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All questions of System of Government: Parliamentary & Federal System for BPSC (Bihar) Exam

Consider the following statements.
1. The Parliament can create new all-India services except for an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so
2. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    Both 1 and 2
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create new All India Services other than the All India Judicial Service (AIJS). However, before creating any new service, a resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha with a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Once the resolution is passed, Parliament may create such new service by passing a law.
Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct, as the Rajya Sabha resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Country 'A' is said to be a federal country. Which of the following are the features of a federal government? 
1. There are four levels (or tiers) of government, 
2. The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.
3. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. 
4. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    3 and 4 
  • b)
    1, 3 and 4 
  • c)
    1 and 3 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Key features of federalism: 
1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government. 
2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. 
3. The jurisdictions Of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed. 
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government. 
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers. 
6. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
  2. The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
  3. The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Statements
The question revolves around three statements related to the powers of the Prime Minister of India and the President of the United States, with a focus on the structure of their respective governments.
Statement 1: The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
- This statement is correct. In India, the Prime Minister has the authority to advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha. This can happen under various circumstances, including a loss of majority support or political strategy, allowing for fresh elections before the term concludes.
Statement 2: The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
- This statement is incorrect. In the United States, the President does not have the power to dissolve the House of Representatives. The House operates on a fixed term of two years unless it is disbanded through other political mechanisms, such as a vote of no confidence, which does not exist in the American system.
Statement 3: The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
- This statement is correct. The American political system is characterized by a clear separation of powers among the Executive, Legislative, and Judicial branches. This separation is designed to prevent the concentration of power and to create a system of checks and balances.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only).

Consider the following about Federalism in India. 
1. The Constitution does not mention the sources of finance for each tier of Government and leaves it for the executive to decide. 
2. The states are not merely agents of the Central government but draw their authority from the Constitution.
Q. Which of the above is/are correct? 
  • a)
    1 only 
  • b)
    2 only 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government. 
  • The Constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can make laws on. 
  •  Besides, the Constitution also specifies where each tier of government can get the money from for the work that it does. So, 1 is wrong. 
  • Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but draw their authority from the Constitution as well. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each of these levels of government.

Which of the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit? 
1. Territorial disputes between states 
2. Demand for creation of new states 
3. Demand of the states for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs 
4. Emergence of Regional parties and their contribution to national politics 
5. Opposition of the State to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) 
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below. 
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  • b)
    2, 4 and 5 only
  • c)
    3, 4 and 5 only 
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
  • Although the Constitution of India has created a strong central government, it has not made the state governments weak and has not reduced them to the level of administrative agencies for the execution of policies of the Central government.
  • Indian federation has been described as 'a new kind of federation to meet India's peculiar needs'.
  • The state governments are autonomous units working under the Constitutional framework in tandem with the Centre to achieve common goals.

Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes by a separate tribunal. The need for extrajudicial machinery to settle inter-state water disputes is because
  • a)
    The courts being overburdened with litigations and adjudicating slowly are incapable of adjudicating sensitive water disputes
  • b)
    Water resources are not private property, and so the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution
  • c)
    Division and distribution of any natural resources is out of judicial scrutiny in India
  • d)
    The courts cannot employ technical committees to ascertain the distribution of water resource
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Kirti Singh answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B', which states that water resources are not private property, and therefore the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution.

Reasoning:
There are several reasons why the adjudication of inter-state water disputes requires a separate tribunal and the application of different rules compared to ordinary courts:

1. Nature of water resources:
Water resources, such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater, are not private property but are considered as public or common resources. Therefore, the distribution and allocation of these resources cannot be governed by the same rules that apply to private property. The distribution of water resources requires a more comprehensive and specialized approach.

2. Complexity of water disputes:
Water disputes between states are often complex and involve various technical, scientific, and legal aspects. These disputes require the consideration of factors such as river basin management, water availability, ecological impact, and the needs of different states. Ordinary courts may not have the necessary expertise or technical knowledge to effectively adjudicate on these matters.

3. Need for specialized expertise:
The adjudication of inter-state water disputes involves the understanding of hydrological, economic, and ecological aspects. A separate tribunal can be constituted with members who have specific knowledge and expertise in these fields. This allows for a more informed and comprehensive decision-making process.

4. Expedited resolution:
Water disputes can have significant socio-economic implications and can impact the livelihoods and development of the states involved. Having a separate tribunal helps expedite the resolution of these disputes, as the tribunal can focus solely on water-related issues and avoid the delays often associated with the regular court system.

Conclusion:
Given the unique nature of water resources and the complexities involved in inter-state water disputes, it is essential to have a separate tribunal and a different set of rules to ensure a fair and efficient resolution. This approach recognizes the public nature of water resources and the need for specialized expertise in dealing with these disputes.

The scheme of youth parliament was started on the Recommendation of
  • a)
    First all India whips conference
  • b)
    Second all India whips conference
  • c)
    Third all India whips conference
  • d)
    Fourth all India whips conference
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
The scheme of Youth Parliament was started on the recommendation of the Fourth All India Whips Conference. Its objectives are: 1. to acquaint the younger generations with practices and procedures of Parliament; 2. to imbibe the spirit of discipline and tolerance cultivating character in the minds of youth; Band 3. to inculcate in the student community the basic values of democracy and to enable them to acquire a proper perspective on the functioning of democratic institutions. The ministry of parliamentary affairs provides necessary training and encouragement to the states in introducing the scheme.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 automatically suspends the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
Statement-II:
During a National Emergency in India, the President is authorized to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 21.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Akshara Singh answered
Explanation:

Statement-I:
- During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 does not automatically suspend the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
- Article 358 only empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
- This means that the other Fundamental Rights, apart from those under Article 19, remain intact during a National Emergency.

Statement-II:
- The correct provision that allows the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is under Article 359, not Article 21 as mentioned in Statement-II.
- Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution during a National Emergency.
- Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions the wrong article for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Conclusion:
- In conclusion, Statement-I is correct as it mentions the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency, but Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions a wrong provision for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Consider the following statements.
1. Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body
2. The membership of IPG is open to all members of the Parliament
Which of these statements are not correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ameya Malik answered
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG)

Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is a non-profit, non-political, and autonomous body formed in 1949. It is aimed at promoting the interests of India's parliamentary democracy and strengthening India's relations with other countries.

Statement 1: Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body

The statement is correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body. It is not affiliated with any political party or government agency. It is a non-profit organization, which is run by elected members of Parliament.

Statement 2: The membership of IPG is open to all members of the Parliament

The statement is also correct. The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament, including Lok Sabha members, Rajya Sabha members, and members of State Legislative Assemblies. The group has more than 450 members, including members from all political parties.

Conclusion

Both statements are correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body, and its membership is open to all members of Parliament. The group aims to promote India's parliamentary democracy and strengthen India's relations with other countries.

Consider the following statements.
1. Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance
2. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure
3. Like the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Pillai answered
Calling Attention Motion It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hours, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the zero hours, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

Parliamentary committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or elected by the Speaker / Chairman or nominated by the House
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    Both 1 and 2
  • c)
    2 Only
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Shilpa Bajaj answered
Parliamentary Committee: Explanation of the Answer

The correct option is "B. 2 Only." Here's an explanation of the answer:

1. Appointed, Elected, or Nominated by the House

A parliamentary committee is a group of Members of Parliament (MPs) who are appointed, elected, or nominated by the House. The appointment or nomination process varies depending on the type of committee, but typically involves a vote by the House or a decision by the Speaker or Chairman.

2. Works under the Direction of the Speaker

While parliamentary committees are appointed or nominated by the House, they do not work under the direction of the Speaker. Instead, they are independent bodies that operate according to their own rules and procedures. However, they are accountable to the House and must report back to the House on their findings and recommendations.

In summary, while the first statement is partially correct, the second statement is incorrect. Parliamentary committees work independently and are not directed by the Speaker or Chairman.

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:
  • a)
    with the consent of all the States
  • b)
    with the consent of the majority of States
  • c)
    with the consent of the States concerned
  • d)
    without the consent of any State
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The constitution empowers parliament to make laws on any matter in-state list under five extraordinary circumstances - Rajya sabha passes the resolution, national emergency, states make a request, to implement international agreements, during president's rule.

Consider the following statements.
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the legislative council
2. It can be introduced in the legislative assembly only and that too on the recommendation of the governor
3. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister
Choose the correct option from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of the Above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rahul Mehta answered
The correct option is "All of above."
Statement 1 is correct. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council of a state, as per Article 198 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. Yes, a money bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of a state on the recommendation of the Governor. 
Statement 3 is correct. Every Money Bill is considered to be a government bill, and it can only be introduced by a minister.

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Courts.
1. Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers.
2. Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalises or lowers the authority of any court.
3. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts, whereas all the provisions are included in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1, 2
  • c)
    1, 3
  • d)
    1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Chavan answered
Contempt of Courts:

Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers. It is an act of disrespect, disregard, or disobedience towards a court of law that may obstruct the administration of justice.

Statements:

1. Correct: This statement defines what Contempt of Court is.

2. Correct: Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court. This statement is also correct.

3. Correct: The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts. It is mentioned in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971. Hence, this statement is also correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements:
1. The President can declare a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or internal disturbance.
2. The President's power to declare a National Emergency requires a written recommendation from the cabinet.
3. A National Emergency can be proclaimed for the entire country or a specified part of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    2 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
  • Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The grounds for declaring a National Emergency include war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. The original term "internal disturbance" was replaced with "armed rebellion" by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Therefore, "internal disturbance" is no longer a valid ground for declaring a National Emergency.
  • Statement 2: This statement is correct. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced the requirement for a written recommendation from the cabinet for the President to declare a National Emergency, ensuring a collective decision-making process.
  • Statement 3: This statement is correct. A National Emergency can indeed be proclaimed for the entire country or a specified part of it, as per the provisions of Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.
Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: 2 and 3 Only.

Which of the following factors do not justify a strong central government in the Indian federal structure? 
1. Balanced regional development 
2. Territorial integrity of India 
3. Growing financial needs of states 
4. Decentralization of administrative powers
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 2
  • b)
    1,2,3
  • c)
    3 and 4
  • d)
    2,3,4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • Correct Answer- Option C 
  • Balanced regional development: This justifies a strong central government as it can ensure equitable distribution of resources and development across various states.
  • Territorial integrity of India: This also justifies a strong central government because maintaining unity and security is a core responsibility of the central authority.
  • Growing financial needs of states: This could imply that states require more autonomy to manage their financial resources. While the central government may support states financially, this factor doesn’t necessarily argue for a stronger central authority. Instead, it might indicate a need for states to manage their own finances more effectively.
  • Decentralization of administrative powers: This explicitly argues against a strong central government, favoring a distribution of power to states.
  •  Therefore both 3 (Growing financial needs of states) and 4 (Decentralization of administrative powers) do not justify the need for a strong central government in the Indian federal structure.

Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the true nature of the Indian Federal System? 
  • a)
    The Indian Federation is more a 'functional' than an 'institutional' Concept 
  • b)
    There is a necessary incompatibility between one dominant party regime and the principle of federalism in India. 
  • c)
    India is a unitary state and subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features
  • d)
    The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the units.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
  • Indian federation is both functional and institutional as we have a vertical distribution of power between different levels of government.
  • Federal features are not subsidiary in India.
  • Today, we have a coalition party regime rather the one dominant party.
  • Option c: Indian federation is not a result of an agreement between states. Hence, states cannot secede from the union.

Consider the following statements.
1. The Rajya Sabha represents the states of the Indian Federation
2. The Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole
3. The Rajya Sabha is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of states against the undue interference of the centre
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of states against the undue interference of the centre.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The parliamentary system is characterized by the accountability of the executive to the legislature.
Statement-II:
In a presidential system, the executive is not accountable to the legislature and serves a fixed term.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
In a parliamentary system, the executive, typically led by the Prime Minister, is accountable to the legislature, which ensures that the government is answerable for its actions and policies. On the other hand, in a presidential system, the executive, such as the President, is not directly accountable to the legislature and serves a fixed term, which means the two systems differ significantly in terms of executive-legislature relationships. Therefore, both statements are correct, with Statement-II explaining the contrast between the parliamentary and presidential systems.

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
During a National Emergency in India, the President's power to declare the emergency can be exercised in the face of imminent danger.
Statement-II:
The geographical scope of a National Emergency proclamation in India can apply only to the entire country and not to specified parts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • c)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Shail Unni answered
Understanding the Statements
In the context of the National Emergency provisions in India, let’s analyze both statements to determine their correctness.
Statement-I: Correctness
- Statement-I asserts that the President can declare a National Emergency in the face of imminent danger.
- This is indeed correct. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution allows the President to declare a National Emergency when there is a threat to the security of India or any part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
Statement-II: Correctness
- Statement-II claims that the geographical scope of a National Emergency proclamation can only apply to the entire country and not to specified parts.
- This statement is incorrect. While a National Emergency declaration typically applies to the whole country, it can also be limited to specific areas. For instance, during the 1975-77 Emergency, it was applicable to the entire nation, but the Constitution allows for localized declarations under specific circumstances.
Conclusion
- Since Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect, the correct answer is option 'C': Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
This distinction is crucial as it reflects the flexibility embedded in the Constitution regarding emergency powers, allowing for regional applicability under certain conditions.

Consider the following statements:
1. In the British parliamentary system, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons.
2. India's Parliament holds sovereignty similar to the British Parliament due to federalism.
3. The concept of a "shadow cabinet" exists in the Indian parliamentary system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Let's examine each statement in detail:
1. In the British parliamentary system, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons.
- This statement is correct. In the United Kingdom, it is a constitutional convention that the Prime Minister is a member of the House of Commons. This ensures that the Prime Minister is directly accountable to the elected house of Parliament.
2. India's Parliament holds sovereignty similar to the British Parliament due to federalism.
- This statement is incorrect. Unlike the British Parliament, which holds sovereignty, the Indian Parliament does not have similar absolute powers. India's Parliament operates within the constraints of a written Constitution, federalism, judicial review, and the protection of fundamental rights.
3. The concept of a "shadow cabinet" exists in the Indian parliamentary system.
- This statement is incorrect. The "shadow cabinet" is a feature unique to the British parliamentary system, where opposition members are prepared for future ministerial roles. This concept does not exist in the Indian parliamentary system.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: 1 Only.

Consider the following pairs:
1. 1962 Emergency: Proclaimed due to Chinese aggression in NEFA (now Arunachal Pradesh)
2. 1971 Emergency: Proclaimed due to internal disturbances
3. 1975 Emergency: Proclaimed due to an attack by Pakistan
4. Shah Commission: Appointed to investigate the circumstances of the 1975 Emergency

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?


1. 1962 Emergency: Correctly matched. It was proclaimed due to Chinese aggression in NEFA (now Arunachal Pradesh).
2. 1971 Emergency: Incorrectly matched. It was proclaimed due to an attack by Pakistan, not due to internal disturbances.
3. 1975 Emergency: Incorrectly matched. It was proclaimed due to internal disturbances, not due to an attack by Pakistan.
4. Shah Commission: Correctly matched. It was appointed to investigate the circumstances of the 1975 Emergency.

Hence, only tw0 pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs:
1. The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha: Power to dissolve the legislature
2. Ministers operate under the principle of secrecy: Take an oath of secrecy administered by the Prime Minister
3. The American President is both the head of state and the head of government: Elected through an electoral college
4. Ministers in the parliamentary system are accountable to the Parliament: Accountability ensured through question hours and no-confidence motions
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
1. The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha: Power to dissolve the legislature- Correct. The Prime Minister can indeed advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections.
2. Ministers operate under the principle of secrecy: Take an oath of secrecy administered by the Prime Minister- Incorrect. Ministers take an oath of secrecy, but it is administered by the President, not the Prime Minister.
3. The American President is both the head of state and the head of government: Elected through an electoral college- Correct. The American President is both the head of state and the head of government and is elected through an electoral college.
4. Ministers in the parliamentary system are accountable to the Parliament: Accountability ensured through question hours and no-confidence motions- Correct. Ministers in the parliamentary system are indeed accountable to the Parliament, and this accountability is ensured through mechanisms like question hours and no-confidence motions.
Hence, three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements:
1. During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List.
2. Article 358 allows for the automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency.
3. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted Article 359, ensuring the right to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    1 and 2 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
All three statements are correct based on the provisions outlined in the Indian Constitution regarding the effects of a National Emergency:
1. Statement 1: Correct. During a National Emergency, Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject in the State List, overriding the normal distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states.
2. Statement 2: Correct. Article 358 allows for the automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency. This means that laws and executive actions inconsistent with Article 19 cannot be challenged during the Emergency.
3. Statement 3: Correct. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 did restrict Article 359, ensuring that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21, even during a National Emergency. This safeguard ensures protection from conviction for offences and upholds the right to life and personal liberty.
Thus, the correct answer is Option D.

The practice of 'Fiscal Federalism' in India involves 
  • a)
    Distribution of financial powers between Centre and States 
  • b)
    Setting up of Finance Commission every five years
  • c)
    Devolution of the central pool to states 
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Madhurima Saha answered
Fiscal Federalism in India

Fiscal federalism refers to the distribution of financial powers between the Centre and the States. In India, the practice of fiscal federalism is enshrined in the Constitution and involves several components.

Distribution of Financial Powers

The Constitution of India divides the financial powers between the Centre and the States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects on which only the Centre can legislate and collect taxes, while the State List contains subjects on which only the States can legislate and collect taxes. The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Centre and the States can legislate, but the Centre has the power to override the State laws in case of a conflict.

Setting up of Finance Commission

The Finance Commission is set up every five years to recommend the distribution of the central pool of taxes between the Centre and the States. The Commission also recommends measures to improve the finances of the States and grants-in-aid to the States based on their needs.

Devolution of Central Pool to States

The devolution of the central pool of taxes to the States is based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. The devolution is done through the Finance Commission Grants, which are provided to the States to meet their revenue deficits and developmental needs.

Conclusion

In India, fiscal federalism is an important aspect of the federal structure of governance. It ensures that the financial powers are distributed between the Centre and the States in a manner that promotes cooperative federalism and ensures the overall development of the country.

During a National Emergency, which of the following Fundamental Rights automatically stands suspended under Article 358 of the Indian Constitution?
  • a)
    Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • b)
    Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
  • c)
    Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
  • d)
    Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
Under Article 358 of the Indian Constitution:
  1. Automatic Suspension of Article 19 Rights: During a National Emergency declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (not armed rebellion), the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 automatically stand suspended. These include:
    • Freedom of speech and expression,
    • Freedom to assemble peacefully,
    • Freedom to form associations or unions, and other rights under Article 19.
  2. Scope of Article 358: The suspension applies for the entire duration of the Emergency and enables the State to make laws or take actions that would otherwise contravene Article 19 rights. These actions cannot be challenged on the grounds of being inconsistent with Article 19.
  3. Other Fundamental Rights: Rights such as Right to Equality (Article 14), Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21), and Right against Exploitation (Article 23) are not automatically suspended during a National Emergency. However, enforcement of some Fundamental Rights can be restricted under Article 359, based on a Presidential Order.
Therefore, Correct Answer - Option B

What is the key characteristic of a "Coming Together Federation"?
  • a)
    States have equal power distribution compared to a "Holding Together" federation.
  • b)
    States have less autonomy compared to a "Holding Together" federation.
  • c)
    States enjoy more autonomy compared to a "Holding Together" federation.
  • d)
    States have no autonomy in a "Coming Together" federation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
In a "Coming Together Federation," independent states join together to create a larger entity. In this type of federation, states typically retain more autonomy compared to a "Holding Together" federation. Examples of countries following this model include the USA, Australia, and Switzerland.

Who can make laws on, matters not included in the state List or Concurrent List? 
  • a)
    Parliament alone. 
  • b)
    State Legislature alone.
  • c)
    Both Parliament and State Legislature. 
  • d)
    Council of Ministers.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Joshi answered
  • The Parliament of India is competent to legislate on all matters that are enumerated in the Union List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution. 
  • In the Concurrent List, the Parliament and the State Legislatures have joint jurisdiction. 
  • However, in case of conflict over any law made under the Concurrent List, the Union Law will prevail upon the State Law provided the State Law has not received the earlier assent of the President. 
  • Parliament alone has the power to make laws on matters not included in the state list or concurrent list.

Grants from the Centre to the States under the recommendations of the Finance Commission are known as
  • a)
    Plan grants
  • b)
    Development assistance
  • c)
    Statutory grants
  • d)
    Discretionary grant
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation:

Grants from the Centre to the States are an important aspect of fiscal federalism in India. These grants are given by the Central Government to the State Governments under various schemes and programmes. Grants are given by the Centre to the States under the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

Statutory Grants:

Grants from the Centre to the States under the recommendations of the Finance Commission are known as Statutory Grants. These grants are provided to the States as per the provisions of the Constitution of India. The grants are given to the States for the purpose of promoting their welfare and development. The grants are provided to the States in the form of tax devolution, grants-in-aid, and specific grants.

Tax Devolution:

Tax devolution is the distribution of taxes collected by the Central Government among the States. The Finance Commission determines the share of each State in the taxes collected by the Central Government. The share of each State is determined based on the population and other factors.

Grants-in-Aid:

Grants-in-aid are given to the States by the Central Government for specific purposes. These grants are provided to the States to meet the expenditure incurred by them for implementing various schemes and programmes.

Specific Grants:

Specific Grants are given to the States by the Central Government for specific purposes. These grants are given to the States for implementing specific schemes and programmes. The grants are provided to the States for the purpose of promoting their welfare and development.

Conclusion:

Thus, it can be concluded that grants from the Centre to the States under the recommendations of the Finance Commission are known as Statutory Grants. These grants are given to the States in the form of tax devolution, grants-in-aid, and specific grants. The grants are provided to the States for the purpose of promoting their welfare and development.

The Constitution provides for a division of taxation powers between Centre and States. Among the several taxes, service lax is
  • a)
    Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the States
  • b)
    Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the Centre and the States
  • c)
    Levied, collected and retained by the Centre
  • d)
    Levied, collected and retained by the States
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaya Nair answered
  • Service Tax Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the Centre and the States (Article 268-A): Taxes on services are levied by the Centre. But, their proceeds are collected as well as appropriated by both the Centre and the states. The Parliament formulates the principles of their collection and appropriation.
  • Taxes Levied and Collected by the Centre but Assigned to the States (Article 269): The following taxes fall under this category:
(i) Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers) in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
(ii) Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.

The States in India can borrow from the market
  • a)
    at their discretion
  • b)
    only through the Centre
  • c)
    with the consent of the Centre
  • d)
    under no circumstance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jithin Sen answered
Introduction:
In India, the states have the authority to borrow from the market in order to meet their financial requirements. However, there are certain conditions and procedures that need to be followed for borrowing purposes. The correct answer to the given question is option 'C', which states that the states can borrow from the market with the consent of the Centre.

Explanation:
The borrowing powers of the states are regulated by the Constitution of India and the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. Let's understand why option 'C' is the correct answer.

Borrowing powers of the states:
The states in India have the power to borrow from the market to meet their fiscal requirements. This borrowing can be done through the issuance of State Development Loans (SDLs). These loans are issued by the state governments to finance their development projects, infrastructure development, and other expenditure needs.

Consent of the Centre:
While the states have the authority to borrow from the market, they need to obtain the consent of the Centre for such borrowings. This is because the Centre plays a crucial role in regulating and monitoring the borrowing activities of the states to ensure fiscal discipline and stability.

Conditions for borrowing:
The consent of the Centre is required for the states to borrow from the market, and this consent is granted based on certain conditions and guidelines. These conditions include:

1. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act: The states need to adhere to the provisions of the FRBM Act, which sets targets for fiscal deficit and debt levels. The Centre ensures that the borrowing by the states is in line with these targets.

2. Fiscal Consolidation Plan: The states also need to prepare a Fiscal Consolidation Plan (FCP) in consultation with the Centre. This plan outlines the strategies and measures to be undertaken by the states to achieve fiscal discipline and reduce their debt burden.

3. Market Borrowing Limits: The Centre sets limits on the market borrowing by the states as a percentage of their Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). The states need to adhere to these limits while borrowing from the market.

4. Monitoring and Reporting: The states are required to regularly report their borrowing activities to the Centre. The Centre monitors the borrowing of the states to ensure compliance with the prescribed guidelines and targets.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, the states in India can borrow from the market with the consent of the Centre. The Centre plays a crucial role in regulating and monitoring the borrowing activities of the states to ensure fiscal discipline and stability. The states need to adhere to the conditions and guidelines set by the Centre while borrowing from the market.

Under which article the constitution authorises the Parliament to create new all India services on the basis of Rajya Sabha resolution to that effect?
  • a)
    (a) Article 315
  • b)
    Article 314
  • c)
    Article 313
  • d)
    Article 312
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Singh answered
Answer : 
  • d)
    Article 312
 Provisions. The Act creates two All India Services as per the article 312(2) in part XIV of the Constitution of India, namely, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS).

Consider the following statements.
1. Consultative committees are attached to various ministries/departments of the Central Government
2. In Lok Sabha it consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members
3. These committees are constituted by the Ministry of parliamentary affairs
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Eesha Bhat answered
Consultative Committees Formation These committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. These are normally constituted after the new Lok Sabha is constituted. This implies that these committees stand dissolved upon dissolution of every Lok Sabha and thus, are reconstituted upon the constitution of each Lok Sabha. Composition The guidelines regarding the composition, functions and procedures of these committees are formulated by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The same Ministry also makes arrangements for holding their meetings both during the session and the intersession period of Parliament. These consist of members of both the Houses of Parliament. However, the membership of these committees is voluntary and is left to the choice of the members and the leaders of their parties. The maximum membership of a committee is 30 and the minimum is 10. Functions These committees are attached to various ministries/departments of the Central Government. The Minister/Minister of State in charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the consultative committee of that ministry. These provide a forum for informal discussions between the ministers and the members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the government and the manner of their implementation. The Consultative Committees are not Parliamentary Committees. A parliamentary committee means a committee that: Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. Works under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman. Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/Chairman Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I:
Instances of National Emergency were proclaimed three times in India: in 1962, 1971, and 1975, each under different circumstances and with varying durations and implications.
Statement II:
President's Rule, governed by Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, is a mechanism through which the central government can take control of a state's administration in exceptional circumstances when the state machinery fails to function as per the constitutional provisions.
  • a)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
  • b)
    Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • c)
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
  • d)
    Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Explanation of the Answer
The question presents two statements regarding National Emergency and President's Rule in India. Let’s analyze both statements to understand why option 'C' is the correct choice.
Statement I: National Emergency
- Incidents of Proclamation: National Emergency has indeed been proclaimed three times in India:
- 1962: Induced by the Sino-Indian War.
- 1971: During the Bangladesh Liberation War.
- 1975: Due to internal disturbances.
- Duration and Implications: Each proclamation had different durations and implications for civil liberties and state governance.
Statement II: President's Rule
- Article 356: This article allows the central government to assume control of a state's administration if the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions.
- Exceptional Circumstances: It serves as a mechanism for maintaining constitutional order when there is a failure in governance at the state level.
Correctness of Statements
- Both Statements Correct: Both Statement I and Statement II are accurate. Statement I correctly outlines the instances of National Emergency, while Statement II correctly explains the functioning of President's Rule under Article 356.
- Independence of Statements: However, Statement II does not directly explain Statement I. They pertain to different aspects of governance and emergency powers in India.
Conclusion
- Since both statements are correct but do not explain each other, the answer is option 'C': Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.

Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
Under Article 368(2), Parliament can amend the constitution by passing a Bill in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.

The legislative matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the (Constitution) 
  • a)
    Residuary List 
  • b)
    Concurrent List 
  • c)
    Fifth and Sixth Schedule 
  • d)
    Directive Principles of State Policy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Legislative matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This list consists of subjects on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate simultaneously. Some of the important matters covered under the Concurrent List include:

1. Education: This includes primary, secondary and higher education, as well as vocational training and technical education.

2. Criminal law: This includes the Indian Penal Code, Criminal Procedure Code, and other laws relating to crimes and punishments.

3. Marriage and divorce: This includes laws regulating marriage, divorce, and maintenance.

4. Adoption: This includes laws relating to the adoption of children.

5. Drugs and poisons: This includes laws relating to the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs and poisons.

6. Trade unions: This includes laws relating to the formation, registration, and regulation of trade unions.

7. Economic and social planning: This includes laws relating to economic and social planning, as well as the implementation of plans.

8. Family planning: This includes laws relating to family planning and population control.

9. Labour welfare: This includes laws relating to the welfare of labour, such as the Employees' State Insurance Act, the Minimum Wages Act, and the Factories Act.

In conclusion, the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution contains important legislative matters on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate simultaneously, and the uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential.

Consider the following statements.
1. The governor can also prorogue the House which is in session
2., Unlike an adjournment, a prorogation terminates a session of the House
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Krithika Shah answered
The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of the session is completed. Within the next few days, the governor issues notification for the prorogation of the session. However, the governor can also prorogue the House which is in session. Unlike an adjournment, a prorogation terminates a session of the House.

A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested can be introduced
  • a)
    Only on the recommendation of the President
  • b)
    Only with the consent of two or more states
  • c)
    Only after Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
  • d)
    Only on the recommendation of the Finance Commission
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays down that the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President
1. A bill which imposes or varies any lux or duty in which states are interested;
2. A bill which affects the principles on which money are or may be distributable to states; and
3. A bill that imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the Centre's purpose.

Which of the following is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance?
  • a)
    Closure Motion
  • b)
    Censure Motion
  • c)
    Both  A and B
  • d)
    Adjournment Motion
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
Adjourn Motion: An adjournment motion is a motion used to adjourn the proceedings of the House for the purpose of discussing a specific matter of urgent public importance. It is used to interrupt the normal business of the House to address an urgent issue.
Censure Motion: A censure motion is a motion moved by a member in either House of Parliament expressing a strong disapproval of or condemnation of actions or policies of the government or ministers.
Closure Motion: Closure motion is a procedural motion used in the Parliament to bring an end to the debate on a matter under discussion. It aims to hasten the legislative process by limiting further debate and moving to a vote.

Hence, option D is correct.

Consider the following pairs:
1. Articles 74 and 75: Focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre.
2. Articles 163 and 164: Relate to the states' parliamentary system.
3. The President: Real executive, leading the government.
4. The Prime Minister: Ceremonial head of state.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • a)
    Only one pair
  • b)
    Only two pairs
  • c)
    Only three pairs
  • d)
    All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

1. Articles 74 and 75: Focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre.
- Correct. These articles establish the framework for the parliamentary system, including the roles of the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister at the Centre.
2. Articles 163 and 164: Relate to the states' parliamentary system.
- Correct. These articles pertain to the structure and functions of the parliamentary system at the state level, similar to Articles 74 and 75 at the Centre.
3. The President: Real executive, leading the government.
- Incorrect. The President of India is the nominal executive and a ceremonial head of state, not the real executive.
4. The Prime Minister: Ceremonial head of state.
- Incorrect. The Prime Minister is the real executive, leading the government and making day-to-day decisions, not a ceremonial head of state.
Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

The idea of cooperative federalism indicates a constitution 
  • a)
    Which would be a confederation of states than union of states 
  • b)
    where the general government is dependent upon the regional governments. 
  • c)
    where the regional governments are subordinated to the general government. 
  • d)
    where both the general government and regional governments are coordinate and independent bodies
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Shah answered
The idea of cooperative federalism suggests that both the general government and regional governments are coordinate and independent bodies. This concept is based on the belief that the central government and regional governments should work together to address the needs of the people and uphold the principles of federalism. Cooperative federalism promotes a system where power is shared between the central government and regional governments, allowing them to work in collaboration and partnership.

Cooperation and Coordination:
In cooperative federalism, the general government and regional governments cooperate and coordinate their efforts to address various issues faced by the country. This means that instead of the central government being completely dependent on regional governments or regional governments being subordinated to the central government, both entities work together as equal partners. They share responsibilities, resources, and decision-making powers to ensure effective governance and address the diverse needs of the people.

Power-sharing:
Cooperative federalism emphasizes the importance of power-sharing between the central government and regional governments. It recognizes that different regions may have unique needs and priorities, and therefore, regional governments should have the power to make decisions and policies that are best suited for their specific contexts. At the same time, the central government retains certain powers and responsibilities that are necessary for the overall functioning of the country.

Mutual Independence:
While cooperative federalism promotes cooperation and coordination between different levels of government, it also recognizes the importance of mutual independence. This means that both the general government and regional governments have their own respective spheres of authority and can operate independently within those areas. They have the autonomy to make decisions and implement policies without interference from other levels of government, as long as they do not violate the principles and laws established by the constitution.

Benefits of Cooperative Federalism:
1. Efficient Governance: Cooperative federalism allows for the efficient allocation of resources and responsibilities between the central government and regional governments. This can lead to better governance and faster decision-making processes.

2. Enhanced Representation: By involving regional governments in decision-making processes, cooperative federalism ensures that the diverse needs and interests of different regions are taken into account. This helps in enhancing democratic representation and inclusivity.

3. Flexibility: Cooperative federalism allows for flexibility and adaptability in governance. Regional governments can tailor policies and programs to suit the specific needs of their regions, while the central government provides a framework for coordination and collaboration.

4. Strengthened Unity: By working together and sharing responsibilities, cooperative federalism strengthens the unity and integrity of the country. It promotes a sense of collaboration and shared purpose among different levels of government, fostering a stronger nation.

In conclusion, the idea of cooperative federalism suggests that the central government and regional governments should work as equal partners, sharing responsibilities and resources, and making decisions in a coordinated manner. This approach promotes efficient governance, enhances democratic representation, and strengthens the unity of the country.

Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1) Critics claim that emergency provisions undermine the Fundamental Rights.
(2) President becomes dictator by emergency provisions as per the critics.
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Vijay Kumar answered
Some members of the Constituent Assembly criticized the incorporation of emergency provisions in the Constitution on the following grounds - (a) The federal character of the Constitution will be destroyed and the Union will become all. (b) powerful. (c) The powers of the State - both the Union and the units - will entirely be concentrated in the hands of the Union executive. (d) The President will become a dictator. (e) The financial autonomy of the state will be nullified. (f) Fundamental rights will become meaningless and, as a result, the democratic foundations of the Constitution will be destroyed. However, there were also protagonists of the emergency provisions in the Constituent Assembly. Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar labelled them as ‘the very life-breath of the Constitution’. Mahabir Tyagi opined that they would work as a ‘safety-valve’ and thereby help in the maintenance of the Constitution. While defending the emergency provisions in the Constituent Assembly, Dr B. R. Ambedkar also accepted the possibility of their misuse. He observed, ‘I do not altogether deny that there is a possibility of the Articles being abused or employed for political purposes’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I:
Parliamentary systems often lack continuity in long-term policies due to government tenure uncertainties.
Statement-II:
The system provided better representation for various sections, interests, and regions, fostering national unity and inclusivity.
  • a)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • b)
    Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • c)
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I  
  • d)
    Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Datta answered
Explanation:

Statement-I: Parliamentary systems often lack continuity in long-term policies due to government tenure uncertainties.
- This statement is correct because in a parliamentary system, the government's tenure is dependent on the support of the majority in the parliament. If the government loses a vote of confidence or fails to pass key legislation, it may lead to early elections and a change in government. This can result in a lack of continuity in long-term policies as new governments may have different agendas and priorities.

Statement-II: The system provided better representation for various sections, interests, and regions, fostering national unity and inclusivity.
- This statement is incorrect. While parliamentary systems do provide for better representation of various sections, interests, and regions through the proportional representation system, it does not necessarily foster national unity and inclusivity. In fact, the multi-party system in parliamentary systems can sometimes lead to fragmented politics and regionalism, which may hinder national unity.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements about the Committee on Absence of Members.
1. This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House and examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.
2. In Lok Sabha it consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Committee on Absence of Members

- This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House.
- It also examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.
- The committee is constituted by the Speaker/Chairperson of the House.
- In Lok Sabha, the committee consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members.
- The members of the committee are nominated by the Speaker/Chairperson based on the proportionality of the party strength in the House.
- The committee meets periodically to consider the applications for leave of absence and to examine the cases of prolonged absence.
- It submits its report to the Speaker/Chairperson who then lays it before the House.
- The report includes the reasons given by the absent members for their absence and the committee's recommendations on whether to grant leave of absence or take any other action.
- The committee's role is important in ensuring that members attend the sittings regularly and participate in the proceedings of the House.

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