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All questions of Political Dynamics for UPSC CSE Exam

Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not apply: 
  • a)
    In case of a split in the original political party to which he is elected
  • b)
    If he has voluntarily given up his membership of the political party. 
  • c)
    If he abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political party. 
  • d)
    If a nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Sengupta answered
Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not apply if he goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. This exemption is provided under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which deals with anti-defection laws.

Explanation:
- The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution in 1985 to address the issue of political defections, which were seen as a threat to the stability of government.
- The Schedule lays down the procedure for disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection.
- Defection is defined as voluntarily giving up the membership of a political party or disobeying the directives of the party leadership on a vote in the house.
- However, there are certain exceptions to the rule of disqualification on the grounds of defection. One such exception is provided under clause (4) of the Schedule, which states that a member shall not be disqualified if he goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party.
- This means that if a political party merges with another party and a member of that party decides to join the new merged party, he will not be disqualified for defection under the Schedule.
- This exception is based on the rationale that if two parties merge, the resulting new party is essentially a continuation of the old parties and the members of the old parties should not be penalized for joining the new party.
- However, this exemption is subject to certain conditions, such as the merger must be approved by at least two-thirds of the members of the original party and the member must not hold any office in the new party other than that of a mere member.
- Therefore, if a member of parliament goes out of his party as a result of a merger with another party, he will not be disqualified for defection under the Tenth Schedule.

The ‘Left’, ‘Right’ and ‘Centre’ classification of political parties in India is done largely based on
  • a)
    Strength of political party cadres
  • b)
    The conventional sitting position in the legislature
  • c)
    The ideology of the political parties
  • d)
    Past electoral performance
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • Based on ideologies, the political scientists have placed the radical parties on the left and the liberal parties in the centre and reactionary and conservative parties on the right.
  • In India, the CPI and CPIM are examples of leftist parties, the Congress of centrist parties and the BJP is an example of a rightist.
  • The ideology of the party affects their manifesto and working style when they come to power. For example, TMC is farmer oriented and not so business-friendly supporting the socialist ideology. On the other hand, the Indian National Congress takes more nuanced pro-capitalist positions.

About the registration of political parties in India, consider the following statements:
1. All political parties must register themselves with the Election Commission.
2. Not all parties that are registered with the Election Commission are recognized by it.
3. The registered parties will get unique symbols.
4. The registered parties are entitled to free broadcasting or telecasting facilities.
Select the correct answers using the codes below
  • a)
    2 and 4
  • b)
    1 and 3
  • c)
    1, 3 and 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties.
  • These parties are given a unique symbol - only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties.
  • The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get to be a recognised party. ‘Recognised parties’ get preference in the matter of allotment of free symbols.
  • Further, registered political parties, in course of time, can get recognition as ‘State Party’ or National Party’ subject to the fulfilment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, as amended from time to time.
  • Recognised ‘State’ and ‘National’ parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination and are also entitled to two sets of electoral rolls free of cost and broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani (AIR)/Doordarshan during general elections.

In which of the following years, was the National Integration Council constituted first? 
  • a)
    1950 
  • b)
    1956 
  • c)
    1961 
  • d)
    1963
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Chavan answered
The correct answer is option C, 1961.

- The National Integration Council (NIC) is a non-statutory advisory body that was constituted to address issues related to national integration in India. It acts as a forum for dialogue and deliberation on matters of national importance and aims to promote unity, harmony, and social cohesion in the country.

- The NIC was first constituted in the year 1961 by the Government of India. It was established in response to the need for a platform where leaders from various political, social, and religious backgrounds could come together to discuss and resolve issues related to national integration.

- The formation of the NIC was prompted by the growing concerns about communal tensions and regional conflicts that were prevalent in the country during that time. The government recognized the importance of fostering a sense of national unity and inclusiveness among the diverse population of India.

- The NIC is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and consists of members from different political parties, religious groups, social organizations, and other stakeholders. It provides a platform for open and constructive discussions on issues such as communal harmony, linguistic and regional integration, social justice, and equal opportunities for all citizens.

- The NIC meets periodically to deliberate on various matters and make recommendations to the government. It plays a crucial role in promoting mutual understanding, tolerance, and cooperation among different sections of society. The council also helps in formulating policies and programs aimed at promoting national integration and strengthening the fabric of the nation.

In conclusion, the National Integration Council was first constituted in the year 1961 to address issues related to national integration in India. It serves as a platform for dialogue and deliberation among leaders from various backgrounds and plays a crucial role in promoting unity, harmony, and social cohesion in the country.

Who was the Chairman of the National Integration Council that was reconstituted in 2010?
  • a)
    Manmohan Singh
  • b)
    Sonia Gandhi
  • c)
    Rajnath Singh
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

In April 2010 the council was reconstituted with 147 members, again chaired by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.The fifteenth meeting was scheduled in Delhi for 10 September 2011. The agenda included discussion of measures to eliminate discrimination, promote communal harmony and curb communalism and communal violence.

Which one of the following statements is not an explanation of the general characteristics of a pressure group? 
  • a)
    A major objective of a pressure group is to acquire, consolidate and extend political power.
  • b)
    A pressure group aims at projecting and fulfilling specific interests. 
  • c)
    A pressure group seeks to influence decision-makers in a manner favourable to its specific interests. 
  • d)
    A pressure group is generally too limited in its organisation and goals to be mistaken for a bonafide political party.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ojasvi Mehta answered
The pressure groups influence the policymaking and policy implementation in the government through legal and legitimate methods like lobbying, correspondence, publicity, propagandizing, petitioning, public debating, maintaining contacts with their legislators and so forth. However, some times they resort to illegitimate and illegal methods like strikes, violent activities and corruption which damages public interest and administrative integrity.

Assertion (A): Regionalism in Indian politics reflects the cultural diversity of the country.
Reason (R): Political leaders whip up the ethnic identities.
Codes:
  • a)
    Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
  • b)
    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
  • c)
    A is true but R is false. 
  • d)
    A is false but R is true. 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Aditi Iyer answered
Explanation:

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Let's break down the statement and analyze each part:

Assertion (A): Regionalism in Indian politics reflects the cultural diversity of the country.

This statement is true. India is a culturally diverse country with a rich heritage and a diverse population comprising various ethnic, linguistic, and religious groups. This diversity is reflected in the regional politics of India, where political parties and leaders often align themselves with specific regional identities and issues. Regionalism in Indian politics is a manifestation of the cultural diversity and distinct identities present within the country.

Reason (R): Political leaders whip up ethnic identities.

This statement is also true. In Indian politics, political leaders often try to mobilize support by appealing to ethnic identities and regional aspirations. They may use language, symbols, and cultural references associated with specific regions or communities to establish a connection with the electorate. By emphasizing regional identities, political leaders can gain support and consolidate their vote bank within a particular region. However, this reason alone does not fully explain why regionalism exists in Indian politics.

Analysis:

While it is true that political leaders whip up ethnic identities to gain support, it is not the only reason for the existence of regionalism in Indian politics. Regionalism is deeply rooted in the diverse cultural, linguistic, and historical backgrounds of different regions in India. It is a reflection of the aspirations, grievances, and demands of the people belonging to specific regions. Factors such as economic disparities, historical grievances, linguistic differences, and cultural distinctiveness also contribute to the rise of regionalism in Indian politics.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, Assertion (A) is true as regionalism in Indian politics reflects the cultural diversity of the country. Reason (R) is also true as political leaders do whip up ethnic identities to gain support. However, Reason (R) alone does not provide a comprehensive explanation for the existence of regionalism in Indian politics. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'B' - Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Which one of the following is the primary purpose of a pressure group? 
  • a)
    To criticise the government 
  • b)
    To contest the elections 
  • c)
    To formulate policy 
  • d)
    To bring pressure on government to influence policy decision 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Rohit Datta answered
Primary Purpose of a Pressure Group
Pressure groups play a crucial role in influencing government policy decisions. The primary purpose of a pressure group is to bring pressure on the government to influence policy decisions. Here is a detailed explanation of why this is the primary goal of pressure groups:

Bringing Influence on Policy Decisions
Pressure groups aim to advocate for specific causes or interests and bring public attention to these issues. By mobilizing public opinion, they can put pressure on the government to address these concerns and make policy changes accordingly.

Acting as a Link between Citizens and Government
Pressure groups serve as a bridge between citizens and the government by representing the interests and concerns of the public. They provide a platform for citizens to voice their opinions and ensure that these views are taken into consideration when making policy decisions.

Holding Government Accountable
By monitoring government actions and policies, pressure groups help to hold the government accountable for its decisions. They can highlight any discrepancies or failures in policy implementation and push for necessary reforms or changes.

Ensuring Pluralism in Decision-Making
Pressure groups contribute to a pluralistic society by representing diverse interests and viewpoints. They ensure that all voices are heard in the policy-making process, leading to more comprehensive and inclusive decision-making.

Conclusion
In conclusion, the primary purpose of a pressure group is to bring pressure on the government to influence policy decisions. By advocating for specific causes, representing the interests of the public, and holding the government accountable, pressure groups play a vital role in shaping government policies and ensuring a more democratic and responsive governance system.

Which of the following problems is not considered or confronted by the National Integration Council?
  • a)
    Linguism
  • b)
    Casteism
  • c)
    Cyber-security threat
  • d)
    Threat of regional violence
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'C', which states that cyber-security threat is not considered or confronted by the National Integration Council. The National Integration Council (NIC) is a government body in India that aims to address and resolve issues related to the integration of diverse communities and regions of the country. It was established in 1961 and consists of representatives from political parties, religious groups, academia, and civil society.

Linguism:
Linguism refers to discrimination or prejudice based on language. In a country as linguistically diverse as India, where multiple languages are spoken, language-based discrimination can be a significant challenge to national integration. The National Integration Council recognizes the importance of addressing linguism and works towards promoting harmony and equality among different linguistic communities.

Casteism:
Casteism is a social issue deeply rooted in the Indian society, where individuals are discriminated against based on their caste. The caste system has been a long-standing challenge to national integration, as it creates social divisions and hinders the progress and unity of the country. The National Integration Council recognizes the importance of eradicating casteism and works towards creating a more inclusive and equal society.

Threat of Regional Violence:
The threat of regional violence refers to conflicts and tensions between different regions or states within the country. Regionalism can sometimes lead to violence and disruption of peace, which poses a challenge to national integration. The National Integration Council aims to address and resolve such regional tensions through dialogue, negotiation, and policy interventions.

Cyber-security Threat:
Cyber-security threats, on the other hand, are not directly related to national integration. While cyber-security is an important issue for the overall security and well-being of the nation, it is not specifically within the purview of the National Integration Council. Cyber-security threats are typically addressed by specialized agencies and departments, such as the Ministry of Home Affairs, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, and various law enforcement agencies.

In conclusion, the National Integration Council primarily focuses on addressing issues related to linguism, casteism, and the threat of regional violence. While cyber-security is an important concern, it falls under the domain of specialized agencies and departments rather than the National Integration Council.

The ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission are: 
  1. Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities 
  2. Chairman of the National Commission for SCs 
  3. Chairman of the National Commission for STs 
  4. Chairman of the National Commission for Women 
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 
  • b)
    2, 3 and 4 
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  • d)
    1, 2 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pranab Patel answered
The ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission are:

- Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities
- Chairman of the National Commission for SCs
- Chairman of the National Commission for STs
- Chairman of the National Commission for Women

Explanation:

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body in India that is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights. It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

The NHRC consists of a Chairperson and four members. The Chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, while the members must be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, High Courts, or experts in the field of human rights. In addition to these members, there are also ex-officio members who are part of the NHRC.

The ex-officio members of the NHRC are individuals who hold positions in other commissions or bodies that are related to the protection of human rights. These members are included in the NHRC to ensure the representation of various sections of society and to bring their expertise and experience to the commission.

The ex-officio members of the NHRC include:

1. Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities: The National Commission for Minorities is a body that safeguards and protects the rights of religious and linguistic minorities in India. The Chairman of this commission is an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

2. Chairman of the National Commission for SCs: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is responsible for monitoring and safeguarding the rights of Scheduled Castes, who are historically disadvantaged and oppressed communities in India. The Chairman of this commission is also an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

3. Chairman of the National Commission for STs: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs) is tasked with protecting and promoting the rights of Scheduled Tribes, who are indigenous communities in India. The Chairman of this commission is an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

4. Chairman of the National Commission for Women: The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a body that works towards the protection and promotion of women's rights in India. The Chairman of this commission is also an ex-officio member of the NHRC.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The National Integration Council is a recommendation body. 
  2. The National Integration Council is a constitutional body.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Only 2 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Utkarsh Joshi answered
The council was directed to examine the problem of national integration in all its aspects and make necessary recommendations to deal with it. The council made various recommendations for national integration. However, these recommendations remained only on paper and no effort was made either by the Centre or by the states to implement them

Consider the following statements about the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation:
  1. It is an intergovernmental organization to promote cooperation in trade, politics, and culture.
  2. The Anti-Terrorist structure of SCO is located in Beijing.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashish Kumar answered
Explanation:
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization founded in Shanghai, China, on 15 June 2001. It is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance comprising eight countries: China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.

Statement 1: It is an intergovernmental organization to promote cooperation in trade, politics, and culture.
This statement is correct. The SCO was formed to promote cooperation among member countries in various fields such as trade, politics, and culture. The SCO has been working towards promoting regional security, stability, and economic development through cooperation among member nations.

Statement 2: The Anti-Terrorist structure of SCO is located in Beijing.
This statement is incorrect. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) of the SCO is located in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, not in Beijing, China. RATS is responsible for coordinating and implementing the SCO's counter-terrorism policies and strategies.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A, i.e., statement 1 only.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct one from below
Statement- I: The anti-defection law gives for the first time a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties
Statement- II: The total number of ministers including the Prime Minister in the central council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok sabha.
  • a)
    Both i and ii
  • b)
    ii only
  • c)
    i only
  • d)
    Neither i nor ii
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Maitri Patel answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - Both I and II.

Explanation:
Statement I: The anti-defection law gives for the first time a clear cut constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties.
- This statement is correct. The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 as the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. It was introduced to address the issue of defections by Members of Parliament and State Legislatures. This law recognizes the existence of political parties and provides provisions to curb defections.

Statement II: The total number of ministers including the Prime Minister in the central council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
- This statement is also correct. According to Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the central council of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision ensures that the size of the council of ministers does not become too large and helps in maintaining efficiency and accountability.

Therefore, both statements I and II are correct, and the correct answer is option 'A' - Both I and II.

Given below are some of the offices in the Indian polity. For which of the following offices, provisions regarding the appointment/elections is/are not mentioned in the constitution of India?
1. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. Solicitor general of India.
3. Lok Sabha Secretary
4. Advocate General
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
  • a)
    1 and 4 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • There is no provision for the Lok Sabha secretary specifically in the constitution. It only talks about the secretarial staff via Article 98.
  • Article 98 (1) depicts that ‘Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff: Provided that nothing in this clause shall be construed as preventing the creation of posts common to both Houses of Parliament.
  • The Constitution has no provision for the solicitor general of India.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The anti-defection law is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian Parliamentary democracy.
  2. The anti-defection law was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1 (
  • b)
    Only 2 (
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 (
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Atharva Ghosh answered
Introduction:
The anti-defection law is an important legislation in India aimed at preventing political defections and maintaining the stability of the parliamentary system. It was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao in 1985. In this response, we will analyze the given statements and determine their correctness.

Statement 1: The anti-defection law is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian Parliamentary democracy.
Explanation:
The anti-defection law was introduced to address the issue of political defections, which were considered detrimental to the democratic process. Prior to the enactment of this law, frequent defections by MPs and MLAs were causing instability in the government and undermining the principles of democracy.

Under the anti-defection law, if a legislator voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her political party or votes against the party's directions during voting, he/she can be disqualified from the membership of the legislature. This law aims to curb unethical practices like horse-trading and ensures that elected representatives remain loyal to the party and the electorate.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The anti-defection law was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Explanation:
The anti-defection law was indeed enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao. It was added to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule through the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The amendment was introduced by the Rajiv Gandhi-led government, but it was enacted when P.V. Narasimha Rao was the Prime Minister.

Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The anti-defection law was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao with the intention of strengthening the fabric of Indian Parliamentary democracy by curbing political defections and ensuring stability in the government.

Arrange these election-related activities in the correct order from earlier to later.
1. Announcing election schedule
2. Election Campaign
3. Filing nominations for elections
Choose the correct answer from the codes below:
  • a)
    1:2:3
  • b)
    1:3:2
  • c)
    3:1:2
  • d)
    3:2:1
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • The Commission normally announces the schedule of elections in a major Press Conference a few weeks before the formal process is set in motion. The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of candidates and Political Parties immediately comes into effect after such an announcement.
  • The formal process for the elections starts with the Notification or Notifications. As soon as Notifications are issued, Candidates can start filing their nominations in the constituencies from where they wish to contest. These are scrutinized by the Returning Officer of the constituency concerned after the last date for the same is over after about a week.
  • The validly nominated candidates can withdraw from the contest within 2 days from the date of scrutiny.
  • Contesting candidates get at least 2 weeks for a political campaign before the actual date of the poll.
  • On account of the vast magnitude of operations and the massive size of the electorate, polling is held at least 3 days for the national elections.
  • A separate date for counting is fixed and the results are declared for each constituency by the concerned Returning Officer.
  • The Commission compiles the complete list of Members elected and issues an appropriate Notification for the due Constitution of the House. With this, the process of elections is complete and the President, in the case of the Lok Sabha, and the Governors of the concerned States, in the case of Vidhan Sabhas, can then convene their respective Houses to hold their sessions.
  • The entire process takes between 5 to 8 weeks for the national elections, 4 to 5 weeks for separate elections only for Legislative Assemblies.

Consider the following about Elections in India.
1. The recommendation for elections is made by the Government of India.
2. The announcement of elections is done by the Election Commission of India.
3. The model code of conduct is enforced by the Government of India.
4. The election conducting machinery is not controlled by the government.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1, 3, and 4 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2, and 4 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.
  • After the notification, the Election Commission of India announces the schedule and starts accepting nomination papers of candidates.
  • After announcing the schedule, the model code of conduct comes automatically in force that prohibits certain kinds of political activities to ensure a level playing field.

Which of these is NOT a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
  • a)
    India has the largest number of voters in the world.
  • b)
    India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
  • c)
    In India, everyone above the age of 18 has the right to vote.
  • d)
    In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • Even China has a very large number of voters in its elections. But that does not make China a democracy.
  • The existence of a democracy is not decided solely by the number of voters or the existence of voters. There are several other criteria such as free and fair elections; decision-making power with the people; freedom of speech and expression; open political competition, etc.

Based on landmark judgments passed by the Supreme Court, the Election Commission of India came up with the following mandates:
1. Every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of serious criminal cases pending against the candidate.
2. Details of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his/her family.
3. Education qualifications were not mandatory.
4. The information furnished by the candidates has to be confidential. 5. The above mandates are in the spirit of Article 19.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 and 5
  • b)
    1, 2 and 3
  • c)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  • d)
    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • Every person who wishes to contest an election has to fill out a ‘nomination form’ and give some money as a ‘security deposit’. Recently, a new system of declaration has been introduced in the direction of the Supreme Court. Every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of:
  • Serious criminal cases pending against the candidate; assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family;
  • Education qualifications of the candidate.
  • This information has to be made public. This provides an opportunity for the voters to make their decision based on the information provided by the candidates.
  • Right to Information is a part of fundamental rights under Article 19(1) of the Constitution. Article 19(1) says that every citizen has freedom of speech and expression. In 1976, the Supreme Court said in the case of Raj Narain v. State of UP, 1975 AIR 865, that people cannot speak or express themselves unless they know. Therefore, the right to information is embedded in article 19.

Which of the following Commonwealth Summit was hosted by India? 
  • a)
    15th Summit 
  • b)
    18th Summit 
  • c)
    24th Summit 
  • d)
    27th Summit 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Simran Mehta answered
India's Hosting of Commonwealth Summit

In 2018, India hosted the 24th Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) in New Delhi. The theme of the summit was "Towards a Common Future".

About Commonwealth Summits

The Commonwealth Summit is a biennial meeting of the heads of government from all Commonwealth nations. The summit provides an opportunity for leaders to discuss issues of mutual concern and to make decisions on common goals and initiatives. The first Commonwealth Summit was held in 1971 in Singapore.

Previous Commonwealth Summits

Since the first summit in 1971, there have been a total of 25 Commonwealth Summits. The most recent summit, the 26th, was held in Kigali, Rwanda in 2021. The previous summits were:

- 1971: Singapore
- 1973: Ottawa, Canada
- 1975: Kingston, Jamaica
- 1977: London, UK
- 1979: Lusaka, Zambia
- 1981: Melbourne, Australia
- 1983: New Delhi, India
- 1985: Nassau, Bahamas
- 1987: Vancouver, Canada
- 1989: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
- 1991: Harare, Zimbabwe
- 1993: Limassol, Cyprus
- 1995: Auckland, New Zealand
- 1997: Edinburgh, UK
- 1999: Durban, South Africa
- 2002: Coolum, Australia
- 2003: Abuja, Nigeria
- 2005: Valletta, Malta
- 2007: Kampala, Uganda
- 2009: Port of Spain, Trinidad and Tobago
- 2011: Perth, Australia
- 2013: Colombo, Sri Lanka
- 2015: Malta
- 2018: New Delhi, India
- 2021: Kigali, Rwanda

Conclusion

India has hosted the Commonwealth Summit once, in 2018. The summit provides an opportunity for leaders from Commonwealth nations to meet and discuss issues of mutual concern.

The area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the: 
  • a)
    Delimitation Commission 
  • b)
    Election Commission of India 
  • c)
    Census Commission 
  • d)
    President 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Dishani Das answered
The correct answer is option 'A', the Delimitation Commission.

The Delimitation Commission is responsible for determining the area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general elections in India. Let's understand this in detail:

1. What is the Delimitation Commission?
The Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 82 of the Constitution of India. It is responsible for the delimitation or division of constituencies for the purpose of elections to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and the State Legislative Assemblies.

2. Purpose of Delimitation:
The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure the equitable distribution of seats and to provide adequate representation to all sections of society. It aims to ensure that every constituency has a similar number of voters, thereby ensuring fairness and avoiding malapportionment.

3. Composition of the Delimitation Commission:
The Delimitation Commission is usually constituted by the President of India. It consists of a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India or the Chief Justice of a High Court as the Chairperson, and two other members who are either judges of High Courts or individuals qualified to be appointed as judges. The Election Commission of India provides necessary assistance to the Delimitation Commission.

4. Process of Delimitation:
The Delimitation Commission carries out the process of delimitation in a systematic manner. It takes into account various factors such as population density, geographical features, and administrative convenience while determining the boundaries of the constituencies. The process involves the identification of existing constituencies, the determination of the number of seats allocated to each state or union territory, and the demarcation of boundaries accordingly.

5. Role of the Election Commission of India:
While the Delimitation Commission is responsible for determining the area of a Lok Sabha constituency, the Election Commission of India is responsible for the conduct of elections and the implementation of the delimitation exercise. The Election Commission ensures that the delimitation process is carried out effectively and that the elections are conducted smoothly.

In conclusion, the area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general elections is determined by the Delimitation Commission. This constitutional body plays a crucial role in ensuring fair representation and equitable distribution of seats in the Lok Sabha.

he salaries, allowances and other service conditions of the members of the National Human Rights Commission are determined by the: 
  • a)
    President of India 
  • b)
    Parliament of India 
  • c)
    Chairman, NHRC 
  • d)
    Central Government 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

The correct answer is option 'D' - Central Government.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an autonomous body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is responsible for the promotion and protection of human rights in India. The NHRC consists of a Chairperson and other members, whose salaries, allowances, and other service conditions are determined by the Central Government.

Here is a detailed explanation of why the correct answer is option 'D':

1. The NHRC is an autonomous body: The NHRC is an independent institution that operates separately from the government. It is not directly controlled by the President of India, Parliament of India, or the Chairman of NHRC. This independence ensures that the NHRC can function impartially and effectively in its mandate to protect human rights.

2. Determination of salaries and allowances: The salaries, allowances, and other service conditions of the members of the NHRC are determined by the Central Government. This means that the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is responsible for the administration of the NHRC, has the authority to decide the remuneration and perks for the members.

3. Reasons for Central Government's role: The involvement of the Central Government in determining the salaries and allowances of NHRC members is essential for several reasons:

a) Budgetary control: The Central Government is responsible for allocating funds to various autonomous bodies, including the NHRC. By determining the salaries and allowances, the government can ensure that the financial resources are allocated efficiently and in accordance with the overall budgetary framework.

b) Accountability and oversight: The Central Government plays a crucial role in ensuring accountability and oversight of the NHRC. By having the authority to determine the service conditions, the government can exercise control over the functioning of the NHRC and ensure that it operates within the legal and constitutional framework.

c) Uniformity and consistency: The involvement of the Central Government in determining the salaries and allowances of NHRC members ensures uniformity and consistency across different autonomous bodies. This helps in avoiding disparities and maintaining a standardized approach in terms of remuneration and perks.

In conclusion, the correct answer is option 'D' - Central Government. The salaries, allowances, and other service conditions of the members of the National Human Rights Commission are determined by the Central Government to ensure accountability, budgetary control, and uniformity.

A state political party can be derecognized by the Election Commission of India when
1. It fails to submit its poll expenses
2. It does not reveal information under the RTI Act
3. It fails to win any seat in state elections.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) has suspended recognition of the P. A. Sangma-led National People’s Party (NPP) which was a recognized state party in Meghalaya.
  • ECI decision in this regard comes in line with the Supreme Court’s judgement in the case of Common Cause vs Union of India and others. In this judgement, SC had made it compulsory for all political parties to file their election expenditure statement within 75 days of assembly elections and 90 days of Lok Sabha elections. The de-recognition of a party does not mean it's banned.

Who/Which of the following decides the question of disqualification of a member of the Parliament, arising on the ground of defection? 
  • a)
    President of India 
  • b)
    Supreme Court 
  • c)
    Presiding Officer of the House 
  • d)
    Election Commission
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Mohit Malik answered
Presiding Officer of the House

The question of disqualification of a member of Parliament arising on the ground of defection is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House. Let's understand why this is the correct answer.

Defection and Anti-Defection Law

Defection refers to the act of leaving one political party to join another or to form a new party. To curb this practice and maintain the stability of political parties and governments, the Anti-Defection Law was enacted in 1985 as the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India. This law sets out the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection.

Role of the Presiding Officer

The Presiding Officer of the House plays a crucial role in the implementation of the Anti-Defection Law. The Presiding Officer refers to the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha. The role of the Presiding Officer includes the following:

1. Decision-making: The Presiding Officer has the authority to make the final decision on disqualification petitions filed against members of Parliament. The decision is based on the recommendations of the leader of the political party concerned or any other member.

2. Inquiry and Disqualification: The Presiding Officer conducts an inquiry to determine whether a member has incurred disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law. The inquiry involves providing an opportunity to the member to present his/her case and examining relevant evidence.

3. Timeframe for Decision: The Presiding Officer is required to decide on disqualification petitions in a timely manner. The law specifies a period of three months for the completion of an inquiry and giving a decision.

4. Judicial Review: The decision of the Presiding Officer can be challenged in the High Court and subsequently in the Supreme Court of India through a writ petition. The courts have the power of judicial review to examine whether the decision of the Presiding Officer is in accordance with the law.

Conclusion

In conclusion, the question of disqualification of a member of Parliament on the grounds of defection is decided by the Presiding Officer of the House. The Presiding Officer, either the Speaker or the Chairman, plays a crucial role in conducting an inquiry, making a decision, and ensuring the application of the Anti-Defection Law. The decision of the Presiding Officer can be subject to judicial review by the High Court and the Supreme Court.

Statement I: The provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment.
Statement II: The Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India and the Constitutional Review Commission recommended omission of the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of splits.
Codes: 
  • a)
    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. 
  • b)
    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. 
  • c)
    Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 
  • d)
    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devansh Yadav answered
Statement I: The provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment.

Statement II: The Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India, and the Constitutional Review Commission recommended omission of the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of splits.

Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. It was introduced to curb the evil of political defections, which were seen as a threat to the political stability and integrity of the country.

Statement I: The provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of a split by one-third members of the legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment.

This statement is true. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 amended the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution and removed the provision that allowed exemption from disqualification in case of a split by one-third members of the legislature party. The amendment made it clear that a member of a House belonging to any political party would be disqualified if he voluntarily gives up his membership of that party.

Statement II: The Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India, and the Constitutional Review Commission recommended the omission of the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of splits.

This statement is also true. The Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India, and the Constitutional Review Commission all recommended the omission of the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of splits. These recommendations were made to strengthen the Anti-Defection Law and prevent political defections for personal gains.

Conclusion:
Both statements I and II are individually true. Statement II provides the correct explanation for Statement I. The 91st Amendment Act deleted the provision of exemption from disqualification in case of a split by one-third members of the legislature party, and this deletion was recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India, and the Constitutional Review Commission.

A ‘by-election’ is held when
  • a)
    A party candidate during elections withdraws or dies
  • b)
    A vacancy caused by the death or resignation of a legislator is to be filled between general elections
  • c)
    The Election Commission of India thinks it to be in the best interest of the nation
  • d)
    There is no decisive winner in a general election
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
In most cases, these elections occur when the incumbent died or resigned, but they also occur when the incumbent becomes ineligible to continue in office (because of a recall, ennoblement, criminal conviction or failure to maintain a minimum attendance). Less commonly, these elections have been called when a constituency election is invalidated by voting irregularities.

What is the subject of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003? 
  • a)
    Right to Information 
  • b)
    Limiting the size of Council of Ministers 
  • c)
    Right to Education 
  • d)
    Elimination of Corruption at all Levels
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Subject of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003: Limiting the size of Council of Ministers

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 is an important legislation that aims to restrict the size of the Council of Ministers in both the Union government and the state governments. This amendment was introduced to address the issue of bloated and unwieldy ministries that had become a concern in the Indian political system.

Background:
Prior to the 91st amendment, there was no specific limit on the number of ministers that could be appointed by the President or the Governor. As a result, political parties would often expand their ministries by appointing a large number of ministers, which not only increased the administrative burden but also led to unnecessary expenses.

Key provisions of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act:
The 91st amendment introduced the following provisions to limit the size of the Council of Ministers:

1. Article 75(1A): This provision states that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

2. Article 164(1A): Similarly, this provision states that the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the state Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that state.

3. Disqualifications: The amendment also introduced disqualifications for any member of Parliament or the state legislature who accepts a ministerial position in excess of the prescribed limit. Such a member would be disqualified from holding their membership.

Significance:
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 has several significant implications:

1. Reduced administrative burden: By limiting the size of the Council of Ministers, the amendment aims to streamline the decision-making process and reduce administrative complexities.

2. Effective governance: A smaller Council of Ministers can ensure better coordination and efficiency in governance, leading to better implementation of policies and programs.

3. Financial savings: Restricting the number of ministers helps in curbing unnecessary expenses incurred in maintaining large ministries, thereby saving public funds.

4. Prevention of political patronage: The amendment prevents the formation of large ministries primarily for political patronage or appeasement, ensuring that ministerial positions are based on merit and competence.

5. Strengthening democratic principles: By curbing the size of the Council of Ministers, the amendment promotes the principles of accountability, transparency, and good governance in the political system.

In conclusion, the subject of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 is the limitation of the size of the Council of Ministers. This amendment plays a crucial role in ensuring effective governance, reducing administrative burden, and promoting financial prudence in the Indian political system.

Consider the following concerning election outcomes in India.
1. Majority of votes by a political party necessarily means a majority of seats.
2. Majority of seats garnered by a political party necessarily means a majority of votes.
Which of the above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?



Explanation:

1. Majority of votes by a political party necessarily means a majority of seats:
- In India, elections are conducted using a first-past-the-post system where the candidate with the most votes wins the seat.
- While a political party may receive the majority of votes overall, it does not guarantee a majority of seats in the legislature.
- The distribution of votes across different constituencies can vary, leading to a situation where a party may have a significant vote share but not enough seats to form a majority.

2. Majority of seats garnered by a political party necessarily means a majority of votes:
- Similarly, winning a majority of seats in an election does not always mean that a party has received a majority of votes.
- In a multi-party system like India, a party can win seats with a relatively small percentage of the total votes cast.
- This can happen if the votes are divided among multiple parties, allowing a party to win seats with a plurality rather than a majority of the votes.

Therefore, both statements are not always correct as the relationship between votes and seats in an election is complex and can be influenced by various factors such as the electoral system, voting patterns, and the number of competing parties. It is essential to consider these nuances when analyzing election outcomes in India.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. India’s “Look East” policy lays emphasis on improving cooperation with India’s neighbouring south-east and east Asian countries. 
  2. The “Look East” policy of India was initiated by the Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Only 2 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

1. India is the seventh-largest country by land area in the world.
2. India is the second-most populous country in the world, with over 1.3 billion people.
3. India is a federal parliamentary democratic republic, with a President as the head of state and a Prime Minister as the head of government.
4. India gained independence from British colonial rule on August 15, 1947.
5. India is known for its diverse culture, languages, and religions, with Hinduism being the majority religion.
6. India is one of the world's fastest-growing major economies and is classified as a developing country.
7. India has a nuclear weapons program and is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
8. India has a space program and has successfully launched missions to the Moon and Mars.
9. India has a history of conflicts and disputes with neighboring countries, including Pakistan and China.
10. India is a member of the United Nations and participates in various international organizations and forums.

Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb the political defection? 
  • a)
    42nd Amendment 
  • b)
    52nd Amendment 
  • c)
    62nd Amendment 
  • d)
    70th Amendment
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Suyash Unni answered
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 'B', which is the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment sought to curb political defection in India.

Background:
Political defection refers to the act of elected representatives changing their political party affiliation or leaving their party to join another party. It often leads to instability in the government and undermines the democratic process. In India, political defection has been a significant issue since the early years of independence.

Key Points:

1. 52nd Amendment:
- The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India was enacted in 1985.
- It introduced the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law, in the Indian Constitution.
- The amendment sought to address the problem of political defection by disqualifying elected representatives who defected from their party.
- It aimed to provide stability to the government and promote party discipline.

2. The Anti-Defection Law:
- The Tenth Schedule, introduced by the 52nd Amendment, contains provisions regarding the disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection.
- According to the law, if an elected member voluntarily gives up the membership of their party or votes against the party's directions, they can be disqualified from holding their office.
- The law applies to both Parliament and state legislatures.
- It prohibits defection by elected members and imposes penalties for defection, including the loss of membership and disqualification from holding any office.
- However, there are certain exceptions to the law, such as when a party merges with another party.

3. Importance and Impact:
- The 52nd Amendment and the Anti-Defection Law have played a crucial role in curbing political defection in India.
- They have helped in maintaining stability in the government and ensuring party discipline.
- By disqualifying defectors, the law acts as a deterrent and discourages elected representatives from switching parties for personal gain or political opportunism.
- The law has also led to legal battles and controversies, with various cases challenging its constitutional validity and interpretation.

In conclusion, the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced the Anti-Defection Law, which sought to curb political defection in the country. This amendment and the subsequent law have been instrumental in maintaining stability and promoting party discipline in the Indian political system.

Assertion (A): Pressure groups involve themselves in politics and policy-making process in India through direct and indirect means.
Reason (R): They aspire to come to power to achieve their goals.
Codes: 
  • a)
    Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A. 
  • b)
    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 
  • c)
    A is true but R is false. 
  • d)
    A is false but R is true.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Chavan answered
Assertion (A): Pressure groups involve themselves in politics and policy-making process in India through direct and indirect means.

Reason (R): They aspire to come to power to achieve their goals.

The correct answer is option 'C', that is, A is true but R is false.

Explanation:

Pressure Groups in India:
Pressure groups are organizations or associations formed by individuals with common interests and goals. They aim to influence the government and policy-making process in order to promote their interests. These groups can be classified into two types: sectional pressure groups and promotional pressure groups.

Direct Means of Involvement:
1. Lobbying: Pressure groups directly engage with policymakers and politicians to influence their decision-making. They provide information, research, and expertise on specific issues to sway the outcomes in their favor.
2. Protests and Demonstrations: Pressure groups often organize protests, strikes, and demonstrations to draw attention to their concerns and create public pressure for policy changes.
3. Advocacy and Public Relations: They engage in public campaigns, media outreach, and social media to raise awareness about their issues, gain public support, and influence public opinion.

Indirect Means of Involvement:
1. Election Campaigns: Pressure groups support political parties or candidates who align with their interests. They may provide financial support, campaign volunteers, or endorsements, indirectly influencing the political landscape.
2. Policy Research and Advocacy: These groups conduct research, publish reports, and provide policy recommendations to influence the government's decision-making process.
3. Judicial Interventions: Pressure groups may approach the courts to seek legal remedies or challenge government policies that are contrary to their interests.

Aspiration for Power:
While pressure groups aim to influence politics and policies, their primary objective is not to come to power themselves. Their focus is on promoting their specific interests and influencing the decision-making process. While some pressure groups may have political ambitions, it is not a universal characteristic of all pressure groups.

Conclusion:
Pressure groups involve themselves in politics and policy-making through direct and indirect means to influence the government and achieve their goals. However, their involvement does not necessarily imply an aspiration for power. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

The registration of political parties is done as per the provisions/decision of: 
  • a)
    Article 324 of the Constitution 
  • b)
    The Representation of the People Act, 1951 
  • c)
    The Election Commission by itself 
  • d)
    The Election Commission in consultation with cabinet committee on political affairs 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
Only an association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of Part-IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, (relating to registration of political parties) is required to get itself registered with the Election Commission of India

In which year was the Human Rights Protection Law passed in India? 
  • a)
    1986 
  • b)
    1987 
  • c)
    1993 
  • d)
    1995
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Human Rights Protection Law in India was passed in the year 1993.

Explanation:

The Human Rights Protection Law in India, also known as the Protection of Human Rights Act, was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1993. This law was passed to establish the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs) for the protection and promotion of human rights in the country.

1. Background:
- Prior to the enactment of this law, there was no dedicated institution to address human rights violations in India.
- The need for a comprehensive legislation to safeguard human rights was recognized both at the national and international levels.

2. Introduction of the Law:
- The Protection of Human Rights Bill was introduced in the Parliament in 1991.
- After detailed discussions and deliberations, the Bill was passed by both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) in 1993.
- It received the assent of the President of India on 28th September 1993, thereby becoming an Act.

3. Key Provisions of the Law:
- The law provides for the establishment of the NHRC at the national level, and SHRCs at the state level.
- The NHRC consists of a Chairperson and members appointed by the President of India.
- The SHRCs consist of a Chairperson and members appointed by the respective State Governments.
- These commissions are empowered to inquire into complaints of human rights violations, initiate suo moto investigations, and take necessary actions for the protection of human rights.

4. Functions and Powers of the Commissions:
- The commissions have the power to visit prisons, detention centers, and other places of custody to ensure the protection of human rights.
- They can also recommend measures for the effective implementation of human rights safeguards.
- The commissions have the authority to intervene in legal proceedings involving human rights violations and provide relief to the victims.

5. Impact and Significance:
- The establishment of the NHRC and SHRCs has played a crucial role in addressing human rights violations in India.
- These institutions have brought transparency and accountability in the functioning of the government and its agencies.
- They have been instrumental in securing justice for victims of human rights abuses and ensuring the protection of human rights in the country.

In conclusion, the Human Rights Protection Law in India was passed in 1993, leading to the establishment of the NHRC and SHRCs. This law has been instrumental in safeguarding human rights and promoting justice in the country.

When was the National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) set up?
  • a)
    1960
  • b)
    1970
  • c)
    1992
  • d)
    2002
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Gauri Bajaj answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - 1992.

The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was established in 1992 by the Government of India as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act. It was formed with the objective of promoting communal harmony, peace, and national integration in the country.

The establishment of NFCH was a response to the rising communal tensions and conflicts that plagued the nation during the late 1980s and early 1990s. The government recognized the need for a dedicated institution to address these issues and work towards fostering harmony among different religious and ethnic communities in India.

The key objective of NFCH is to provide assistance and support to the families affected by communal violence and to promote communal harmony through various programs and initiatives. The foundation aims to create an environment where people from diverse backgrounds can coexist peacefully and respect each other's beliefs and cultures.

Here are some key points about the National Foundation for Communal Harmony:

1. Establishment: NFCH was established in 1992 by the Government of India.
2. Legal Status: It is registered as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act.
3. Objective: The primary objective of NFCH is to promote communal harmony, peace, and national integration in the country.
4. Assistance to Victims: NFCH provides financial assistance to the families affected by communal violence, including medical aid, educational support, and rehabilitation.
5. Rehabilitation Programs: The foundation organizes various rehabilitation programs for the victims of communal violence, including skill development training, vocational courses, and livelihood support.
6. Awareness Campaigns: NFCH conducts awareness campaigns and workshops to promote communal harmony and spread the message of peace and unity among different communities.
7. Financial Support: The foundation receives financial support from the government, public donations, and other sources to carry out its activities.
8. Partnerships: NFCH collaborates with various organizations, NGOs, and government agencies to implement its programs and initiatives effectively.
9. Awards and Recognition: NFCH has instituted various awards to recognize individuals and organizations working towards communal harmony and peace in the country.

By establishing NFCH, the government aimed to address the root causes of communal disharmony and create a society where people can live together in peace and harmony, irrespective of their religious or ethnic backgrounds. The foundation's efforts have played a significant role in promoting communal harmony and national integration in India.

A pressure group is distinct from a political party in as much as it does not directly: 
  • a)
    Contest elections 
  • b)
    Finance a candidate 
  • c)
    Propagate a policy 
  • d)
    Resort to mobilisation of opinion 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nisha Desai answered
Contest Elections:
Pressure groups are different from political parties in that they do not directly contest elections. While political parties aim to gain power through winning elections and forming governments, pressure groups focus on influencing government policy and decision-making from outside the political system.
Finance a Candidate:
Political parties often provide financial support to their candidates during election campaigns. In contrast, pressure groups do not typically provide financial backing to individual candidates. Instead, they focus on raising awareness, lobbying policymakers, and advocating for specific causes or interests.
Propagate a Policy:
Pressure groups work to promote specific policies or agendas that align with their goals and interests. They engage in activities such as research, advocacy, and public education to influence public opinion and government decision-making. While political parties also propagate policies, their primary focus is on winning elections and governing.
Resort to Mobilisation of Opinion:
Pressure groups rely on mobilizing public opinion to support their causes and put pressure on policymakers. They may organize protests, petitions, media campaigns, and other forms of advocacy to raise awareness and influence government action. Political parties, on the other hand, focus on mobilizing voters to support their candidates in elections.
In conclusion, pressure groups play a crucial role in shaping public policy and promoting specific interests, but they operate differently from political parties. While political parties prioritize electoral success and governance, pressure groups focus on advocacy, lobbying, and influencing government decisions without directly contesting elections.

Who among the following is associated with the bachpan bachao andolan?
  • a)
    Medha Patkar
  • b)
    Kailash Satyarthi
  • c)
    Sidhu Kanswal
  • d)
    Jabreen Shah
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Nilesh Patel answered
  • Started in 1980, Bachpan Bachao Andolan is India's largest movement for the protection of children and works with government agencies and policy makers to strengthen the system.
  • Kailash Satyarthl is the founder of the movement.
  • He is a Nobel Peace Laureate, who envisions a world where all children are free, safe, healthy, receive quality education, and have the opportunity to realise their potential. 

To which one of the following major political parties is the Center of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) attached? 
  • a)
    Indian National Congress 
  • b)
    Communist Party of India (Marxist) 
  • c)
    Communist Party of India 
  • d)
    Bharatiya Janata Party
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Abhijeet Kumar answered
Communist Party of India (Marxist)

The Center of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) is attached to the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)). The CPI(M) is one of the major political parties in India that follows a communist ideology. CITU is the trade union wing of the CPI(M) and plays a significant role in advocating for the rights and welfare of workers in the country.

Background of CITU
The Center of Indian Trade Unions was formed in 1970 and emerged as a powerful trade union organization in India. It was established to unite and mobilize the workers across various sectors to fight for their rights and better working conditions. CITU takes up issues related to wages, job security, social security, and other labor-related matters. It has a presence in both organized and unorganized sectors and has been actively involved in organizing workers and leading various struggles for their rights.

Alignment with CPI(M)
CITU is closely aligned with the Communist Party of India (Marxist), which is a major left-wing political party in India. The CPI(M) believes in socialist principles and advocates for worker's rights, social justice, and the welfare of the marginalized sections of society. The party has a strong presence in several states, especially in West Bengal, Kerala, and Tripura.

Collaborative Efforts
CITU and CPI(M) work in collaboration to champion the cause of workers' rights and welfare. CITU not only provides a platform for workers to voice their concerns but also actively participates in policy advocacy and collective bargaining on their behalf. As part of the broader left-wing movement, both CITU and CPI(M) aim to bring about social change and reduce the exploitation of workers in a capitalist society.

Conclusion
The Center of Indian Trade Unions (CITU) is attached to the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI(M)). The close association between CITU and CPI(M) allows for a coordinated effort in addressing the issues faced by workers and advocating for their rights and welfare.

Which one of the following does not come under the concept of Non-alignment? 
  • a)
    Foreign aid from all available sources 
  • b)
    Non-involvement in military alliances formulated in the context of Cold War 
  • c)
    Faith in isolationism 
  • d)
    A demand for a better deal from the North Countries or South Countries
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Anshu Khanna answered
Non-alignment and its Concept

Non-alignment is a policy adopted by countries that choose not to align themselves with any of the major power blocs in the world. It involves the rejection of military alliances and the pursuit of an independent foreign policy. Non-alignment emerged as a concept during the Cold War when the world was divided into two major power blocs - the United States-led Western Bloc and the Soviet-led Eastern Bloc.

Non-Alignment and its Components

Foreign Aid from all available sources: Non-alignment involves seeking aid from all available sources, irrespective of their political alignment. Non-aligned countries do not limit themselves to seeking aid from any particular bloc or country. They seek aid from both the Western and Eastern Blocs, as well as from other countries.

Non-Involvement in Military Alliances: Non-alignment involves the rejection of military alliances and the pursuit of an independent foreign policy. Non-aligned countries do not participate in any military alliance that is formulated in the context of the Cold War. They pursue their own foreign policy, which is not influenced by any major power bloc.

Demand for a Better Deal from the North or South Countries: Non-alignment involves demanding a better deal from both the North and South countries. Non-aligned countries seek to promote their interests and ensure that they are not exploited by any major power bloc or country.

What Does Not Come Under Non-alignment?

Faith in Isolationism: Isolationism involves the policy of remaining separate from the affairs of other countries. It is not a part of non-alignment, which involves seeking aid from all available sources and promoting the interests of non-aligned countries. Non-alignment involves engaging with other countries, but not aligning oneself with any major power bloc or country.

Lack of ‘internal democracy’ within political parties implies
1. Concentration of power at the top in the party
2. Provincial decentralization of the party
Which of the above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Ravi Sharma answered
  • All over the world, there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings and do not conduct internal elections regularly.
  • Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party.
  • They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
  • Since one or a few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important.

Consider the following statements: 
  1. The Gujral Doctrine of India is formulated on India’s accommodating approach towards its smaller neighbours on the basis of the principle of non-reciprocity. 
  2. The Gujral Doctrine of India was initiated in 1994.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only 1 
  • b)
    Only 2 
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Datta answered
's approach towards its neighboring countries, particularly smaller ones.
The doctrine emphasizes on non-reciprocity and goodwill gestures towards smaller countries.
It advocates for resolving bilateral issues through peaceful means and mutual understanding.
The doctrine also emphasizes on respecting the territorial integrity and sovereignty of neighboring countries.

Overall, the Gujral Doctrine aims to promote regional cooperation and mutual trust among neighboring countries, with India taking the lead in fostering positive relations. It is based on the principles of non-interference, non-reciprocity, and non-violence.

Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because:
  • a)
    This membership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic. 
  • b)
    This membership only shows that the British ruled over India. 
  • c)
    Members of the association are sovereign and independent. 
  • d)
    It is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association. 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Mehta answered
This extra-constitutional declaration does not affect India’s sovereignty in any manner as the Commonwealth is a voluntary association of independent nations. It also does not affect India’s republican character as India neither pays final allegiance to the British Crown nor the latter has any functions to discharge in relation to India.

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