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All questions of System of Government: Parliamentary & Federal System for BPSC (Bihar) Exam
The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation which are?
1. Division of powers between Central and Regional governments
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Independent Judiciary
4. All India Services
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below,
- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 4 only
- c)1 and 4 only
- d)I, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation which are?
1. Division of powers between Central and Regional governments
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Independent Judiciary
4. All India Services
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below,
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
1 and 4 only
d)
I, 2 and 3 only
|
Vikram Kapoor answered |
The usual features of a federation, viz., two government, division of powers, written Constitution, the supremacy of Constitution, the rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Parliament can create new all-India services except for an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so
2. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting
Which of these statements is/are correct?
- a)1 Only
- b)Both 1 and 2
- c)2 Only
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The Parliament can create new all-India services except for an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so
2. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
Both 1 and 2
c)
2 Only
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create new All India Services other than the All India Judicial Service (AIJS). However, before creating any new service, a resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha with a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Once the resolution is passed, Parliament may create such new service by passing a law.
Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct, as the Rajya Sabha resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Country 'A' is said to be a federal country. Which of the following are the features of a federal government? 1. There are four levels (or tiers) of government, 2. The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.3. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. 4. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?- a) 3 and 4
- b) 1, 3 and 4
- c) 1 and 3
- d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Country 'A' is said to be a federal country. Which of the following are the features of a federal government?
1. There are four levels (or tiers) of government,
2. The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.
3. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government.
4. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
3 and 4
b)
1, 3 and 4
c)
1 and 3
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
|
Rahul Choudhury answered |
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Key features of federalism:
1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
3. The jurisdictions Of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
6. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Consider the following statements:- The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
- The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
- The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
- The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
- The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Ashwin Choudhury answered |
Understanding the Statements
The question revolves around three statements related to the powers of the Prime Minister of India and the President of the United States, with a focus on the structure of their respective governments.
Statement 1: The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
- This statement is correct. In India, the Prime Minister has the authority to advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha. This can happen under various circumstances, including a loss of majority support or political strategy, allowing for fresh elections before the term concludes.
Statement 2: The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
- This statement is incorrect. In the United States, the President does not have the power to dissolve the House of Representatives. The House operates on a fixed term of two years unless it is disbanded through other political mechanisms, such as a vote of no confidence, which does not exist in the American system.
Statement 3: The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
- This statement is correct. The American political system is characterized by a clear separation of powers among the Executive, Legislative, and Judicial branches. This separation is designed to prevent the concentration of power and to create a system of checks and balances.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only).
The question revolves around three statements related to the powers of the Prime Minister of India and the President of the United States, with a focus on the structure of their respective governments.
Statement 1: The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha, leading to fresh elections before the term ends.
- This statement is correct. In India, the Prime Minister has the authority to advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha. This can happen under various circumstances, including a loss of majority support or political strategy, allowing for fresh elections before the term concludes.
Statement 2: The American President can dissolve the House of Representatives.
- This statement is incorrect. In the United States, the President does not have the power to dissolve the House of Representatives. The House operates on a fixed term of two years unless it is disbanded through other political mechanisms, such as a vote of no confidence, which does not exist in the American system.
Statement 3: The American presidential system operates under the doctrine of separation of powers.
- This statement is correct. The American political system is characterized by a clear separation of powers among the Executive, Legislative, and Judicial branches. This separation is designed to prevent the concentration of power and to create a system of checks and balances.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Statement 3 is correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option 'C' (1 and 3 only).
Consider the following statements.
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the legislative council
2. It can be introduced in the legislative assembly only and that too on the recommendation of the governor
3. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister
Choose the correct option from the following options.
- a)1 and 2
- b)2 and 3 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)All of the Above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the legislative council
2. It can be introduced in the legislative assembly only and that too on the recommendation of the governor
3. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister
Choose the correct option from the following options.
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
All of the Above
|
|
Rahul Mehta answered |
The correct option is "All of above."
Statement 1 is correct. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council of a state, as per Article 198 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. Yes, a money bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of a state on the recommendation of the Governor.
Statement 3 is correct. Every Money Bill is considered to be a government bill, and it can only be introduced by a minister.
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties: - a) with the consent of all the States
- b) with the consent of the majority of States
- c) with the consent of the States concerned
- d) without the consent of any State
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:
a)
with the consent of all the States
b)
with the consent of the majority of States
c)
with the consent of the States concerned
d)
without the consent of any State
|
|
Rahul Choudhury answered |
The constitution empowers parliament to make laws on any matter in-state list under five extraordinary circumstances - Rajya sabha passes the resolution, national emergency, states make a request, to implement international agreements, during president's rule.
Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes by a separate tribunal. The need for extrajudicial machinery to settle inter-state water disputes is because- a)The courts being overburdened with litigations and adjudicating slowly are incapable of adjudicating sensitive water disputes
- b)Water resources are not private property, and so the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution
- c)Division and distribution of any natural resources is out of judicial scrutiny in India
- d)The courts cannot employ technical committees to ascertain the distribution of water resource
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes by a separate tribunal. The need for extrajudicial machinery to settle inter-state water disputes is because
a)
The courts being overburdened with litigations and adjudicating slowly are incapable of adjudicating sensitive water disputes
b)
Water resources are not private property, and so the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution
c)
Division and distribution of any natural resources is out of judicial scrutiny in India
d)
The courts cannot employ technical committees to ascertain the distribution of water resource
|
Kirti Singh answered |
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'B', which states that water resources are not private property, and therefore the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution.
Reasoning:
There are several reasons why the adjudication of inter-state water disputes requires a separate tribunal and the application of different rules compared to ordinary courts:
1. Nature of water resources:
Water resources, such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater, are not private property but are considered as public or common resources. Therefore, the distribution and allocation of these resources cannot be governed by the same rules that apply to private property. The distribution of water resources requires a more comprehensive and specialized approach.
2. Complexity of water disputes:
Water disputes between states are often complex and involve various technical, scientific, and legal aspects. These disputes require the consideration of factors such as river basin management, water availability, ecological impact, and the needs of different states. Ordinary courts may not have the necessary expertise or technical knowledge to effectively adjudicate on these matters.
3. Need for specialized expertise:
The adjudication of inter-state water disputes involves the understanding of hydrological, economic, and ecological aspects. A separate tribunal can be constituted with members who have specific knowledge and expertise in these fields. This allows for a more informed and comprehensive decision-making process.
4. Expedited resolution:
Water disputes can have significant socio-economic implications and can impact the livelihoods and development of the states involved. Having a separate tribunal helps expedite the resolution of these disputes, as the tribunal can focus solely on water-related issues and avoid the delays often associated with the regular court system.
Conclusion:
Given the unique nature of water resources and the complexities involved in inter-state water disputes, it is essential to have a separate tribunal and a different set of rules to ensure a fair and efficient resolution. This approach recognizes the public nature of water resources and the need for specialized expertise in dealing with these disputes.
The correct answer is option 'B', which states that water resources are not private property, and therefore the rule of law applied by ordinary courts is not appropriate to deal with its distribution.
Reasoning:
There are several reasons why the adjudication of inter-state water disputes requires a separate tribunal and the application of different rules compared to ordinary courts:
1. Nature of water resources:
Water resources, such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater, are not private property but are considered as public or common resources. Therefore, the distribution and allocation of these resources cannot be governed by the same rules that apply to private property. The distribution of water resources requires a more comprehensive and specialized approach.
2. Complexity of water disputes:
Water disputes between states are often complex and involve various technical, scientific, and legal aspects. These disputes require the consideration of factors such as river basin management, water availability, ecological impact, and the needs of different states. Ordinary courts may not have the necessary expertise or technical knowledge to effectively adjudicate on these matters.
3. Need for specialized expertise:
The adjudication of inter-state water disputes involves the understanding of hydrological, economic, and ecological aspects. A separate tribunal can be constituted with members who have specific knowledge and expertise in these fields. This allows for a more informed and comprehensive decision-making process.
4. Expedited resolution:
Water disputes can have significant socio-economic implications and can impact the livelihoods and development of the states involved. Having a separate tribunal helps expedite the resolution of these disputes, as the tribunal can focus solely on water-related issues and avoid the delays often associated with the regular court system.
Conclusion:
Given the unique nature of water resources and the complexities involved in inter-state water disputes, it is essential to have a separate tribunal and a different set of rules to ensure a fair and efficient resolution. This approach recognizes the public nature of water resources and the need for specialized expertise in dealing with these disputes.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 automatically suspends the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.Statement-II:
During a National Emergency in India, the President is authorized to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 21.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 automatically suspends the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 automatically suspends the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
Statement-II:
During a National Emergency in India, the President is authorized to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 21.
During a National Emergency in India, the President is authorized to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 21.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Akshara Singh answered |
Explanation:
Statement-I:
- During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 does not automatically suspend the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
- Article 358 only empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
- This means that the other Fundamental Rights, apart from those under Article 19, remain intact during a National Emergency.
Statement-II:
- The correct provision that allows the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is under Article 359, not Article 21 as mentioned in Statement-II.
- Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution during a National Emergency.
- Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions the wrong article for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Conclusion:
- In conclusion, Statement-I is correct as it mentions the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency, but Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions a wrong provision for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Statement-I:
- During a National Emergency in India, Article 358 does not automatically suspend the Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
- Article 358 only empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
- This means that the other Fundamental Rights, apart from those under Article 19, remain intact during a National Emergency.
Statement-II:
- The correct provision that allows the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is under Article 359, not Article 21 as mentioned in Statement-II.
- Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution during a National Emergency.
- Therefore, Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions the wrong article for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Conclusion:
- In conclusion, Statement-I is correct as it mentions the suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency, but Statement-II is incorrect as it mentions a wrong provision for the President's authority to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Consider the following about Federalism in India. 1. The Constitution does not mention the sources of finance for each tier of Government and leaves it for the executive to decide. 2. The states are not merely agents of the Central government but draw their authority from the Constitution.Q. Which of the above is/are correct? - a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following about Federalism in India.
1. The Constitution does not mention the sources of finance for each tier of Government and leaves it for the executive to decide.
2. The states are not merely agents of the Central government but draw their authority from the Constitution.
Q. Which of the above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None
|
Hitbullseye Cat answered |
While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government.
- The Constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can make laws on.
- Besides, the Constitution also specifies where each tier of government can get the money from for the work that it does. So, 1 is wrong.
- Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but draw their authority from the Constitution as well. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each of these levels of government.
Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Courts.1. Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers.2. Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalises or lowers the authority of any court.3. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts, whereas all the provisions are included in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.Which of the above statements is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1, 2
- c)1, 3
- d)1, 2, 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Courts.
1. Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers.
2. Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalises or lowers the authority of any court.
3. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts, whereas all the provisions are included in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1, 2
c)
1, 3
d)
1, 2, 3
|
|
Jatin Chavan answered |
Contempt of Courts:
Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers. It is an act of disrespect, disregard, or disobedience towards a court of law that may obstruct the administration of justice.
Statements:
1. Correct: This statement defines what Contempt of Court is.
2. Correct: Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court. This statement is also correct.
3. Correct: The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts. It is mentioned in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971. Hence, this statement is also correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., 1 and 2.
Contempt of court is the offense of being disobedient to or disrespectful towards a court of law and its officers. It is an act of disrespect, disregard, or disobedience towards a court of law that may obstruct the administration of justice.
Statements:
1. Correct: This statement defines what Contempt of Court is.
2. Correct: Criminal contempt means publication of any matter that scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court. This statement is also correct.
3. Correct: The Constitution of India does not mention anything about Contempt of Courts. It is mentioned in the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971. Hence, this statement is also correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., 1 and 2.
Parliamentary committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or elected by the Speaker / Chairman or nominated by the House
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker
Which of these statements is/are correct?
- a)1 Only
- b)Both 1 and 2
- c)2 Only
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Parliamentary committee means a committee that:
1. Is appointed or elected by the Speaker / Chairman or nominated by the House
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
Both 1 and 2
c)
2 Only
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Shilpa Bajaj answered |
Parliamentary Committee: Explanation of the Answer
The correct option is "B. 2 Only." Here's an explanation of the answer:
1. Appointed, Elected, or Nominated by the House
A parliamentary committee is a group of Members of Parliament (MPs) who are appointed, elected, or nominated by the House. The appointment or nomination process varies depending on the type of committee, but typically involves a vote by the House or a decision by the Speaker or Chairman.
2. Works under the Direction of the Speaker
While parliamentary committees are appointed or nominated by the House, they do not work under the direction of the Speaker. Instead, they are independent bodies that operate according to their own rules and procedures. However, they are accountable to the House and must report back to the House on their findings and recommendations.
In summary, while the first statement is partially correct, the second statement is incorrect. Parliamentary committees work independently and are not directed by the Speaker or Chairman.
The correct option is "B. 2 Only." Here's an explanation of the answer:
1. Appointed, Elected, or Nominated by the House
A parliamentary committee is a group of Members of Parliament (MPs) who are appointed, elected, or nominated by the House. The appointment or nomination process varies depending on the type of committee, but typically involves a vote by the House or a decision by the Speaker or Chairman.
2. Works under the Direction of the Speaker
While parliamentary committees are appointed or nominated by the House, they do not work under the direction of the Speaker. Instead, they are independent bodies that operate according to their own rules and procedures. However, they are accountable to the House and must report back to the House on their findings and recommendations.
In summary, while the first statement is partially correct, the second statement is incorrect. Parliamentary committees work independently and are not directed by the Speaker or Chairman.
Indian model of the federation is closer to that of which of the following nations/ nation-states? 1. USSR2. Canada. 3. USAChoose the correct answer using the codes below: - a) 1 and 2
- b) 2 and 3
- c) 1 and 3
- d) 2 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Indian model of the federation is closer to that of which of the following nations/ nation-states?
1. USSR
2. Canada.
3. USA
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
1 and 3
d)
2 only
|
Priya Menon answered |
US model is based on powerful states. USSR was based on an authoritarian centre. Canada is a federal country with a Union bias, the same as India.
Which of the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit? 1. Territorial disputes between states 2. Demand for creation of new states 3. Demand of the states for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs 4. Emergence of Regional parties and their contribution to national politics 5. Opposition of the State to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below. - a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- b) 2, 4 and 5 only
- c) 3, 4 and 5 only
- d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit?
1. Territorial disputes between states
2. Demand for creation of new states
3. Demand of the states for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs
4. Emergence of Regional parties and their contribution to national politics
5. Opposition of the State to the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
1, 2 and 3 only
b)
2, 4 and 5 only
c)
3, 4 and 5 only
d)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
|
|
Rahul Mehta answered |
- Although the Constitution of India has created a strong central government, it has not made the state governments weak and has not reduced them to the level of administrative agencies for the execution of policies of the Central government.
- Indian federation has been described as 'a new kind of federation to meet India's peculiar needs'.
- The state governments are autonomous units working under the Constitutional framework in tandem with the Centre to achieve common goals.
If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. Three-member committee comprises of
(i) a Supreme Court judge
(ii) chief justice of a high court
(iii) a distinguished jurist.
Choose from the following options.
- a)1 and 2 Only
- b)All of them
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)2 and 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. Three-member committee comprises of
(i) a Supreme Court judge
(ii) chief justice of a high court
(iii) a distinguished jurist.
(ii) chief justice of a high court
(iii) a distinguished jurist.
Choose from the following options.
a)
1 and 2 Only
b)
All of them
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
2 and 3 Only
|
|
Poonam Reddy answered |
If the motion is admitted, the speaker or chairman (who receives it) will constitute a three-member committee to investigate the complaint. It will comprise: (i) a Supreme Court judge; (ii) chief justice of a high court; and (iii) a distinguished jurist.
Which of the following is/are the federal features of the Constitution? 1. The Constitution is written and not easily amendable. 2. State governments derive authority from the Centre. 3. Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha.Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below, - a) 1 only
- b) 2 and 3 only
- c) 1 and 3 only
- d) 1 and 2 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is/are the federal features of the Constitution?
1. The Constitution is written and not easily amendable.
2. State governments derive authority from the Centre.
3. Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes below,
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1 and 2 only
|
Kavita Shah answered |
- The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure.
- State governments derive their authority from the constitution, not the Centre.
- The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha based on population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31.
Consider the following statements.1. Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body2. The membership of IPG is open to all members of the ParliamentWhich of these statements are not correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)None of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body
2. The membership of IPG is open to all members of the Parliament
Which of these statements are not correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
|
Ameya Malik answered |
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG)
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is a non-profit, non-political, and autonomous body formed in 1949. It is aimed at promoting the interests of India's parliamentary democracy and strengthening India's relations with other countries.
Statement 1: Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body
The statement is correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body. It is not affiliated with any political party or government agency. It is a non-profit organization, which is run by elected members of Parliament.
Statement 2: The membership of IPG is open to all members of the Parliament
The statement is also correct. The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament, including Lok Sabha members, Rajya Sabha members, and members of State Legislative Assemblies. The group has more than 450 members, including members from all political parties.
Conclusion
Both statements are correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body, and its membership is open to all members of Parliament. The group aims to promote India's parliamentary democracy and strengthen India's relations with other countries.
Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is a non-profit, non-political, and autonomous body formed in 1949. It is aimed at promoting the interests of India's parliamentary democracy and strengthening India's relations with other countries.
Statement 1: Indian parliamentary Group is an autonomous body
The statement is correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body. It is not affiliated with any political party or government agency. It is a non-profit organization, which is run by elected members of Parliament.
Statement 2: The membership of IPG is open to all members of the Parliament
The statement is also correct. The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament, including Lok Sabha members, Rajya Sabha members, and members of State Legislative Assemblies. The group has more than 450 members, including members from all political parties.
Conclusion
Both statements are correct. The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is an autonomous body, and its membership is open to all members of Parliament. The group aims to promote India's parliamentary democracy and strengthen India's relations with other countries.
The scheme of youth parliament was started on the Recommendation of- a)First all India whips conference
- b)Second all India whips conference
- c)Third all India whips conference
- d)Fourth all India whips conference
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The scheme of youth parliament was started on the Recommendation of
a)
First all India whips conference
b)
Second all India whips conference
c)
Third all India whips conference
d)
Fourth all India whips conference
|
|
Kavita Mehta answered |
The scheme of Youth Parliament was started on the recommendation of the Fourth All India Whips Conference. Its objectives are: 1. to acquaint the younger generations with practices and procedures of Parliament; 2. to imbibe the spirit of discipline and tolerance cultivating character in the minds of youth; Band 3. to inculcate in the student community the basic values of democracy and to enable them to acquire a proper perspective on the functioning of democratic institutions. The ministry of parliamentary affairs provides necessary training and encouragement to the states in introducing the scheme.
Consider the following statements about the Committee on Absence of Members. 1. This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House and examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.2. In Lok Sabha it consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 membersWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Committee on Absence of Members.
1. This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House and examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.
2. In Lok Sabha it consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
Sneha Choudhary answered |
Committee on Absence of Members
- This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House.
- It also examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.
- The committee is constituted by the Speaker/Chairperson of the House.
- In Lok Sabha, the committee consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members.
- The members of the committee are nominated by the Speaker/Chairperson based on the proportionality of the party strength in the House.
- The committee meets periodically to consider the applications for leave of absence and to examine the cases of prolonged absence.
- It submits its report to the Speaker/Chairperson who then lays it before the House.
- The report includes the reasons given by the absent members for their absence and the committee's recommendations on whether to grant leave of absence or take any other action.
- The committee's role is important in ensuring that members attend the sittings regularly and participate in the proceedings of the House.
- This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House.
- It also examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 10 days or more without permission.
- The committee is constituted by the Speaker/Chairperson of the House.
- In Lok Sabha, the committee consists of 15 members, while in Rajya Sabha it consists of 10 members.
- The members of the committee are nominated by the Speaker/Chairperson based on the proportionality of the party strength in the House.
- The committee meets periodically to consider the applications for leave of absence and to examine the cases of prolonged absence.
- It submits its report to the Speaker/Chairperson who then lays it before the House.
- The report includes the reasons given by the absent members for their absence and the committee's recommendations on whether to grant leave of absence or take any other action.
- The committee's role is important in ensuring that members attend the sittings regularly and participate in the proceedings of the House.
Consider the following statements.1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity2. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries but not the name of any state.Which of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both of them
- d) None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. States in India have no right to territorial integrity
2. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries but not the name of any state.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both of them
d)
None of them
|
Suresh Reddy answered |
Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is "an indestructible Union of destructible states". The American Federation, on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.
Consider the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha.1. He acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which acts as a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world.2. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the country.- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
1. He acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which acts as a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world.
2. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the country.
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Siddharth Dasgupta answered |
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is an important figure in the Indian Parliamentary system. Let's understand the statements given about the speaker and check their accuracy.
Ex-Officio Chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group
The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is a non-governmental organization that acts as a link between the Parliament of India and various parliaments of the world. The IPG was formed in 1949 and has since then played an important role in promoting parliamentary diplomacy and strengthening relations between India and other countries. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is indeed the ex-officio chairman of the IPG.
Ex-Officio Chairman of the Conference of Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India
The Conference of Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India is an annual event that brings together speakers and presiding officers of legislatures from all over the country. The conference provides a platform for discussions on various issues related to parliamentary democracy and the functioning of legislative bodies. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is indeed the ex-officio chairman of this conference.
Therefore, both the statements given about the speaker of the Lok Sabha are accurate, and the correct answer is option C - both 1 and 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds several important responsibilities and plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Indian Parliamentary system.
Ex-Officio Chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group
The Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG) is a non-governmental organization that acts as a link between the Parliament of India and various parliaments of the world. The IPG was formed in 1949 and has since then played an important role in promoting parliamentary diplomacy and strengthening relations between India and other countries. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is indeed the ex-officio chairman of the IPG.
Ex-Officio Chairman of the Conference of Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India
The Conference of Presiding Officers of Legislative Bodies in India is an annual event that brings together speakers and presiding officers of legislatures from all over the country. The conference provides a platform for discussions on various issues related to parliamentary democracy and the functioning of legislative bodies. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is indeed the ex-officio chairman of this conference.
Therefore, both the statements given about the speaker of the Lok Sabha are accurate, and the correct answer is option C - both 1 and 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds several important responsibilities and plays a crucial role in the functioning of the Indian Parliamentary system.
Consider the following statements regarding language in the State Legislature.1. The Constitution has declared the official language(s) of the state or Hindi or English, to be the languages for transacting business in the state legislature2. However, the presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in his mother-tongueWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding language in the State Legislature.
1. The Constitution has declared the official language(s) of the state or Hindi or English, to be the languages for transacting business in the state legislature
2. However, the presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in his mother-tongue
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
The Constitution has declared the official language(s) of the state or Hindi or English, to be the languages for transacting business in the state legislature. However, the presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in his mother-tongue. The state legislature is authorised to decide whether to continue or discontinue English as a floor language after the completion of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., from 1965). In the case of Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura, this time limit is twenty-five years and Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Mizoram, it is forty years.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India operates under a republican system, contrasting the British monarchy where the Head of State (King or Queen) holds a hereditary position.Statement-II:
In Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons, while in India, they can belong to either house of Parliament.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India operates under a republican system, contrasting the British monarchy where the Head of State (King or Queen) holds a hereditary position.
India operates under a republican system, contrasting the British monarchy where the Head of State (King or Queen) holds a hereditary position.
Statement-II:
In Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons, while in India, they can belong to either house of Parliament.
In Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons, while in India, they can belong to either house of Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Sneha Bajaj answered |
Analysis of Statement-I
Statement-I asserts that India operates under a republican system, which is accurate. In a republic, the Head of State is elected rather than inheriting the position. This is in stark contrast to the British monarchy, where the King or Queen holds a hereditary position.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II states that in Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons, whereas in India, the Prime Minister can belong to either house of Parliament. This statement is also correct.
Conclusion
Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. They address different aspects of governance in India and Britain. Statement-I focuses on the nature of the Head of State, while Statement-II discusses the eligibility of the Prime Minister. Thus, the correct answer is:
Option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Statement-I asserts that India operates under a republican system, which is accurate. In a republic, the Head of State is elected rather than inheriting the position. This is in stark contrast to the British monarchy, where the King or Queen holds a hereditary position.
- India has a President as the Head of State, elected for a term.
- The British monarchy is a hereditary institution, with the monarch succeeding through lineage.
Analysis of Statement-II
Statement-II states that in Britain, the Prime Minister must be a member of the House of Commons, whereas in India, the Prime Minister can belong to either house of Parliament. This statement is also correct.
- In the UK, the Prime Minister is typically the leader of the majority party in the House of Commons and must be a member there.
- In India, the Prime Minister can be a member of either the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Conclusion
Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. They address different aspects of governance in India and Britain. Statement-I focuses on the nature of the Head of State, while Statement-II discusses the eligibility of the Prime Minister. Thus, the correct answer is:
Option B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Consider the following pairs regarding the scope of judicial review and proper/improper use of President's Rule (Article 356) in India:1. Sarkaria Commission: Recommends President's Rule in case of a hung assembly after general elections.2. Bommai Case: Establishes that the President's satisfaction in invoking Article 356 is final and not subject to judicial review.3. 44th Amendment Act of 1978: Allows for judicial review of the President's satisfaction in invoking Article 356.4. Anti-secular politics by state government: Grounds for invoking President's Rule as per the Bommai case.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs regarding the scope of judicial review and proper/improper use of President's Rule (Article 356) in India:
1. Sarkaria Commission: Recommends President's Rule in case of a hung assembly after general elections.
2. Bommai Case: Establishes that the President's satisfaction in invoking Article 356 is final and not subject to judicial review.
3. 44th Amendment Act of 1978: Allows for judicial review of the President's satisfaction in invoking Article 356.
4. Anti-secular politics by state government: Grounds for invoking President's Rule as per the Bommai case.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Amrutha Gupta answered |
Understanding the Pairs
To analyze the correctness of the pairs regarding the scope of judicial review and the use of President's Rule under Article 356 in India, we need to evaluate each statement.
1. Sarkaria Commission: Recommends Presidents Rule in case of a hung assembly after general elections.
- Correct: The Sarkaria Commission indeed suggested that President’s Rule could be invoked in cases of hung assemblies, emphasizing the need for stable governance.
2. Bommai Case: Establishes that the Presidents satisfaction in invoking Article 356 is final and not subject to judicial review.
- Incorrect: The Bommai case (1994) established that while the President’s satisfaction is important, it is subject to judicial review under certain circumstances, particularly if the grounds for invoking it are mala fide or not based on facts.
3. 44th Amendment Act of 1978: Allows for judicial review of the Presidents satisfaction in invoking Article 356.
- Correct: The 44th Amendment Act introduced provisions that allow for judicial review of the President’s satisfaction regarding the need for President’s Rule, reinforcing checks on executive power.
4. Anti-secular politics by state government: Grounds for invoking Presidents Rule as per the Bommai case.
- Correct: The Bommai judgment recognized that anti-secularism by a state government could be a valid ground for invoking President’s Rule, emphasizing the importance of upholding constitutional values.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correctly matched pairs: 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
- Incorrectly matched pair: 2 is incorrect.
Thus, the answer is option 'C': Only three pairs are correctly matched.
To analyze the correctness of the pairs regarding the scope of judicial review and the use of President's Rule under Article 356 in India, we need to evaluate each statement.
1. Sarkaria Commission: Recommends Presidents Rule in case of a hung assembly after general elections.
- Correct: The Sarkaria Commission indeed suggested that President’s Rule could be invoked in cases of hung assemblies, emphasizing the need for stable governance.
2. Bommai Case: Establishes that the Presidents satisfaction in invoking Article 356 is final and not subject to judicial review.
- Incorrect: The Bommai case (1994) established that while the President’s satisfaction is important, it is subject to judicial review under certain circumstances, particularly if the grounds for invoking it are mala fide or not based on facts.
3. 44th Amendment Act of 1978: Allows for judicial review of the Presidents satisfaction in invoking Article 356.
- Correct: The 44th Amendment Act introduced provisions that allow for judicial review of the President’s satisfaction regarding the need for President’s Rule, reinforcing checks on executive power.
4. Anti-secular politics by state government: Grounds for invoking Presidents Rule as per the Bommai case.
- Correct: The Bommai judgment recognized that anti-secularism by a state government could be a valid ground for invoking President’s Rule, emphasizing the importance of upholding constitutional values.
Conclusion
Based on the analysis:
- Correctly matched pairs: 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
- Incorrectly matched pair: 2 is incorrect.
Thus, the answer is option 'C': Only three pairs are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements.
1. The Council of States is designed to maintain the federal character of the country.
2. The number of members from a state depends on the population of the state
Which of these statements are not correct?
- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)None of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The Council of States is designed to maintain the federal character of the country.
2. The number of members from a state depends on the population of the state
Which of these statements are not correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None of them
|
|
Malavika Datta answered |
The Council of States, also known as the Rajya Sabha, is one of the two houses of the Indian Parliament. It is a permanent house and not subject to dissolution. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Correctness of the given statements:
1. The Council of States is designed to maintain the federal character of the country.
This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha is designed to represent the states of India and to ensure that the federal character of the country is maintained. The Rajya Sabha provides representation to the states in the Indian Parliament and acts as a check on the powers of the Lok Sabha, which represents the people of India.
2. The number of members from a state depends on the population of the state.
This statement is not correct. The number of members from a state in the Rajya Sabha is not solely dependent on the population of the state. Each state is allocated a fixed number of seats in the Rajya Sabha, regardless of its population. The number of seats allocated to a state is based on its population, but also takes into account its area, its economic development, and other factors.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - none of them, as statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
Correctness of the given statements:
1. The Council of States is designed to maintain the federal character of the country.
This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha is designed to represent the states of India and to ensure that the federal character of the country is maintained. The Rajya Sabha provides representation to the states in the Indian Parliament and acts as a check on the powers of the Lok Sabha, which represents the people of India.
2. The number of members from a state depends on the population of the state.
This statement is not correct. The number of members from a state in the Rajya Sabha is not solely dependent on the population of the state. Each state is allocated a fixed number of seats in the Rajya Sabha, regardless of its population. The number of seats allocated to a state is based on its population, but also takes into account its area, its economic development, and other factors.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - none of them, as statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:1. During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List.2. Article 358 allows for the automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency.3. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted Article 359, ensuring the right to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List.
2. Article 358 allows for the automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency.
3. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted Article 359, ensuring the right to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Lohit Matani answered |
All three statements are correct based on the provisions outlined in the Indian Constitution regarding the effects of a National Emergency:
1. Statement 1: Correct. During a National Emergency, Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject in the State List, overriding the normal distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states.
2. Statement 2: Correct. Article 358 allows for the automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19 during a National Emergency. This means that laws and executive actions inconsistent with Article 19 cannot be challenged during the Emergency.
3. Statement 3: Correct. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 did restrict Article 359, ensuring that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21, even during a National Emergency. This safeguard ensures protection from conviction for offences and upholds the right to life and personal liberty.
Thus, the correct answer is Option D.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Statement I:Instances of National Emergency were proclaimed three times in India: in 1962, 1971, and 1975, each under different circumstances and with varying durations and implications.Statement II:President's Rule, governed by Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, is a mechanism through which the central government can take control of a state's administration in exceptional circumstances when the state machinery fails to function as per the constitutional provisions.- a)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
- b)Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
- c)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
- d)Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I:
Instances of National Emergency were proclaimed three times in India: in 1962, 1971, and 1975, each under different circumstances and with varying durations and implications.
Statement II:
President's Rule, governed by Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, is a mechanism through which the central government can take control of a state's administration in exceptional circumstances when the state machinery fails to function as per the constitutional provisions.
a)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
b)
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
c)
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
d)
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
|
Valor Academy answered |
Statement -1 is Correct
India has experienced three instances of National Emergency:
India has experienced three instances of National Emergency:
- 1962: Declared due to external aggression by China during the Sino-Indian War.
- 1971: Declared due to external aggression by Pakistan during the Indo-Pak war leading to the liberation of Bangladesh.
- 1975: Declared on the grounds of "internal disturbance," a term later replaced with "armed rebellion" by the 44th Amendment Act.
Statement -2 is also Correct
Article 356 allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state when the constitutional machinery fails. This enables the central government to take over the legislative and executive functions of the state.
Article 356 allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state when the constitutional machinery fails. This enables the central government to take over the legislative and executive functions of the state.
While both statements are accurate, they address distinct provisions of the Constitution. National Emergency under Article 352 (as in Statement I) is unrelated to President’s Rule under Article 356 (as in Statement II). Therefore, Statement II does not explain Statement I.
Therefore,Correct Answer- Option C
Therefore,Correct Answer- Option C
The legislative matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the (Constitution) - a) Residuary List
- b) Concurrent List
- c) Fifth and Sixth Schedule
- d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The legislative matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the (Constitution)
a)
Residuary List
b)
Concurrent List
c)
Fifth and Sixth Schedule
d)
Directive Principles of State Policy
|
|
Debanshi Chakraborty answered |
Legislative matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This list consists of subjects on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate simultaneously. Some of the important matters covered under the Concurrent List include:
1. Education: This includes primary, secondary and higher education, as well as vocational training and technical education.
2. Criminal law: This includes the Indian Penal Code, Criminal Procedure Code, and other laws relating to crimes and punishments.
3. Marriage and divorce: This includes laws regulating marriage, divorce, and maintenance.
4. Adoption: This includes laws relating to the adoption of children.
5. Drugs and poisons: This includes laws relating to the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs and poisons.
6. Trade unions: This includes laws relating to the formation, registration, and regulation of trade unions.
7. Economic and social planning: This includes laws relating to economic and social planning, as well as the implementation of plans.
8. Family planning: This includes laws relating to family planning and population control.
9. Labour welfare: This includes laws relating to the welfare of labour, such as the Employees' State Insurance Act, the Minimum Wages Act, and the Factories Act.
In conclusion, the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution contains important legislative matters on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate simultaneously, and the uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential.
1. Education: This includes primary, secondary and higher education, as well as vocational training and technical education.
2. Criminal law: This includes the Indian Penal Code, Criminal Procedure Code, and other laws relating to crimes and punishments.
3. Marriage and divorce: This includes laws regulating marriage, divorce, and maintenance.
4. Adoption: This includes laws relating to the adoption of children.
5. Drugs and poisons: This includes laws relating to the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs and poisons.
6. Trade unions: This includes laws relating to the formation, registration, and regulation of trade unions.
7. Economic and social planning: This includes laws relating to economic and social planning, as well as the implementation of plans.
8. Family planning: This includes laws relating to family planning and population control.
9. Labour welfare: This includes laws relating to the welfare of labour, such as the Employees' State Insurance Act, the Minimum Wages Act, and the Factories Act.
In conclusion, the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution contains important legislative matters on which both the Central and State Governments can legislate simultaneously, and the uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial entity constituted every fifth year by the President, primarily responsible for providing recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and states, grants-in-aid to states, and enhancing the Consolidated Fund of a state.
Statement-II:
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, established through the 101st Amendment Act of 2016, is mandated to make recommendations on integrating various taxes, determining goods and services for GST, setting threshold turnover limits, and guiding principles for determining the place of supply.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial entity constituted every fifth year by the President, primarily responsible for providing recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and states, grants-in-aid to states, and enhancing the Consolidated Fund of a state.
Statement-II:
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, established through the 101st Amendment Act of 2016, is mandated to make recommendations on integrating various taxes, determining goods and services for GST, setting threshold turnover limits, and guiding principles for determining the place of supply.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial entity constituted every fifth year by the President, primarily responsible for providing recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and states, grants-in-aid to states, and enhancing the Consolidated Fund of a state.
Statement-II:
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, established through the 101st Amendment Act of 2016, is mandated to make recommendations on integrating various taxes, determining goods and services for GST, setting threshold turnover limits, and guiding principles for determining the place of supply.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Future Foundation Institute answered |
Statement 1 : Correct: The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years. It provides recommendations on:
- Distribution of net tax proceeds between the Centre and States.
- Principles governing grants-in-aid to States.
- Measures to enhance the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalitie
Statement 2 : The GST Council's mandate does not include "integrating various taxes" or determining the place of supply. These aspects are governed by the GST Act and related rules, not by the Council directly. The GST Council is primarily responsible for:
- Recommending taxes, cesses, and surcharges to be subsumed under GST.
- Recommending GST rates, exemptions, and threshold limits.
- Resolving disputes related to GST implementation among states and the Centre.
Therefore,Correct Answer - Option C
Consider the following statements. 1. The governor can also prorogue the House which is in session2., Unlike an adjournment, a prorogation terminates a session of the HouseWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. The governor can also prorogue the House which is in session
2., Unlike an adjournment, a prorogation terminates a session of the House
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Krithika Shah answered |
The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of the session is completed. Within the next few days, the governor issues notification for the prorogation of the session. However, the governor can also prorogue the House which is in session. Unlike an adjournment, a prorogation terminates a session of the House.
Which of the following are extra-constitutional devices to promote cooperation and coordination between the Centre and the states?
1.The National Development Council
2.The Governor's Conference
3.Zonal Councils
4.The Inter-State Council
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and4only
- c)1, 2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are extra-constitutional devices to promote cooperation and coordination between the Centre and the states?
1.The National Development Council
2.The Governor's Conference
3.Zonal Councils
4.The Inter-State Council
2.The Governor's Conference
3.Zonal Councils
4.The Inter-State Council
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and4only
c)
1, 2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
|
Neha Verma answered |
Key points
- National Development Council is an executive body established by the Government of India in 1952. Prime Minister of India is the ex officio chairman of the Council.
- It prescribes guidelines for the formulation of National plans, assesses resources and five-year plans and recommends social and economic measure to increase development.
- Zonal Councils were established by the State Reorganisation Act, 1956 to advise on matters of common interest to each of five zones in which India is divided. Currently, there are 6 Zonal councils.
- The Interstate Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution. The purpose of the council is to facilitate the cooperation and coordination between states and the center. The Prime Minister is the chairman of the council.
Hence, the correct option is 'C'.
Which provision is the foundation of the parliamentary system of Government of India? - a) Article 78
- b) Article 71
- c) Article 57
- d) Article 75
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which provision is the foundation of the parliamentary system of Government of India?
a)
Article 78
b)
Article 71
c)
Article 57
d)
Article 75
|
|
Gitanjali Bajaj answered |
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution is the foundation of the parliamentary system of government in India. This article deals with the appointment, powers, and functions of the Prime Minister, who is the head of the government in India.
Appointment of Prime Minister
The President of India appoints the Prime Minister, who is the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament. The Prime Minister then selects other ministers to form the Council of Ministers, which is responsible for the governance of the country.
Powers and Functions of the Prime Minister
The Prime Minister is the chief executive of the country and has the following powers and functions:
1. He/she advises the President on the appointment of other ministers.
2. He/she presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. He/she coordinates the work of different ministries.
4. He/she is responsible for the overall administration of the country.
5. He/she represents the country in international forums.
6. He/she is responsible for the formulation and implementation of policies.
7. He/she can recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President.
8. He/she can recommend the imposition of President's Rule in a state.
Conclusion
Thus, Article 75 of the Indian Constitution lays down the foundation of the parliamentary system of government in India by defining the role and responsibilities of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the head of the government and is responsible for the governance of the country.
Appointment of Prime Minister
The President of India appoints the Prime Minister, who is the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament. The Prime Minister then selects other ministers to form the Council of Ministers, which is responsible for the governance of the country.
Powers and Functions of the Prime Minister
The Prime Minister is the chief executive of the country and has the following powers and functions:
1. He/she advises the President on the appointment of other ministers.
2. He/she presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. He/she coordinates the work of different ministries.
4. He/she is responsible for the overall administration of the country.
5. He/she represents the country in international forums.
6. He/she is responsible for the formulation and implementation of policies.
7. He/she can recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President.
8. He/she can recommend the imposition of President's Rule in a state.
Conclusion
Thus, Article 75 of the Indian Constitution lays down the foundation of the parliamentary system of government in India by defining the role and responsibilities of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is the head of the government and is responsible for the governance of the country.
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): All states In India have the same number of assembly constituencies.Reason (R): Indian political system is federal in nature.Q. In the context of the statements above, which of these is correct? - a) Both A and R are correct, and R is a correct explanation for A.
- b) Both A and R are correct, and R is NOT a correct explanation for A.
- c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
- d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): All states In India have the same number of assembly constituencies.
Reason (R): Indian political system is federal in nature.
Q. In the context of the statements above, which of these is correct?
a)
Both A and R are correct, and R is a correct explanation for A.
b)
Both A and R are correct, and R is NOT a correct explanation for A.
c)
A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d)
A is incorrect, but R is correct.
|
|
Abhijeet Kumar answered |
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'D' - A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Assertion (A): All states in India have the same number of assembly constituencies.
This statement is incorrect. All states in India do not have the same number of assembly constituencies. The number of assembly constituencies in a state depends on various factors such as population, area, and representation requirements. Each state is allocated a certain number of assembly constituencies based on these factors. For example, larger states like Uttar Pradesh have more assembly constituencies compared to smaller states like Goa.
Reason (R): Indian political system is federal in nature.
This statement is correct. The Indian political system is indeed federal in nature. Federalism refers to the division of powers between the central government and the state governments. In India, there is a clear division of powers between the central government and the state governments, where both have their own spheres of influence and authority.
Under the federal structure, each state has its own legislative assembly and government. The number of assembly constituencies in a state is determined by the state government and is based on the principles of democratic representation and equal representation of various regions within the state.
Explanation:
The reason provided in statement (R) does not provide a correct explanation for statement (A). The federal nature of the Indian political system does not necessitate that all states have the same number of assembly constituencies. The allocation of assembly constituencies is a decision made by the respective state governments based on various factors as mentioned earlier.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'D' - A is incorrect, but R is correct.
The correct answer is option 'D' - A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Assertion (A): All states in India have the same number of assembly constituencies.
This statement is incorrect. All states in India do not have the same number of assembly constituencies. The number of assembly constituencies in a state depends on various factors such as population, area, and representation requirements. Each state is allocated a certain number of assembly constituencies based on these factors. For example, larger states like Uttar Pradesh have more assembly constituencies compared to smaller states like Goa.
Reason (R): Indian political system is federal in nature.
This statement is correct. The Indian political system is indeed federal in nature. Federalism refers to the division of powers between the central government and the state governments. In India, there is a clear division of powers between the central government and the state governments, where both have their own spheres of influence and authority.
Under the federal structure, each state has its own legislative assembly and government. The number of assembly constituencies in a state is determined by the state government and is based on the principles of democratic representation and equal representation of various regions within the state.
Explanation:
The reason provided in statement (R) does not provide a correct explanation for statement (A). The federal nature of the Indian political system does not necessitate that all states have the same number of assembly constituencies. The allocation of assembly constituencies is a decision made by the respective state governments based on various factors as mentioned earlier.
Hence, the correct answer is option 'D' - A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I:
India is considered a quasi-federal system as it exhibits features of both federal and unitary systems.Statement-II:
The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced elements of federalism into modern India by distributing powers between the central and provincial legislatures.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India is considered a quasi-federal system as it exhibits features of both federal and unitary systems.
India is considered a quasi-federal system as it exhibits features of both federal and unitary systems.
Statement-II:
The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced elements of federalism into modern India by distributing powers between the central and provincial legislatures.
The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced elements of federalism into modern India by distributing powers between the central and provincial legislatures.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
Master Training Institute answered |
Statement-I is correct because India is often described as having a quasi-federal system due to its combination of federal and unitary features. Statement-II is also correct as the Government of India Act of 1919 did indeed introduce federal elements by dividing powers between the central and provincial legislatures. However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I, as the mere introduction of federalism does not inherently make a system quasi-federal. The Act's introduction of federal elements is a separate point from India's quasi-federal nature.
Consider the following statements.Assertion (A): A state legislature cannot impose any taxes on the sale or purchase of goods independently.Reason (R): A state legislature needs the approval of the President for imposing any tax.In the context of the above, which of these is correct?- a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
- b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
- c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
- d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A state legislature cannot impose any taxes on the sale or purchase of goods independently.
Reason (R): A state legislature needs the approval of the President for imposing any tax.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
a)
A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
b)
A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
c)
A is incorrect, but R is correct.
d)
Both A and R are incorrect.
|
|
Vikram Verma answered |
- A state legislature can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments, sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers), etc.
- However, a tax imposed on the sale or purchase of goods declared by Parliament to be of special importance in inter-state trade and commerce is subject to the Parliament's restrictions and conditions. Presidential assent is not generally required for the introduction of taxes by a state.
The Constitution deals with which of the following?1. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes2. Coordination between Centre and State through inter-state councils3. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourseSelect the correct answer using the codes below, - a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The Constitution deals with which of the following?
1. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes
2. Coordination between Centre and State through inter-state councils
3. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse
Select the correct answer using the codes below,
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
|
Meera Singh answered |
- Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of interstate water disputes. It makes the provision that Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint concerning the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- Article 263 contemplates establishing an Inter-State Council to affect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.
- Articles 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with the trade, commerce, and intercourse within India's territory.
- Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
The States in India can borrow from the market
- a)at their discretion
- b)only through the Centre
- c)with the consent of the Centre
- d)under no circumstance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The States in India can borrow from the market
a)
at their discretion
b)
only through the Centre
c)
with the consent of the Centre
d)
under no circumstance
|
|
Varun Kapoor answered |
The correct answer is (c) with the consent of the Centre.
In India, states are empowered to borrow from the market to meet their financial needs, subject to certain conditions. Specifically, states are allowed to borrow from the market with the consent of the Central government. This is because the states' borrowing is ultimately backed by the Central government, and the Central government must therefore ensure that the states' borrowing is consistent with the overall fiscal policy of the country.
Option (a) at their discretion is incorrect, as states cannot borrow from the market at their discretion. Option (b) only through the Centre is also incorrect, as states are allowed to borrow directly from the market, subject to the consent of the Central government. Option (d) under no circumstance is also incorrect, as states are allowed to borrow from the market with the consent of the Central government.
Consider the following pairs:1. 1962 Emergency: Proclaimed due to Chinese aggression in NEFA (now Arunachal Pradesh)
2. 1971 Emergency: Proclaimed due to internal disturbances
3. 1975 Emergency: Proclaimed due to an attack by Pakistan
4. Shah Commission: Appointed to investigate the circumstances of the 1975 Emergency
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. 1962 Emergency: Proclaimed due to Chinese aggression in NEFA (now Arunachal Pradesh)
2. 1971 Emergency: Proclaimed due to internal disturbances
3. 1975 Emergency: Proclaimed due to an attack by Pakistan
4. Shah Commission: Appointed to investigate the circumstances of the 1975 Emergency
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
2. 1971 Emergency: Proclaimed due to internal disturbances
3. 1975 Emergency: Proclaimed due to an attack by Pakistan
4. Shah Commission: Appointed to investigate the circumstances of the 1975 Emergency
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
Aarav Saini answered |
Understanding the Pairs of Emergencies in India
To analyze the correctness of the given pairs regarding India's Emergency situations, let's break down each one:
1. 1962 Emergency
- The Emergency was indeed proclaimed in 1962, but it was primarily due to the Sino-Indian War and not just due to aggression in NEFA (Arunachal Pradesh). Therefore, this statement is partially correct.
2. 1971 Emergency
- The Emergency declared in 1971 was due to internal disturbances related to the Bangladesh Liberation War. This statement is accurately matched.
3. 1975 Emergency
- The Emergency declared in 1975 was not due to an attack by Pakistan; instead, it was proclaimed due to political unrest and the need to maintain law and order. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
4. Shah Commission
- The Shah Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances surrounding the 1975 Emergency. This statement is correctly matched.
Conclusion
- After analyzing all the pairs:
- Only the second and fourth pairs are correctly matched.
- Thus, there are only two correct pairs.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two pairs.
To analyze the correctness of the given pairs regarding India's Emergency situations, let's break down each one:
1. 1962 Emergency
- The Emergency was indeed proclaimed in 1962, but it was primarily due to the Sino-Indian War and not just due to aggression in NEFA (Arunachal Pradesh). Therefore, this statement is partially correct.
2. 1971 Emergency
- The Emergency declared in 1971 was due to internal disturbances related to the Bangladesh Liberation War. This statement is accurately matched.
3. 1975 Emergency
- The Emergency declared in 1975 was not due to an attack by Pakistan; instead, it was proclaimed due to political unrest and the need to maintain law and order. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
4. Shah Commission
- The Shah Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances surrounding the 1975 Emergency. This statement is correctly matched.
Conclusion
- After analyzing all the pairs:
- Only the second and fourth pairs are correctly matched.
- Thus, there are only two correct pairs.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Only two pairs.
Consider the following statements about Point of Order.1. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government2. It is an extraordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House3. No debate is allowed on a point of orderWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 Only
- b) 2 and 3 Only
- c) 1 and 3 Only
- d) All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about Point of Order.
1. It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government
2. It is an extraordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House
3. No debate is allowed on a point of order
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 Only
b)
2 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
All of them
|
Aravind Basu answered |
Understanding Points of Order
Points of Order are procedural tools used in legislative assemblies. The statements provided reflect important aspects of how they function.
1. Control by Opposition Members
- It is common for opposition members to raise points of order to challenge or control the government's proceedings.
- This tactic can be used to draw attention to issues or to create procedural hurdles for the ruling party.
2. Extraordinary Device
- A point of order is indeed considered an extraordinary device.
- When raised, it can suspend the ongoing proceedings of the House, allowing the member to bring attention to a specific issue of procedure or rule violation.
3. No Debate Allowed
- One of the key features of a point of order is that it does not allow for debate.
- The purpose is to clarify or question the procedure rather than to engage in a discussion about the content of the matter at hand.
Conclusion
All three statements are correct as they accurately describe the nature and function of points of order in legislative proceedings.
- Statement 1 highlights how opposition members can utilize this tool.
- Statement 2 emphasizes its role in suspending discussions.
- Statement 3 points out the lack of debate, ensuring that the focus remains on procedural integrity.
Thus, the correct answer, which affirms the validity of all statements, is option 'D'.
Points of Order are procedural tools used in legislative assemblies. The statements provided reflect important aspects of how they function.
1. Control by Opposition Members
- It is common for opposition members to raise points of order to challenge or control the government's proceedings.
- This tactic can be used to draw attention to issues or to create procedural hurdles for the ruling party.
2. Extraordinary Device
- A point of order is indeed considered an extraordinary device.
- When raised, it can suspend the ongoing proceedings of the House, allowing the member to bring attention to a specific issue of procedure or rule violation.
3. No Debate Allowed
- One of the key features of a point of order is that it does not allow for debate.
- The purpose is to clarify or question the procedure rather than to engage in a discussion about the content of the matter at hand.
Conclusion
All three statements are correct as they accurately describe the nature and function of points of order in legislative proceedings.
- Statement 1 highlights how opposition members can utilize this tool.
- Statement 2 emphasizes its role in suspending discussions.
- Statement 3 points out the lack of debate, ensuring that the focus remains on procedural integrity.
Thus, the correct answer, which affirms the validity of all statements, is option 'D'.
Consider the following pairs:1. Articles 74 and 75: Focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre.2. Articles 163 and 164: Relate to the states' parliamentary system.3. The President: Real executive, leading the government.4. The Prime Minister: Ceremonial head of state.How many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Articles 74 and 75: Focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre.
2. Articles 163 and 164: Relate to the states' parliamentary system.
3. The President: Real executive, leading the government.
4. The Prime Minister: Ceremonial head of state.
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
Preethi Mehta answered |
Explanation:
1. Articles 74 and 75:
- Articles 74 and 75 indeed focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre. Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President, while Article 75 pertains to the appointment, tenure, and responsibilities of the Prime Minister.
2. Articles 163 and 164:
- Articles 163 and 164 are correctly matched as they relate to the states' parliamentary system. Article 163 discusses the Council of Ministers in a state, while Article 164 deals with the appointment, tenure, and responsibilities of the Chief Minister.
3. The President:
- The statement that the President is the real executive, leading the government is incorrect. The President is the nominal executive head of the state and acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
4. The Prime Minister:
- The Prime Minister is not a ceremonial head of state but holds the position of the real executive head of the government. The Prime Minister is responsible for running the government and making important decisions.
Therefore, only two pairs (Articles 74 and 75, Articles 163 and 164) out of the four given are correctly matched. The statements regarding the roles of the President and Prime Minister are inaccurate.
1. Articles 74 and 75:
- Articles 74 and 75 indeed focus on the parliamentary system at the Centre. Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President, while Article 75 pertains to the appointment, tenure, and responsibilities of the Prime Minister.
2. Articles 163 and 164:
- Articles 163 and 164 are correctly matched as they relate to the states' parliamentary system. Article 163 discusses the Council of Ministers in a state, while Article 164 deals with the appointment, tenure, and responsibilities of the Chief Minister.
3. The President:
- The statement that the President is the real executive, leading the government is incorrect. The President is the nominal executive head of the state and acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
4. The Prime Minister:
- The Prime Minister is not a ceremonial head of state but holds the position of the real executive head of the government. The Prime Minister is responsible for running the government and making important decisions.
Therefore, only two pairs (Articles 74 and 75, Articles 163 and 164) out of the four given are correctly matched. The statements regarding the roles of the President and Prime Minister are inaccurate.
Consider the following statements regarding the Centre-State financial relations in India:1. The Finance Commission of India is appointed by the President every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States.2. During a national emergency, the President can modify the financial distribution between the Centre and the States as per Article 352.3. The Goods and Services Tax Council, formed under Article 279-A, primarily focuses on the distribution of GST revenues between the Centre and the States.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1 and 2 Only
- c)1 and 3 Only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements regarding the Centre-State financial relations in India:
1. The Finance Commission of India is appointed by the President every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States.
2. During a national emergency, the President can modify the financial distribution between the Centre and the States as per Article 352.
3. The Goods and Services Tax Council, formed under Article 279-A, primarily focuses on the distribution of GST revenues between the Centre and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1 and 2 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
1, 2 and 3
|
Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered |
1. Statement 1 is correct. The Finance Commission is indeed appointed by the President of India every five years or earlier, as needed, to recommend how the net proceeds of taxes should be distributed between the Centre and the States. This is a fundamental aspect of fiscal federalism in India enshrined under Article 280 of the Constitution.
2. Statement 2 is correct. During a national emergency declared under Article 352, the President of India has the power to modify the constitutional distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States. This includes altering the sharing of taxes and grants, which remains effective throughout the financial year when the emergency is in operation.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The GST Council, established under Article 279-A, is a constitutional body responsible for making recommendations to the Union and States on issues related to GST, including tax rates, exemptions, and model GST laws. While it plays a role in the GST framework's functioning, its primary focus is not solely on revenue distribution but on creating a harmonized tax system across India.
Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the accurate choice.
Consider the following statements:Statement-I: The Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.Statement-II: The President holds absolute veto power over a bill reserved by the Governor.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?- a)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- b)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- c)Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- d)Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
Statement-II: The President holds absolute veto power over a bill reserved by the Governor.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c)
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d)
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
|
EduRev UPSC answered |
- Statement-I: The Governor can indeed reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. This power of reservation allows the President to review and potentially withhold assent to a bill passed by the state legislature.
- Statement-II: The President does hold absolute veto power over a bill reserved by the Governor. This means that the President can refuse to give assent to a bill that has been reserved by the Governor, effectively vetoing the legislation.
Both statements are individually correct, but Statement-II does not directly explain or elaborate on Statement-I. The President's veto power over a bill reserved by the Governor is a separate aspect of the legislative process.
Which of the following non-constitutional mechanisms promote coordination between the centre and states? 1. National Integration council 2. Finance Commission 3. Regional Development Council 4. National Advisory Council 5. University Grants Commission Choose the correct answer using the codes below: - a) All of the above
- b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
- c) 1, 3 and 4
- d) 1 and 5
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following non-constitutional mechanisms promote coordination between the centre and states?
1. National Integration council
2. Finance Commission
3. Regional Development Council
4. National Advisory Council
5. University Grants Commission
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a)
All of the above
b)
1, 3, 4 and 5
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
1 and 5
|
|
Hitbullseye Cat answered |
- Finance commission is a constitutional body.
- There is no council named Regional Development Council. However, several councils are regional in nature like North Eastern Council etc.
- National Advisory panel makes policies at the national level. States do not have a say in it.
- University Grant Commission (UDC) coordinates the centre and the states in matters of university education.
The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties - a) With the consent of all the States
- b) With the consent of the majority of States
- c) With the consent of the States concerned
- d) Without the consent of any State
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
a)
With the consent of all the States
b)
With the consent of the majority of States
c)
With the consent of the States concerned
d)
Without the consent of any State
|
|
Meera Kapoor answered |
This power of the Parliament is derived from the sovereign nature of India. The states need not ratify sovereign deals.
Consider the following pairs:1. Article 368 - Centralized amendment power2. Single Citizenship - All citizens are Indian citizens regardless of state3. Supreme Court - Apex court in the integrated judiciary system4. Governor's Office - Created by the Union GovernmentHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Article 368 - Centralized amendment power
2. Single Citizenship - All citizens are Indian citizens regardless of state
3. Supreme Court - Apex court in the integrated judiciary system
4. Governor's Office - Created by the Union Government
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. Article 368 - Centralized amendment power: Correct. Article 368 provides the central government with the power to amend the Constitution.
2. Single Citizenship - All citizens are Indian citizens regardless of state: Correct. India follows the principle of single citizenship, meaning that all citizens are citizens of India, irrespective of the state they belong to.
3. Supreme Court - Apex court in the integrated judiciary system: Correct. The Supreme Court is the apex court in India's integrated judiciary system.
4. Governor's Office - Created by the Union Government: Incorrect. The Governor's office is a constitutional office created by the Constitution of India, not directly by the Union Government.
Consider the following pairs:1. Morarji Desai - Unstable Government2. Indira Gandhi - No Continuity of Policies3. K.M. Munshi - Familiarity with the System4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Preference for More ResponsibilityHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)Only one pair
- b)Only two pairs
- c)Only three pairs
- d)All four pairs
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
1. Morarji Desai - Unstable Government
2. Indira Gandhi - No Continuity of Policies
3. K.M. Munshi - Familiarity with the System
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Preference for More Responsibility
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
Only one pair
b)
Only two pairs
c)
Only three pairs
d)
All four pairs
|
|
K.L Institute answered |
1. Morarji Desai - Unstable Government: Correct
- Morarji Desai's government is cited as an example of instability in the parliamentary system, making this pair correctly matched.
2. Indira Gandhi - No Continuity of Policies: Incorrect
- Indira Gandhi is associated with the "Dictatorship of the Cabinet" due to her significant majority leading to autocratic powers, not specifically with the lack of policy continuity.
3. K.M. Munshi - Familiarity with the System: Correct
- K.M. Munshi advocated for the British parliamentary system, emphasizing the familiarity of constitution-makers with the system, thus correctly matched.
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Preference for More Responsibility: Correct
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar highlighted the British parliamentary system’s balance between stability and responsibility, making this pair correctly matched.
In summary, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while pair 2 is not. Hence, the correct answer is Option C: Only three pairs.
Consider the following statements.1. A member of the panel of chairpersons cannot preside over the House when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant2. During such time, the Speaker's duties are to be performed by such member of the House as the Lok Sabha may appoint for the purpose.Which of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 Only
- b) 2 Only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. A member of the panel of chairpersons cannot preside over the House when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant
2. During such time, the Speaker's duties are to be performed by such member of the House as the Lok Sabha may appoint for the purpose.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
|
|
Pragati Banerjee answered |
Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates from amongst the members a panel of not more than ten chairpersons. Any of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker of the Deputy Speaker. He has the same powers as the Speaker when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of chairpersons is nominated. When a member of the panel of chairpersons is also not present, any other person as determined by the House acts as the Speaker. It must be emphasised here that a member of the panel of chairpersons cannot preside over the House when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant. During such time, the Speaker's duties are to be performed by such members of the House as the President may appoint for the purpose. The elections are held, as soon as possible, to fill the vacant posts.
Which of the following strengthens the practice of 'Federalism' in India? 1. An independent judiciary 2. Principle of Subsidiarity Q. Which of the above is/are correct? - a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following strengthens the practice of 'Federalism' in India?
1. An independent judiciary
2. Principle of Subsidiarity
Q. Which of the above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None
|
|
Deepa Iyer answered |
- To prevent conflicts between the centre and the State, there is an independent judiciary to settle disputes. The more independent the judiciary is, the more effective it will be able to settle the disputes and enforce the rule of law rather than the domination of the Centre. The judiciary has the powers to resolve disputes between the central government and the States on legal matters about the division of power.
- Certain subjects, which concern the nation as a whole, for example, defence or currency, are the responsibility of the union or central government. Regional or local matters are the responsibility of the regional or State government.
- Appropriate division of responsibility at the appropriate level (for example, local sanitation at the PRls level and national defence at the Central level) is called the principle of subsidiarity.
The practice of 'Fiscal Federalism' in India involves - a) Distribution of financial powers between Centre and States
- b) Setting up of Finance Commission every five years
- c) Devolution of the central pool to states
- d) All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The practice of 'Fiscal Federalism' in India involves
a)
Distribution of financial powers between Centre and States
b)
Setting up of Finance Commission every five years
c)
Devolution of the central pool to states
d)
All of the above
|
|
Madhurima Saha answered |
Fiscal Federalism in India
Fiscal federalism refers to the distribution of financial powers between the Centre and the States. In India, the practice of fiscal federalism is enshrined in the Constitution and involves several components.
Distribution of Financial Powers
The Constitution of India divides the financial powers between the Centre and the States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects on which only the Centre can legislate and collect taxes, while the State List contains subjects on which only the States can legislate and collect taxes. The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Centre and the States can legislate, but the Centre has the power to override the State laws in case of a conflict.
Setting up of Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is set up every five years to recommend the distribution of the central pool of taxes between the Centre and the States. The Commission also recommends measures to improve the finances of the States and grants-in-aid to the States based on their needs.
Devolution of Central Pool to States
The devolution of the central pool of taxes to the States is based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. The devolution is done through the Finance Commission Grants, which are provided to the States to meet their revenue deficits and developmental needs.
Conclusion
In India, fiscal federalism is an important aspect of the federal structure of governance. It ensures that the financial powers are distributed between the Centre and the States in a manner that promotes cooperative federalism and ensures the overall development of the country.
Fiscal federalism refers to the distribution of financial powers between the Centre and the States. In India, the practice of fiscal federalism is enshrined in the Constitution and involves several components.
Distribution of Financial Powers
The Constitution of India divides the financial powers between the Centre and the States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects on which only the Centre can legislate and collect taxes, while the State List contains subjects on which only the States can legislate and collect taxes. The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Centre and the States can legislate, but the Centre has the power to override the State laws in case of a conflict.
Setting up of Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is set up every five years to recommend the distribution of the central pool of taxes between the Centre and the States. The Commission also recommends measures to improve the finances of the States and grants-in-aid to the States based on their needs.
Devolution of Central Pool to States
The devolution of the central pool of taxes to the States is based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. The devolution is done through the Finance Commission Grants, which are provided to the States to meet their revenue deficits and developmental needs.
Conclusion
In India, fiscal federalism is an important aspect of the federal structure of governance. It ensures that the financial powers are distributed between the Centre and the States in a manner that promotes cooperative federalism and ensures the overall development of the country.
Consider the following statements.1. Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter2. This resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting3. The resolution remains in force only for 6 monthsWhich of these statements is/are correct?- a) 1 and 2 Only
- b) 2 and 3 Only
- c) 1 and 3 Only
- d) All of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter
2. This resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting
3. The resolution remains in force only for 6 months
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 Only
b)
2 and 3 Only
c)
1 and 3 Only
d)
All of them
|
|
Rahul Pillai answered |
Parliament's Power to Make Laws on State List Subjects
Statement 1: Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter.
This statement is correct. Article 249 of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to make laws on any matter in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest to do so. However, such a law can only be made for a specified period, not exceeding one year.
Statement 2: This resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting.
This statement is also correct. As per Article 249, the resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. This means that at least two-thirds of the members present in the Rajya Sabha must vote in favor of the resolution for it to be passed.
Statement 3: The resolution remains in force only for 6 months.
This statement is incorrect. According to Article 249, the law made by Parliament on a matter in the State List remains in force only for as long as the Rajya Sabha resolution supporting it is in force. The resolution can be passed for a maximum period of one year, but it can also be revoked by the Rajya Sabha at any time.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' i.e 1 and 2 Only. Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter, and this resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting.
Statement 1: Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter.
This statement is correct. Article 249 of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to make laws on any matter in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest to do so. However, such a law can only be made for a specified period, not exceeding one year.
Statement 2: This resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting.
This statement is also correct. As per Article 249, the resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. This means that at least two-thirds of the members present in the Rajya Sabha must vote in favor of the resolution for it to be passed.
Statement 3: The resolution remains in force only for 6 months.
This statement is incorrect. According to Article 249, the law made by Parliament on a matter in the State List remains in force only for as long as the Rajya Sabha resolution supporting it is in force. The resolution can be passed for a maximum period of one year, but it can also be revoked by the Rajya Sabha at any time.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' i.e 1 and 2 Only. Parliament can make laws on a matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha says that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on that matter, and this resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members of Rajya Sabha, present and voting.
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Indian Polity for State PSC Exams
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