All questions of November 2023 for UPSC CSE Exam

Consider the following statements regarding Sundarbans.
  1. Sundarbans is a mangrove areain the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
  2. Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
  3. It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Statement 1: Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.

This statement is correct. The Sundarbans is a vast mangrove area located in the delta region where the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers meet. It spans both India and Bangladesh and is known for its rich biodiversity and unique ecosystem.

Statement 2: Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove forest in the world.

This statement is correct. The Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh is indeed the largest mangrove forest in the world. It covers a significant portion of the Sundarbans and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 3: It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers.

This statement is correct. The Sundarbans is renowned for being the only mangrove forest in the world that is inhabited by tigers. The Royal Bengal Tigers are adapted to the mangrove habitat and are skilled swimmers, making the Sundarbans their natural home.

Conclusion:

All three statements are correct.
- Statement 1 highlights the location of the Sundarbans in the delta formed by the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna Rivers.
- Statement 2 establishes the Sundarban Reserve Forest in Bangladesh as the largest mangrove forest globally.
- Statement 3 emphasizes the unique characteristic of the Sundarbans, being the only mangrove forest inhabited by tigers.

Hence, the correct answer is option C, i.e., all three statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding International Tunnelling and Underground Space Association (ITA).
  1. International Tunnelling and Underground Space Association (ITA) is a united nations organisation that facilitates the development of sustainable and innovative solutions for optimised, safe and equitable use of Underground Space.
  2. India is not a member nation of ITA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Founded in 1974 by the initiative of nineteen Nations, the International Tunnelling and Underground Space Association (ITA) mission is to lead, advocate and facilitate the development of sustainable and innovative solutions for increased, optimised, safe and equitable use of Underground Space, enabling the tunnelling industry and its stakeholders to excel in delivering:
  • Technical knowledge in the field of tunnelling and underground space through publication of guidelines, training, and creating platforms for exchanging information and ideas;
  • Best practices in health-and-safety, planning, engineering, contracting, construction, operation, and maintenance;
  • The tools to empower decision makers and allied professionals to make informed choices about the underground;
  • Reliable and economical underground solutions to urbanisation and environmental challenges;
  • Efficient and resilient underground infrastructure for current and future generations.
  • Since then, ITA has considerably developed. Presently, ITA gathers 79 Member Nations and 219 Corporate or individual Affiliate Members.
India is a member nation of ITA.

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)issues orders and directions on subjects such as
  1. Direct to Home (DTH) services
  2. Increasing broadband penetration in India
  3. Mobile number portability
  4. Tariffs
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1, 2, 3 
  • b)
    1, 3, 4 
  • c)
    2, 3, 4 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is an independent regulatory body established by the Government of India to regulate the telecommunications industry in the country. TRAI is responsible for ensuring fair competition, protecting consumer interests, and promoting the growth of the telecommunications sector. TRAI has been given the authority to issue orders and directions on various subjects related to the telecom industry.

The correct answer is option 'D', which includes all the mentioned subjects:
1. Direct to Home (DTH) services: TRAI issues orders and directions to regulate the DTH services in India. This includes setting guidelines for the licensing, operation, and tariff structures of DTH service providers. TRAI ensures fair competition and consumer protection in the DTH sector.

2. Increasing broadband penetration in India: TRAI plays a crucial role in promoting the growth of broadband services in India. It formulates policies and regulations to facilitate the expansion of broadband infrastructure and increase internet access across the country. TRAI also monitors the quality of broadband services and takes necessary actions to address issues related to speed, reliability, and affordability.

3. Mobile number portability: TRAI has introduced mobile number portability (MNP) in India, allowing mobile phone users to switch their service providers while retaining their existing phone numbers. TRAI sets the guidelines and regulations for MNP implementation, ensuring a smooth and hassle-free process for consumers. The introduction of MNP has increased competition among service providers and empowered consumers to choose the best service for their needs.

4. Tariffs: TRAI regulates the tariffs charged by telecom service providers in India. It ensures that the tariffs are reasonable, transparent, and non-discriminatory. TRAI sets guidelines for tariff structures, promotional offers, and discounts to prevent anti-competitive practices and protect consumer interests. TRAI also monitors and takes action against any violations of tariff regulations.

In conclusion, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issues orders and directions on subjects such as Direct to Home (DTH) services, increasing broadband penetration in India, mobile number portability, and tariffs. These measures are aimed at promoting fair competition, protecting consumer interests, and ensuring the growth of the telecommunications sector in India.

Consider the following statements.
  1. It requires both renewable electricity and deionized water to produce green hydrogen.
  2. Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) introduced India’s first green hydrogen-powered bus.
  3. Green hydrogen-powered bus emits only water vapour as its by-product.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has introduced India’s first green hydrogen-powered bus, which emits only water vapour as its by-product.
  • Green hydrogen is an environmentally friendly option as it only emits water vapour when burned and has three times the energy density of other fuels. It requires 50 units of renewable electricity and 9 kg of deionized water to produce one kilogram of green hydrogen.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The Kole wetland is located in Kerala.
  2. The Kole wetland isan internationally important Ramsar site known for its high biodiversity.
  3. Cabomba furcuta also known as Pink Bloom is an invasive alien plant species, causing threat toKole wetland.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Sengupta answered
Kole wetland is located in Kerala and is an internationally important Ramsar site known for its high biodiversity. Cabomba furcuta, also known as Pink Bloom, is an invasive alien plant species that poses a threat to the Kole wetland. All three statements are correct.

1. Kole wetland location:
The Kole wetland is indeed located in Kerala. It is situated in the Thrissur district, around 20 kilometers away from the Arabian Sea. The wetland covers an area of approximately 13,628 hectares and is spread across several panchayats.

2. Importance of Kole wetland:
The Kole wetland is recognized as an internationally important Ramsar site. Ramsar sites are wetlands of international importance designated under the Ramsar Convention, an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. The Kole wetland is included in the list of Ramsar sites due to its ecological significance and the diverse range of flora and fauna it supports. It is home to various resident and migratory bird species, including endangered and vulnerable species.

3. Cabomba furcuta as an invasive alien plant species:
Cabomba furcuta, commonly known as Pink Bloom, is indeed an invasive alien plant species that poses a threat to the Kole wetland. Invasive species are non-native species that have been introduced to an ecosystem and have the potential to cause harm to the environment, economy, or human health. Cabomba furcuta is a submerged aquatic plant that spreads rapidly, forming dense mats on the water surface. These mats block sunlight, reduce oxygen levels, and disrupt the ecological balance of the wetland, negatively impacting the native plant and animal species.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, all three statements are correct. The Kole wetland is located in Kerala and is an internationally important Ramsar site known for its high biodiversity. Cabomba furcuta, also known as Pink Bloom, is an invasive alien plant species that poses a threat to the Kole wetland.

Consider the following statements.
  1. When the value of the currency is made cheaper by the central bank it is called devaluation of the currency, and when the market forces bring down the value of the currency due to falling demand it is called depreciation of the currency.
  2. In the Balance of Payments, the movements of money without exchange for goods or services and charities are part of Capital account.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Incorrect Statement Explanation:

Statement 1:
- Devaluation of a currency occurs when a central bank intentionally reduces the value of its currency in relation to other currencies by lowering the official exchange rate.
- This is typically done to boost exports and reduce trade deficits.
- Therefore, the statement that devaluation occurs when the value of the currency is made cheaper by the central bank is correct.

Statement 2:
- Depreciation of a currency refers to a decrease in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system due to market forces such as supply and demand.
- Movements of money without exchange for goods or services, and charities are part of the Current Account in the Balance of Payments, not the Capital Account.
- Therefore, the statement that these movements are part of the Capital Account is incorrect.

Conclusion:
- The correct answer is option 'B', as only Statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements.
  1. The government has the power to control the prices of certain medicines, those needed in public interest, through the Drug Prices Control Order.
  2. The patented drugs are not included in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM).
  3. Once a drug is included in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM), its prices are controlled by the central government and cannot be changed by companies themselves.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankit Roy answered
Explanation:
Statement 1:
- The government does have the power to control the prices of certain medicines through the Drug Prices Control Order, especially those needed in public interest. This allows the government to regulate the prices of essential medicines to ensure they are accessible to the general population.
Statement 2:
- Patented drugs are not included in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM). The NLEM includes only those medicines that are considered essential for the healthcare system and public health. Patented drugs, which are protected by patents, are not typically included in this list.
Statement 3:
- Once a drug is included in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM), its prices are controlled by the central government and cannot be changed by companies themselves. This is done to ensure that essential medicines remain affordable and accessible to the public.
Therefore, statement 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. The correct answer is option 'B', which states that only two of the statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Lunar Soil.
  1. Lunar Soil is not dusty but rather lumpy, indicating that something is binding the soil together.
  2. Lunar Soil is a thick layer of regolith, fragmental and unconsolidated rock material.
  3. Lunar soil also contains organic matter.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sai Sengupta answered
The correct answer is option 'B' - Only two.

Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement one by one:

1. Lunar Soil is not dusty but rather lumpy, indicating that something is binding the soil together.
This statement is incorrect. Lunar soil is actually quite dusty and consists of fine particles of regolith. Due to the absence of wind and water erosion on the Moon, the soil particles do not get compacted or bound together. As a result, the lunar soil is not lumpy but rather loose and unconsolidated.

2. Lunar Soil is a thick layer of regolith, fragmental and unconsolidated rock material.
This statement is correct. Lunar soil, also known as lunar regolith, is a layer of fragmented and unconsolidated rock material that covers the solid bedrock of the Moon. It is composed of various materials such as basalt, anorthosite, and breccia, which have been broken down into small particles over billions of years due to meteoroid impacts.

3. Lunar soil also contains organic matter.
This statement is incorrect. Lunar soil does not contain organic matter. Organic matter is derived from living organisms, and since there is no known life on the Moon, the lunar soil is devoid of any organic material.

In conclusion, only the second statement is correct, while the first and third statements are incorrect. Lunar soil is a thick layer of regolith consisting of fragmental and unconsolidated rock material, but it is not lumpy and does not contain organic matter.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) is a joint venture company that is focused on identifying and acquiring strategic minerals overseas for India’s use.
  2. Argentina, is part of the “Lithium Triangle”, and holds the world’s largest lithium reserve.
  3. India is part of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), which aims to strengthen critical mineral supply chains.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

And promoting the exploration, mining, and beneficiation of minerals within India. KABIL aims to secure a steady supply of minerals that are essential for various industries in India, such as steel, aluminum, and power. The company also aims to reduce the country's dependence on imports and establish a self-sufficient mineral sector. KABIL works closely with Indian ministries and government agencies to facilitate mineral exploration and acquisition abroad, as well as to support domestic mining projects. The company actively seeks partnerships and collaborations with international mining companies and governments to achieve its objectives.

Consider the following statements regarding Galactic tides.
  1. Galactic tides, similar to the tides in Earth’s oceans are caused by gravitational forces within galaxies.
  2. They are caused due to interactions between celestial objects like stars and gas clouds.
  3. These tidal forces play a significant role in destruction of the galaxies.
  4. They impact supermassive black holes located at the centres of galaxies.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Maulik Ghoshal answered
's oceans, are caused by the gravitational pull of nearby celestial objects.
Galactic tides can cause the distortion of galaxies, stretching them out into elongated shapes.
Galactic tides are strongest in regions where the gravitational pull of nearby objects is strongest.
Galactic tides can disrupt the orbits of stars and other celestial objects within a galaxy.
Galactic tides are only significant in galaxies that are part of a larger galaxy cluster.
Galactic tides can lead to the formation of tidal tails and streams of stars.
Galactic tides can play a role in the process of galaxy mergers and interactions.
Galactic tides can cause the expulsion of gas and dust from a galaxy.
Galactic tides can have a long-term effect on the evolution of galaxies.

Consider the following statements.
  1. El Niño years in India have witnessed extreme heat and below normal rainfall levels during monsoon.
  2. La Nina years are known to favour India’s Northeast monsoon.
  3. Intense hurricanes and cyclones have frequently occurred in the Atlantic Ocean and the Bay of Bengal during La Nina years.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Niharika Roy answered
Explanation:

El Niño years in India:
- The statement mentioning extreme heat and below normal rainfall levels during monsoon in El Niño years is correct.
- El Niño is associated with warming of sea surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean, which can lead to changes in global weather patterns.
- In India, El Niño events are often linked to droughts and heatwaves during the monsoon season.

La Niña years in India:
- The statement stating that La Niña years favor India's Northeast monsoon is correct.
- La Niña is the opposite phase of El Niño, characterized by cooler than average sea surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean.
- La Niña events can enhance rainfall during the Northeast monsoon season in India, leading to above-normal precipitation levels in this region.

Intense hurricanes and cyclones:
- The statement mentioning intense hurricanes and cyclones frequently occurring in the Atlantic Ocean and the Bay of Bengal during La Niña years is correct.
- La Niña conditions can create favorable conditions for the formation and intensification of tropical cyclones, including hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean and cyclones in the Bay of Bengal.
Therefore, out of the three statements provided, only the second and third statements are correct. The first statement is also accurate, making the correct answer option 'B' - Only two.

Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.
  1. Aerosols influence climate by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the atmosphere, and by affecting the way clouds form.
  2. Some aerosols reflect the sun’s rays that beam on them and bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere.
  3. Examples of aerosols are fog, forest exudates, particulate air pollutants and smoke.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas. Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aerosols are fog, mist, dust, forest exudates and geyser steam. Examples of anthropogenic aerosols are particulate air pollutants and smoke.
  • Aerosols influence climate in two primary ways: by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the atmosphere, or by affecting the way clouds form.
  • Some aerosols, like many kinds of dust from ground-up rocks, are light-colored and even a little bit reflective. When the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere, preventing that heat from ever reaching Earth’s surface.

Which of the following are the sources of arsenic contamination?
  1. Intense exploitation of groundwater
  2. Weathering of rocks and minerals followed by leaching and runoff
  3. Iron coprecipitation
  4. Burning of coal
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankita Sarkar answered
Sources of Arsenic Contamination:

Intense exploitation of groundwater:
- Arsenic contamination in groundwater is a significant issue in many parts of the world, particularly in regions where groundwater is intensively exploited.
- When groundwater is excessively pumped from aquifers, it can cause the water table to lower, leading to the intrusion of contaminants from surrounding areas into the aquifer.
- Arsenic can be naturally present in rocks and minerals, and when the water table drops, it can mobilize and contaminate the groundwater.

Weathering of rocks and minerals followed by leaching and runoff:
- Arsenic is naturally present in rocks and minerals such as arsenopyrite and arsenic-bearing sulfides.
- Over time, weathering processes break down these rocks and minerals, resulting in the release of arsenic into the environment.
- Arsenic can then leach into the soil and water, where it can contaminate groundwater and surface water through runoff.

Iron coprecipitation:
- Iron coprecipitation is a process where arsenic binds with iron minerals in the environment.
- When iron minerals are present in soils or sediments, arsenic can adsorb onto their surfaces and become immobilized.
- However, under certain conditions, such as changes in pH or redox potential, the iron minerals can dissolve, releasing the bound arsenic back into the environment.

Burning of coal:
- Arsenic is naturally present in coal, and when coal is burned for energy production or other industrial processes, it releases arsenic into the atmosphere.
- The released arsenic can then be deposited onto land, water bodies, and vegetation, leading to contamination.

Correct answer: Only three (c)

Explanation:
- The sources of arsenic contamination mentioned in options a, b, and d are all correct.
- Intense exploitation of groundwater can lead to the intrusion of arsenic from rocks and minerals into the aquifer.
- Weathering of rocks and minerals followed by leaching and runoff is a natural process that can release arsenic into the environment.
- Iron coprecipitation is a mechanism by which arsenic can bind with iron minerals and later be released under certain conditions.
- However, burning of coal is not a direct source of arsenic contamination in terms of groundwater or natural environment. It primarily contributes to atmospheric deposition of arsenic onto land and water bodies.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option c, which states that only three of the statements are correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Indexation means adjusting the cost of mutual funds after taking into account inflation in the redemption cost.
  2. SEBI provides the benefit of indexation for calculation of long-term capital gains (LTCG) on debt mutual funds.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Bajaj answered
Incorrect Statement:
b) 2 only: SEBI provides the benefit of indexation for calculation of long-term capital gains (LTCG) on debt mutual funds.

Explanation:
Indexation refers to the adjustment of the cost of an asset, such as mutual funds, to account for inflation. It is a method used to calculate the long-term capital gains (LTCG) on investments.

Statement 1: Indexation means adjusting the cost of mutual funds after taking into account inflation in the redemption cost.
This statement is correct. Indexation is a method used to adjust the cost of mutual funds to account for inflation. It helps in reducing the tax liability on the capital gains made from the redemption of mutual funds. By adjusting the cost of acquisition using the Cost Inflation Index (CII), which is provided by the Income Tax Department, the investor can increase the acquisition cost and reduce the taxable capital gains.

Statement 2: SEBI provides the benefit of indexation for calculation of long-term capital gains (LTCG) on debt mutual funds.
This statement is incorrect. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the regulatory body for the securities market in India. While SEBI regulates and oversees the functioning of mutual funds, the benefit of indexation for calculation of long-term capital gains on debt mutual funds is provided by the Income Tax Department, not SEBI. The Income Tax Act allows indexation benefit for debt mutual funds, which helps investors in reducing their tax liability.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - 2 only.

Consider the following statements regarding Electrons.
  1. The electron is a subatomic particle with a negative elementary electric charge.
  2. Electrons move so slowly that capturing them requires long pulses of light.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
The electron is a subatomic particle with a negative elementary electric charge. Electrons rapid movement made them challenging to study directly. Scientists had to rely on averaging their properties.
Electrons move so quickly that capturing them requires extremely short pulses of light such as attosecond.
Electron dynamics occur on the attosecond timescale, which is a billionth of a billionth of a second (1×10−18 of a second), much faster than femtoseconds (a millionth of a billionth of a second) associated with atomic movements.

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crimes(UNTOC).
  1. The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is a legally non-binding instrumentadopted by the UN General Assembly.
  2. It is the first comprehensive treaty aimed at combatting human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit firearms trafficking.
  3. Central Bureau of Investigationacts as the national Nodal Authority from India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is a global and legally binding instrumentadopted by the UN General Assembly in 2000 and enforced in 2003.
  • It is the first comprehensive treaty aimed at combatting transnational organized crime including human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit firearms trafficking.
  • Currently, there are 191 parties to the Convention, including India (who joined it in 2002 and ratified it in 2011). Central Bureau of Investigationacts as the national Nodal Authority from India. India also enacted the Criminal Law Amendment Act in 2013, which specifically defines human trafficking.

Consider the following statements regarding Export Promotion of Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme.
  1. The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 is facilitating exports by streamlining the EPCG scheme.
  2. The EPCG Scheme prohibits the import of capital goods into India.
  3. Battery Electric Vehicles (BEV) of all types are eligible for reduced Export Obligation requirement under EPCG Scheme.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Nair answered
Foreign Trade Policy 2023 and EPCG Scheme:
- The statement that the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 is facilitating exports by streamlining the EPCG scheme is correct. The policy aims to simplify procedures and provide incentives to boost exports.
- Under the EPCG Scheme, exporters can import capital goods for pre-production, production, and post-production at zero customs duty, subject to an export obligation.

Prohibition on Import of Capital Goods:
- The statement that the EPCG Scheme prohibits the import of capital goods into India is incorrect. In fact, the scheme allows the import of capital goods for specified purposes under certain conditions.
- The main objective of the EPCG Scheme is to facilitate import of capital goods for producing quality goods and services and enhancing India's export competitiveness.

Eligibility of Battery Electric Vehicles (BEV):
- Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) are eligible for a reduced Export Obligation requirement under the EPCG Scheme. This means that exporters of BEVs would have a lower export obligation compared to other products.
- This incentivizes the export of environmentally friendly BEVs and supports the government's initiatives to promote sustainable transportation solutions.
Therefore, only the second and third statements are correct, making option 'B' the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding Quantum dots.
  1. Quantum dots are tiny particles, just a few nanometers in size, with unique optical properties.
  2. While their atomic structure is the same as bulk materials, quantum dots’ properties can be alteredby adjusting their size.
  3. At the nanoscale, they exhibit size-dependent characteristicsinfluenced by quantum forces.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Quantum dots are tiny particles, just a few nanometers in size, with unique optical properties due to their small size. While their atomic structure is the same as bulk materials, quantum dots’ properties can be altered by adjusting their size.
At the nanoscale, these particles exhibit size-dependent characteristics influenced by quantum forces, which differ from macroscopic physics governed by gravity.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Teesta River is a tributary of the Ganga River and flows through India and Bangladesh.
  2. Teesta River originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim.
  3. Glacial lakes are formed due to glacier retreat and exist only for short period of time.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilanjan Singh answered
The correct answer is option 'A': Only one.

Explanation:
Let's analyze each statement:

1. Teesta River is a tributary of the Ganga River and flows through India and Bangladesh.
- This statement is incorrect. The Teesta River is not a tributary of the Ganga River. Instead, it is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River. The Teesta River originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal, as well as through Bangladesh.

2. Teesta River originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim.
- This statement is correct. The Teesta River originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim. Chunthang is a small village located in the northern part of Sikkim, India.

3. Glacial lakes are formed due to glacier retreat and exist only for a short period of time.
- This statement is incorrect. Glacial lakes are indeed formed due to the retreat of glaciers. When glaciers melt, they leave behind depressions that fill with water, forming glacial lakes. These lakes can exist for an extended period, ranging from a few months to several years, depending on various factors such as climate, precipitation, and glacial activity.

In conclusion, only the second statement is correct. The Teesta River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, and it originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim. The first statement is incorrect as the Teesta River is not a tributary of the Ganga River. The third statement is also incorrect as glacial lakes can exist for varying lengths of time.

The newly designated Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is located in 
  • a)
    Telangana 
  • b)
    Andhra Pradesh 
  • c)
    Karnataka 
  • d)
    Madhya Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Madhya Pradesh, known as the “tiger state” of India due to its substantial tiger population, has officially designated a new protected area for these magnificent creatures called the ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve.’
  • This newly established reserve becomes the seventh tiger reserve in the state.
  • Madhya Pradesh has consistently held the title of the “tiger state,” with its tiger population increasing from 526 in 2018 to 785 in the 2022 census.
  • The Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve incorporates the previously recognized eco-sensitive zone of Nauradehi and Veerangana Durgavati sanctuaries, along with surrounding forest areas, into the buffer zone.

Consider the following statements regarding Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar.
  1. Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar aim to acknowledge exceptional contributions made by technologists and innovators, whether individually or in teams, across various domains of science and technology.
  2. It is not open to individuals working in government sector.
  3. People of Indian Origin residing abroad whose contributions have benefited Indian society are eligible for the award.
  4. It recognizes lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Government of India has introduced a new set of National Awards in the field of Science, Technology, and Innovation called “Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar.”
  • These awards aim to acknowledge exceptional contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators, whether individually or in teams, across various domains of science and technology.
  • It is open to individuals working in government, private sector organizations, or independently, as well as to People of Indian Origin residing abroad whose contributions have benefited Indian society.
These awards are categorized as follows:
  • Vigyan Ratna (VR) award: Recognizing lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology.
  • Vigyan Shri (VS) award: Acknowledging distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
  • Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award: Encouraging young scientists under the age of 45 who have made exceptional contributions in any field of science and technology.
  • Vigyan Team (VT) award: Presented to teams comprising three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators who have made exceptional contributions while working collaboratively in any field of science and technology.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar covers 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Science, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science and Technology, and Others.

Consider the following statements regarding BASEL-III Norms.
  1. Basel-III norms were adopted by financial regulators to improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress.
  2. It was developed by International Monetary Fund (IMF) in the aftermath of the financial crisis of 2007-08.
  3. It mandates banks to maintain a Capital to Risk-weighted Assets (CRAR) of at least 25%.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Shah answered
1. Basel-III norms focus on increasing the minimum capital requirements for banks to make them more resilient to financial shocks.

2. Basel-III norms also introduce new regulatory requirements on liquidity risk management and leverage ratios for banks.

3. Basel-III norms aim to enhance transparency and disclosure practices in the banking sector to improve market discipline.

4. Basel-III norms were developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, a global regulatory body that sets international standards for banking regulation.

5. Basel-III norms were implemented in response to the global financial crisis of 2008, with the goal of strengthening the banking sector and preventing future crises.

The hydrogen bomb and Uranium bomb are based respectively on 
  • a)
    Fission and thermonuclear fusion 
  • b)
    Geothermal fusion and fission 
  • c)
    Nuclear fusion and fission 
  • d)
    Geothermal fission and fusion
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Poulomi Nair answered
Explanation:

Fission and Fusion:
- The hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear fusion, while the Uranium bomb is based on nuclear fission.
- Nuclear fusion involves the combination of atomic nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process.
- Nuclear fission, on the other hand, involves the splitting of atomic nuclei into smaller nuclei, also releasing a significant amount of energy.

Hydrogen Bomb:
- The hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear bomb, relies on the process of nuclear fusion to release a massive amount of energy.
- In a hydrogen bomb, isotopes of hydrogen, such as deuterium and tritium, fuse together to form helium and release a tremendous amount of energy.

Uranium Bomb:
- The Uranium bomb, on the other hand, is based on nuclear fission, where uranium-235 is used as the primary fuel.
- In a Uranium bomb, the uranium nuclei are split into smaller nuclei, releasing a large amount of energy and causing a chain reaction.

Conclusion:
- In summary, the hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear fusion, while the Uranium bomb is based on nuclear fission. Both processes release vast amounts of energy and are used in different types of nuclear weapons.

The Astana Declaration of 2018 is related to 
  • a)
    Intellectual property rights 
  • b)
    LGBT Rights 
  • c)
    Strengthen primary healthcare 
  • d)
    Rights of Indigenous Peoples
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ankit Roy answered
The Astana Declaration of 2018 is related to Strengthen primary healthcare.
- Background: The Astana Declaration was adopted at the Global Conference on Primary Health Care in Astana, Kazakhstan in 2018.
- Focus: The declaration emphasizes the importance of primary healthcare as the key to achieving universal health coverage and sustainable development goals.
- Key Points:
- It calls for strengthening primary healthcare systems to make them more people-centered, equitable, and efficient.
- It highlights the role of primary healthcare in addressing public health challenges, including infectious diseases, non-communicable diseases, and mental health issues.
- The declaration also stresses the need for political commitment, adequate funding, and collaboration between various sectors to improve primary healthcare services.
- Impact: The Astana Declaration has been instrumental in guiding global efforts to prioritize primary healthcare and improve health outcomes for all. It has led to increased focus on strengthening primary healthcare systems in many countries.
- Significance: By reaffirming the importance of primary healthcare, the declaration aims to ensure that everyone has access to essential health services, no matter where they live or their socio-economic status.
Overall, the Astana Declaration of 2018 plays a crucial role in advancing the goal of universal health coverage and promoting health equity through the strengthening of primary healthcare systems.

Consider the following statements regarding Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023.
  1. Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 focuses on strengthening international cooperation to accelerate the reduction of global greenhouse gas emissions.
  2. The report evaluates progress made since 2022 in priority areas for global collaboration.
  3. The report is released by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Geetika Chavan answered
Overview:
The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 is a comprehensive document that evaluates progress made in priority areas for global collaboration since 2022. It focuses on strengthening international cooperation to accelerate the reduction of global greenhouse gas emissions. However, it is not released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Explanation:
Let's evaluate each statement individually:

Statement 1: Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 focuses on strengthening international cooperation to accelerate the reduction of global greenhouse gas emissions.
This statement is correct. The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 indeed aims to enhance international collaboration to expedite the reduction of global greenhouse gas emissions. This is a critical step towards addressing climate change and achieving sustainable development goals.

Statement 2: The report evaluates progress made since 2022 in priority areas for global collaboration.
This statement is correct. The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 assesses the progress made in priority areas for global collaboration since 2022. It provides a comprehensive analysis of the efforts made by various stakeholders towards achieving sustainable development targets.

Statement 3: The report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
This statement is incorrect. The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 is not released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). While UNEP plays a crucial role in promoting environmental sustainability and coordinating international efforts, this specific report is not affiliated with UNEP.

Conclusion:
Out of the three given statements, only the first two are correct. The Breakthrough Agenda Report 2023 focuses on strengthening international cooperation to accelerate the reduction of global greenhouse gas emissions and evaluates progress made since 2022 in priority areas for global collaboration. However, the report is not released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Which of the following provisions is/are part of Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India?
  1. Any section of the citizens residing in India having a distinct culture, language and script have the right to conserve their culture and language.
  2. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
Select the correct answer code:
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Fundamental Rights are a set of basic rights and freedoms guaranteed to the citizens of India under Part III of the Constitution of India. These rights are essential for the overall development and well-being of individuals, and they ensure the protection of their dignity, equality, and freedom.

The provisions mentioned in the question are indeed part of the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India. Let's understand each provision in detail:

1. Right to conserve culture and language:
- This provision is enshrined in Article 29(1) of the Constitution.
- It states that any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct culture, language, and script shall have the right to conserve their culture.
- This provision recognizes the importance of cultural diversity and protects the rights of individuals and communities to preserve their customs, traditions, language, and script.
- It ensures that the cultural and linguistic heritage of different communities is respected and preserved.

2. Right to non-discrimination in education:
- This provision is enshrined in Article 15(1) of the Constitution.
- It states that no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
- This provision prohibits any form of discrimination based on religion, race, caste, language, or any other similar grounds in matters related to admission to educational institutions.
- It ensures equal opportunities for all citizens to access education without any discrimination.

Both of these provisions are part of the Fundamental Rights to ensure the protection of cultural diversity, linguistic rights, and equal access to education for all citizens of India. These rights are fundamental to the principles of equality, freedom, and social justice enshrined in the Constitution.

In conclusion, both provisions mentioned in the question - the right to conserve culture and language and the right to non-discrimination in education - are part of the Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India. These rights play a crucial role in promoting inclusivity, diversity, and equal opportunities for all citizens.

Consider the following statements.
  1. Social bonds are a type of financial instrument designed to fund projects that address social and environmental challenges.
  2. In India Social bonds can be issued only by government agencies.
  3. They are not listed on the BSE or NSE.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Anjali Khanna answered
Statement 1: Social bonds are a type of financial instrument designed to fund projects that address social and environmental challenges.
Social bonds are indeed a type of financial instrument that is designed to fund projects aimed at addressing social and environmental challenges. These bonds are issued by governments, development banks, and corporations to raise capital for projects that have a positive social impact. The funds generated through the issuance of social bonds are typically used to finance initiatives in areas such as healthcare, education, affordable housing, clean energy, and sustainable agriculture. By investing in social bonds, investors can contribute to the financing of projects that promote sustainable development and address pressing societal issues.

Statement 2: In India, social bonds can be issued only by government agencies.
This statement is incorrect. In India, social bonds can be issued not only by government agencies but also by other entities such as development banks, financial institutions, and corporations. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which is the regulatory body for the securities market in India, has provided guidelines for the issuance and listing of social bonds. These guidelines allow a wide range of entities to issue social bonds, provided they comply with the prescribed norms and meet the eligibility criteria.

Statement 3: Social bonds are not listed on the BSE or NSE.
This statement is also incorrect. Social bonds can be listed on stock exchanges, including the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and the National Stock Exchange (NSE) in India. Listing the bonds on the exchanges provides transparency and liquidity to the investors. It allows the bonds to be traded in the secondary market, providing an avenue for investors to buy or sell the bonds before their maturity date. The listing of social bonds on stock exchanges enhances their attractiveness to a wider range of investors and promotes the growth of the social bond market in India.

In conclusion, both statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Social bonds are indeed a type of financial instrument designed to fund projects that address social and environmental challenges. They can be issued not only by government agencies but also by other entities, and they can be listed on stock exchanges such as the BSE and NSE in India.

Consider the following statements regarding RoDTEP scheme.
  1. The RoDTEP scheme provides exporters with refunds for taxes, duties, and levies incurred during the manufacturing and distribution of goods.
  2. The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme(MEIS) replaced the RoDTEP scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Tejas Rane answered


Explanation:

1. RoDTEP Scheme:
- The RoDTEP (Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products) scheme was introduced to provide exporters with refunds for taxes, duties, and levies incurred during the manufacturing and distribution of goods.
- The scheme aims to make Indian products more competitive in the global market by reimbursing various taxes and duties that are not refunded under existing schemes like GST.

2. MEIS Scheme:
- The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was introduced to promote exports by providing exporters with incentives in the form of duty credit scrips.
- The MEIS scheme replaced the earlier schemes like the Focus Product Scheme and the Market Linked Focus Product Scheme to simplify the process of claiming incentives.

Correct Answer: Option 'A' - 1 only
- The first statement is correct as it accurately describes the benefits of the RoDTEP scheme.
- The second statement is incorrect as the MEIS scheme did not replace the RoDTEP scheme; instead, it replaced other export promotion schemes.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is option 'A'.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be
  1. Registered under the Act
  2. Open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in Reserve Bank of India, Delhi
  3. Utilise those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Explanation:

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) is a legislation enacted by the Indian government to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions and foreign hospitality by individuals and organizations in India. Let's analyze each statement mentioned in the question:

Statement 1: The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act.
This statement is correct. The FCRA mandates that any person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations must be registered under the Act. This registration ensures that the government can monitor and regulate the flow of foreign funds and prevent any misuse or illegal activities.

Statement 2: The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in Reserve Bank of India, Delhi.
This statement is incorrect. While the FCRA requires the recipient to open a designated bank account for the receipt of foreign funds, it does not specify that the account should be opened in the Reserve Bank of India, Delhi. The account can be opened in any authorized bank in India.

Statement 3: The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to utilize those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act.
This statement is correct. The FCRA lays down strict guidelines regarding the utilization of foreign funds received by individuals or NGOs. The funds must be used only for the purpose for which they have been received, and any deviation from the stipulated purpose is a violation of the Act.

Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that statement 1 and statement 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two statements are correct.

Consider the following statements.
  1. In a parliamentary form of democracy, the real power vests with the elected representatives of the people.
  2. The Governor, as an appointee of the President, is a titular head of the State.
  3. The Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers save in areas where the Constitution gives him discretion.
  4. The power to take decisions affecting the governance of the State or the nation is essentially entrusted to the elected arm of the state.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    Only three 
  • d)
    All four
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Keerthana Sen answered
The correct answer is option 'D' - All four statements are correct.

Explanation:
The given statements are related to the parliamentary form of democracy and the role of the Governor in the state. Let's examine each statement in detail:

1. In a parliamentary form of democracy, the real power vests with the elected representatives of the people.
- This statement is correct. In a parliamentary democracy, the power lies with the elected representatives who form the government. The government is accountable to the parliament and derives its authority from the support of the majority of elected representatives.

2. The Governor, as an appointee of the President, is a titular head of the State.
- This statement is correct. The Governor is appointed by the President of India and holds a ceremonial position as the head of the state. The Governor represents the President at the state level and performs various constitutional and ceremonial functions.

3. The Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers save in areas where the Constitution gives him discretion.
- This statement is correct. The Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is responsible for the governance of the state. However, there are certain areas where the Governor has discretionary powers, such as the appointment of the Chief Minister, dismissal of the state government, etc.

4. The power to take decisions affecting the governance of the State or the nation is essentially entrusted to the elected arm of the state.
- This statement is correct. In a parliamentary democracy, the power to take decisions affecting the governance of the state or the nation is primarily vested in the elected representatives. The government is formed by the majority party or coalition in the parliament, and it is responsible for making policy decisions and implementing them.

In conclusion, all four statements are correct and provide an accurate understanding of the role of elected representatives, the Governor, and the power distribution in a parliamentary form of democracy.

Consider the following statements regarding CRISPR technology.
  1. CRISPR technology mainly involve the introduction of a new gene from outside.
  2. A special protein called Cas9 is used to break the DNA strand at specific points, and remove the bad sequence.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shraddha Basak answered
Incorrect Statement Explanation:

Statement 1: CRISPR technology mainly involve the introduction of a new gene from outside.
- This statement is incorrect. CRISPR technology does not necessarily involve the introduction of a new gene from outside. Instead, it is used to precisely edit the existing genes within an organism.

Statement 2: A special protein called Cas9 is used to break the DNA strand at specific points, and remove the bad sequence.
- This statement is correct. Cas9 is a protein that is commonly used in CRISPR technology as a tool to make precise cuts in the DNA at specific locations. This allows for the removal of unwanted or "bad" sequences, as well as the insertion of new genetic material.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' as Statement 1 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding Cookies.
  1. Cookies are a vital component of the digital world, that remember login information, preferences, and interactions on websites.
  2. Cookies enable personalization, as seen on platforms like Amazon, which use them to provide tailored product recommendations and shopping cart persistence.
  3. India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023 does not mandate explicit user consent for data collection via cookies.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Cookies are a vital component of the digital world, enhancing online experiences by remembering login information, preferences, and interactions on websites.
  • Cookies come in various types, including session cookies (temporary), persistent cookies (long-lasting), secure cookies (encrypted), and third-party cookies (from domains other than the visited site).
Benefits:
  • They are like keys to a secure club, granting seamless access to websites. Cookies enable personalization, as seen on platforms like Amazon, which use them to provide tailored product recommendations and shopping cart persistence.
  • India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023 mandates explicit user consent for data collection via cookies.

Consider the following statements.
  1. A qubit is the basic unit of information in quantum computing
  2. Quantum computing utilizes quantum mechanicsto solve complex problems faster than classical computers.
  3. Fluxonium is a new type of superconducting qubitthat can perform operations between qubits with greater accuracy, but has a shorter lifespan than traditional superconducting qubits.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Statement 3 is incorrect.
    • Researchers at MIT have made significant progress in developing a novel superconducting qubit architecture that can perform operations between qubits with much greater accuracy than previously achieved.
    • They used a relatively new type of superconducting qubit called fluxonium, which has a longer lifespan than traditional superconducting qubits.
    • Fluxonium is a type of qubit (quantum bit) that is based on operations at important junctions in a superconducting circuit.
    • Quantum computing is a multidisciplinary field that utilizes quantum mechanics to solve complex problems faster than classical computers. A qubit is the basic unit of information in quantum computing

    Consider the following statements.
    1. Panthera is the genus of large wild cats that include lion, leopard, and jaguar.
    2. Tiger is the largest of all wild cats.
    3. India is the only country having Tiger as its national animal.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Statement 3 is incorrect.
    Panthera:
    • This is the genus of large wild cats that can roar. Among them, the lion, the leopard, and the jaguar are more closely related, while the other strand has the tiger and the snow leopard. The snow leopard is an exception to the rest of the group in that it can’t roar.
    • Tiger is the largest of all wild cats and also the earliest Panthera member to exist. Primarily a forest animal, they range from the Siberian taiga to the Sunderban delta. The national animal of India, Bangladesh, Malaysia, and South Korea, the tiger was voted the world’s favourite animal ahead of the dog in a 2004 Animal Planet global online poll.

    Consider the following statements.
    1. A company or business is said to be “over leveraged” if it has unsustainably high debt against its operating cash flows and equity.
    2. An over leveraged company would find it difficult to make interest and principal repayments to its creditors.
    3. An over leveraged company will always become bankrupt.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Statement 3 is incorrect.
    • A company or business is said to be “over leveraged” if it has unsustainably high debt against its operating cash flows and equity. Such a company would find it difficult to make interest and principal repayments to its creditors, and may struggle to meet its operating expenses as well. In the latter case, the company may be forced to borrow even more just to keep going, and thus enter a vicious cycle. This situation can ultimately lead to the company going bankrupt.

    Gelephu, recently seen in news is located on the border between 
    • a)
      India and Nepal 
    • b)
      India and Bangladesh 
    • c)
      Bhutan and China 
    • d)
      India and Bhutan
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Aravind Yadav answered
    Gelephu Location
    Gelephu is located on the border between India and Bhutan. It is a town in the Sarpang District of Bhutan, situated near the border with the Indian state of Assam.

    Significance of Gelephu
    Gelephu serves as an important trading hub between India and Bhutan, facilitating the movement of goods and people between the two countries. The town also plays a crucial role in promoting economic activities and cultural exchanges between India and Bhutan.

    Strategic Importance
    Due to its location on the border, Gelephu holds strategic importance for both India and Bhutan. It serves as a vital link for bilateral trade and cooperation, contributing to the overall development and prosperity of the region.

    Recent News
    Gelephu has been recently seen in the news due to various development projects and initiatives being undertaken in the town to enhance connectivity, infrastructure, and trade relations between India and Bhutan. The governments of both countries are actively working to further strengthen their ties through mutual cooperation and collaboration in various sectors.

    Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative.
    1. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative was announced by G20.
    2. IPMDA seeks to establish a comprehensive system for monitoring and securing maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific region.
    3. IPMDA aims to ensure the safety of critical sea lines of communication, and promoting cooperation among like-minded nations in the Indo-Pacific region.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Akshara Basak answered
    Introduction:
    The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative is a significant step towards enhancing security and cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region. It aims to establish a comprehensive system for monitoring and securing maritime activities in the region, with a focus on ensuring the safety of critical sea lines of communication.

    Explanation:
    Statement 1: The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative was announced by G20.
    This statement is incorrect. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative was not announced by the G20. It is a collaborative effort by like-minded nations in the Indo-Pacific region to enhance maritime security and cooperation.

    Statement 2: IPMDA seeks to establish a comprehensive system for monitoring and securing maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific region.
    This statement is correct. The IPMDA initiative aims to establish a comprehensive system for monitoring and securing maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific region. This system would involve the collection, analysis, and sharing of information related to maritime activities, including vessel tracking, maritime domain awareness, and intelligence sharing. By establishing such a system, IPMDA aims to enhance the overall maritime security in the region.

    Statement 3: IPMDA aims to ensure the safety of critical sea lines of communication, and promoting cooperation among like-minded nations in the Indo-Pacific region.
    This statement is correct. One of the primary objectives of the IPMDA initiative is to ensure the safety of critical sea lines of communication (SLOCs). SLOCs are vital for regional and global trade, and any disruption or threat to these routes can have significant economic and security implications. IPMDA aims to enhance the monitoring and security of these SLOCs to safeguard the uninterrupted flow of maritime trade.

    Additionally, IPMDA also seeks to promote cooperation among like-minded nations in the Indo-Pacific region. This cooperation includes information sharing, joint exercises, capacity-building initiatives, and collaborative efforts to address common maritime challenges. By fostering cooperation, IPMDA aims to create a secure and stable maritime environment in the Indo-Pacific region.

    Conclusion:
    In conclusion, out of the given statements, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) initiative seeks to establish a comprehensive system for monitoring and securing maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific region, with a focus on ensuring the safety of critical sea lines of communication and promoting cooperation among like-minded nations. However, statement 1 is incorrect as the IPMDA initiative was not announced by the G20.

    Consider the following statements.
    1. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) does not deal with developing standards on biofuels.
    2. The G7 leaders launched the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) that aims to facilitate the adoption of biofuels worldwide.
    3. India, USA, and Brazil are the major producersand consumers of biofuels globally.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Ipsita Roy answered
    Statements Analysis:
    Let's analyze each statement one by one:

    Statement 1: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) does not deal with developing standards on biofuels.
    This statement is correct. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national standards body in India responsible for the development, promotion, and certification of standards across various sectors. However, the BIS does not specifically deal with developing standards on biofuels. Other organizations such as the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in India are responsible for formulating policies and standards related to biofuels.

    Statement 2: The G7 leaders launched the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) that aims to facilitate the adoption of biofuels worldwide.
    This statement is incorrect. There is no evidence or information available to suggest that the G7 leaders have launched a Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA). The G7 is a group of seven major advanced economies, including Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. While these countries may individually have initiatives or agreements related to biofuels, there is no specific alliance dedicated to biofuel adoption worldwide.

    Statement 3: India, USA, and Brazil are the major producers and consumers of biofuels globally.
    This statement is correct. India, the United States, and Brazil are indeed major producers and consumers of biofuels globally. These countries have made significant investments in biofuel production and have implemented policies to promote the use of biofuels as a renewable energy source. Brazil, for example, is one of the largest producers of ethanol fuel made from sugarcane, while the United States produces a significant amount of biofuel from corn. India has also been promoting the use of biofuels, including ethanol and biodiesel, as part of its efforts to reduce dependence on fossil fuels and mitigate climate change.

    Therefore, only Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct. The correct answer is option A) Only one.

    The newly designated Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is located in 
    • a)
      Telangana 
    • b)
      Andhra Pradesh 
    • c)
      Karnataka 
    • d)
      Madhya Pradesh
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    Parth Ghosh answered
    The newly designated Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh.

    Explanation:
    The Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve is situated in the state of Madhya Pradesh, which is located in central India. It is named after Rani Durgavati, a valiant queen of the Gond dynasty who fought against the Mughal Emperor Akbar. The tiger reserve was established in 2021 and covers an area of approximately 2,081 square kilometers.

    The reserve is located in the Jabalpur division of Madhya Pradesh and spans over parts of Jabalpur and Narsinghpur districts. It is situated on the southern slopes of the Satpura Range and is characterized by a diverse topography, including hills, plateaus, valleys, and dense forests.

    Some key features of the Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve are:

    1. Biodiversity: The reserve is known for its rich biodiversity, with a wide variety of flora and fauna. It is home to several endangered species, including the Royal Bengal Tiger, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, and many more.

    2. Conservation efforts: The establishment of the tiger reserve aims to preserve and protect the natural habitat of the tigers and other wildlife species. It will also help in promoting ecological balance and conserving the biodiversity of the region.

    3. Ecotourism: The Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve has the potential to become a major ecotourism destination. It offers breathtaking landscapes, wildlife safaris, trekking opportunities, and a chance to explore the rich cultural heritage of the region.

    4. Connectivity: The reserve is well-connected to major cities and towns in Madhya Pradesh. It is located approximately 120 kilometers away from Jabalpur, which is the nearest major city. The reserve can be accessed by road, and the nearest railway station is also located in Jabalpur.

    Overall, the designation of Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh is a significant step towards wildlife conservation and promoting sustainable tourism in the region. It provides a valuable habitat for tigers and other wildlife species, while also offering visitors a chance to experience the beauty of nature.

    Consider the following statements regarding Investment facilitation and Investment promotion.
    1. Investment promotion focuses on presenting a locationas an attractive investment destination.
    2. Investment facilitation aims to simplify the process for foreign investorsto establish or expand their businesses by addressing practical challenges they may face.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      1 only 
    • b)
      2 only 
    • c)
      Both 1 and 2 
    • d)
      Neither 1 nor 2
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Nilesh Menon answered
    Investment facilitation and Investment promotion

    Investment facilitation and investment promotion are two important strategies used by governments and organizations to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and stimulate economic growth. While both focus on attracting investment, their approaches and objectives differ.

    1. Investment promotion:
    - Investment promotion refers to the activities and initiatives aimed at presenting a location as an attractive investment destination.
    - The main objective of investment promotion is to attract potential investors by highlighting the advantages and benefits of investing in a particular location.
    - Investment promotion activities often include marketing campaigns, investment seminars, business forums, trade fairs, and providing information about investment opportunities, incentives, and the business environment.
    - The focus is on creating a positive image and perception of the location and its investment potential.
    - The ultimate goal of investment promotion is to increase the inflow of FDI, create jobs, and boost economic development.

    2. Investment facilitation:
    - Investment facilitation aims to simplify the process for foreign investors to establish or expand their businesses by addressing practical challenges they may face.
    - The focus of investment facilitation is on providing support services, streamlining administrative procedures, and removing barriers and obstacles that hinder investment.
    - It involves creating a favorable business environment, ensuring transparent and efficient regulations, facilitating access to finance, providing infrastructure, and offering aftercare services to investors.
    - The objective of investment facilitation is to make it easier for investors to navigate the investment process, reduce costs and risks, and enhance the overall investment climate.
    - By providing a supportive ecosystem, investment facilitation aims to attract and retain investors, encourage reinvestment, and promote sustainable economic growth.

    Correct statements:
    Both statements are correct.

    Explanation:
    - Statement 1 is correct as investment promotion indeed focuses on presenting a location as an attractive investment destination.
    - Statement 2 is correct as investment facilitation does aim to simplify the process for foreign investors by addressing practical challenges they may face.
    - Therefore, option C, which states that both statements are correct, is the correct answer.

    The Valmiki Tiger Reserve and Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in 
    • a)
      Arunachal Pradesh 
    • b)
      Himachal Pradesh 
    • c)
      Bihar 
    • d)
      Odisha
    Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

    Alok Sengupta answered
    Valmiki Tiger Reserve and Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary in Bihar
    The Valmiki Tiger Reserve and Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary are located in Bihar, India. These protected areas play a crucial role in conserving the rich biodiversity of the region.

    Valmiki Tiger Reserve
    - Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the West Champaran district of Bihar.
    - It was established in 1990 and is one of the prominent tiger reserves in India.
    - The reserve is named after the great sage Valmiki, who composed the epic Ramayana.
    - It is spread over an area of approximately 900 square kilometers.
    - Valmiki Tiger Reserve is home to a variety of flora and fauna, including Bengal tigers, Indian leopards, sloth bears, and various species of birds and reptiles.
    - The reserve is also known for its scenic beauty, with lush forests, rivers, and waterfalls attracting nature lovers and wildlife enthusiasts.

    Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary
    - Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Kaimur district of Bihar.
    - It was established in 1982 with the aim of protecting the diverse wildlife of the region.
    - The sanctuary covers an area of around 1342 square kilometers.
    - Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity, with a variety of plant and animal species found within its boundaries.
    - Some of the wildlife species that can be spotted in the sanctuary include Bengal foxes, Indian wolves, nilgai, and various species of birds and reptiles.
    - The sanctuary is also home to several ancient caves and rock paintings, adding to its cultural and historical significance.
    In conclusion, the Valmiki Tiger Reserve and Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary in Bihar are important protected areas that contribute to the conservation of biodiversity and provide a natural habitat for various wildlife species.

    Consider the following statements.
    1. The GOBARdhan initiative, a multi-ministerial effort, aims to transform cattle dung, agricultural residues, and biomass, into valuable resources like biogas and organic manure.
    2. The GOBARdhan initiative promotes the use of bio-slurry to improve soil health, carbon content, and water retention.
    3. The Market Development Assistance (MDA) scheme, launched by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation aims to promote theadoption of organic fertilizers.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Ipsita Roy answered
    Overview:
    The given statements are related to government initiatives in India that focus on converting cattle dung, agricultural residues, and biomass into valuable resources like biogas and organic manure. The statements also mention the promotion of bio-slurry and organic fertilizers to improve soil health and water retention.

    Explanation:
    Let's evaluate each statement individually to determine its correctness:

    Statement 1: The GOBARdhan initiative, a multi-ministerial effort, aims to transform cattle dung, agricultural residues, and biomass into valuable resources like biogas and organic manure.

    This statement is correct. The GOBARdhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources) initiative was launched by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation to convert cattle dung, agricultural waste, and biomass into biogas and organic manure. The initiative aims to improve the economic conditions of rural households by promoting the use of cow dung and other organic waste for energy generation and organic farming.

    Statement 2: The GOBARdhan initiative promotes the use of bio-slurry to improve soil health, carbon content, and water retention.

    This statement is incorrect. While the GOBARdhan initiative focuses on converting organic waste into biogas and organic manure, it does not specifically mention the promotion of bio-slurry. However, bio-slurry, which is the byproduct of biogas production, can indeed be used as organic fertilizer to improve soil health, carbon content, and water retention. So, the statement is partially correct in terms of the benefits of bio-slurry but incorrect in terms of the direct promotion by the GOBARdhan initiative.

    Statement 3: The Market Development Assistance (MDA) scheme, launched by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, aims to promote the adoption of organic fertilizers.

    This statement is incorrect. The Market Development Assistance (MDA) scheme, launched by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation, and Farmers Welfare, aims to promote the use of organic fertilizers, biofertilizers, and other organic inputs in agriculture. It provides financial assistance to farmers, entrepreneurs, and organizations involved in the production, marketing, and promotion of organic fertilizers. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation primarily focuses on water supply and sanitation initiatives and is not directly associated with the MDA scheme.

    Conclusion:
    Out of the given statements, only two are correct. The first statement correctly describes the objectives of the GOBARdhan initiative, while the second statement is partially correct in terms of the benefits of bio-slurry but incorrect in terms of direct promotion by the initiative. The third statement is incorrect as the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation is not responsible for the Market Development Assistance scheme.

    Consider the following statements.
    1. Strait of Gibraltar can be accessed through a narrow passage via Ukraine.
    2. Romania, Poland and Belarus share land boundary with Ukraine.
    3. Ukraine is bordered by both Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

    Ankita Sarkar answered
    Statement 1: Strait of Gibraltar can be accessed through a narrow passage via Ukraine.

    This statement is incorrect. The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow passage located between Spain and Morocco, connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. Ukraine is located in Eastern Europe and does not have any direct access to the Strait of Gibraltar. Therefore, this statement is false.

    Statement 2: Romania, Poland, and Belarus share a land boundary with Ukraine.

    This statement is correct. Romania, Poland, and Belarus share a land boundary with Ukraine. Romania is located to the southwest of Ukraine, Poland is located to the northwest, and Belarus is located to the north. These countries have common borders with Ukraine, making this statement true.

    Statement 3: Ukraine is bordered by both the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

    This statement is incorrect. Ukraine is bordered by the Black Sea to the south, but it does not have a direct border with the Mediterranean Sea. The Mediterranean Sea is located to the southwest of Ukraine, separated by several countries including Romania, Bulgaria, and Turkey. Therefore, this statement is false.

    In conclusion, only statement 2 is correct. Romania, Poland, and Belarus share a land boundary with Ukraine. The other two statements are incorrect as Ukraine does not have access to the Strait of Gibraltar and is not directly bordered by the Mediterranean Sea.

    Consider the following statements regarding Rhinos.
    1. Indian Rhinos are Asia’s largest species of Rhino.
    2. In India they are found only in Assam and West Bengal.
    3. In 2022 Assam recorded zero poaching of Rhinoceros for the 1st time in nearly 40 years.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Ipsita Basak answered
    Correct Answer: b) Only two

    Explanation:

    Indian Rhinos are Asia's largest species of Rhino:
    - This statement is correct. Indian Rhinos, also known as the Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros, are indeed Asia's largest species of Rhino.

    In India they are found only in Assam and West Bengal:
    - This statement is incorrect. In addition to Assam and West Bengal, Indian Rhinos are also found in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

    In 2022 Assam recorded zero poaching of Rhinoceros for the 1st time in nearly 40 years:
    - This statement is correct. In 2022, Assam recorded zero poaching of Rhinoceros for the first time in nearly 40 years, marking a significant achievement in conservation efforts.

    Which of the following is/are the advantages of bioremediation technique?
    1. It is relatively less expensive than other technologies for disposal of hazardous waste.
    2. It can be carried out on site, without causing a major disturbance of normal activities.
    3. It is useful for the absolute destruction of a wide variety of contaminants
    4. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
    Select the correct answer code:
    • a)
      1, 2, 4 
    • b)
      1, 3, 4 
    • c)
      2, 3 
    • d)
      1, 2, 3, 4
    Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

    BT Educators answered
    Bioremediation:
    Bioremediation is a biotechnical process, which abates or cleans up contamination. It is a type of waste management technique which involves the use of organisms to remove or utilize the pollutants from a polluted area.
    Advantages of Bioremediation:
    • Notionally, bioremediation is useful for the absolute destruction of a wide variety of contaminants. A lot of compounds that are legally considered to be hazardous can be changed to harmless products. This eradicates the chance of future liability related with treatment and disposal of contaminated material.
    • Bioremediation can over and over again be carried out on site, often without causing a major disturbance of normal activities. This also gets rid of the need to transport quantities of waste and the possible threats to human health and the environment that can take place during transportation.
    • Bioremediation is also relatively less expensive than other technologies that are used for disposal of hazardous waste.
    Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Genetically engineered microorganisms (GEMs) have shown potential for bioremediation of soil, groundwater and activated sludge, exhibiting the enhanced degrading capabilities of a wide range of chemical contaminants.

    Consider the following statements regarding Udangudi Panangkarupatti.
    1. Udangudi Panangkarupatti is a type of palm jaggery or gur from Kerala.
    2. It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
    3. It is distinct due to the presence of red sand dune soil found in the Udangudi region.
    How many of the above statements is/are correct?
    • a)
      Only one 
    • b)
      Only two 
    • c)
      All three 
    • d)
      None
    Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

    Anjali Khanna answered
    Statement 1: Udangudi Panangkarupatti is a type of palm jaggery or gur from Kerala.
    Statement 2: It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
    Statement 3: It is distinct due to the presence of red sand dune soil found in the Udangudi region.

    Explanation:
    Statement 1: Udangudi Panangkarupatti is actually not from Kerala, but from Tamil Nadu. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

    Statement 2: Udangudi Panangkarupatti has indeed received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. A GI tag is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. It is an indication that the product is unique and has certain special characteristics that are attributable to its geographical origin. In the case of Udangudi Panangkarupatti, the GI tag highlights its distinctiveness and uniqueness.

    Statement 3: The statement that Udangudi Panangkarupatti is distinct due to the presence of red sand dune soil found in the Udangudi region is incorrect because Udangudi is not known for its red sand dunes. Udangudi is a coastal town in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu, and the soil in the region is primarily sandy. The distinctiveness of Udangudi Panangkarupatti is mainly attributed to the traditional methods of preparation and the unique characteristics of the palm trees from which it is derived.

    Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

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