries, and appeals against decisions made by the Public Information Officer (PIO) or First Appellate Authority (FAA).

Power of a civil court: During the inquiry, the commission has the power of a civil court. This means that it can summon and enforce the attendance of witnesses, receive evidence on affidavit, requisition any public record, and issue summons for the examination of witnesses or documents.

Disciplinary action: The commission can recommend disciplinary action against the errant official. This includes imposing penalties, initiating departmental proceedings, or recommending criminal proceedings.

Not examine information in custody of public authority: However, during the inquiry of a complaint, the commission cannot examine any information which is in the custody of a public authority. This is because the commission's role is to ensure that the public authority has provided the information requested by the citizen under the RTI Act. It cannot examine any other information that the public authority may hold.

In conclusion, the State Information Commissioner plays a critical role in ensuring transparency and accountability in the functioning of public authorities. By exercising the powers and functions conferred upon it by the RTI Act, the commission can ensure that citizens can access the information they need to hold public authorities accountable.

An Information Commissioner can be removed from the office by the President on the advise / recommendation of the: 
  • a)
    Supreme Court 
  • b)
    Parliament 
  • c)
    Central Vigilance Commission 
  • d)
    Union Public Service Commission
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jhanvi Joshi answered
Explanation:

An Information Commissioner can be removed from office by the President on the advice/recommendation of the Supreme Court.

Role of the Information Commissioner:
The role of an Information Commissioner is to ensure transparency and accountability in the functioning of public authorities. They are responsible for the implementation of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which allows citizens to access information held by public authorities.

Appointment of the Information Commissioner:
The Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

Grounds for Removal:
A person holding the office of an Information Commissioner can be removed from office only if:

1. He/she is adjudged an insolvent.
2. He/she has been convicted of an offense which, in the opinion of the President, involves moral turpitude.
3. He/she engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his/her office.
4. He/she is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.

Removal Process:
The process for the removal of an Information Commissioner is as follows:

1. An inquiry into the grounds of removal is initiated by the President. The President may either himself/herself inquire or refer the matter to the Supreme Court.

2. The Supreme Court, on receipt of the reference, conducts an inquiry into the grounds of removal. The Supreme Court must give the Information Commissioner an opportunity to be heard in person or by a legal practitioner.

3. Based on the inquiry, the Supreme Court submits its report to the President stating whether the Information Commissioner should be removed from office or not.

4. The President, after considering the report of the Supreme Court, may remove the Information Commissioner from office.

Therefore, it is the Supreme Court that recommends the removal of an Information Commissioner to the President. The President then acts on this recommendation and can remove the Information Commissioner from office. Hence, the correct answer is option 'A' - Supreme Court.

The Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the: 
  • a)
    President 
  • b)
    Parliament 
  • c)
    Supreme Court 
  • d)
    Central Government
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament.

Which of the following statements are correct about regional councils of Niti Aayog?
1. These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region.
2. These are formed for a specified tenure.
3. These are convened by the Chief executive officer
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Choudhury answered
Explanation:

1. Regional councils of Niti Aayog

- Regional councils of Niti Aayog are indeed formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These councils serve as platforms for cooperation, coordination, and resolution of inter-state disputes.
2. Specified tenure

- Regional councils of Niti Aayog are not formed for a specified tenure. They are permanent bodies that continue to function to address ongoing issues and promote regional development.
Therefore, the correct statements about regional councils of Niti Aayog are:
- 1. These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region.
- 2. These are not formed for a specified tenure.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'A' (1 and 2 Only).

The Government of India appointed a Committee on Prevention of Corruption under the chairmanship of 
  • a)
    Ananthaswamy Ayyangar 
  • b)
    P.V. Subbaiah 
  • c)
    K. Santhanam 
  • d)
    K. Hanumanthayya
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Committee on Prevention of Corruption:

The Government of India appointed a Committee on Prevention of Corruption in 1962. The aim of the committee was to suggest measures to prevent corruption in the country. The committee was chaired by K. Santhanam, a former Chief Justice of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.

Members of the Committee:

Apart from K. Santhanam, the committee had the following members:

1. Ananthaswamy Ayyangar - A former Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2. P.V. Subbaiah - A former Chief Justice of the Mysore High Court
3. K. Hanumanthayya - A former Chief Minister of Karnataka

Recommendations of the Committee:

The Committee on Prevention of Corruption submitted its report in 1964. The report contained several recommendations to prevent corruption in the country. Some of the important recommendations are:

1. Setting up of a Central Vigilance Commission to investigate cases of corruption.
2. The need for legislation to regulate the conduct of public servants.
3. The establishment of special courts to try corruption cases.
4. The need for transparency in the functioning of government departments.
5. The importance of educating the public about the harmful effects of corruption.

Impact of the Committee:

The recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption had a significant impact on the fight against corruption in India. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up in 1964, and several anti-corruption laws were passed in subsequent years. The recommendations of the committee also led to greater transparency in government functioning and increased public awareness about the harmful effects of corruption.

Conclusion:

The Committee on Prevention of Corruption, chaired by K. Santhanam, played a crucial role in the fight against corruption in India. Its recommendations led to the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission and the passing of several anti-corruption laws. The committee's emphasis on transparency and public education also helped to create greater awareness about the harmful effects of corruption.

Special provision to Scheduled Caste tribes and Anglo Indians were originally made for upto....
  • a)
    1991
  • b)
    1982
  • c)
    1975
  • d)
    1960
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Das answered
Background:
The special provisions for Scheduled Caste tribes and Anglo-Indians were originally made under the Constitution of India.

Duration:
These provisions were originally made for up to 1960.

Reason for the Provision:
The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are historically marginalized communities that have faced discrimination and social exclusion for centuries. The provision was made to uplift these communities and provide them with opportunities for social, economic, and educational advancement.

Anglo-Indians:
Anglo-Indians are a small minority community in India with mixed Indian and European ancestry. They were also included in these special provisions to address their unique socio-economic challenges.

Extension:
The provisions have been extended multiple times since their original enactment in 1960. The latest extension was until 1991.

Impact:
These special provisions have played a crucial role in improving the socio-economic status of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Anglo-Indians in India. They have helped in reducing disparities and promoting social justice in the country.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is under the administrative control of
  • a)
    Ministry of Home Affairs
  • b)
    Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
  • c)
    Department of Economic Affairs
  • d)
    Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating agency in India, responsible for handling a wide range of complex and high-profile cases. It operates under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

The CBI was established in 1941 as the Special Police Establishment with the primary objective of investigating corruption cases. Over the years, its jurisdiction has expanded to cover other areas such as economic offenses, cyber crimes, terrorism, and organized crime.

The administrative control of the CBI is crucial as it determines the agency's functioning, budget, and overall management. The DoPT, which is responsible for the appointment and management of civil servants in India, plays a key role in overseeing the operations of the CBI.

Under the DoPT, the CBI is headed by a Director who is appointed by the Central Government. The Director is responsible for the overall functioning and management of the agency. The Director is assisted by a team of officers who are appointed from various services, including the Indian Police Service (IPS) and other central services.

The DoPT provides the necessary support to the CBI in terms of infrastructure, manpower, and training. It also formulates policies and guidelines for the agency and ensures their effective implementation. The DoPT also plays a role in the selection and appointment of officers to key positions within the CBI.

The CBI also works closely with other central agencies such as the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), which is responsible for preventing corruption in the government. While the CVC provides guidance and advice to the CBI, it does not have direct administrative control over the agency.

In conclusion, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) operates under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. The DoPT plays a crucial role in overseeing the operations of the CBI and providing the necessary support for its functioning.

The Central Bureau of Investigation comes under the administrative control of the: 
  • a)
    Ministry of Home Affairs 
  • b)
    Cabinet Secretariat 
  • c)
    Prime Minister’s Office 
  • d)
    Ministry of Personnel
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating agency of India. It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

How many State Information Commissioners are in different states?
  • a)
    10
  • b)
    8
  • c)
    The number varies from state to state
  • d)
    5
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Singh answered
The number of State Information Commissioners varies from state to state in India. Here is a breakdown of the number of commissioners in some of the major states:

- Uttar Pradesh: 10
- Maharashtra: 7
- Tamil Nadu: 4
- Karnataka: 4
- Delhi: 2
- Gujarat: 3

As we can see, the number of commissioners varies widely. The Right to Information Act, 2005 mandates that each state should have a State Information Commission to oversee the implementation of the act. However, the exact number of commissioners is not specified in the act. This means that each state has the flexibility to decide how many commissioners it needs based on factors like the volume of RTI applications and the workload of the commission.

Some states have more commissioners to handle a large number of RTI applications, while others have fewer commissioners due to a lower volume of applications. It is also worth noting that the number of commissioners can change over time as the workload of the commission changes.

In conclusion, the number of State Information Commissioners varies from state to state in India and is determined based on factors like the volume of RTI applications and the workload of the commission.

The State Chief Information Commissioner holds office for: 
  • a)
    5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • b)
    5 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • c)
    6 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • d)
    6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Zara Khan answered
The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age
of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.

The Central Vigilance Commission presents its annual report to the: 
  • a)
    Parliament 
  • b)
    President 
  • c)
    Prime Minister 
  • d)
    Home Minister 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament

Which one of the following is a Quasi-judicial authority? 
  • a)
    Central Vigilance Commission 
  • b)
    National Commission for Women 
  • c)
    Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 
  • d)
    Administrative Tribunal
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Pillai answered
Quasi-judicial authority:
A quasi-judicial authority is an entity or body that has the power to make decisions or judgments that are similar to those made by a court of law. These authorities are vested with certain powers and responsibilities to adjudicate disputes, make decisions, and enforce laws within their respective jurisdictions.

Options:
a) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
b) National Commission for Women (NCW)
c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)
d) Administrative Tribunal

Explanation:

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
The Central Vigilance Commission is an apex anti-corruption watchdog in India. It is responsible for addressing corruption cases and ensuring transparency and accountability in government organizations. However, the CVC does not possess quasi-judicial powers. It primarily investigates corruption cases and recommends action to be taken by the concerned authorities.

National Commission for Women (NCW):
The National Commission for Women is a statutory body that works towards protecting and promoting the rights of women in India. It investigates complaints related to women's rights violations and recommends actions to be taken. While the NCW has the power to investigate and make recommendations, it does not possess quasi-judicial powers.

Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG):
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing government accounts and ensuring financial transparency and accountability. It does not possess quasi-judicial powers but plays a crucial role in ensuring financial oversight.

Administrative Tribunal:
An Administrative Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that has the authority to adjudicate disputes and grievances related to the administration of laws and regulations. These tribunals are established for specific sectors such as tax, labor, or administrative matters. They have the power to hear evidence, examine witnesses, and make decisions that are binding on the parties involved. Administrative Tribunals are established to provide an efficient and specialized mechanism for resolving disputes outside the regular court system.

Out of the given options, the Administrative Tribunal is the only entity that possesses quasi-judicial powers. It functions as an independent body to resolve administrative disputes and ensure justice in matters related to specific sectors or areas of governance.

The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of: 
  • a)
    A judge of the Supreme Court 
  • b)
    The chairman of the UPSC 
  • c)
    The Chief Election Commissioner 
  • d)
    The Central Vigilance Commissioner
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ananya Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'C', which states that the salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Explanation:

Salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are determined by the government and are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner. This is because the roles and responsibilities of both positions are considered to be of similar importance and stature in the Indian government.

The Chief Election Commissioner is a constitutional post responsible for overseeing the conduct of elections in the country. They are responsible for ensuring free and fair elections and maintaining the integrity of the electoral process. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India and holds office for a fixed term or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

Similarly, the Chief Information Commissioner is also a constitutional post established under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. The Chief Information Commissioner is responsible for ensuring transparency and accountability in the functioning of government departments and public authorities. They are appointed by the President of India and hold office for a fixed term or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

Both the Chief Election Commissioner and the Chief Information Commissioner hold positions that require independence, impartiality, and integrity. To ensure the autonomy and effectiveness of these positions, their salary, allowances, and other service conditions are kept similar. This ensures that the incumbents are not influenced or compromised in their decision-making by financial or other considerations.

By keeping the salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner, the government recognizes the importance of transparency, accountability, and impartiality in the functioning of both positions. This also ensures that competent individuals are attracted to these positions and are able to fulfill their responsibilities without any undue pressure or influence.

In conclusion, the salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner due to the similar importance and stature of their roles in the Indian government.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) can be handed over cases about
1. National and transnational organized crime
2. Protection of the environment
3. Conservation and protection of arts, antiques, and heritage of India
4. Offences of Economic and Cyber domains
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 4 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1, 2, and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2, 3, and 4. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a premier investigative agency in India, and it is responsible for investigating a wide range of cases. Let's discuss each option in detail:

1. National and transnational organized crime:
The CBI has the authority to investigate cases related to national and transnational organized crime. This includes cases related to terrorism, drug trafficking, human trafficking, arms smuggling, money laundering, and other organized criminal activities that have a national or international impact.

2. Protection of the environment:
The CBI is also empowered to investigate cases related to the protection of the environment. This includes cases of environmental pollution, illegal mining, deforestation, wildlife trafficking, and other offenses that harm the environment. The CBI works in coordination with other environmental agencies to ensure the enforcement of environmental laws.

3. Conservation and protection of arts, antiques, and heritage of India:
The CBI is entrusted with the responsibility of conserving and protecting the arts, antiques, and heritage of India. It investigates cases of theft, smuggling, and illegal trade of cultural artifacts, archaeological treasures, and other items of historical and cultural significance. The CBI works closely with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and other relevant authorities to safeguard India's rich cultural heritage.

4. Offenses of Economic and Cyber domains:
The CBI has jurisdiction over offenses related to the economic and cyber domains. It investigates cases of corruption, fraud, embezzlement, bribery, economic offenses, and cybercrimes. This includes cases of financial scams, bank frauds, corporate frauds, cyber hacking, online frauds, and other offenses that impact the economic and digital security of the country.

In conclusion, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is authorized to handle cases related to national and transnational organized crime, protection of the environment, conservation and protection of arts, antiques, and heritage of India, as well as offenses of the economic and cyber domains. These powers and responsibilities enable the CBI to play a crucial role in maintaining law and order and ensuring justice in various domains.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Central Information Commission is a high powered independent body that inter alia
looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals
2. It entertains complaints and appeals about offices under the central government only
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Utkarsh Joshi answered
  • The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005.
  • It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to
  • Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
  • The commission is a high-powered independent body that inter alia looks into the complaints made to it and decides the appeals. It entertains complaints and appeals about offices, financial institutions, public sector under- takings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals? 
  • a)
    Article 322 
  • b)
    Article 323 
  • c)
    Article 323-A
  • d)
    Article 323-B
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Yadav answered
Article 323-A of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals.

Explanation:
Administrative tribunals are specialized bodies that have been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India to hear and resolve disputes and grievances related to the recruitment, conditions of service, and disciplinary matters of public servants. These tribunals provide an alternative forum for resolving administrative disputes, separate from the regular courts.

Key Points:
1. Article 323-A: Article 323-A was inserted in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. It empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes and complaints related to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants.
2. Establishment of Tribunals: Under Article 323-A, the Parliament has the power to establish administrative tribunals at both the central and state levels. These tribunals are responsible for hearing and deciding matters concerning the recruitment, appointment, promotion, and conditions of service of public servants.
3. Composition and Powers: The composition and powers of the administrative tribunals are determined by the Parliament through legislation. These tribunals are vested with the powers of a civil court, including the power to summon witnesses, receive evidence, and enforce the attendance of witnesses and the discovery and production of documents.
4. Exclusion of Jurisdiction: Once an administrative tribunal is established for a particular category of cases, the jurisdiction of regular courts in those matters is excluded. This means that the administrative tribunals have exclusive jurisdiction over the matters assigned to them, and the regular courts cannot entertain such cases.
5. Judicial Review: The decisions of administrative tribunals can be challenged in the High Courts and the Supreme Court through writ petitions under Article 226 and Article 32 respectively. The High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to examine the legality, correctness, and propriety of the decisions of the administrative tribunals.

In conclusion, Article 323-A of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals. These tribunals provide a specialized forum for resolving disputes and complaints related to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants, and their decisions can be challenged in the High Courts and the Supreme Court.

Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission? 
  • a)
    Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court 
  • b)
    Only a retired Chief Justice of India
  • c)
    Any serving judge of the High Court 
  • d)
    All of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lalit Yadav answered
The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and three persons (out of which atleast one should be a woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights   

Which article envisages the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
  • a)
    Article 338
  • b)
    Article 250
  • c)
    Article 180
  • d)
    Article 142
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
The establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes has been done under Article 338. Article 338 says that there shall be a Special Officer for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to be appointed by the President.

The constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the: 
  • a)
    Parliament 
  • b)
    Home Minister 
  • c)
    President of India 
  • d)
    Chairman, SC/ST Commission
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mira Sharma answered
It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory. In case of the states, the President issues the notification after consulting the governor of the state concerned.

The chairman of the National Human Rights Commission holds office for: 
  • a)
    5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • b)
    6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • c)
    3 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. 
  • d)
    6 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vijay Kumar answered
The Act states that the chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will hold office for five years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier. The Bill reduces the term of office to three years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.

How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office? 
  • a)
    By the order of the State Chief Information Commissioner. 
  • b)
    By the order of Supreme Court of India.
  • c)
    By the order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed. 
  • d)
    In a manner similar to the removal of a Judge of a High Court.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Nidhi Kaur answered
Removal of a State Information Commissioner

The State Information Commissioner is a crucial position responsible for ensuring transparency and accountability in the functioning of public authorities under the Right to Information Act, 2005. However, in certain cases, the removal of a State Information Commissioner may become necessary due to various reasons. The correct answer to the question is option 'C', which states that a State Information Commissioner can be removed by the order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed. Let's understand this process in detail:

1. Reference by the Governor
The process of removal of a State Information Commissioner starts with a reference made by the Governor to the Supreme Court. The Governor initiates this reference if they have received complaints or allegations against the State Information Commissioner, questioning their conduct or integrity.

2. Inquiry by the Supreme Court
After receiving the reference, the Supreme Court conducts an inquiry into the allegations made against the State Information Commissioner. The purpose of this inquiry is to determine whether the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed from office.

3. Report by the Supreme Court
Based on the findings of the inquiry, the Supreme Court prepares a report. This report includes the Supreme Court's conclusions and recommendations regarding the removal of the State Information Commissioner. If the Supreme Court concludes that the State Information Commissioner should be removed, it includes this recommendation in the report.

4. Order of the Governor
The report prepared by the Supreme Court is then sent to the Governor. The Governor, after considering the report, issues an order for the removal of the State Information Commissioner from office. The Governor has the authority to remove the State Information Commissioner based on the recommendations of the Supreme Court.

5. Significance of Supreme Court's Inquiry
It is important to note that the Supreme Court's inquiry plays a crucial role in the removal process. The Governor relies on the findings and recommendations of the Supreme Court to make an informed decision regarding the removal of the State Information Commissioner. This ensures an independent and impartial assessment of the allegations against the State Information Commissioner.

In conclusion, a State Information Commissioner can be removed from office by the order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed. This process ensures that the removal decision is based on a fair and objective assessment of the allegations against the State Information Commissioner.

The Parliament passed the Administrative Tribunals Act in: 
  • a)
    1985 
  • b)
    1975 
  • c)
    1982 
  • d)
    1987
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Sarkar answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1985.

Explanation:
The Administrative Tribunals Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 1985. This act aimed to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the speedy and effective disposal of disputes and complaints related to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or any State.

Key Points:
1. Purpose of the Act: The Administrative Tribunals Act was enacted to address the growing number of cases related to service matters pending in regular courts. It aimed to provide a separate mechanism for the resolution of such disputes, ensuring a faster and more efficient process.

2. Establishment of Administrative Tribunals: The Act provided for the establishment of administrative tribunals at both the central and state levels. These tribunals were given the authority to adjudicate matters related to recruitment, conditions of service, and other administrative issues concerning public servants.

3. Composition of Tribunals: The Act specified the composition of the administrative tribunals. Each tribunal would consist of a Chairman and such number of Vice-Chairmen and Members as the government deemed necessary. The Chairman and members were appointed by the President or the Governor, as the case may be.

4. Jurisdiction of Tribunals: The administrative tribunals established under this act had the jurisdiction to hear and determine disputes and complaints arising out of service matters of public servants. They had the power to make orders and pass judgments, which were enforceable as if they were decrees of a civil court.

5. Exclusion of Jurisdiction of Civil Courts: One of the significant provisions of the act was the exclusion of the jurisdiction of civil courts in matters falling within the jurisdiction of administrative tribunals. This meant that once a dispute was referred to the tribunal, the civil courts could no longer entertain or decide upon the same matter.

6. Appellate Authority: The Act also provided for the establishment of a Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) at the central level and State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) at the state level. The CAT and SATs served as appellate authorities, hearing appeals against the decisions of the administrative tribunals.

In conclusion, the Administrative Tribunals Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 1985 to establish administrative tribunals for the speedy and effective resolution of service-related disputes of public servants. This act aimed to streamline the process and ensure timely justice for the aggrieved parties.

The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up in: 
  • a)
    1962 
  • b)
    1963 
  • c)
    1964 
  • d)
    1965
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.

The CBI is in the _______ list given in the seventh schedule of the Constitution.
  • a)
    Union
  • b)
    State
  • c)
    Concurrent
  • d)
    Global
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Patel answered

Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution

The CBI (Central Bureau of Investigation) is included in the Union List given in the seventh schedule of the Constitution of India.

Explanation

- The Union List contains subjects on which only the central government has the power to make laws. These subjects are listed in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- The CBI, being a central investigating agency, falls under the jurisdiction of the central government.
- The agency was established by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, which is a central legislation.
- The CBI investigates a wide range of cases such as corruption, economic offences, special crimes, and cases of national importance.
- The agency operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions of the Government of India.

Therefore, the inclusion of the CBI in the Union List signifies that it is a central agency under the control of the central government and is empowered to investigate cases across states in India.

The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are: 
  • a)
    Appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence services 
  • b)
    Officials and servants of the Supreme Court or High Courts 
  • c)
    Members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or State Legislatures 
  • d)
    Members of the Defence Services
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'A' - The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union, except members of the Defence services.

Explanation:

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is a specialized administrative tribunal in India that was established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India. It was set up to adjudicate disputes and complaints of civil servants regarding their service matters.

The CAT has jurisdiction over the following categories of persons:

a) Appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence services: This means that the CAT has the authority to hear cases related to the service of individuals who are appointed to public services and posts that are connected to the affairs of the Union government. However, it does not have jurisdiction over cases involving members of the Defence services.

b) Officials and servants of the Supreme Court or High Courts: The CAT also has jurisdiction over the officials and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts. This means that individuals who are employed by the judiciary can approach the CAT to seek redressal for their service-related grievances.

c) Members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or State Legislatures: The CAT also has jurisdiction over the members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or State Legislatures. This means that individuals working in the secretarial staff of the legislative bodies can approach the CAT for resolution of their service-related disputes.

d) Members of the Defence Services: It is important to note that the CAT does not have jurisdiction over cases involving members of the Defence services. This means that individuals serving in the armed forces cannot approach the CAT for resolution of their service matters.

In conclusion, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints related to the service of individuals appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union, excluding members of the Defence services.

The ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission are: 
  1. Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities 
  2. Chairman of the National Commission for SCs 
  3. Chairman of the National Commission for STs 
  4. Chairman of the National Commission for Women
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 and 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 4 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Snehal Kumar answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - 1, 2, 3, and 4.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body in India that is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in the country. It was established by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

The NHRC consists of a Chairperson and four members. These members include the following ex-officio members:

1. Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities: The National Commission for Minorities is a constitutional body that safeguards the rights and interests of minority communities in India. The Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities serves as an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

2. Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs): The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body that works towards the protection and welfare of Scheduled Castes communities in India. The Chairman of the National Commission for SCs is an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

3. Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs): The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body that focuses on the rights and welfare of Scheduled Tribes communities in India. The Chairman of the National Commission for STs serves as an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

4. Chairman of the National Commission for Women: The National Commission for Women is a statutory body that is dedicated to promoting and safeguarding the rights of women in India. The Chairman of the National Commission for Women is also an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

These ex-officio members bring their expertise and experience in dealing with issues related to minorities, SCs, STs, and women to the NHRC. Their inclusion in the commission ensures a comprehensive approach towards addressing human rights violations in the country.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1, 2, 3, and 4, as the ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission include the Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities, the Chairman of the National Commission for SCs, the Chairman of the National Commission for STs, and the Chairman of the National Commission for Women.

Mahanadi water disputes tribunal was constituted in _______
  • a)
    March 2018
  • b)
    April 2004
  • c)
    August 2017
  • d)
    December 2018
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shounak Kapoor answered
Mahanadi water disputes tribunal was constituted in March 2018 to resolve the long-standing water-sharing dispute between Odisha and Chhattisgarh over the Mahanadi river. The tribunal was set up under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 after the Odisha Government had moved the Supreme Court in 2016 seeking the formation of a tribunal to resolve the dispute.

The Mahanadi river is one of the major rivers in India, flowing through both Odisha and Chhattisgarh. The dispute between the two states arose when Chhattisgarh constructed a number of barrages and dams upstream on the river, leading to a reduction in the flow of water downstream to Odisha.

The tribunal comprises of Justice A M Khanwilkar of the Supreme Court as the chairman, and Justice Ravi Ranjan of the Patna High Court and Justice Indermeet Kaur Kochhar of the Delhi High Court as members.

The tribunal's main objective is to look into the sharing of water between the two states and ensure that both states get their fair share of water from the river. It will also look into the environmental impact of the construction of dams and barrages on the river and suggest measures to mitigate any negative effects.

The formation of the Mahanadi water disputes tribunal has brought hope to the people of Odisha who have been suffering due to the reduced flow of water in the river. The tribunal's decision is expected to bring a permanent solution to the water-sharing dispute between the two states and ensure that both states get their fair share of water from the Mahanadi river.

The specific purpose of the institution of Lok Pal is to: 
  • a)
    Strengthen legislative control over administration 
  • b)
    Supplement judicial control over administration 
  • c)
    Protect and promote integrity in administration 
  • d)
    Enable effective popular control over administration
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, commonly known as The Lokpal Act, is an anti-corruption Act of Indian Parliament in India which "seeks to provide for the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain important public functionaries including the Prime Minister

The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following? 
  • a)
    Parliamentary Commissioner of UK 
  • b)
    Ombudsman in Scandinavia 
  • c)
    Procurator General of Russia
  • d)
    Council of State in France
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Chavan answered
Introduction:
The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on the concept of Ombudsman in Scandinavia.

Explanation:
The concept of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on the idea of an ombudsman, which originated in Scandinavia. Ombudsman is a Swedish word which means "representative" or "agent of the people". The ombudsman system was first established in Sweden in 1809 to address citizen grievances against government officials.

Definition:
An ombudsman is an independent and impartial public official appointed to investigate complaints against government agencies, public officials, and institutions. The ombudsman acts as a watchdog and ensures transparency, accountability, and fairness in the functioning of the government.

Key Features of Ombudsman System:
1. Independent Authority: The ombudsman is appointed by the legislature or the executive branch but operates independently and is not subject to direct control by the government.

2. Jurisdiction: The ombudsman has the power to investigate complaints related to maladministration, corruption, abuse of power, and violation of human rights by government agencies and officials.

3. Remedial Action: The ombudsman can recommend appropriate remedial action, including administrative reforms, disciplinary action, and prosecution, based on the findings of the investigation.

4. Accessibility: The ombudsman's office is easily accessible to the public, and anyone can file a complaint without any cost or legal representation.

5. Transparency: The ombudsman operates in a transparent manner by conducting investigations in an open and fair manner and providing regular reports on its activities.

Lokpal and Lokayukta Act:
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, establishes the office of Lokpal at the central level and Lokayukta at the state level in India. The Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority responsible for receiving and investigating complaints of corruption against public officials, including the Prime Minister and Members of Parliament. The Lokayukta performs a similar role at the state level.

Conclusion:
The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on the concept of an ombudsman in Scandinavia. This system provides an independent and impartial mechanism to address citizen grievances and ensure accountability and transparency in the functioning of the government.

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